TECHNICAL Reviewer Compilations With Answers

IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite

Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
TECHNICAL SUBJECTS
1. What are the minimum requirements to cause the flow of current?
a. A voltage source, an ammeter, a conductor and an insulator
b. A voltage source, a switch and a resistor
c. A voltage source and a conductor
d. A voltage source, a conductor and an insulator
2. Resistance of a conductor increases when
a. its length increases b. its area increases
c. both length and area increases d. specific resistance is kept constant
3. The specific resistance depends upon
a. The area of cross-section and the length of the conductor
b. The material of the conductor, its area of cross-section and length
c. The nature of the material of the conductor only
d. The area of cross-section of the conductor
4. The presence of an electric current is made known by
a. flashing b. effects produced
c. cracking d. electric shock
5. The presence of the current is only made known by the effect it produces. Three important effects are
a. heating, electric shock and generation b. generation, chemical and electric shock
c. heating, magnetic and electric shock d. heating, magnetic and chemical
6. Voltage applied across a circuit, acts as
a. mass of electrons b. negative ions
c. a component of current d. a force
7. In a series circuit the current is
a. constant b. always zero
c. proportional to the resistance d. different in different resistors
8. In a parallel circuit the potential difference across the resistance
a. varies b. is different from the applied voltage
c. is sometimes constant d. is always constant
9. The resistance R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The ratio of values of resistance R 1 : R2 is 4 : 1. The currents in R1
: R2 will be equal to
a. 1 : 4 b. 1 : 1
c. 4 : 1 d. 4 : 4
10. A resistance of 4 ohms is connected across 100 V supply. When another resistor R ohms is connected in parallel
with 4 ohms, the total current taken from supply was found to be 50 A. The value of resistance R is
a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms
c. 5 ohms d. 4 ohms
11. The voltage applied across an electric press was reduced by 50%. The power consumed by the press will be reduced
by
a. 25% b. 75%
c. 60% d. 50%
12. Two electric presses are connected in parallel. The resistance of the first press is 100 ohms and that of the second is
300 ohms. The total current taken by both the presses is 4 A. The ratio of current taken by first : second will be equal
to
a. 2 : 3 b. 1 : 3
c. 3 : 1 d. 1.2 : 3
13. Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. Their combined conductance will be
1
a. G1 + G2 + G3 b.
G1 G2 G3
G1 G 2 G2G3 G 3 G1 1
c. d.
G1 G2 G3 1 1 1
G1 G2 G3
14. Four resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in series against 220 V supply. The resistances are such that
R1 > R2 > R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
a. resistor R1 b. resistor R4
c. resistor R3 d. resistor R2
15. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
a. supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
b. current through supply line flows at slower speed
c. supply wires are made of superior material
d. resistance of heater coil is more than that of supply wires
16. Resistors commonly used in power circuits are
a. carbon resistors b. etched circuit resistors
c. wire wound resistors d. deposited metal resistors
17. Cells are connected in parallel to
a. increase the internal resistance b. decrease the current capacity
c. increase the current capacity d. increase the voltage output
18. Cells are connected in series to
a. decrease the voltage output b. increase the voltage output
c. decrease the internal resistance d. increase the current capacity
19. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because
a. heat I2 b. of electronic collision
c. of interatomic collision d. of Joules law
20. The condition in ohms law is that
a. ratio V/I should be constant b. current should be proportional to voltage
c. the temperature should remain constant d. the temperature should vary
21. Ohms law can be applied with certain reservation to
a. rectifying devices b. semiconductors
c. electrolytes d. Thermionic valves
a. carbon resistor b. etched circuit resistors
23. Capacitors are said to
a. block a.c. and pass d.c. b. block d.c. and pass a.c.
c. pass a.c. and d.c. d. block a.c. and d.c.
24. One factor affecting voltages of the primary cell is the
a. area of the plates b. distance between the plates
c. types of plates and electrolytes d. thickness of the plates
25. The average dry cell gives an approximate voltage of
a. 1.3 V b. 1.5 V
c. 1.1 V d. 1.7 V
a. decrease the voltage output b. increase voltage output
28. One advantage of a secondary cell is that it
a. can be recharged b. can be used for portable equipment
c. it is compact, easy to carry d. cannot be recharge
29. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding
a. water to hydrochloric acid b. sulphuric acid to water
c. hydrochloric acid to water d. water to sulphuric acid
30. The ampere hour capacity of battery depends on
a. the thickness of the plates b. the area of the plates
c. the strength of the electrolytes d. the distance between the plates
31. The internal resistance of a discharged battery
a. is more b. is less
c. remains constant d. is negative
32. A fuel cell converts ________ energy into electrical energy
a. mechanical b. magnetic
c. chemical d. solar
33. In most generators the output voltage is induced by
a. rotating magnetic field past stationary coils
b. relative motion between the field and the armature coils
c. converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
d. air gap
34. The value of peak factor for pure sine wave is
a. 1.414 b. 0.707
c. 0.637 d. 1.110
35. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to product heat, the selection of conductor is based on
a. average value of current b. peak value of current
c. rms value of current d. any of the above
36. In the impedance triangle the inductive reactance and impedance phasor are analogous to the __________ and
__________ phasor respectively in the voltage triangle
a. inductive voltage, total voltage b. inductive current, total current
c. inductive voltage, resistive voltage d. inductive current, resistive current
37. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the __________ phasor and the __________ phasor
a. resistance, inductive reactance b. resistance, impedance
c. inductive reactance, impedance d. none of these
38. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points to the right. The capacitive reactance phasor points __________
while the diagonal of the rectangle having there two phasors as sides represent the __________.
a. up, impedance b. down, impedance
c. left, current d. up, total voltage
39. The impedance of a series RLC circuit is ________.
a. (R)2 + (Xl -X c )2 b. (R)2 + (Xl )2 -(X c )2

