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Aircraft approved for ______ operations Visual (VFR), Instrument (IFR), Icing

conditions, Category I and II


Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW) 85,870 lbs
Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) 85,517 lbs
Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) 74,957 lbs
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) 69.886 lbs
Minimum Flight Crew Pilot and Copilot
Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component 10 Knots
Maximum Runway Slope +/- 2%
Runway Surface Type Paved
Flap Maneuvering Load Accelerations Limits -1.0 G to +2.5 G Flaps Up
-0.0 G to +2.0 G Flaps Down (1,2,3,4,5,Full)
Maximum Operating Altitude 41,000 '
Maximum Takeoff Altitude 8,000'
Minimum Takeoff Altitude -1000'
Maximum ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing 52C
Maximum flap extension altitude 20,000'
Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff-40C (SAT)
Maximum latitude for stationary alignment 78.25N to 78.25S
Maximum operating airspeed VMO (320 kts)
Maximum operating Mach number MMO (.82M)
Maximum airspeed for RAT operations VMO/MMO
Turbulent airspeed below and above 10,000' Below 10,000' 250 KIAS
At and above 10,000' 270 KIAS/.76M
Maximum tire limit ground speed 195 Knots
Maximum windshield wiper operation speed 253 KIAS
Maximum landing gear speeds (VLOE, VLE, VLOR) VLOE 250 KIAS
VLE 250 KIAS
VLOR 250 KIAS
Flaps 1 Maximum Speed 230 KIAS
Flaps 2 Maximum Speed 215 KIAS
Flaps 3 Maximum Speed 200 KIAS
Flaps 4 Maximum Speed 180 KIAS
Flaps 5 Maximum Speed 180 KIAS
Flaps Full Maximum Speed 165 KIAS
Maximum Operating Speed to 8,000' 300 KIAS
Maximum Operating Speed 8,000' to 10,000'300 to 320 Linearly
Maximum Operating Speed 10,000' to FL290 320 KIAS (VMO)
Maximum Operating Speed FL290 to FL410.82M (MMO)
Definition of Icing Conditions The Outside Air Temp (OAT) on the ground or for
takeoff, or Total Air Temp (TAT) inflight, is 10C or below and visible moisture in any
form is present
Maximum Fuel Capacity 20,785 lbs
10392.5 lbs or 1535.5 US Gal per tank
Unusable Quantity per Tank 75 lbs/11 US Gal per tank
Maximum Fuel Imbalance 794 lbs
Minimum Fuel Tank Temperature -40C (taken from the left wing sensor)
Crossfeed Operations Must be OFF during takeoff and landing
Max Differential Pressure Up to 37,000' 7.80 psi
Above 37,000' 8.34 psi
0.2 psi for Takeoff and Landing
Maximum Differential Overpressure 8.77 psi Positive
-0.5 psi Negative
Maximum altitude for single pack operations FL310
Do not take off with brake temp in the _______ amber
Thrust Reversers limitations Ground Use Only
Not Authorized While Taxiing
Full Stop Landings
Do NOT attempt go-around after deployment
Powerback is PROHIBITED
MIN REV thrust with the Translating Cowl open below 60 KIAS
Idle thrust with the Translating Cowl closed at 30 KIAS
Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height (Takeoff) 400'
Autopilot Minimum Use Height (Coupled ILS Approach) 50'
Type of Engine CF34-8E5
N1 & N2 Parameters N1 Max 99.5%
N2 Min 58.5% Max 99.4%
ITT Parameters Start 815C
Continuous 960C
Max T.O.G.A. 990C (5 Minutes Dual Engine, 10 Min Single Engine)
First 2 minutes of T.O. or Go Around 1006C
Oil Pressure Limits 25 psi to 95 psi
Oil Temp Limits Continuous 155C
Transient (15 Minutes) 163C
EICAS Markings Colors Red Max & Min Limitations
Amber Caution Range
Green Normal Operating Range
Maximum FLEX reduction FLEX reduction must not exceed 25% of full takeoff thrust
FLEX PROHIBITED on contaminated runways
ATTCS must be ____ for all _____ ______ ATTCS must be ON for all takeoffs and
landings
Engine Starter Duty Cycle Limits Attempts 1 & 2, 90 Sec ON/10 Sec OFF (Ground)
Attempts 1 & 2, 120 Sec ON/10 Sec OFF (Airborne)
Attempts 3,4,5 90 Sec ON/5 Min OFF (Ground)
Attempts 3,4,5 120 Sec ON/5 Min OFF (Airborne)
Dry Motoring Duty Cycle Limits Attempt 1 90 sec ON/5 Min OFF
Attempts 2,3,4,5 30 Sec ON/5 Min OFF
After 5 attempts, allow 15 min cool down
APU Starter Duty Cycle Attempts 1,2 1 Minute ON/1 Minute OFF
Attmempt 3 1 Minute ON/5 Minute OFF
APU Start Conditions Batteries 22.5V minumium
Battery #2 Temp < -20C
OAT Temp < -54C
APU EGT Limitations Start 1032C
Continuous 717C
Amber range 662C to 717C, no time limit
NO AUTOMATIC SHUTDOWN IF LIMITS EXCEEDED IN FLIGHT
APU Altitude Limitations 30,000' Max for APU Start
33,000' Max for APU Operations (Electric Supply Only)
21,000' Max for Assist Engine Start
15,000' Max for providing Bleed Air for pressurization
Maximum APU rotor speed 108%
TAS, TAT, SAT valid above 60 KIAS
Standby Compass not reliable when Transmitting on VHF #1
Baro Minimums MUST be used for All Cat 1 Approaches
LOC Back Course approaches using IESS are NOT authorized
What components power the AC electrical system 2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU Receptacle
What components power the DC electrical system 2 NiCad batteries (24VDC, 27 AH)
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU) 28VDC, 300 A
DC GPU Receptacle
How does the IDG maintain a stable power supply? A constant speed drive (CSD)
attaches the IDG to the Accessory Gear Box
What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate? High Oil
Temperature
Low Oil Pressure
What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units? Converts 115VAC to 28VDC
Can the APU replace a failed IDG? Yes, up to 33,000'
How is it known that an AC GPU is hooked up to the airplane and ready to provide
electricity? GPU Button Displays AVAIL and the GPU icon is presented on the
electrical synoptic page.