c. (R)+ (Xl -X c ) d. (R+Xl -X c )2
40. The capacitor of power factor correction are rated in terms of
a. voltage b. VA
c. KW d. KVAR
41. For the same load, if the power factor of load is reduced, it will
a. draw more current b. less current
c. same current but less power d. less current but more power
42. One of the reasons for improving the power factor is
a. to increase the reactive power b. to decrease the reactive power
c. to increase the real power d. to adjust the apparent power
43. The advantage of using static capacitor to improve the power factor is because they
a. are not variable b. are almost loss free
c. provide continuous change of power factor d. provide stability
44. An ideal current source has zero
a. voltage on no load b. internal resistance
c. internal conductance d. stray current
45. A passive network has
a. no source of e.m.f b. no source of current
c. neither source of current nor source of e.m.f. d. no circuit
46. Which of the following is an active elements of a circuit
a. ideal current source b. resistance
c. inductance d. capacitance
47. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. voltage source is an active element b. current source is a passive element
c. resistance is a passive element d. conductance is a passive element
48. Open circuit voltage is the potential difference between two points when the impedance between these points is
a. infinity b. reactive
c. zero d. capacitive
49. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire
a. Aluminum b. Silver
c. Lead d. Copper
50. As the force contact is increased, the contact resistance will
a. increase linearly b. Increase exponentially
c. remain unaltered d. decrease
51. Which of the following contact point metals has the highest conductivity?
a. Silver b. Tungsten
c. Gold d. Copper
52. A fuse is normally a
a. current limiting devices b. voltage limiting device
c. power limiting device d. power factor correcting device
53. The material used for bus bars should have
a. low resistivity b. higher softening temperature
c. low cost d. all of the above
54. Which of the following is not valid in case of aluminum as compared to copper? Aluminum has higher
a. resistivity b. coefficient of linear expansion
c. tensile strength d. joint resistance
55. Among all the a.c. systems, the most superior systems is the
a. three-phase, 3-wire with maximum voltage between conductors
b. three-phase, 3-wire with maximum voltage between conductors and earth
c. three-phase, 3-wire with r.m.s. voltage between conductors
d. three-phase, 3wire with r.m.s. voltage between conductors and earth
56. The average power factor of fluorescent and mercury lamps:
a. 70 80% b. 60 75%
c. 50 95% d. 80 90%
57. For largely capacity batteries, its is rated:
a. ampere days b. ampere hours
c. ampere months d. ampere weeks
58. The components such as resistors, capacitors, and inductors do not generate nor control power. They are called:
a. parameters b. active devices
c. passive devices d. dynamic devices
59. DC is preferred over AC for submarine transmission line because:
a. cheaper b. easier to install
c. not harmful d. a o t a
60. Poor power factor is being penalized by the utility companies because:
a. its the policy of most companies b. more fuel is needed
c. it has been the practice d. to force consumers to install capacitors
61. This is the property of coils which opposes changes in current.
a. inductance b. resistance
c. reactance d. elastance
62. The power factor of a circuit is approximately 100% if the circuit load consists only of
a. reactance coils b. capacitors
c. motors d. incandescent lamps
63. A mil is equal to
a. 0.001 of an inch b. one inch
c. 0.745 of an inch d. none of the above
64. The resistance of the coil of 1000 watt, 250 V electric lamp is
a. 2.5 ohms b. 6.25 ohms
c. 62.5 ohms d. 625 ohms
65. The rating of the batteries is given by
a. KW b. Ah
c. KVA d. VARh
66. A voltage source and a voltmeter have
a. zero and ideally infinite zero input impedance respectively
b. ideally infinite and zero input impedances respectively
c. high and low input impedances respectively
d. none of the above
67. If two resistances connected in parallel and each dissipates 10 watts, the total power supplied by the voltage source
equals
a. 5 watts b. 10 watts
c. 20 watts d. 100 watts
68. If a parallel circuit is open in the main line, the current
a. increases in each branch b. is zero in all branches
c. is zero in the highest resistive branch d. increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
69. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in
a. parallel with each other b. parallel with the voltage source
c. series with the voltage source d. series with each other
70. In which of the following circuits will produced maximum current delivered from the voltage source?
a. 5 volts across a one ohm resistance b. 5 volts across two 5 ohm resistance in series
c. 5 volts across two 5 ohm resistance in parallel d. 500 volts across a 1MQ resistance
71. Three 60 volts 60-watt bulbs are in parallel across the 60-meter line. If one bulb burns open
a. rest of the two bulbs will not light b. all three bulbs will light
c. the other two bulbs will light d. there will be heavy current in the main line
72. If a wire conductor of 0.1 ohm resistance is doubled in resistance becomes
a. 0.1 ohm b. 0.02 ohm
c. 0.2 ohm d. 0.05 ohm
73. A closed switch has a resistance of
a. infinity b. zero
c. about 500 ohms d. about 50 ohms at room temperature
74. Two 500-ohm 1-watt resistors, connected in parallel. Their combined resistance and wattage rating is
a. 5000 ohms, 1 watt b. 250 ohms, 2 watts
c. 1000 ohms, 2 watts d. 5000 ohms, 2 watts
75. A resistor connected across a 45-volt battery and produced a 1-mA of current. The required resistance with suitable
wattage rating is
a. 4.5 ohms, 1 watt b. 45 ohms, 10 watts
c. 4500 ohms, 2 watts d. 45,000 ohms, 1/3 watt
76. A 45-volt source with an internal resistant of 2 ohms is connected across a wire-wound resistor. The maximum power
will dissipate in the resistor when its resistance equals.
a. Zero b. 2 ohms
c. 45 ohms d. infinity
77. Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?
a. 1 amp DC current b. 50-amp. DC current
c. 1-amp. 60 cycles AC current d. 1-amp, 450 cycles AC current
78. When the alternating voltage reverses in polarity, the current it produces
a. reverses its direction b. has the same direction
c. has phase angle of 180 degree d. alternates at 1.4 times the frequency of the applied voltage
79. An alternating current can induce voltage because it has
a. high r.m.s. value b. varying magnetic field
c. stronger held than direct current d. constant magnetic field
80. An open coil has
a. zero resistance and high inductance b. infinite resistance and zero inductance
c. infinite resistance and normal inductance d. zero resistance and inductance
81. Inductive reactance is measured in ohms because it
a. reduces the amplitude of alternating current
b. increases the amplitude of alternating current
c. increases the amplitude of direct current
d. has a back e.m.f. opposing the voltage output of a battery
82. Inductive reactance applies to sine wave only because it
a. increases with lower frequency b. increases with lower inductance
c. depends on the frequency d. decreases with the higher frequencies
83. In a sine wave AC circuit with a resistive branch and conductive branch in parallel, the
a. voltage across the inductor leads the voltage across the resistance by 90 0
b. resistance branch current is 900 out of phase with the inductive branch current
c. resistive and inductive branch current are 1800 out of phase
d. Inductive and resistive branch current are in phase.
84. If an AC voltages is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit because
a. of high peak value
b. charging current can flow
c. discharge current can flow
d. varying voltage produces the changing and discharging currents
85. The amount of capacitive reactance with higher frequencies
a. decreases b. increases
c. is the same for all levels of frequencies d. decreases as the voltage increases
86. A steady DC voltage is applied to capacitor, after it charges to battery voltage, the current in the circuit
a. depends on the current rating of the battery b. is greater for large values of capacitances
c. is smaller for larger values of capacitances d. is zero for any value of capacitances
87. The Ohms law states that
a. V is proportional to I b. I is proportional to V
c. V is proportional to IR d. V is proportional to R
88. When two or more circuit elements are connected in series
a. the currents flowing through them are the same
b. the voltages across them are the same
c. the powers dissipated in them are the same
d. the energies stored in them are the same
89. When two or more circuit elements are connected in parallel
a. the voltages across them are the same
b. the currents flowing through them are the same
c. the powers dissipated in them are the same
d. the energies stored in them are the same
90. Resistance is measured in
a. ohms b. henrys
c. farads d. watts
91. Inductance is measured in
a. ohms b. henrys
c. farads d. watts
92. Capacitance is measured in
a. ohms b. henrys
c. farads d. watts
93. The impedance of an inductor is
a. purely imaginary b. infinite at DC
c. constant d. a sinusoidal function of frequency
94. The impedance of a capacitor is
a. purely imaginary b. infinite at DC
c. constant d. a sinusoidal function of frequency
95. At very high frequencies, an inductor acts like
a. an open circuit b. a short circuit
c. a voltage source d. a capacitor
96. At very low frequencies, an inductor acts like
a. a short circuit b. an open circuit
c. a current source d. a capacitor
97. At very high frequencies, a capacitor acts like
a. an open circuit b. a short circuit
c. a voltage source d. a capacitor
98. At very low frequencies, an capacitor acts like
a. a short circuit b. an open circuit
c. a current source d. a capacitor
99. An inductor and a resistor produced a current of I L and IR respectively. What is the appropriate expression for the total
current at the source?
a. (IR )2 + (Il )2 b. (IR ) + (Il )

c. (IR )2 + (Il ) d. (IR + Il )2
100. What is the correct expression for the total power dissipated at the inductor and a resistor, having a Q VAr and
P Watts?
a. (P) + (Q) b. (R Q)2

c. (P)2 + (Q) d. (P)2 + (Q)2
101. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a
a. steady d.c. c. pulsating a.c.
b. steady a.c. d. pulsating d.c.
102. How would you determine, from visual observation of the armature winding, whether a generator is lap or wave
wound.
a. connection to the field winding b. connection to commutator
c. connection to brushes d. the direction of the end connection
103. What classification is given you a DC generator that receives its field excitation current from internal source?
a. self excited b. controlled excitation
c. separately excited d. internally excited
104. A DC generator supplies a load of resistance 1.4 ohms through a pair of wires having a total resistance of 0.10
ohm. The voltage at the DC generator terminals is 120 V, what is the voltage across the load?
a. 110 V b. 105 V
c. 112 V d. 115 V
105. Find the voltage regulation of a generator when full-load voltage is 110 V and no-load voltage is 120 V.
a. 1% b. 9.09%
c. 90.9% d. 10%
106. The shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the series field and the armature. This
connection is known as
a. short shunt b. differential compound
c. long shunt d. cumulative compound
107. A 25-hp engine drives a DC generator, if the generator has an efficiency of 90 %, how much does it deliver?
a. 22.5 hp b. 24 hp
c. 21 hp d. 25 hp
108. Residual magnetism is necessary in a
a. separately excited generator c. both of these
b. self excited generator d. none of these
109. If commutator is dirty, clean using
a. sandpaper b. emery
c. cloth d. oil
110. Which of the following causes extreme sparking at the brushes?
a. worn bearing b. loose coupling
c. dirt on the commutator segment d. shaft misalignment
111. What is the overall efficiency of a 50-hp that draws 20 A at 2400 volts?
a. 90% b. 87.8%
c. 80% d. 77.7%
112. What is the common method of cooling transformer?
a. natural cooling b. air cooling
c. air blast cooling d. oil cooling
113. A 50-kVA transformer has a primary voltage of 6600 volts and a secondary voltage of 250 volts. It has 100 turns
on the secondary winding. Find the number of primary turns.
a. 1336 turns b. 1373 turns
c. 2640 turns d. 1733 turns
114. The starting capacitor of a single-phase motor is generally a
a. ceramic capacitor b. paper capacitor
c. electrolytic capacitor d. none of these
115. A single phase motor is taking 20 A from a 400-V supply at unity pf. What is the power taken?
a. 6,000 W b. 8,000 W
c. 4,000 W d. None of these
116. At what speed must an 8-pole, AC generator runs so that its frequency shall be 40 Hz?
a. 750 rpm b. 600 rpm
c. 900 rpm d. 500 rpm
117. A certain alternator has 8 poles. At what speed must the alternator runs in order to have a generated emf whose
frequency is 40 Hz?
a. 580 rpm b. 750 rpm
c. 700 rpm d. 600 rpm
118. When the speed of the alternator increases, the frequency
a. varies exponentially b. remains the same
c. increases d. decreases
119. What limits the size of an induction motor that can be started across the line?
a. Distribution system network b. Horsepower rating
c. Branch circuit protection d. Power supply
120. Wound rotors are usually started by the use of what type of starter?
a. secondary resistance starter b. primary resistance starter
c. auto transformer type d. wye-delta starter
121. To measure the power taken by a DC electric motor with only a single instrument you should use
a. voltmeter b. an ammeter
c. a wattmeter d. a power factor meter
122. The speed of a DC shunt motor is generally regulated by means of a
a. switch for reversal of the armature supply b. source of variable supply voltage
c. variable resistance in the armature circuit d. rheostat in the field circuit
123. A carbon brush in a DC motor should exert a pressure of about 1 lbs. per square inch on the commutator. A
much lighter pressure would be most likely to result in
a. sparking at the commutator b. vibration of the armature
c. the brush getting out of line d. excessive wear of the brush holder
124. If the no-load speed of a squirrel cage type induction motor connected to a three phase 25 cycle line is 373 rpm,
the motor has
a. 2 poles b. 4 poles
c. 6 poles d. 8 poles
125. The input to a motor is 16,000 watts and the motor losses total 3,000 watts. The efficiency of the motor is most
nearly
a. 68.4% b. 81.25%
c. 84.21% d. 87.5%
126. While a certain DC shunt motor is driving a light load, part of the field winding becomes short circuited. The motor
will most likely
a. increase its speed b. decrease its speed
c. remain at the same speed d. come to a stop
127. When a certain motor is started up, the incandescent lights fed from the same circuit dims down somewhat and
then return to approximately normal brightness as the motor comes up to speed. This definitely shows that the
a. starting current of the motor is larger than the running current
b. insulation of the circuit wiring is worn
c. circuit fuse is not making good contact
d. incandescent lamps are too large for the circuit
128. If a single-phase induction motor draws 10 amperes at 240 volts, the power taken by the motor
a. will be 2400 watts
b. will be more than 2400 watts
c. will be less than 2400 watts
d. may be more or less than 2400 watts depending on the power factor
129. In a method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system using one wattmeter, total power is the wattmeter
deflection multiplied by
a. 1 b. 2
c. 1.732 d. 1.5
130. In the current transformer method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system using one wattmeter, total
power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by
a. 1 b. 2
c. 1.7325 d. 1.5
131. It is the power required to drive the unexcited dc machine at normal speed with its brushes lifted
a. Friction and windings loss b. brush friction loss
c. exciter loss d. ventilation loss
132. In starting a 500 hp, 2300-volt, 3-phase synchronous motor the field winding is initially short circuited so as to
a. produce much larger starting torque
b. lower voltage produced between the layers of the field winding
c. increased induced voltage in field winding
d. provide better flux distribution in the air gap
133. In parallel operation of alternator, if the excitation of one alternate is changed it will only change
a. real power taken by the machine b. reactive power taken by the machine
c. apparent power taken by the machine d. synchronizing power of the machine
134. For parallel operation of DC generators
a. the frequency must be the same b. the voltage must be the same
c. phase sequence must be the same d. speed must be the same
135. The simplest form of motor controller is
a. toggle switch b. magnetic switch
c. drum switch d. relay
136. Another name for a magnetic starter is a
a. manual switch b. manual starter
c. contactor d. magnetic control
137. A 2- pole AC generator is running at 1,500 rpm. What is the frequency?
a. 25 Hz b. 50 Hz
c. 60 Hz d. none of these
138. An isolating switch is one that is _______.
a. intended for cutting off an electrical circuit from its source of power
b. required to have a padlock
c. primarily used with an isolation transformer
d. used only for heavy motor overloads
139. If full rating of a transformer is 90 kW at a power factor of 0.9 then its kVA rating is
a. 81 b. 100
c. 90 d. 120
140. An autotransformer is preferred to a conventional 2-winding transformer
a. because it is much safer to use an auto-transformer
b. where large number of secondary taps are needed
c. where it is required to electrically isolate the two windings
d. where ratio of transformer is low
141. Current transformers for meters and relays usually have
a. 10-A secondary b. a 10:1 ratio
c. 5-A secondary d. a 1:1 ratio
142. The power frequency used for electrical machine in air craft system is preferred to be 400 Hz rather than 60 Hz
because
a. More efficient b. Less Heat and Less Power loss
c. Life span of the machine increase d. Less weight
143. Dust should never be allowed to accumulate on the windings and core of a dry-type transformer because it
a. may short circuit the windings b. reduces dissipation of heat
c. tends to corrode metal surfaces d. absorb oil and grease
144. The relative polarity of the windings of a transformer may be determined by
a. short-circuit test b. phasing-out
c. open-circuit test d. polarity test
145. The most common cause of contamination by water of oil used in transformer located indoors is
a. condensation of moisture from air in the upper part of the tank
b. decomposition of organic matter in the oil
c. leaky bushings
d. use of filter blotters that have absorbed moisture from air
146. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is
a. winding insulation b. iron core
c. frame or case d. copper winding
147. In general, the most important point to keep under constant watch during the operation of a transformer is its
a. primary voltage b. copper loss
c. core loss d. temperature
148. Oil is invariably used in large transformer in order to
a. insulate the frame b. lubricate the core
c. insulate the core and the coil d. lubricate the coils
149. The secondary winding of a current transformer whose primary is carrying current should
a. not be opened-circuited b. not be short-circuited
c. always be short-circuited d. not to be connected to the current coil of a wattmeter
150. In relation to a transformer, the ratio 20:1 indicates that
a. there are 20 turns on primary and one turn on secondary
b. primary voltage is 1/20th of secondary voltage
c. primary currents is 20 times greater than secondary current
d. for every 20 turns on primary, there is one turn on secondary
151. The stray losses in the transformer will be reduced if
a. the laminations are thick
b. number of turns in the primary in winding is reduced
c. the number of turns in the secondary winding is reduced
d. the laminations are thin and the core is ferromagnetic
152. The speed of DC series motor at no load is
a. zero b. 1500 rpm
c. Very fast d. 3000 rpm
153. The function of commutator in DC generator is
a. to change alternating current to direct current
b. to improve commutation
c. for easy control
d. to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
154. In practice the rotation of electric motor referred to its back is
a. clockwise b. counterclockwise
c. forward d. reverse
155. How many contactor is needed to reverse the rotation of a three phase motor
a. three b. four
c. six d. one
156. For the equal output the total current is more in
a. wave winding b. lap winding
c. simplex lap winding d. none of the above
157. What is standard instrument to measure the speed of a motor?
a. pyrometer b. gyrometer
c. tachometer d. synchroscope
158. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited the Power factor will be
a. lagging b. leading
c. unity d. more than unity
159. In a small dc machine, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but skewed. Though skewing makes winding
a little more difficult, yet it result in_______________________.
a. Quiter operation b. slight decrease in loss
c. Saving of copper d. decrease power loss
160. In a given machine. How may the no? Of parallel paths be increased in the armature of lap connected.
a. Increasing the number of magnetic pole
b. Increasing the excitation
c. Decreasing the speed
d. Parallel path is constant, it cannot be altered
161. In the design of Power Supply, transformer should not be place near the component because of
vibration/humming due to
a. magnetostification b. magnetostriction
c. ferroresonance d. harmonics
162. Which of the following motor is used in the Electric train?
a. AC series motor b. Induction motor
c. DC series motor d. Synchronous motor
163. Which of the following motors has high starting torque?
a. DC shunt motor b. Squirrel cage induction motor
c. DC series motor d. AC series motor
164. Which transformer has only one winding.
a. distribution b. power
c. autotransformer d. isolated winding transformer
165. What is the equation for the DC generator
a. E= VT+IaRa b. E= VT-IaRa
c. E=-VT+IaRa d. E=-VT-IaRa
166. The dummy coil in the DC machines is used to
a. eliminate armature reaction b. bring out mechanical balance of armature
c. eliminate reactance voltage d. none of the above
167. A generator has a commercial efficiency of 95% and a mechanical efficiency of 97%. Find the electrical efficiency
a. 97.94% b. 92.12%
c. 96% d. 91.25%
168. A part of a generator that links the generator to the prime mover
a. yoke b. brush
c. shaft d. stator
169. A magnet is being heated to a temperature of 460. What do you think will happen
a. it will become a loadstone b. Magnetic field will increase
c. It will produce demagnetization d. Magnetism will disappear
170. What should be the possible no. of poles to obtain the highest operating speed
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
171. _______________ the slot teeth will make the DC generator quieter in operation
a. Chamfering b. Slotting
c. Pulsating d. Commutating
172. Transformer core uses small frequency because is laminated
a. because it is difficult to fabricate solid core of high frequency
b. because laminated core operating at low frequency provides high flux density
c. to minimized eddy current and hystressis losses
d. to increase the main flux
173. The mechanical power developed by the DC motor is maximum when
a. back e.m.f is equal to applied voltage
b. back e.m.f. is equal to zero
c. back e.m.f. is equal to half the applied voltage
d. no load
174. A generator may lost residual magnetism because of excessive
a. vibrator b. heating
c. over-excitation d. varying loads
175. Which among the following types of motor with same power rating having the same voltage level is the heaviest
a. single phase Motor b. DC shunt Motor
c. Induction Motor d. DC compound Motor
176. Electric power is transformed from one coil to the other coil in a transformer
a. Physically b. magnetically
c. Electrically d. electromagnetically
177. Electric motors are rated in
a. kW b. BHP
c. kWH d. kVA
178. A hot smoky motor is a good indication of:
a. A ground b. An open
c. A and B d. A short
179. A transformer is more efficiently utilized when the load has a ______ power factor.
a. low b. medium
c. average d. high
180. What is the turns ratio on a three-phase, four wire 480/240/120 volt transformer?
a. 3/1 b. 2/1
c. 4/1 d.
181. With a 3 delta-wye connected transformer 480 V primary, 208/120 V secondary, the secondary line current is
________.
a. equal to the secondary phase current b. greater than the secondary phase current
c. less than the secondary phase current d. 1.732 times the secondary phase current
182. On a delta three-phase four-wire secondary, how many hot wires may use the common neutral?
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
183. A 25 kVA, 2400/240 volt transformer has a primary current of 10 A. What is the secondary current?
a. 0.10 A b. 100 A
c. 20 A d. 50 A
184. The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 V, 60 Hz AC generator is accomplished by
adjusting the
a. number of poles b. prime mover speed
c. alternators field excitation d. load on the alternator
185. The transformer oil used in a transformer provides
a. insulation and cooling b. insulation, cooling and lubrication
c. insulation and lubrication d. cooling and lubrication
186. What is the common method of cooling transformer?
a. natural cooling b. air cooling
c. air blast cooling d. oil cooling
187. In a squirrel cage induction motor, which component is NOT a part of the motor?
a. stator b. slip rings
c. fan blades d. rotor
188. A 25-hp engine drives a DC generator, if the generator has an efficiency of 84%, how much does it deliver?
a. 20 hp b. 24 hp
c. 21 hp d. 25 hp
189. In a DC circuit, the ratio of watts to voltamperes is always _________.
a. unity b. greater than
c. less than one d. cannot tell what it might be
190. What is common in the two windings of a transformer
a. electric circuit b. magnetic circuit
c. winding wire gauge d. none of these
191. Preferably, the resistance between the primary and the secondary of a transformer should be
a. as low as possible
b. as high as possible
c. low or high depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
d. high or low depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
192. The resistance of low voltage side of a transformer
a. is equal to resistance of its high voltage side
b. is more than resistance of its high voltage side
c. is less than the resistance of its high voltage side
d. (b) or (c)
193. The basic property of the transformer is that it changes the voltage level of an a.c. signal
a. without changing the power b. without changing its shape
c. without changing its frequency d. without changing power, frequency or shape
194. Transformers are rated in
a. KW b. KV
c. KWH d. KVA
195. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?
a. Air core b. Closed iron core
c. Aluminum core d. Open iron core
196. Which of the following is a correct statement about eddy currents?
a. Eddy currents improve the efficiency of a motor b. Eddy currents heat up the metal parts
c. Eddy current do not influence the movement d. Eddy currents are used for arc welding
197. Which of the statement given below is true about autotransformer?
a. It has two separate windings connected in series externally
b. It can only step down the voltage
c. It has only one winding
d. It is most suitable for power transformer
198. In any transformer the voltage per turn in primary and secondary remains
a. always different b. always same
c. always in ratio of 1 d. sometimes same
199. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
a. no load b. half load
c. near full load d. little more than full load
200. The size of a transformer core will depend on
a. frequency b. flux density of the core material
c. area of the core d. (a) and (b) both
201. Out of the following, select the best conductor of electricity
a. Graphite b. China clay
c. Porcelain d. None of these
202. The specific resistance p is defined as
a. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1m and cross-section of 1m2 at 25 C
b. resistance of any conductor at 25 C
c. resistance of any conductor at 20 C
d. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1m and a cross-section of 1cm2 at 25 C
203. The value of joules mechanical equivalent of heat, J, is equal to
a. 4.2 calories per joule b. 2.4 joules per calorie
c. 4.2 joules per calorie d. 4.2 joules
204. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because
a. heat I2 b. of electronic collision
c. of interatomic collision d. of Joules law
205. The condition in ohms law is that
a. ratio V/I should be constant b. current should be proportional to voltage
c. the temperature should remain constant d. the temperature should vary
206. Ohms law is applicable to
a. electric arc b. rectifying devices
c. gas discharge lamps d. none of the above
207. Ohms law can be applied with certain reservation to
a. rectifying devices b. semiconductors
c. electrolytes d. Thermionic valves
208. The presence of an electric current is made known by
a. flashing b. effects produced
c. cracking d. electric shock
a. carbon resistor b. etched circuit resistors
210. International ohm is defined in terms of resistance of
a. a column of mercury b. a cube of carbon
c. unit length of metal wire d. a cube of copper
211. A natural magnet is called
a. steel b. lodestone
c. magnetism d. soft iron
212. Externally, magnetic line of force travel
a. south to north b. north to south
c. negative to positive d. in both the directions
213. A material commonly used for shielding or screening magnetism is
a. brass b. aluminum
c. copper d. soft iron
214. Iron becomes magnetized by induction when it is
a. heated b. suspended east and west
c. near to one end of a magnet d. treated with some chemicals
215. Permeance is analogous to
a. conductance b. resistance
c. reluctance d. none of these
216. When the magnetic flux ( ) and the area (A) under its influence are known, the magnetic flux density (B) can be
given as
a. B = x A b. B = /A
c. B =A/ d. B = xA2
217. The relative permeability of paramagnetic substance is
a. slightly less than 1 b. equal to 1
c. slightly greater than 1 d. very much greater than 1
218. The magnetization in any magnetic material appears as a result of
a. electrons orbital motion b. electron spin
c. spin of the nucleus about its axis d. all of these
219. Which of the following materials does not have permanent magnetic dipole
a. Paramagnetic b. Antiferromagnetic
c. Diamagnetic d. Ferromagnetic
220. Interaction between the neighbouring dipoles is negligible in case of a
a. Paramagnetic material b. Diamagnetic material
c. Antiferromagnetic material d. Ferrimagnetic material
221. Each Ferromagnetic material has characteristic temperature above which its properties are quite different from
those below that temperature. This temperature is called
a. Transistion temperature b. Faradays temperature
c. Demagnetization temperature d. Curie temperature
222. The relative permeability u for iron is
a. 5000 b. 7000
c. 3000 d. 1000
223. Which of the following material is used for making permanent magnets
a. Carbon steel b. Platinum cobalt
c. Alnico V d. all three mentioned above
224. Ferromagnetic materials generally behave as a
a. semi-conductor b. conductor
c. insulator d. any of a, b or c
225. Eddy current loss can be minimized by
a. decreasing the resistance of magnetic medium b. increasing the resistance of magnetic medium
c. decreasing the permeability of magnetic medium d. none of these
226. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Whenever the flux linking with the coil or circuit changes emf is produced
b. The direction of dynamically induced emf can be determined by Flemings right hand rule
c. Coefficient of coupling for tightly coupled coil is zero
d. The coefficient of self-inductance is proportional to the square of number of turns on it
227. A collapsing field around a coil
a. tends to oppose the decay of coil current b. helps the decay of coil current
c. tends to aid current flow reversal d. does not effect the coil current flow
228. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
a. magnetic potential b. flux density
c. magnetic field intensity d. relative permeability
229. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in that conductor. Above statement is due to
a. Joules law b. Coulombs law
c. Faradays law d. Weber and Ewings theory
230. In the left hand rule, thumb always represents
a. voltage b. current
c. direction of force on conductor d. magnetic field
231. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with which parameter of
electric circuit?
a. e.m.f b. current density
c. conductivity d. current
232. The law that induces emf and current always opposes the cause producing them was discovered by
a. Lenz b. Faraday
c. Maxwell d. Ohm
233. The growth of current in an inductive circuit follows
a. hyperbolic law b. Ohms law
c. exponential law d. linear law
234. The time constant of an inductive circuit is defined as the ratio of
a. R/L b. Rt/L
c. Lt/R d. L/R
235. The coupling coefficient denotes
a. the degree of magnetic linkage b. whether the reluctance remains constant
c. the variation of inductance between the two coils d. whether the flux linkage is constant
236. It is difficult to magnetize steel because of its
a. low permeability b. high retentivity
c. high permeability d. high density
237. Hysteresis losses can be reduced by
a. using grain-oriented silicon steel b. increasing the frequency of the field
c. laminating the core d. none of these
238. The absolute permittivity of vacuum is taken as
a. 8.854 x 10-6 farad/m b. 8.854 x10-12 farad/m
c. 8.854 x10-9 farad/m
239. The unit of field intensity is
a. coulomb b. coulomb/m2
c. newtons/coulomb
240. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
a. moisture content b. thickness
c. temperature d. all of the above
241. Which medium has highest value of dielectric strength?
a. Glass b. Mica
c. Porcelain d. Quartz
242. Capacitors are said to
a. block a.c. and pass d.c. b. block d.c. and pass a.c.
c. pass a.c. and d.c. d. block a.c. and d.c.
243. The effect of the dielectric is to
a. increase the capacitance b. decrease the capacitance
c. reduce the working voltage d. increase the distance between the plates
244. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
a. maximum b. minimum
c. zero d. depends on the size and voltage
245. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
a. metal plates b. dielectric
c. dielectric as well as metal plates
246. One farad is
a. coulomb-Joule b. one coulomb per volt
c. Joule per volt d. one volt per coulomb
247. If a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the field strength
a. decreases b. increases
c. remain same d. becomes zero
248. A capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging circuit is given by
a. RC b. 1/RC
c. C/R d. R/C
249. A circuit component that opposes the changes in the circuit voltage is
a. resistance b. inductance
c. capacitance d. none of the above
250. The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity which passes
through the electrolyte. The above statement is associated with
a. Gausss theorem b. Laplace law
c. Weber and Ewings theory d. law of electrolysis
251. In electroplating , the positive electrode is called the
a. cathode b. terminal
c. anode d. iontrap
252. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its
a. current value b. specific gravity
c. acid content d. voltage output
253. One factor affecting voltages of the primary cell is the
a. area of the plates b. distance between the plates
c. types of plates and electrolytes d. thickness of the plates
254. The action in the primary cell can be rectified by
a. chemical action to mechanical energy b. chemical action to electrical energy
c. electrical energy into mechanical energy d. electrical energy into magnetic energy
255. The two main defects of the primary cell are
a. polarization and sulphation b. local action and polarization
c. bucking and polarization d. sulphation and bucking
256. The average dry cell gives an approximate voltage of
a. 1.3 V b. 1.5 V
c. 1.1 V d. 1.7 V
a. decrease the voltage output b. increase voltage output
259. One advantage of a secondary cell is that it
a. can be recharged b. can be used for portable equipment
c. it is compact, easy to carry d. cannot be recharge
260. The composition of secondary cell is
a. zinc, copper and dilute sulphuric acid b. zinc, carbon and dilute sulphuric acid
c. lead, lead peroxide and dilute sulphuric acid
261. The condition of a secondary cell can be determined by
a. its terminal voltage b. the color of the electrolyte
c. level of the electrolyte d. the terminal voltage and strength of the electrolyte
262. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding
a. water to hydrochloric acid b. sulphuric acid to water
c. hydrochloric acid to water d. water to sulphuric acid
263. The ampere hour capacity of battery depends on
a. the thickness of the plates b. the area of the plates
c. the strength of the electrolytes d. the distance between the plates
264. The internal resistance of a discharged battery
a. is more b. is less
c. remains constant d. is negative
265. A partially discharged lead storage battery may be brought back to full charge by
a. adding sulphuric acid b. adding distilled water
c. applying a.c. voltage across the terminal d. applying d.c. voltage across the terminal
266. Charging a lead-acid cell causes the electrolyte to become
a. stronger b. stable
c. weaker d. water
267. A fuel cell converts ________ energy into electrical energy
a. mechanical b. magnetic
c. chemical d. solar
268. A cell which is used as voltage reference source for instrument calibration is
a. solar cell b. dry cell
c. mercury-cadmium cell d. nickel-cadmium cell
269. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a
a. steady d.c. b. steady a.c.
c. pulsating d.c. d. pulsating a.c.
270. What effect on current flow does reversing the direction of movement of a conductor in the magnetic field of a
generator have
a. neutralizes the current flow b. has no effect on current
c. it reverses the direction of current flow
271. In most generators the output voltage is induced by
a. rotating magnetic field past stationary coils
b. relative motion between the field and the armature coils
c. converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
272. What classification is given to a d.c. generator that receives its field excitation current from internal source?
a. self-excited b. controlled excited
c. separately-excited d. internally excited
273. The shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both series field and the armature. This connection
is known as
a. short shunt b. long shunt
c. differential compound d. cumulative compound
274. Residual magnetism is necessary in a
a. separately excited generator b. self excited generator
c. both of these d. none of these
275. Electric d.c. generators have normally, an overall efficiency of the order of
a. 60 - 80% b. 75 - 85%
c. 80 - 90% d. 85 - 95%
276. The armature magnetic field has effect that
a. it demagnetizes or weakens the main flux b. it cross magnetizes, or distorts it
c. it magnetizes or strengthens the main flux d. (a) and (b)
277. In a d.c. generator the flux is seen to be _______ at the trailing pole tips and also _______ at the leading pole tips
a. weakend, weakend b. weakend, crowded
c. crowded, weakend d. same, same
278. In the commutation process it is the
a. current which is getting reversed b. voltage which is getting reversed
c. both of these d. none of these
279. In any d.c. generator the emf generated in the armature is maximum when
a. rate of change of flux linked is minimum b. rate of change of flux is maximum
c. flux linked with conductor is maximum d. flux linked with conductor is minimum
280. A simple method of increasing the voltage of an d.c. generator is
a. to decrease the air gap flux density b. to increase the speed of rotation
c. to decrease the speed of rotation d. to increase the length of the armature
281. The function of interpole or compole is
a. to neutralize the reactance voltage and help in commutation process
b. to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction
c. to neutralized the demagnetizing effect of the armature
d. a and b
282. Interpoles are connected in __________with the armature and compensating windings are connected in
__________ with the armature
a. series, series b. series, shunt
c. shunt, series d. shunt, shunt
283. Generators are often preferred to be run in parallel because of having the advantages of
a. great reliability b. generator efficiency
c. meeting greater load demands d. all of the above
284. Critical resistance of a d. c. generator Rc
a. Rc (speed ) 1 b.Rc (speed)
c. Rc (speed)2 d. Rc (speed)-2
285. Shunt generator are used where the main requirement is a constant
a. current and voltage b. current
c. voltage over a wide load range d. voltage over a narrow load range
286. Equalizer connections are required when paralleling two
a. compound generators b. series generators
c. shunt generators
287. Interpoles are normally connected in
a. parallel with the field b. series with the field
c. parallel with the load d. series with the load
288. DC generator preferred for charging automobile batteries is
a. shunt generator b. series generator
c. long shunt compound generator
289. Which loss in dc generator varies with load
a. copper loss b. eddy current loss
c. hysteresis loss d. windage loss
290. In a shunt generator the voltage built up generally restricted by
a. speed limitation b. armature heating
c. saturation of iron
291. The armature of a dc generator is laminated to
a. reduce the bulk b. insulate the core
c. reduce eddy current loss d. provide passage for cooling air
292. With dc generator which of the following regulation is preferred
a. 1% regulation b. 50% regulation
c. infinite regulation d. 100%regulation
293. The function of the commutator in a dc machine is
a. to change alternating current to direct current b. to improve commutation
c. for easy speed control d. to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
294. Carbon brushes are used in electric motors to
a. brush off carbon deposits on the commutator b. provide a path for flow of current
c. prevent overheating of armature windings d. prevent sparking during commutation
295. The speed of a dc motor is
a. directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux
b. inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional to flux
c. directly proportional to emf as well as flux
d. inversely proportional to emf as well as flux
296. In a dc motor iron losses occur in
a. the yoke b. the armature
c. the field d. none of these
297. An external resistance is added in the series with the field of a dc shunt motor. When the motor runs, the effect
of resistance
a. to reduce the speed of the motor
b. to increase the speed of the motor
c. to reduce the armature current drawn by the motor
d. to reduce the losses
298. If the speed of a dc shunt motor increases, the back emf
a. increases b. decreases
c. remain constant d. decreases and then increase
299. The current flowing in the conductors of a dc motor is
a. ac b. dc
c. ac as well as dc d. transients
300. As the load is increased the speed of a dc shunt motor will
a. remain constant b. increase proportionately
c. increase slightly d. reduce slightly
301. One dc motor drives another dc motor. The second dc motor when excited and driven
a. runs b. does not run as a generator
c. runs as a generator d. also runs as a motor
302. In dc shunt motor, if the terminal voltage is reduced to half and torque remains the same, then
a. speed will be half and armature current also will be half
b. speed will be half but armature current remains the same
c. speed will be half and armature current becomes double
d. speed and armature current will remain the same
303. The torque of a motor is
a. the force in N-m acting on the rotor
b. the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
c. the electrical power in KW
d. the power given to load being driven by the motor
304. The power stated on the name plate of any motor is always
a. the output power at the shaft b. the power drawn in KVA
c. the power in KW d. the gross power
305. A starter is necessary to start a dc motor because
a. it starts the motor b. it limits the speed of the motor
c. it limit the back emf to a safe value d. it limits the starting current to a safe value
306. The direction of rotation of a dc motor is reversed by
a. reversing armature connections b. interchanging the armature and field connection
c. adding resistance to the field current d. reversing supply connection
307. Which of the following is a correct statement about a series motor?
a. its field winding consists of thicker wire and less turns
b. it can run easily without load
c. it has an almost constant speed
d. it has a poor torque
308. The speed of a series motor at no load is
a. zero b. 3000 rpm
c. 3600 rpm d. infinity
309. If the back emf in a dc motor is absent, then
a. motor will run at very high speed b. motor will run at very slow speed
c. motor will not run at all d. motor will burn
310. A series motor is started without load. The effect is that
a. the torque increases rapidly b. the speed increases rapidly
c. the current drawn increases rapidly d. the back emf decreases
311. If the field of a dc shunt motor is opened
a. it will continue to run at its rated speed b. the speed of the motor will become very high
c. the motor will stop d. the speed of motor will decrease
312. Armature reaction is attributed to
a. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the armature current
b. the effect of magnetic field set-up by field current
c. copper loss in the armature
d. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the back emf
313. When the electric train is moving down a hill the dc motor acts as
a. dc series motor b. dc shunt motor
c. dc series generator d. dc shunt generator
314. Which of the following motors is suitable for high starting torque?
a. Shunt motor b. Cummulative compound motor
c. Series motor d. Compound motor
315. Interpoles are meant for
a. increasing the speed of the motor b. decreasing counter emf
c. reducing sparking at the commutator d. converting armature current to dc
316. It is preferable to start a dc series motor with some mechanical load on it because
a. it will not run at no load
b. it acts as starter to the motor
c. it may develop excessive speed and damage itself
d. none of these
317. If the flux of a dc motor approaches zero, its speed will approach
a. infinity b. zero
c. a stable value nearer to the speed d. none of these
318. As the load is increased, the speed of a shunt motor
a. remains constant b. increases slightly
c. reduces slightly d. none of these
319. The main function of a commutator in d.c. motor is to
a. prevent sparking b. convert ac to dc
c. reduce friction d. convert dc to ac
320. A 60 Hz frequency would cause an electric light to
a. turn on and off 120 times per second b. flicker noticeable
c. turn on and off 180 times per second d. turn on and off 60 times per second
321. The greatest value attained during one half of the cycle is called the
a. peak value b. average value
c. r.m.s. value d. effective value
322. The r.m.s. value of a sine wave is equal to
a. 0.637 max. value b. 0.707 max. value
c. 0.506 max. value d. 1.414 max. value
323. Form factor is defined as
a. r.m.s value/peak value b. max. value/ r.m.s value
c. r.m.s value/ average vale d. effective value/ r.m.s value
324. The value of peak factor for pure sine wave is
a. 1.414 b. 0.707
c. 0.637 d. 1.110
325. The value of peak factor for a pure sine wave is
a. 1.414 b. 0.707
c. 0.637 d. 1.110
326. If the current and voltage are out of phase by 900, the power is
a. 1.10 V.I b. Maximum
c. Minimum d. Zero
327. RMS value and the mean value is the same in case of
a. Square wave b. Sine wave
c. Triangular wave d. Half wave rectified sine wave
328. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to product heat, the selection of conductor is based on
a. average value of current b. peak value of current
c. rms value of current d. any of the above
329. The form factor of dc supply voltage is always
a. infinite b. zero
c. 0.50 d. unity
330. In the impedance triangle the inductive reactance and impedance phasor are analogous to the __________ and
__________ phasor respectively in the voltage triangle
a. inductive voltage, total voltage b. inductive current, total current
c. inductive voltage, resistive voltage d. inductive current, resistive current
331. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the __________ phasor and the __________ phasor
a. resistance, inductive reactance b. resistance, impedance
c. inductive reactance, impedance d. none of these
332. For an RL circuit, the power factor cannot be less than __________ or greater than __________.
a. 0, 1 b. 1, 0
c. 0, -1 d. 1, 0
333. If the resistance in a series RC circuit is increased the magnitude of the phase angle
a. increases b. remains the same
c. decreases d. change in an indeterminate manner
334. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points to the right. The capacitive reactance phasor points
__________ while the diagonal of the rectangle having there two phasors as sides represent the __________.
a. up, impedance b. down, impedance
c. left, current d. up, total voltage
335. The impedance of a series RLC circuit is ________.
a. R2 + XL2 + XC2 b. R2 + XL2 XC2
c. R2 + (XL + XC)2 d. R2 + (XL XC)2
336. There will __________ be a frequency, called the __________ frequency, at which __________.
a. sometimes, natural; XL =XC b. always, natural; R =0
c. always, resonant; XL = XC d. sometimes, resonant; R =0
337. In an RLC circuit, the impedance at resonance is
c. infinity d. zero
338. The current in RLC series circuit, i.e., at resonance is
c. infinity d. zero
339. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency
a. series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive
b. series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit is capacitive
c. both circuits are inductive
d. both circuits are capacitive
340. The value of current at resonance in a series RLC circuit is affected by the value of
a. R b. C
c. L d. All of these
341. In resonant circuits, the power-factor at resonance is
a. zero b. 1
c. 0.50 d. 0.707
342. Which of the following statements is true for a series RLC circuit tuned at resonant frequency?
a. the voltage across C > applied voltage
b. the voltage across L > applied voltage
c. the voltage across L and C > the applied voltage
d. the voltage across both L and C < the applied voltage
343. The currents flowing in L and C at parallel resonance are
a. zero b. equal
c. infinite d. different
344. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a
a. low resistance b. low 0
c. low resonant frequency d. high resonant frequency
345. The transient current is due to
a. voltage applied to circuit
b. resistance of the circuit
c. impedance of the circuit
d. changes in stored energy is inductance and capacitance
346. To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between voltage and current will
a. increase b. decrease
c. remain nearly the same d. become indeterminant
347. In a balanced three phase star connected circuit the line voltage are equal
a. to the line current b. to the phase voltage
c. and so are the line current d. but the line currents are equal
348. The type of a.c. distribution system commonly used to supply both light and power is the
a. open delta system b. Three phase delta system
c. Three phase star system with neutral wire d. Three phase star system without neutral wire
349. In a balanced three phase star connected system the line voltage is
a. the phasor difference of the two phase voltages
b. the phasor sum of the two phase voltages
c. 0.707 times the phase voltage
d. 1.414 times the phase voltage
350. The advantages of star connections over delta connections for same phase voltage is that it gives
a. step down current b. extra step up voltage
c. extra step up current d. extra step up power
351. Power in a three phase delta system with balanced load is equal to
a. 3 x VL x IL x power factor b. 3 x Vph x Iph x power factor
c. 3 x Vph x IL x power factor d. 3 x VL x IL x power factor
352. Power in star connected system is
a. equal to that of delta system b. 2 times the delta system
c. 3 times the delta system d. 3 times of a delta system
353. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required for measuring power of a three phase balanced load.
a. two b. four
c. one d. three
354. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required to measure unbalanced power for a three phase system?
a. two b. four
c. three d. one
355. In 2-wattmeter method, the reading of one of the wattmeters will be zero when
a. power factor is unity b. power factor is 0.50
c. load in one of the phase is zero d. a neutral wire is not provided
356. For a three phase unbalanced load
a. the power factor of each phase will be in proportional to the load
b. the power factor of each phase will be the same
c. the power factor of at least one of the phase must be leading
d. the power factor of each phase may be different
357. In a pure reactive circuit, the power factor is
a. lagging b. zero
c. leading d. unity
358. For a parallel circuit consisting of resistance and reactance the value of power factor is the ratio of
a. impedance to reactance b. reactance to impedance
c. resistance to impedance d. impedance to resistance
359. In an a.c. circuit, a low value of reactive volt ampere compared with watts indicates
a. high power factor b. unity power factor
c. leading power factor
360. The capacitor of power factor correction are rated in terms of
a. voltage b. VA
c. KW d. KVAR
361. For the same load, if the power factor of load is reduced, it will
a. draw more current b. less current
c. same current but less power d. less current but more power
362. One of the reasons for improving the power factor is
a. to increase the reactive power b. to decrease the reactive power
c. to increase the real power
363. The advantage of using static capacitor to improve the power factor is because they
a. are not variable b. are almost loss free
c. provide continuous change of power factor
364. An ideal current source has zero
a. voltage on no load b. internal resistance
c. internal conductance
365. A closed path made of several branches of the network is known as
a. loop b. junction
c. branch
366. A passive network has
a. no source of e.m.f b. no source of current
c. neither source of current nor source of e.m.f.
367. Which of the following is an active elements of a circuit
a. ideal current source b. resistance
c. inductance d. capacitance
368. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. voltage source is an active element b. current source is a passive element
c. resistance is a passive element d. conductance is a passive element
369. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
a. Diode b. Transistor
c. Heater coil d. Electric arc with unlike electrodes
370. Which of the following theorems enables a number of voltage (or current) source to be combined directly into a
single voltage (or current) source?
a. Compensation theorem b. Reciprocity theorem
c. Superposition theorem d. Millmans theorem
371. For open circuited condition of Thevenins theorem, all sources of e.m.f. in the network are replaced by
a. their internal impedance b. their internal resistance
c. as total a big source of e.m.f.
372. In order to find z in Thevenins theorem
a. all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
b. all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are open circuited
c. all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage source are open circuited
d. all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are open circuited
373. Reciprocity theorem is valid for
a. active network only b. passive network only
c. active and passive network both d. none o f the above
374. In compensation theorem a network containing generator can be replaced by
a. its zero internal impedance b. its infinite impedance
c. another generator d. L.C. circuit
375. Open circuit voltage is the p.d. between two points when the impedance between these points is
a. infinity b. reactive
c. zero d. capacitive
376. Nortons theorem reduces a two terminal network to
a. a constant voltage source and an impedance in parallel
b. a constant voltage source and an impedance in series
c. a constant current source and an impedance in parallel
d. a constant current source and an impedance in series
377. For maximum power transfer, according to maximum power transfer theorem, source impedance
a. must be very much large as compared to the load impedance
b. must be complex conjugate of load impedance
c. must be equal to load impedance
d. must be very small as compared to the load impedance
378. The superposition theorem is applicable to
a. linear responses only b. linear and non-linear responses only
c. linear, non-linear and time variant response
379. The principle of working of a transformer is
a. static induction b. dynamic induction
c. mutual induction d. self induction
380. Transformer is used to change the value of
a. frequency b. voltage
c. power d. power factor
381. The laminations are made from
a. low carbon steel b. silicon steel sheet
c. nickel alloy steel stampings d. chrome steel sheets
382. What is common in the two windings of a transformer
a. electric circuit b. magnetic circuit
c. winding wire gauge d. none of these
383. Preferably, the resistance between the primary and the secondary of a transformer should be
a. as low as possible
b. as high as possible
c. low or high depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
d. high or low depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
384. Ideal transformer assumptions do not include
a. zero reactance of windings b. zero resistance of windings
c. no leakage flux d. no saturation of core
385. The reactance of a transformer is determined by its
a. leakage flux b. common core flux
c. size of the core d. permeability of the material of the core
386. The resistance of low voltage side of a transformer
a. is equal to resistance of its high voltage side
b. is more than resistance of its high voltage side
c. is less than the resistance of its high voltage side
d. (b) or (c)
387. The basic property of the transformer is that it changes the voltage level of an a.c. signal
a. without changing the power b. without changing its shape
c. without changing its frequency d. without changing power, frequency or shape
388. At every instant the direction of secondary current in a transformer must be such as to oppose any change in flux.
This is in accordance with
a. Faradays laws b. Joules law
c. Lenzs law d. Coulombs law
389. The magnitude of mutual flux in a transformer is
a. low at low loads and high at high loads b. high at low loads and low at high loads
c. same at all levels d. varies at low loads and constant at high loads
390. Transformers are rated in
a. KW b. KV
c. KWH d. KVA
391. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?
a. Air core b. Closed iron core
c. Aluminum core d. Open iron core
392. The no-load current of a transformer in terms of full load current is usually
a. 1 to 3% b. 3 to 9%
c. 9 to 12% d. 12 to 20%
393. Which of the following is a correct statement about eddy currents?
a. Eddy currents improve the efficiency of a motor
b. Eddy currents heat up the metal parts
c. Eddy current do not influence the movement
d. Eddy currents are used for arc welding
394. Which of the statement given below is true about autotransformer?
a. It has two separate windings connected in series externally
b. It can only step down the voltage
c. It has only one winding
d. It is most suitable for power transformer
395. In any transformer the voltage per turn in primary and secondary remains
a. always different b. always same
c. always in ratio of K d. sometimes same
396. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
a. no load b. half load
c. near full load d. little more than full load
397. As compared to an amplifier a transformer cannot
a. increase output power b. increase the output current
c. increase the output voltage d. none of these
398. Two transformers when operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
a. magnetizing current b. leakage reactance
c. per unit impedance d. efficiency
399. All day efficiency of a transformer A.
a. A. = Electrical efficiency of transformer b. A. > Electrical efficiency of transformer