Once the GPU button is pushed in, the button will display IN USE provided another AC
power source is not available.
MEMORY ITEM: APU Fire APU Emergency Stop Button Push In
MEMORY ITEM: BATT 1 (2) Overtemp Associated Battery OFF
MEMORY ITEM: CABIN ALTITUDE HI Crew Oxygen Masks DON, 100%
Crew Communication Establish
Altitude 10000 ft or MEA, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
Thrust Levers IDLE
Speed Brake FULL OPEN
Airspeed MAX/APPROPIATE
Transponder 7700
ATC NOTIFY
MEMORY ITEM: CARGO COMPARTMENT FIRE Associated Cargo Fire
Extinguishing Button PUSH
MEMORY ITEM: CRG FWD (AFT) SMOKE Associated Cargo Fire Extinguishing
Button PUSH
MEMORY ITEM: ENG 1 (2) FIRE Autothrottle DISENGAGE
Affected Engine:
Thrust Lever IDLE
Start/Stop Selector STOP
Fire Extinguishing Handle PULL
MEMORY ITEM: JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN (PITCH) Elev Disc Handle
PULL
MEMORY ITEM: DUAL ENGINE FAILURE Airspeed 250 KIAS MINUMUM
RAT Manual Deploy Lever PULL
MEMORY ITEM: EMERGENCY EVACUATION Emergency/Parking Brake ON
Thrust Levers IDLE
Start/Stop Selectors STOP
Fire Extinguishing Handles PULL AND ROTATE (1-L and 2-R)
APU Emergency Stop Button PUSH IN
APU Fire Extinguishing Button PUSH
Pressurization Dump Button PUSH IN
ATC NOTIFY
Emergency Evacuation ANNOUNCE
Batteries OFF
MEMORY ITEM: ENGINE ABNORMAL START Start/Stop Selector STOP
MEMORY ITEM: EMERGENCY DESCENT Fstn Belts Signs ON
Altitude 10000 ft OR MEA, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
Thrust Levers IDLE
Speedbrake FULL OPEN
Airspeed MAX/APPROPIATE
Transponder 7700
ATC NOTIFY
MEMORY ITEM: JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL (ROLL) Aileron Disc Handle
PULL
MEMORY ITEM: PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY A/P Disc Button PRESS AND
HOLD
Pitch Trim Systems 1 & 2 Cutout Button PUSH IN
MEMORY ITEM: ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY A/P Disc Button PRESS
AND HOLD
MEMORY ITEM: STEERING RUNAWAY Steer Disc Switch PRESS
GPU plugged in and outside GPU panel displays IN USE means: Ground service bus is
in use
Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use.
GPU in use and APU started. Next pilot action: Deselect the GPU button before the
next GPU connection
Batteries charge source Any AC Power Source
Aircraft Batteries endurance (without charging) 10 Minutes
Purpose of the DC GPU receptacle APU start when batteries < 22.5 VDC, or
Battery temp is < -20C
Minimum Battery Temp for APU Start -20 C
Minimum battery voltage to close battery bus-ties 18 Volts
During APU Start, Battery usage BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC & EICAS for
monitoring
BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus (including DC Fuel Pump)
What is the purpose of the Inverter? Converts 28 VDC from batteries to 115 VAC to
power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available
AC STANDBY BUS powers: Engine exciters 1A and 2A
When will the RAT deploy? Automatically is AC BUSSES are not powered
How long after deployment before RAT provides power? 8 Seconds
What prevents total power failure during RAT deployment? Batteries supply power to the
DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS
RAT provides power to: ESS BUSSES
Minimum RAT airspeed 130 KIAS. Below that speed results in load shedding
What manages the electrical system? 4 Integrated Control Centers (ICC) provides power
distribution and protection.