c. A. < Electrical efficiency of transformer d. none of these may be true
400. No load primary input is practically equal to the iron losses in the transformer because
a. primary current is small b. secondary current is small
c. both the current are small d. no load input is not equal to iron losses
401. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will
a. decrease b. increase
c. do not change
402. The size of a transformer core will depend on
a. frequency b. flux density of the core material
c. area of the core d. (a) and (b) both
403. In huge alternators, the moving part is
a. brushes b. armature
c. poles d. none of these
404. Alternators mostly work on rotating field type principle which is different from d.c. machines where the field is
stationary. Therefore the alternators
a. dont obey Faradays law b. work on Faradays law
c. do not obey Lenzs law d. dont obey Ohms law
405. High alternators have a rotor construction
a. similar to d. c. machines b. of non-salient type
c. of salient type d. none of above
406. The voltage applied to the field of a rotating cylindrical rotor type alternators
a. high d.c. voltage b. high a.c. voltage
c. low d.c. voltage d. low a.c. voltage
407. Alternators are usually designed to generator to generate
a. variable frequency b. definite currents
c. definite frequency d. definite power factor
408. The standard practice, now a days in alternators is to have
a. rotating field b. rotating armature
c. either rotating field or rotating armature d. none of the above
409. When the speed of alternators increases, the frequency
a. decreases b. remains same
c. increases d. changes
410. Distributing the armature winding of alternator in more than one number of slots per pole per phase results is
a. reduction of irregularities produced in the waveform
b. economy of materials used in winding
c. less weight of the entire armature
d. increase of generated emf per phase
411. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an alternator will be.
a. demagnetizing b. square wave form
c. cross magnetizing d. none of these
412. If the input of the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is increased the
a. KVA will be leading b. KVA will be lagging
c. KW will be changed d. the power factor of the load remain constant
413. For two alternators in parallel, if the load shared by one of them is to be increased, its field excitation is
a. to be strengthened keeping input torque same
b. to be weekend keeping input torque same
c. to be kept constant but input torque should be increased
414. If Xs = the synchronous reactance of the machine, Xe = leakage reactance and Xa = reactance due to armature
flux then
a. Xa = Xs - Xe b. Xa = Xs + Xe
c. Xa = Xe - Xs d. Xe = Xs Xa
415. An alternator is said to be over-excited if it is operating at
a. leading p. f. b. lagging p.f.
c. unity p.f. d. zero voltage regulation
416. High voltage alternators are usually of the rotating field type. This means the generated voltage is connected
a. through slip rings to the load b. through slip rings of the rotating field
c. directly to load d. directly to rotor
417. The maximum current that can be supplied by alternator depends upon the
a. strength of the exciter voltage b. number of poles
c. strength of the magnetic field d. maximum heat dissipation
418. Pitch factor is defined as the ratio of the emfs of
a. distribution winding to full pitch winding b. short pitch coil to full pitch coil
c. full pitch winding to short pitch winding d. full pitch winding to concentrated winding
419. Synchronous impedance of an alternator is defined as the ratio of
a. short circuit voltage to short circuit current
b. open circuit voltage to short circuit current
c. short circuit current to no load current
d. open circuit voltage to short circuit current for same value of excitation
420. The imaginary or fictitious part of synchronous reactance takes care of
a. copper losses b. voltage regulation
c. armature reaction d. inductive reactance
421. Synchronization of alternators means
a. connecting alternators in series b. transferring load from one alternator to another
c. connecting alternators in parallel d. adjusting the excitation of the alternator
422. For synchronizing three phase alternator, the additional requirement is that the phase rotation
a. must be the same b. is clockwise
c. is anti-clockwise d. none of the above
423. Adjustment of field excitation on one of the two alternators operating in parallel will
a. increase its load b. change its frequency
c. decrease its load d. change its power factor
424. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed then
a. the reactive component of the output is changed
b. the active component of the output is changed
c. the p.f. of the load remains constant
425. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of
a. 0o b. 45o
c. 90o d. 180o
426. Synchronous motor is capable of being operated at
a. lagging power factor only b. leading power factor only
c. lagging and leading power factor d. none of these
427. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of poles are made half, the speed of
the rotor of a synchronous motor
a. decreases to half the original value b. remains same as the original value
c. increases to two times the original value d. tends to become zero
428. Synchronizing power of a synchronous machine is
a. equal to synchronous reactance
b. inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
c. directly proportional to the synchronous reactance
d. none of these
429. Synchronous motors are
a. self- starting b. not self-starting
c. essentially self-starting d. none of these
430. An over-excited synchronous motor take
a. lagging current b. leading current
c. lagging and leading current d. none of these
431. The motor in which stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same speed is
a. induction motor b. reduction motor
c. universal motor d. synchronous motor
432. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is
a. the angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
b. the angle between the magnetizing current and back emf
c. the angle between the supply voltage and the back emf
d. none of above
433. In a synchronous motor, which loss does not vary with load?
a. Copper losses b. Hyteresis losses
c. Windage losses d. None of the above
434. A three phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. In case the direction of its field current is reversed
a. the motor will continue to run in the same direction
b. the motor will run in the reverse direction
c. the motor will stop
d. the winding of the motor will burn
435. The speed regulation of a three phase synchronous motor is
a. 5% b. 1%
c. 0.40% d. zero
436. The speed of a synchronous motor
a. reduces as load increases
b. increases as load increases
c. adjusts itself to new equilibrium speed whenever load changes
d. always remains constant
437. When a three phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero p.f. lagging load the armature field affects the
main field in the following way
a. directly opposes it b. cross-magnetizes it
c. augment it directly
438. The armature current of the synchronous motor has large values of
a. low excitation only b. high excitation only
c. both low and high excitation
439. The type of the motor that does not have a commutator is the
a. repulsion motor b. induction motor
c. d.c. shunt motor d. universal motor
440. The rotor speed of an induction motor is
a. the same as the synchronous speed b. faster than the synchronous speed
c. slower than the synchronous speed d. determined by frequency and the number of poles
441. The induction motor differs from the synchronous motor is that its
a. requires a d.c. source for its rotor b. does not require a rotating magnetic field
c. current is induced in its rotor d. current is conducted in rotor
442. Squirrel cage induction motor differs from the slip ring type in that it has no
a. slip rings b. rotor windings
c. windings on the stator d. rotating part
443. Squirrel cage induction motor has
a. zero starting torque b. very small starting torque
c. very high starting torque d. extra starting torque and it start up from rest
444. The frequency of the rotor current in an induction motor is given by ( If f is the supply frequency, f is the rotor
frequency and S is the slip)
a. f = Sf b. f = Sf
c. f = Sf d. S = f f
445. Improvement in the power factor in an induction motor
a. decreases torque
b. increases the torque
c. increases the current
d. increases the torque and decreases the current due to increased impedance
446. In an induction motor the torque is related with the supply voltage as
a. T V b. T V
c. T V2 d. T 1/V 2
447. Torque under running condition is maximum at the slip S
a. which makes rotor reactance/ phase equal to rotor resistance/phase
b. which makes rotor reactance/ phase greater than rotor resistance/phase
c. which makes rotor reactance/ phase lesser than rotor resistance/phase
d. which is independent of rotor resistance
448. Short circuit test on the induction motor can be used to find out
a. the transformation ratio of the induction motor b. power scale of circle diagram
c. copper losses in the induction motor d. all of the above
449. Which of the following is a correct relation for an induction motor?
a. rotor efficiency =
b. rotor copper losses = slip x rotor input

c. rotor input = 2 x gross torque x synchronous speed
d. all the above relations are correct
450. If the air gap of the induction motor is increased
a. the magnetizing current will decrease b. the magnetizing current will increase
c. the power factor will decrease
451. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
a. starting torque is very high
b. motor takes five to seven times its full load current
c. it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
d. it will run in reverse direction
452. When using any instrument for measurement or testing an electrical circuit, your __________ should be
considered first.
a. personal safety b. theoretical knowledge
c. surrounding d. dress
453. What is the purpose of providing a mirror behind the pointer in measuring instruments?
a. The scale is illuminated through the mirror
b. With the help of the mirror it can be seen whether the pointer is bent or not
c. The mirror is semi-transparent so as to allow the observation of the interior of the instrument
d. Reading errors due to inclined observation are eliminated by removing parallax between the pointer and
its image in the mirror
454. Meter accuracy is determined by
a. half scale deflection b. full- scale deflection
c. one fourth of full scale deflection d. one tenth of full scale deflection
455. Threshold of sensitivity with respect to instruments is
a. the maximum signal which can measured
b. the value of sensitivity on the highest scale
c. the value of sensitivity on the lowest scale
d. the smallest signal that results in a detectable output
456. On which of the following factors the sensitivity in accuracy of an instrument does not depend?
a. Hysteresis or dead bond b. Amplitude distortion
c. Frequency response d. All of these
457. Moving coil instrument are used
a. in ac circuits only b. both in ac and dc circuits
c. in dc circuits only d. for measuring voltage only
458. To increase the range of a voltmeter
a. a low resistance is connected in series b. a low resistance is connected in parallel
c. a high resistance is connected in series d. a high resistance is connected in parallel
459. Which of the following damping methods is common in moving coil instruments?
a. air damping b. fluid damping
c. spring damping d. eddy-current damping
460. A moving iron type instrument has
a. a linear scale (uniform scale) b. a nonlinear scale
c. its deflection directly proportional to the current d. its deflection directly proportional to the voltage
461. The function of a shunt in an ammeter is to
a. by pass the current b. increase the current in the coil
c. decrease the voltage drop d. increase the meter resistance
462. The shunt resistance in an ammeter is usually
a. less than meter resistance b. equal to meter resistance
c. greater than meter resistance d. of any value
463. A low voltage is measured on a higher scale of a voltmeter. The instrument would have
a. low accuracy b. low resolution
c. low precision d. all of these
464. An electrodynamic meter can be used to measured
a. ac voltage b. dc voltage
c. dc as well as ac voltage d. dc voltage but for ac voltages rectification is necessary
465. Megger is an instrument to measure
a. very low resistance b. insulation resistance
c. Q of a coil d. Inductance of a coil
466. Megger in its operation is based upon
a. moving coil meter b. moving iron meter
c. dynamic-meter meter d. electrostatic meter
467. Which of the following equipment is not a part of megger
a. Hand crank b. Moving coil meter
c. A coil of high inductance d. Gear box generator
468. A multimeter consists of
a. Voltmeter and ohmmeter b. Voltmeter and current meter
c. Current meter and ohmmeter d. Voltmeter , current meter and ohmmeter
469. Inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by
a. Schering bridge b. Anderson Bridge
c. Maxwell -wein Bridge d. Wein bridge
470. The potentiometer wire should have
a. high specific resistance and high temperature coefficient
b. high specific resistance and low temperature coefficient
c. low specific resistance and high temperature coefficient
d. low specific resistance and low temperature coefficient
471. A wattmeter can measure
a. ac power only b. dc power only
c. ac as well as dc power d. dc power and ac power after rectification
472. A relay in which the measurement is performed by a stationary circuit and which has no moving parts is know as
a. Static relay b. Differential relay
c. Instantaneous relay d. Time relay
473. For high ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
a. 0.01 sec b. 0.10 sec
c. 3 seconds d. 30 seconds
474. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers?
a. electro-magnetic b. electro-pneumatic
c. pneumatic d. vacuum
475. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be considered is
a. high dielectric strength b. non-inflammability
c. non-toxicity d. none of above
476. There is definite objection to use of which of the following medium for extinguishing the arc in case of a circuit
breaker.
a. Air b. SF6 gas
c. Vacuum d. Water
477. In a circuit breaker the active recovery voltage depends upon
a. power factor b. armature reaction
c. circuit condition d. all of the above
478. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is
a. impedance relay b. Electromagnetic attraction type
c. Thermal relay d. Buchholzs relay
479. A fuse wire should have
a. low specific resistance and high melting point b. low specific resistance and low melting point
c. high specific resistance and high melting point d. high specific resistance and low melting point
480. The number of cycles in which a high-speed circuit breaker can complete its operation is
a. 3 to 8 b. 10 to 18
c. 20 to 30 d. 40 to 50
481. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire
a. Auminum b. Silver
c. Lead d. Copper
482. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of
a. amperes b. volts
c. MW d. MVA
483. As the force contact is increased, the contact resistance will
a. increase linearly b. increase exponentially
c. remain unaltered d. decrease
484. Which of the following is not the method of arc dispersion?
a. Oil immersion of contacts b. Magnetic blow out of arc
c. Use of rectifiers d. Deionisation of arc path
485. Which of the following contact point metals has the highest melting point?
a. Silver b. Tungsten
c. Gold d. Copper
486. The power factor of the arc in circuit breaker is
a. always zero b. always unity
c. always lagging d. always leading
487. Air used in air blast circuit breaker
a. must have least carbon dioxides b. must be ionized
c. must have oil mist d. must be free from moisture
488. Which of the following relays is used on transformers?
a. Buchholz relay b. MHO relay
c. Merz price relay d. None of the above
489. The value of fault current depend on
a. voltage at the fault point b. total impedance up to the fault
c. both (a) and (b) above d. none of the above
490. Which of the following is a conducting medium for electric current
a. low temperature gas b. high temperature gas
c. dissociated gas d. plasma
491. Which of the following are air-break switching devices?
a. Isolator b. Limit switch
c. Earthing switch d. All of the above
492. A fuse is normally a
a. current limiting devices b. voltage limiting device
c. power limiting device d. power factor correcting device
493. The material used for bus bars should have
a. low resistivity b. higher softening temperature
c. low cost d. all of the above
494. Which of the following is not valid in case of aluminum as compared to copper? Aluminum has higher
a. resistuvity b. coefficient of linear expansion
c. tensile strength d. joint resistance
495. In which of starting a motor, the starting current is the maximum?
a. Auto-transformer b. Star-delta starter
c. Stator rotor starter d. Direct-on-line
496. The disadvantages offered by ungrounded system is
a. frequent arcing grounds b. difficult earth fault relaying
c. voltage oscillation d. all of the above
497. Which of the following methods of generating electric power from the sea water is more advantageous?
a. Water power b. Ocean power
c. Tidal power d. None of these
498. Out of the following which one not unconventional source of energy?
a. Tidal power b. Geothermal power
c. Nuclear energy d. Wind energy
499. Power plants using coal work closely on which of the following cycle
a. Rankine cycle b. Binary vapour cycle
c. Otto cycle d. Brayton cycle
500. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as
a. Monograph b. Hectograph
c. Hydrograph d. Topograph
501. A gas turbine works on
a. Carnot cycle b. Brayton cycle
c. Dual cycle d. Rankine cycle
502. Compressor used in gas turbine is
a. screw compressor b. multistage axial flow compressor
c. plugger type compressor d. reciprocating compressor
503. High horse power diesel engines are started by
a. self starter b. cranking
c. battery d. Compressed air
504. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio?
a. Petrol engine b. Gas engine
c. Diesel engine d. Gas turbine
505. Most of heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in
a. cooling water b. exhaust gases
c. lubricating oil d. radiation
506. The internal combustion engines never work on
a. Diesel cycle b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle d. Dual combustion cycle
507. Which of the following is not a secondary nuclear fuels?
a. U-235 b. U 233
c. Plutonium d. Pn 239
508. Heavy water is
a. H2O b. D2O
c. W2O d. B2O
509. Nuclear reactors generally employ
a. fusion b. fission
c. both fusion and fission d. none of the above
510. Load factor during a period is
a. b.
c. d.
511. A load curve is a plot of