2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA) distributes electrical loads to aircraft
systems according to distribution logic
Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote CB's? ICC - No, can only be reset
my maintenance
SPDA - Yes, via the MCDU
Electrical System Fault Logic1. Onside (Dedicated IDC)
2. Inside (APU)
3. Outside (GPU)
4. Cross Side (Opposite IDC)
Aircraft Dimensions Height 32' 3"
Length 103' 11'
Wingspan 98' 2"
Turn Radius 53' 8" Wheels
54' 4" Tail Clearance
Flight Deck Emergency Equipment PBE (2)
Halon Fire Extinguisher (1)
Flashlight (1)
Life Vests (3)
02 Masks (3)
Crash Axe
Escape Ropes (2)
Cabin Emergency Equipment PBE (2)
Halon Fire Extinguishers (3)
Water Fire Extinguisher (1)
Flashlights (2)
Megaphone (1)
Live Vests (2)
MRTs (2)
Portable O2 Bottles (2)
First Aid Kits (2)
Grab & Go Kit (1)
EEMK (1)
AED (1)
ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist Required Pubs Maintenance log can
MEL
QRH
Honeywell FMS guide
Airworthiness & Registration
2 Checklists
TOLD Cards
How to power on cockpit dome light on an unpowered airplane Flight Attendant Panel
"COURTESY LIGHTS" switch to AUTO
What charges the emergency lights 4 Emergency Light Power Units (ELPU) charged
off the DC BUS 1
Emergency Lights duration 10 Minutes
When will the Emergency Lights illuminate? Emergency Lights switch in AUTO,
and DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane's electrical power is turned off
Where can you check the potable water quantity and waste service tank systems? Aft
Flight Attendant panel
What does a fault light mean on the aft flight attendant's panel? A fault in the forward
or aft drain valve
Water level indication is not available
Where is door information presented? MFD "Status" page
What happens when EMER on the audio panel is selected? A red light on the Cabin
Light rainbow illuminates
3 hi-lo chimes sound in cabin
When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed? When the main cabin
or service doors are opened from outside the aircraft
How to tell if escape slides are armed Armed - Red "ARMED" appears above the
respective door handle
Disarmed - Green "DISARMED" appears above the respective door handle
Reinforced Cockpit Door "INHIBIT" button causes automatic open function is inhibited
for 500 seconds
How is the DVDR activated? Turned on through the MCDU
Automatically turns on when an engine is running
Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running
How many DVDRs are installed? 2
How long will the DVDR record? 2 hours of voice and radio communications
25 hours of flight data in GMT
How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up? DU 2
&3
IESS & Clock
MCDU 2
CCD 1
What is the purpose of the collector box? Keeps the fuel pumps submerged
Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
What is the surge/vent tank? Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to
the main tanks once the wings are level.
Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling
Can fuel be transferred or dumped overboard? No
What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1? Crossfeed valve is
opened
ACMP 2 pump turned on, provides fuel to both engines from right tank
What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV? Pull the associated engine fire
extinguishing handle
When will the FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented? 660 lbs of fuel
remaining in the associated tank
What airplane systems have fire detection and protection? Engines
APU
Cargo Compartments
Lavatories
Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire? Cockpit has one Halon fire
extinguisher
Cabin has 4 Halon fire extinguishers
How are the engines and APU protected from fire? Engines - 2 Halon fire bottles
APU - 1 Halon fire bottle
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed? Yes
What are the Engine and APU fire detection/protection power sources? Engine
Detection - DC ESS
Engine Protection - HOT BATT
APU Detection - DC ESS
APU Protection - DC ESS
Describe the engine and APU fire detection system Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2
loops) per engine
APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops)
Explain the 6-2-7 Rule (Fire Detection System Test) 6 Visual Warning Indicators on
Overhead Panel
2 Visual Warning Indicators on Glareshield
5 EICAS messages/2 Engine fire warnings
(2 Aural Indicators, Fire Bell and Triple Chime)
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled? Closes respective engine fuel SOV
Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV
Closes respective engine bleed SOV
(closes fuel transfer valve)
What is the indication of an APU fire? Fire Bell
Red stripe on the EMER STOP button
APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
(triple chime Master Warning aural)
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected? Only on the ground
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
APU shuts off immediately (no cool down period)
APU fuel SOV closes
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is NOT pushed after a fire has been
detected? After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge? Noq
How many smoke detectors are installed the cargo compartments? 3 detectors in the
forward compartment
2 detectors in the aft compartment
What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Recirculation fan shuts off
Ventilation outflow valve closes
Why are the recirculation fans shut down when cargo compartment fire is detected?
Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment
Prevents Halon agent from escaping into the aircraft's cabin
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartment? 2 Bottles used
for both compartments
1 High Rate bottle and 1 Low Rate bottle
Difference between the high rate bottle and the low rate bottle? High rate bottle
saturates the compartment immediately
Low rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time (60 Minutes)
How long will the low rate bottle remain active the compartment? 60 Minutes
Can one bottle be used for one cargo compartment and the other bottle used for the other
cargo compartment? No, only one compartment can be selected
What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke has been detected?
High Rate bottle discharges immediately
Low Rate bottle discharges after 1 minute (if airborne)
If WOW then low rate does not automatically discharge
During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up? Yes, by
pushing the extinguishing button again
How is the low rate bottle discharged if the airplane is on the ground? The
extinguishing button must be pushed again (2 pushes total)
Can the cargo compartment extinguisher be used if no smoke is detected? Yes, the high
rate bottle extinguisher button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to
discharge the bottle.
The low rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight.
How are the lavs protected from fire?Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins
automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached.
What kind of APU is the aircraft? Sundstrand APS 2300
Describe the APU Constant speed
Single stage impeller with a 2 stage axial flow turbine
Independent oil system
What controls the APU? A dedicated FADEC
What battery is used for the APU start? BATT 1 powers FADEC and EICAS for
monitoring
BATT 2 powers the starter (and APU Starting Bus)
What is the fuel source for the APU? Right Fuel Tank
Left Fuel Tank through the crossfeed valve
What fuel pump is used for APU start? Batteries "ON" only: DC fuel pump in right
tank.
AC powered airplane: ACMP2.
Right Engine running: Ejector fuel pump.
Will the APU shutdown automatically if speed and acceleration rate isn't reached in
starting cycle time? Yes
What does moving the APU start switch to "OFF" do? Initiates normal APU shut
down
1 Minute cool down
No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute)
Can the APU shutdown be cancelled? Yes, by moving the START switch back to
"ON" before the 1 minute cool down is over
How is the APU shutdown immediately? APU Emergency stop button
No 1 minute cool down period
What will happen if batteries are turned OFF during the 1 minute APU cool down period?
APU will shut down immediately
What will cause an APU automatic shutdown? Overspeed (Airborne and WOW)
Underspeed (Airborne and WOW)
FADEC critical fault (Airborne and WOW)
Fire (WOW)
Overheat (WOW)
Low Oil Pressure (WOW)
Can the APU be started after a critical fault? No
How many hydraulic systems are on the aircraft? 3 independent systems (HYD 1,
HYD 2, HYD 3)
What systems use hydraulic power? Flight Controls
Spoilers
Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Wheel brakes
Thrust reversers
With one system low, can hydraulic fluid be transferred from one system to another?
No
How many hydraulic pumps are one the aircraft? 6 total:
2 EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps)
4 ACMPs (AC Motor Pumps)
What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems? Reservoir
Pumps
Accumulator
What is the purpose of the accumulator Helps to maintain constant pressure by
covering transient demands.
Helps to avoid pump cavitation.
When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate? Ground: Flaps > 0 and TL set to T/O,
or Groundspeed > 50 kts.
Flight: Engine failure or EDP failure, Flaps > 0
What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system? Landing Gear
Nose Wheel Steering
Inboard brakes
L & R Inboard Ailerons
R & L Inboard Elevators
Engine 2 Thrust Reverser
Multi-function Spoilers (L & R Panels 5)
Ground Spoilers (L & R Panels 1)
What is the PTU? Power Transfer Unit, mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to
provide HYD 2 pressure.
What is the primary purpose of the PTU? To allow landing gear retraction in the event
of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure
When will the PTU automatically activate? During takeoff or landing with flaps > 0, if
Engine 2 or EDP 2 fails
How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2? Releasing the
parking brake activates ACMP 2
What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system? Back-up for the Flight Controls (it's
the "save your butt" system)
Why are HYD ACMP 3A & B pump switch positions ON & AUTO respectively? HYD
ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation.
HYD ACMP 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails.
What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source? HYD
ACMP 3A only (through the ESS AC BUS)
In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the
RAT comes online? HYD 3 Accumulator. After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP
3A
In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?
No. A flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power
draw to prevent a RAT stall
How many fuel tanks does the airplane have? 2 Integral tanks
Where is the fuel tank temperature taken? Left Tank
What types of fuel pumps are in each wing? Primary ejector pump
ACMP
DCMP (Right Wing Only)
3 scavenge ejector pumps
What is the Primary ejector pump? Venturi pump with no moving parts and no
electrical power used by the respective engine, powered by motive flow.
What is the purpose of the ACMP? Backup pump in case of primary ejector pump
failure.
Engine Start.
Crossfeed operations.
What is the purpose of the DCMP? Used for APU or engine start if AC power or the
ACMP is not available.