a. load versus time b. load versus cost of power
c. load versus current d. load versus generation capacity
512. Which domestic utility item has highest power rating?
a. Electric iron b. Ceiling fan
c. Mixi d. Refrigerator
513. A power plant supplying energy to a city will usually experience peak demand
a. from midnight to early morning b. 8 AM to 12 noon
c. 2 PM to 6 PM d. 6 PM to 12 PM
514. The ratio

Maximum demand of the installation is known as
Sum of individual maximum demand
a. Demand factor b. Plant use factor
c. Diversity Factor d. Plant capacity factor
515. A diesel power plant is best suited as
a. stand by plant b. based load plant
c. peak load plant d. general purpose plant
516. Which power plant cannot have single unit 100 MW?
a. Hydro electric power plant b. Diesel power plant
c. Steam power plant d. Nuclear power plant
517. Which of the following plant is expected to have the longest expected life
a. Steam b. Hydroelectric
c. Diesel d. All have equal life
518. For a power plant the expenditure on which of the following item is expected to be negligible?
a. Publicity b. Taxes
c. Wages d. Insurance
519. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
a. base load plant b. peak load plant
c. stand-by plant d. spinning reserve plant
520. Efficiency is secondary consideration in case of
a. base load plants b. both load and base load plants
c. peak load plants
521. In a steam power plant which component needs maximum maintenance attention?
a. Boiler b. Condenser
c. Turbine d. Water treatment plant
522. When a power plant is not able to meet the demand of consumers it will resort to
a. load shedding
b. efficient power plant operation
c. power factor improvement at the generators
d. penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges of electricity
523. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core is known as
a. corona b. permeability
c. unsymmetrical fault d. skin effect
524. Skin effect is proportional to
a. (diameter of conductor)2 b. diameter of conductor
c. (diameter of conductor)3 d. (diameter of conductor)1/2
525. The effect of corona is
a. increased reactance b. increased inductance
c. increased energy loss d. all of the above
526. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
a. nonsinusoidal b. sinusoidal
c. square
527. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
a. it gives bad odour b. it transfers energy to the ground
c. reduces power factor d. it corrodes the material
528. A relay used in long transmission line is
a. reactance relay b. impedance relay
c. mhos relay d. no relay is used
529. Surge impedance of transmission line is given by
a. b.
c. d.
530. Stages in the provision of electrical energy to a consumer are:

a. generation and transmission b. generation, distribution and transmission
c. generation, dissipation and distribution d. generation , transmission and distribution
531. The purpose of a grid system is to
a. interconnect the power stations b. supply energy to remote areas
c. make extra high voltage available to consumers d. make distribution of energy at reasonable cost
532. Various d.c. and a.c. systems of transmission are available but to find out which system is superior, comparison, is
made on the basis of equal
a. line loss b. voltage drop
c. percentage voltage drop d. power transmitted
533. For a.c. transmission, whether over head or underground, the most unsuitable systems is the
a. three-phase, 3-wire b. three-phase, 4-wire
c. single-phase d. two-phase, 3-wire
534. Among all the a.c. systems, the most superior systems is the
a. three-phase, 3-wire with maximum voltage between conductors
b. three-phase, 3-wire with maximum voltage between conductors and earth
c. three-phase, 3-wire with r.m.s. voltage between conductors
d. three-phase, 3wire with r.m.s. voltage between conductors and earth
535. A distributor is designed from the point of view of
a. voltage drop b. current carrying capacity
c. voltage drop and current carrying capacity d. load capacity
536. The two types of distribution systems used are
a. radial and delta b. radial and star
c. ring main and radial d. ring main and delta
537. At the point of minimal potential in a distributor fed from both ends, the load at the point is
a. supplied from left hand feeding point
b. supplied from right hand feeding point
c. supplied from right and left hand feeding points
d. minimal
538. Voltage drop in a uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end is calculated by assuming the whole of the load
concentrated at
a. middle point b. feeding point
c. the far end of the feeding point d. distance from the feeding point
539. The economical section of a feeder can be obtained by applying
a. Ohms law b. Faradays law
c. Lenzs law d. Kelvins law
540. One of the line parameters which is neglected in short transmission line is
a. capacitance b. inductance
c. resistance d. admittance
541. The study of illumination involves
a. design of lighting system
b. study of lighting and wiring system
c. calculation of wiring sizes for various lighting fixtures
d. study of photometry and its application
542. Energy radiated continuously in the form of lighting waves is called
a. luminous intensity b. lumen
c. luminous flux d. illumination
543. The luminous flux emitted in unit solid angle by a uniform point source having a luminous intensity of 1 candela is
called
a. lumen b. lux
c. illumination d. luminance
544. The luminous intensity of a lamp is expressed in
a. watts b. lumens
c. lux d. candela
545. The illumination at a point of a surface is the luminous flux per unit area of the surface and its unit is
a. lux b. lumen
c. candela d. candela power
546. The illumination of a surface is
a. directly proportional to its distance from the source
b. inversely proportional to its distance from the source
c. directly proportional to the square of its distance from the source
d. inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the source
547. Low pressure in fluorescent tube is obtained by
a. high starting voltage b. high current density
c. low current density d. low starting voltage
548. The illumination of a surface at any point is proportional to the __________ of the angle between the normal at that
point and the direction of the luminous flux
a. sine b. cosine
c. tangent d. cotangent
549. The principle of working of a high pressure mercury vapor lamp is that
a. the radiation from the discharge excites a fluorescent material
b. the radiation is produced directly by the discharge
c. the radiation is produced by the argon gas
d. very high voltage is needed to start the discharge
550. The term includes the use of cable and associated control and protective equipment necessary for supplying electrical
energy to required positions on consumers premises
a. generation b. transmission
c. distribution d. generation and distribution

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IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter

Technological University of the Philippines Cavite

a. (R)2 + (Xl -X c )2 b. (R)2 + (Xl )2 -(X c )2

a. (IR )2 + (Il )2 b. (IR ) + (Il )

a. (P) + (Q) b. (R Q)2

a. A. = Electrical efficiency of transformer b. A. > Electrical efficiency of transformer

b. rotor copper losses = slip x rotor input

511. A load curve is a plot of

514. The ratio

530. Stages in the provision of electrical energy to a consumer are:

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