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps? Maintains fuel level in the collector box
What pump(s) is used once an engine is started? Associated primary ejector pump
Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard? No
What does the AMS use bleed air for? ECS (heating & cooling)
Engine Start
Pressurization
Engine and wing anti-ice
Water pressure
Hot air leak detection
How many AMS controllers are installed? One controller with 2 channels which
control the respectivew onside system
What happens if a (AMS) channel fails? The remaining channel is able to control the
entire AMS
What provides air for the AMS? Engine bleeds
APU bleed
External Pneumatic Source
What is bleed air used for? ESC (heating & cooling)
Engine Start
Engine and wing anti-ice
Water pressurization
What is external pneumatic air used for? ECS on the ground
Engine start on the ground
Where is the external ground source panel located? Lower fairing between the wings
What is the primary use for APU bleed air? ECS on the ground
Engine starting on the ground
Electrical source (FL330)
Assist with engine start (FL210)
Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling (,15,000' MSL)
Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU? No, a check valve prevents flow-back
Where is bleed air tapped from the engines? 6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and
HSV respectively)
System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure.
What is the normal pressure for any engine operation? 45 psi
What is the purpose of the pre-cooler? Cools the bleed air coming from the engine
to the AMS
What cools the pre-cooler? Ground N1 Fan
Flight N1 Fan or ram air
What does the overheat detection system (ODS) observe? Engine bleeds and packs
APU bleed
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-ice system
Do both ODS loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition? Yes,
but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat
How many ESC packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs? 2
independent packs (left and right).
Each engine provides bleed air to it's respective pack
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization? Yes, up
to FL310
Can a single bleed source power both packs?Yes, through the crossbleed valve
What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air? 52% fresh air to 48% recirculated air
When are the recirculation fans commanded off? Cockpit switch.
Smoke detected in the recirc bay.
DUMP button is pressed.
Respective pack is commanded off.
What keeps the 3 avionic E-Bays cool? RWD & CTR E-Bay have 3 fans each pull
air from the cabin to bay.
Aft E-Bay has natural air-flow from cabin to bay.
When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated? Both packs commanded or
failed OFF below 25,000'.
Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure
How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)? 2 channels, one active and
one in standby
Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation (LFE)? FMS or can be manually
selected
What happens when the dump button is pressed? Commands both ECS packs OFF
Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft at a rate of 2000 fpm
Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400' (with the pressurization dump button
pressed in). Yes, by using manual mode.
Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leaks.
In manual mode will the cabin depressurize on landing? No
What is the bleed system priority in flight? Onside Engine
Opposite Engine
APU (If Available)
If engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority? APU
has priority IF: Aircraft is on the ground, wheel speed < 50 kts, opposite engine bleed
pressure is not enough for engine start
When will the crossbleed valve automatically open? Only one side bleed source is
available
Engine 2 start in the air
Engine 1 start in the air if APU is not available
What are some things that will close the ECS packs? 1. Any engine start if APU is
the bleed source
2. Engine start on the ground
3. Respective bleed system duct leak
4. Bleed air source not available for the pack
5. TL set to MAX on takeoff
6. REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff
7. REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
Whe are ECS packs recovered? TL not at MAX, and:
1. Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
2. Airplane is > 9700 MSL with one engine operating
What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay? 1. Both recirc fans deactivate
2. Cargo recirc fan deactivates
3. Cargo outflow valve closes
Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level & landing elevation from? FMS before
takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure
LFE may be manually inputted
What color is the LFE on the EICAS? Green FMS input
Cyan Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)
What is the ABORT mode? Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if:
Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
Airplane has not climbed >5000 AFE or > 10,000 MSL
What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing? Bleed air heat, Electric heat
What uses bleed air for ice protection? Engine lips, 3 outboard slats
What uses electric heat for ice protection? Pitot-static system
Windshields
Water Lines
Pressurization Static Port
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection? Yes,
the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings. The
failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip
How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection? One. There are two
for redundancy
How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected? 5
Minutes
If "ICING" on the MCDU is set to 'OFF' and on takeoff roll icing conditions are
encountered, will the de-icing system turn on? Not until 1700 ft or 2 minutes after
takeoff (whichever happens first)
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for de-icing? No
What is protected from ice & rain? Engine inlets
Wing leading edge
Smart probes
Windshields
Water & Wast drain systems
Is the ice protection system automatic? Yes, under normal conditions
Can the pilot override the automatic system? Yes
How is ice detected in flight? 2 Ice detectors
Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it.
Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating
characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice
rebuilds on the probes.
What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations? 10th High
Stage Valve (HSV)
How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice? Engines - Independent
Wings - Onside bleed
What happens if there is a single bleed source failure? The crossbleed automatically
opens
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground? ALL
What does selecting 'ALL' on the MCDU provide? Engine anti-ice ON when engines are
running
Wing anti-ice ON at 40 kts wheel speed
If 'ALL' is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become
automatic? 1700' AGL or 5 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
If 'OFF' is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become
automatic? 1700' or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
How does the failure of one of the two power sources affect the windshield heating
system? On ground inhibited
In Flight Left side is heated (right heats if left has failed)
What does the 'TIMER' selection on the windshield wiper switch do? Activates the
associated wiper in 8 second intervals
What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield? The wiper will stop
To reset wiper move switch to 'OFF'
When do the smart probes heat? When an engine is running
Is there a test for the anti-ice system? Yes, but maintenance performs this test
How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing? Bleeds - OFF
Stab Trim - Full nose down
Flaps - UP
Engines and APU - ON or OFF
What types of engines are on the aircraft? Two General Electric CF-34-8E5
Hi-bypass 2 spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan
How much thrust do the engines produce? 13,800-14,200 lbs (ISA)
Describe N1 Spool Single stage fan, 4 stage LP turbine
Describe the N2 Spool 10 stage compressor, 2 stage HP turbine
How many igniters per engine? 2 per engine
How many igniters activate for engine starts? Ground - 1 igniter (Switch in AUTO)
Flight - 2 igniters (Switch in AUTO)
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD? Activates both
igniters on the ground or in flight
Can the igniters be turned off during flight? The switch may be moved to the OFF
position but the FADEC disregards the command. The OFF position is used for dry
motoring on the ground only.
What controls the engine? A two channel FADEC
One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup.
Is only one FADEC channel used every flight? No, they automatically alternate with
each engine start
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it
appear? The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions.
Configured for landing < 1200' RA (when anti-ice is 'ON'.
What sources are available for engine starting? 1. APU
2. Ground source (huffer cart or air bottle)
3. Opposite engine
4. Windmill start
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection? Only on the ground for a hot start,
hung start, or no light off
What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a Hot start? FADEC will not
allow FF if ITT >120 C.
FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT < 120C.
Describe the engine start sequence START switch momentarily to START
7% N2 Ignition
20% N2 Fuel Flow
20% + 5 sec Light Off
50% N2 Ignition Off
Stabilized Engine readings after start N1 27%
ITT 460C
N2 62%
FF 550 lbs/hr
Oil Pressure > 25 psi
What does WML mean on the engine indications? Windmilling engine
The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or
An assisted start has been commanded
What provides underspeed and overspeed protection? The FADEC via the FMU
Approximately 52% N2 and 102% respectively
What happens after 3 overspeed detection events? FADEC will not re-light the engine
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
What is ATTCS? What controls it? Automatic Take-off Thrust Control System
Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the
MCDU.
FADEC controlled.
What will trigger an ATTCS event? N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during TOGA
Windshear detected
When is thrust reverse available? Weight on wheels (ground use only)
What happens if a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys? FADEC limits respective
engine thrust to IDLE
What engine thrust rating(s) may only be used for 5 minutes? TO-1
TO-RSV (TL beyond TOGA)
GA (two engine go-around
GA-RSV (one engine go-around or windshear)
What is FLEX? Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature (telling the
FADEC that is is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)
Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust? No
What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly By Wire)? Ailerons
What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode? There are no higher
level functions available in direct mode
What are the higher level functions associated with pitch? Gain on airspeed
Elevator Thrust Compensation
AOA limiting
What are the higher level functions associated with yaw? Yaw damp
Turn Coordination
Thrust Asymmetry
Gain on airspeed - as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases
What is the priority for the trim system? Backup
Captain
First Officer
Autopilot
How is roll controlled? Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on
each wing)
How many multi-fuction spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions? 5 per
wing
3 outboard spoilers are used to assist in roll control and for ground spoilers.
2 inboard spoilers are only used for ground spoilers.
When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lover shows deployed?Flaps >
2
Airspeed < 180 knts
TLA > 70
What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence? Slats extend first, flaps retract first
Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into 'DIRECT" mode? Yes
Can a FCM override pilot input? No, the pilot always has supreme control
What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected? Artificial feel is felt at
1/2 the normal load.
How are the flight controls trimmed? Roll & Yaw Ailerons and Rudder surface
repositioned to a new 'neutral position', Pitch Horizontal Stabilizer
Will the mulit-function spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode? Yes, for roll only and
at a default fixed gain.
Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode? No
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?
Horizontal stab trim operates at 1/2 speed.
Slat/Flap system operates at 1/2 speed.
Slat/Flap position is limited to '3' to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
How is the landing gear extended and retracted? Electrically commanded and
hydraulically actuated?
When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound? IF the gear is not donw and
locked, and 700' RA and low TLA, or ANY altitude with flaps set > 5
Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushing the 'LG WRN INHIB' button?
Only if both radio altimeters have failed.
What are three landing gear extension modes? Normal - LG lever DOWN
Electric Override - Bypasses PSEM to directly command selector valve
Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens free-fall sequencing valve
That is the purpose of the DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?
Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock. Lock protects against
inadvertent landing gear retraction when weight-on-wheels
What keeps the gear locked in position? Extended Downlock springs
Retracted Uplock hooks
Describe the landing gear indications? Green - Down & Locked
White Up & Locked
Amber - In Transit
Red - gear position and lever disagreement (20 Sec grace)
How do the landing gear doors actuate? Mechanically, during landing gear extension
or retraction
How are the brakes commanded? Brake by Wire, Electrically commanded and
hydraulically actuated. Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake
Control Module).
What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure? HYD 1 Outboard brakes
HYD 2 Inboard brakes
HYD 1 & HYD 2 Parking/Emergency brakes
What protections are provided for braking? Touchdown - no braking until 3 seconds or >
50 kts wheel speed
Anti-skid - Compares wheel speeds and releases pressure (inop < 10kts)
Locked-wheel - Allows up to 33% differential braking for steering (inop <30kts)
How many applications will the parking/emergency brake provide?6 applications
What stops the wheels from spinning during retractions Main gear - BCM applies
brakes after weight-off-wheels
Nose gear - Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
Which hydraulic system controls the nosewheel steering HYD 2
What are the limits for the nosewheel steering? Angle varies with ground speed.
Up to 40 Kts +76
41 to 100 Kts - Decreases linearly from 76 degrees to 7 degrees
Where can O2 pressure be read? MFD 'STATUS' page (corrected for temperature)
At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)
Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen? No, the
cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators.
Once the chemical O2 generators are started can they be shut off? No
What is the minimum 02 for a cockpit crew? 2 crew - "Blue for Two" - 842 psi
3 crew - "Green for Three" - 1150 psi
What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?
Flow of O2
Mask microphone
Flight deck speaker
What happens if the TEST//RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are
removed from their storage unit? Flow of O2
Deactivates mask microphone
Deactivates flight deck speakers
What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide? Emergency -
Pure oxygen with positive pressure
100% - Pure oxygen at all altitudes
Normal - Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized?
The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the
fuselage.
What is the O2 duration for the Passengers, Flight Attendants, and PBE? Passengers -
12 minutes
Flight Attendant cylinder - 30 minutes
PBE - 15 minutes
When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy? Cabin altitude of 14000 MSL
Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
Yes, via a Manual Release Tool located at each FA station
What does the PBE provide? Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire
up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes. Blue indication: Good. Pink indication: Bad.
Vacuum loss : Bad, even with blue indication.
How many portable O2 cyclinders are installed in the cabin? 2, one in the FWD
section and 1 in the AFT section, 2 masks per cylinder.
What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck? PBE
Halon fire extinguisher
Flashlight
Life Vests
O2 Masks
Crash axe
Escape Ropes
What emergency equipment is located in the cabin? PBE
Halon fire extinguishers
Water fire extinguisher
Flashlights
Megaphone
Life vests
MRT
Portable O2 bottles
First Aid Kits
Grab & Go kit
EEMK
AED
Checklist requires "Logbook, Forms & Manuals to be checked. What are you looking
for? Maintenance log can
MEL
QRH
Honeywell FMS guide
Airworthiness & Registration
Two checklists
TOLD cards
Will the cockpit dome light illuminate on an unpowered airplane? Only if the flight
attendant panel 'COURTESY LIGHTS' switch is in 'AUTO'
How are the emergency lights charged? 4 ELPUs (Emergency Light Power Units)
charged off the DC BUS 1
How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated? 10 Minutes
When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate? Provided the switch is in
'AUTO', if the DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane's electrical power is turned off, the
emergency lights will automatically illuminate
Where does the flight attendant check the potable water quantity and waste service tank
system? Aft flight attendant panel
What does a Wast Service Tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank full
light? Tank is 75% full
Tank is Full
What does a 'fault' light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? A fault in the forward
or aft drain valve.
Water level indication is not available.
What is the purpose of a vent flap on the main cabin or service doors. To relieve
residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service doors.
What happens if a pilot selects 'EMER' on the audio panel? A red light on the Cabin
Light rainbow illuminates.
3 hi-lo chimes sound in the cabin.
When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open? 30 seconds after the
flight attendant 'EMER CALL' button has been pushed if the 'INHIBIT' button has not
been pushed by the flight crew.
What happens if the flight crew pushes the 'INHIBIT' button? The automatic open
function is inhibited for 500 seconds
How is the DVDR activated? Turned on through the MCDU
Automatically turns on when an engine is running
Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running.
Which dispalys can be reverted? Which displays cannot be reverted? MFDs can be
reverted to either EICAS or PDF.
PFDs and EICAS cannot be reverted.
Explain the 'AUTO' functions of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels EICAS -
failure Each MFD displays EICAS
PFD - failure Respective MFD displays associated side PFD
MFD - failure No auto reversion
Explain the 'PFD', 'MFD', EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel PFD -
Respective PFD will display on associated MFD
MFD - MFD cannot be reverted
EICAS - EICAS displays on the associated MFD
How many ADSs (Air Data Systems) are installed and how are they assigned? ADS 1
- Captain
ADS 2 - First Officer
ADS 3 - Standby
ADS 4 - IESS
ADS 5 - Flight Controls
What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails? ADS 3 Automatically becomes the source
If ADS 3 fails, then the respective x-side ADS is used
What happens if the ADS button is pushed? The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS
3.
The respective onside ADS reverts to the x-side ADS if the button is pushed a second
time.
The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the
respective side is already failed.
Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure? No, it must be manually reverted.
What happens if the IRS button is pushed? The respective IRS to the x-side IRS source
How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed? An
ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD
What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS's fail? IESS
What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS? LOC BC
When will the EICAS de-clutter? 30 seconds after gear and flaps are up and all
system parameters are normal.
What is the function of the EICAS FULL button? Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of
the EICAS
When will the EICAS display all of its information? When the gear is down, flaps are
exxtended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions. APU running.
What color is the course needle (CDI) when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?
FMS - Magenta
VOR/LOC - Green
X-side - Yellow
What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS? Runways > 3500ft with a
published approach
How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS? RED - 30 seconds
AMBER - 60 seconds
When should the 'GND PROX TERR INHIB' button be pushed? To cancel unwanted
terrain alerts when operating at airports not in the EGPWS database
What will generate a windshear caution? Warning? Caution - Increasing headwind
and/or updrafts
Warning - Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, and/or downdrafts
What is our policy for windshear encounters? Caution - Captain/crew discretion
Warning - Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration until warning ceases
How is the pilot alerted during a windshear? Caution - Amber windshear flag on
PFD/aural "CAUTION WINDSHEAR"
Warning - Red windshear flag on PFD/aural "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR,
WINDSHEAR"
Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance? Yes
How long will the windshear alerting last? until 1,500 ft RA
Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and or EGPWS are
inop? No
What is checked when the 'TO CONFIG' button is pushed? Parking brake - OFF
Spoilers - Stowed (not deployed)
Flaps - Set for Takeoff (agreement with FMS)
Pitch Trim - Set for Takeoff (Green Range)
What does a red ATT or HDG flag on the PFD indicate? Attitude or Heading reference
cannot be determined by the associated IRS
What does a red 'X' on the ASI, altimeter, or VSI indicate? Airspeed, altitude, or vertical
speed cannot be determined by the ADS.
What is the function of the 'GND PROX GS INHIB' button? To cancel unwanted
glideslope alerts below 2000 ft.
When will the FGCS automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle? FL250,
17 degrees bank angle
What is FPA? Flight Path Angle is a pilot-selectable pitch attitude (in degrees) of climb
or descent. FGCS adjusts thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airspeed.
What does the TOGA button do? Ground - Activates takeoff guidance crossbars
In Flight - Activates Go-Around guidance
What do the takeoff guidance crossbars do? Maintain extended runway centerline,
maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.
When is the TOGA mode deactivated? Another vertical mode is selected
Autopilot is activated
TCS button is pressed
When will the FD automatically display? TOGA button is pressed
Autopilot is activated
Windshear detection
What is the function of the TCS button? Allows manual override of the autopilot.
When released, airplane maintains new altitude (provided ALT was the active vertical
mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the
LOC/GS)
What will disengage the autopilot? AP button on GP is pushed
Any manual pitch trim is activated
Either AP/Trim DISC button is pushed
Stick shaker activated
Flight controls in DIRECT mode
Aileron or elevator controls disconnected
Overpowering the yoke
Internal system failures
Can the yaw damp be deactivated if the autopilot is on? Yes, it is independent of the
autopilot
When will the auto-throttles engage on the ground? In flight? On Ground - AT
TO(GP) is armed and TLA > 50%
In Flight - AT(GP) is armed and airplane > 400' AGL
Will the auto-throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions? Yes, up to 5 kts
What will disengage the auto-throttles? AT (TL or GP) is pushed
TLA difference > 8 degrees
TL at idle with weight-on-wheels or wheels spinning
Internal system failures
What is SPDe? Wht mode uses SPDe? Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch
is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes).
FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents.
What is SPDt? What modes use SPDt? Speed on Thrust, thrust id adjusted to
maintain selected airpspeed.
FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL
What are the AT modes? SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, HOLD, RETARD (@ 30' RA)
What does LIM & OVRD mean on the FMA? LIM - The selected vertical mode
requires more or less engine thrust than is available.
OVRD - The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)
When is CRZ automatically selected? When +100' of selected altitude for 90
seconds.
Desired airspeed must be achieved or it will remain in CLB mode.
What does the SRC button do? Selects pilot or co-pilot as the data source for the
AFCS
What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do? Disconnects the autopilot
Stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held
What does the PREV button do? Allows the capture of the ILS/BC course while still
using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE fuction is enabled on
the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS.