IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (1-4): Study the following data to answer these questions.

Statistics of staff Members knowing computer operation and typing in a government office.

1. Approximately what percent of staff members with seven or more years of service do not

know either computer operation or typing?

1) 48 2) 36 3) 64 4) 60 5) None of these

2. What is the total number of graduate staff members with 0-3 years of service knowing only

computer operation and only typing?

1) 0 2) 120 3) 15 4)10 5) None of these

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

3. What is the ratio of graduate staff members having 4-7 years of service who do not know

typing to non-graduate staff members having over 7 years of service not knowing computer

operation?

1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 6 : 5 4) 5:4 5) None of these

4. If 15 more graduates staffed who have knowledge in both computer operation and typing,

then find the percentage increase of graduate staff upon the staff knowing both in 0-3 years

of service.

1) 50 2) 40 3) 33.33 4) 25 5) None of these

Directions (5-8): Study the following pie charts to answer these questions.

DISTRIBUTION OF WORKFORCE IN A COMPANY

% Distribution (Region wise)

Calcutta
15% Hyderaba
d
Chennai 28%
19%
Mumbai
Delhi
22%
16%

% Distribution of Workforce (Category wise)

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Officers Technician
Super 9% s
visors 19%
12%

Unskilled
Labourere Skilled
s Labourers
17% 43%

% Distribution of Workforce (Department Wise)

Purchase
Sales 7%
9%
Admn.and
Production Accounts
49% 14%

R&D
21%

Total work force = 68700

5. If 22% of the production department persons are posted at Hyderabad region, then what %

of Hyderabad workforce are in production department?

1) 78 2) 38.5 3) 68 4) 22 5) none of these

6. If 11% officers of the company are in administration and accounts department, of which 75%

are posted at Calcutta, then what % of total officers of the company are posted at

administration and accounts, Calcutta?

1) 11 2) 8.25 3) 3.75 4)29.5 5) Data insufficient

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7. If under expansion programme, the company recruits 12% of workforce of Hyderabad and

Mumbai regions, but 6% of workforce of Calcutta region retires, and workforce at other

region remain the same, then what will be the total workforce of the company?

1) 65196 2) 68238 3) 72204 4)70214 4) remain same

8. If 35% of skilled labourers are posted at Mumbai region having its department wise

distribution of R & D, Administration & Accounts, Sales, Purchase, and Production in 1 : 2 :

3 : 4 : 5, then find what % of total skilled labourers of the company are posted at Mumbai in

sales department.

1) 35 2) 20 3) 65 4) 7 5) None of these

Directions (9-12): Answer these questions based on the information given.

Fabric Crepe has to go through three stages of manufacturing, viz, spinning, weaving and

dyeing. In Rangoon Fabric Company, there are six spinning machines, ten weaving machines

and five dyeing machines. Each machine works for 10 hrs a day. One unit a Fabric Crepe needs

40 minutes on a spinning machine, 2 hours on a weaving machine and 30 minutes on a dyeing

machine in order to be completed. Similarly one unit of Fabric Satin needs 60 minutes on a

spinning machine, 4.5 hours on a weaving machine and 30 minutes on a dyeing machine in

order to be completed.

9. In a day, how many units a Fabric Satin can be completed at most?

1) 20 2) 40 3) 30 4) 50 5) none of these

10. If 20 units of Fabric Satin are made in a day, how many units of Fabric Crepe can be

completed the same day?

1) 10 2) 40 3) 20 4) 45 5) none of these

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

11. If only 30 units of Fabric Satin are made in a day, how many machine hours will be idle that

day?

1) 120 2) 135 3) 130 4) 150 5)225

12. If one more dyeing machine is added, at the most how many more units of Fabric Crepe can

be made in a day?

1) 0 2) 8 3) 5 4) 10 5) 20

13. In a survey of payments of electrical bills of a residential complex of 125 houses, it is found

that 50 houses defaulted on their payment of electrical bills in January, 60 in February and

40 in March. Some houses can default in consecutive months only, 20 defaulted in January

and February. 10 defaulted in February and March. How many houses defaulted in all the 3

months?

1) 3 2) 5 3) 7 4) 9 5) None of these

14. There was one mess for 30 boarders in a certain hostel. If the number of boarders was

increased by 10, the expenses of the mess increased by Rs. 40 per month, while the average

expenditure per head diminished by Rs. 2. Find the original monthly expenses.

1) Rs. 390 2) Rs. 360 3) Rs. 410 4) Rs. 480 5)none of these

15. The SI on certain sum of money for 15 months at the rate of 7.5% per annum exceeds the SI

on the same sum at 12.5% per annum for 8 months by Rs. 3250. Then find the sum.

1) Rs. 16000 2) Rs. 20000 3) Rs. 170000

4) Rs. 18000 5) Rs. 312000

16. A Palace has 10 cylindrical pillars each of diameter 40 cm and height 6m.What will be the

labour charges for getting these pillars cleaned at the rate of Rs.2 per sq.m?

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(use)

1) Rs. 3237 2) Rs. 3768 3) Rs. 3257 4) Rs.1507.2 5) none of these

17. 4 men and 3 women finished a job in 6 days, and 5 men and 7 women can do the same in 4

days. How long will 1 man and 1 woman take to do the work?

1) 22 2/7 days 2) 25 days 3) 5 1/7 days

4) 12 7/22 days 5) None of these

18. A and B enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 5,000 while B contributes Rs. 4,000. After
1
1 month B withdraws 4 part of the contribution and after 3 months from the starting A puts

Rs. 2,000 more, when B withdraws her money C also joins them with Rs. 7,000. If at the end

of 1 year there is a profit Rs. 1,218, what will be the share of C in the profit?

1) Rs. 844.37 2) Rs. 488.47 3) Rs. 588.47

4) Rs.954.67 5) None of these

19. What would be the minimum length of a side of a square, which is equal to the width of a

rectangle whose area is equal to the area of a circle of radius 7 cm?

1) 11 cm 2) 7 cm 3) 2 cm 4) 14 cm 5) 150 cm

20. Two boats, travelling at 5 kmph and 10 kmph, head directly towards each other. They begin

at a distance of 20 km from each other. How far apart are they (in kms) one minute before

they collide?

1) 1/12 2) 1/6 3) 1/4 4) 1/3 5) None of these

Directions (21-26): Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each

question using the following instructions.

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Choose (1) if the question can be answered by statement I alone but not by using the

statement II.

Choose (2) if the question can be answered by statement II alone but not by using the

statement I.

Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statement alone.

Choose (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but not by

either statements alone.

Choose (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

21. Ravi spent less than Rs. 75 to buy one kilogram each of potato, onion and gourd. Which one

of the three vegetables bought was the costliest?

A. 2 kg potato and 1 kg gourd cost less than 1 kg potato and 2 kg gourd.

B. 1 kg potato and 2 kg onion together cost the same as 1 kg onion and 2 kg gourd.

22. Four candidates are there for an award and obtained distinct scores in a test. Each of the

four casts a vote to choose the winner of the award. The candidate who gets the largest

number of votes wins the award. In case of a tie in the voting process, the candidate with the

highest score wins the award. Who wins the award?

A. The candidates with top three scores, each vote for the top scorer amongst the other

three.

B. The candidate with the lowest score votes for the player with the second highest score.

23. Swetha paid for an article using currency notes of denominations Re. 1, Rs, 2, Rs. 5 and Rs.

10, using at least one note of each denomination. The total number of five and ten rupee

notes used was one more than the total number of one and two rupee notes used. What was

the price of the article?

A. Swetha used a total of 13 currency notes.

B. The price of the article was a multiple of Rs. 10.

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24. Husain spends 30 per cent of his income on his childrens education, 20 per cent on

recreation and 10 per cent on healthcare. The corresponding percentages for Akhtar are 40

per cent, 25 per cent and 13 per cent who spends more on childrens education?

A. Husain spends more on recreating than Akhtar.

B. Akhtar spends more on healthcare than Husain.

25. In a class of 30 students, Shona secured third rank among the girls, while her brother

Navneet studying in the same class secured sixth rank in the whole class. Between the two,

who had a better overall rank?

A. Navneet was among the top 25 per cent of the boys merit list in the class in which 60 per

cent were boys.

B. There were three boys among the top five rank holders, and three girls among the top ten

rank holders.

Directions (26- 27): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

When two dice are thrown simultaneously

26. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers appeared is less than or equal to 7?

1) 7/12 2) 5/12 3) 2/3

4) 1/4 5) 3/4

27. What is the probability that the difference between the numbers appeared is greater than 3?

1) 13/36 2) 7/36 3) 1/6

4) 19/36 5) 11/36

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Directions (28-30): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following

number series.

28. 139, 260, ?, 285, 89, 314

1) 118 2) 119 3) 116 4) 129 5) 131

29. 410, 530, 770, 1130, ?, 2210

1) 1640 2) 1740 3) 1680 4) 1710 5) 1610

30. 42, ?, 95, 292, 1177, 5896

1) 45 2) 43 3) 42 4) 54 5) 47

Directions (31-35): In each question two equations are provided; on the basis of these you have

to find the relation between x and y. Give answer:

1) if x > y

2) if x > y

3) if x < y

4) if x < y

5) if x = y or no relationship between x and y exists

31. I. x2 9x + 20 = 0

II. 2y2 31y + 114 = 0

32. I. 21x2 115x + 150 = 0

II. 6y2 41y + 70 = 0

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33. I. x2 + x 42 = 0

II. y2 y 20 = 0

34. I. 4x2 11x 108 = 0

II. y2 + 11y + 30 = 0

35. I. 5x2 - 51x + 112 = 0

II. 5y2 31y + 48 = 0

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Reasoning Ability

Directions (36-40): Attempt these questions based on the information given.

A few friends are sitting on a bench.

Sunil is sitting next to Sunita and Sanjay is sitting next to Bindu.

Bindu is not sitting with Sumit.

Sumit is on the left end of the bench and Sanjay is on second position from right hand

side.

Sunil is on the right side of Sumit and Sunita.

Sunil and Sanjay are sitting together.

36. Sunil is sitting between

1) Sunita and Bindu 2) Sunita and Sanjay 3) Sumit and Bindu

4) Sanjay and Sumit 5) Bindu and Sanjay

37. Who will be sitting in the centre if Sunil and Sunita exchange their position, then Sunita and

Sumit do the same?

1) Sumit 2) Bindu 3) Sunil 4) Sanjay 5) None of these

38. Sumit is sitting on the

1) Second place from right 2) extreme left 3) Second place from left

4) Extreme right 5) Other than the given Option

39. What is Bindu position with respect to Sunita?

1) third to the left 2) second to the left 3) immediate right

4) third to the right 5) second to the right

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40. If Bindu and Sumit exchange their position Sunita is sitting how many places away from

Bindu?

1) 1 2) 4 3) 2 4) 0 5) 3

41. Ankit is related to Binny and Chinkey, Daizy is Chinkys mother. Also Daizy is Binnys

sister and Aruna is Binnys sister. How is Chinkey related to Aruna?

1) Niece 2) Sister 3) Cousin 4) Aunt 5) None of these

42. A taxi driver commenced his journey from a point and drove 10 km towards North and

turned to his left and drove another 5 km. After waiting to meet one of his friends, he

turned to his right and continued to drive another 10 km. He has covered a distance of 25

km so far but in which direction may he now be going, if he has turned 45 0anticlock wise

while waiting for his friend?

1) North-East 2) South-West 3) North - West

4) South 5) None of these

43. Saroj is mother in- law of Vani who is sister in -law of Deepak. Rajeesh is father of

Ramesh, the only brother of Deepak. How is Deepak related to Soumya, who is the grand

children of Saroj?

1) Father 2) Brother 3) Uncle

4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

Directions (9-11): In each of these questions, a statement is followed by two courses of action

number I and II. Assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the

suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Mark answer as:

1. If only I follows

2. If either I or II follows

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3. If only II follows

4. If neither I nor II follows.

5. Both I & II follows

44. Statement: There has been significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying

water of the city.

Course of action:

I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.

II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use

of water.

45. Statement: A large number of people visiting India form country X has been tested positive

for carrying viruses of a killer disease.

Course of action:

I. The Government of India should immediately put a complete ban on people coming to

India from country X including those Indians who are settled in country X.

II. The Government of India should immediately set-up detection centeres at all its airports

and seaports to identify and quarantine those who are tested positive.

46. Statement: The prices of food grains and vegetables have substantially increased due to

prolonged strike call given by the truck owner association.

Course of action:

I. The government should immediately make alternative arrangement to ensure adequate

supply of food grains and vegetables in the market.

II. The government should take steps to cancel the license of all vehicles belonging to the

association

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

Directions (47-53): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given

below:

Eight person A, B, D, E, F, H, J and K are sitting a around a circular table. Each of them is facing

away from the centre. Each of them belongs to a different category, vizA-1, A-2, A-3, A-4. A-5,

A-6, A-7 and A-8 but not necessarily in the same order. They appear in four different exams viz.

UPSC, SSC, Bank and NDA in such a way that at most three persons appear in the same exam

but not necessarily in the same order. In each exam at least one person appears. B sits second to

the right of H. The person who belongs to A-8 category is an immediate neighbor of H and the

one who appears in NDA exam. There are three persons between the one who belongs to A-8

category and A, who appears in bank exam alone. Only one person sits between the one who

belongs to A-4 and A. There are two persons among E and F, E and K and none of them appear

either in NDA or SSC. The one who belongs to A-2 category is on the immediate left of the one

who belongs to A-4. K sits second to the left of H, who appears in SSC exam only with one

person. E belongs to A-8 category. Neither J nor K appears in NDA exam and none of them

belong to A-3 category. The one who belong to A-3 category sits second to the left of F.

D and F sit adjacent to each other. Neither D nor F belongs to A-4 category. The one who

belongs to A-5 category sits on the immediate right of B. The one who belongs to A-6 category

sits second to the left of the one who belongs to A-2 category. The one who belongs to A-7

category is an immediate neighbor of the one who belongs to A-4 category. D sits second to the

left of the one who belongs to A-1 category. One who appears in SSC exam sits to the immediate

left of H

47. Who among the following is second to the right of A?

1) H 2) J 3) B 4) F 5) K

48. What is the position of J with respect to the one who appears in Bank exam?

1) Second to the right 2) Second to the left

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3) Fifth to the left 4) Immediate neighbor

5) Other than the given options

49. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1) The one who belongs to A-7 category sits second to the right of the one who belongs to A-

2 category

2) K is an immediate neighbor of A and J.

3) Both 1) and 2)

4) The one who belongs to A-6 category appears in SSC exam.

5) All are true

50. Who among the following belongs to A-1 category?

1) K 2) J 3) D 4) A 5) E

51. Who among the following sits fourth to the left of the one who belongs to A-3 category?

1) K 2) A

3) One who appears in Bank exam 4) F 5) Both 2 and 3

52. Four of the following five are alike in some way, find out the odd one

1) HE 2) EB 3) DF 4) JA 5) JH

53. Which of the following is matched correctly?

1) J-A-2-UPSC 2) H-A-8-SSC 3) K-A-2-UPSC

4) D-A-7-SSC 5) All are true

Directions (54-57): In each question below are given three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements, disregarding

commonly known facts. Give answer.

1) If only conclusion I follows

2) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

3) If both conclusion I and II follow

4) If only conclusion II follows

5) If either conclusion I or II follows

(54-55):

Statements:

All stores are godowns

Each godown is a warehouse

No shop is a store

54. Conclusions:

I. All godowns being store is a possibility

II. A few godowns are not shops.

55. Conclusions:

I. All stores may not be shops

II. Every warehouse may be godown.

(56-57):

Statements:

Some cups are cakes

Only carrot is cucumber

Not only a single cup is cucumber

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

56. Conclusions:

I. All cucumbers being carrots is not a possibility

II. No cucumber is a cup.

57. Conclusions:

I. All cups are not carrots is a possibility

II. Some cakes may be cups

58. Statements: No Coffee is a Tea

Some Sugar is Coffee

No Sugar is a Sweet.

Conclusions: I. No coffee being sugar is possibility

II. All coffee being sweet is not a possibility.

Directions (59-63): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

P @ Q means P is neither greater nor equal to Q

P $ Q means P is neither smaller nor equal to Q

P # Q means P is not smaller than Q

P Q means P is not greater than Q

P % Q means P is neither greater nor smaller than Q

Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true. Find which

of the two conclusions numbered I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer.

1) If only conclusion I is true

2) If only conclusion II is true

3) If either conclusion I or II is true

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

5) If both conclusion I and II is true

59. Statements: N J # T, V @ P % N, E$V

Conclusions: I. E J II. J $ V

60. Statements: K # R $ V, T E @ S, S%V

Conclusions: I. T @ K II. R $ E

61. Statements: T % P Z N $ V $ Z, K@T

Conclusions: I. K # N II. V $ T

(62-63):

Statements: P # D, R @ V % J, D$N#J

62. Conclusions: I. D % J II. R P

63. Conclusions: I. V @ P II. R $ D

Directions (64-67): Each of the questions below consists of the question and two statements

numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the

statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements given answer

1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

questions

4) if the data in both the statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

5) if the data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question

64. In a five-floor building, on which floor does N live?

I. T lives immediately below Rs floor, who is not at the topmost floor. N lives between Ts

and Ks floor.

II. K lives on the even numbered floor. J lives immediately above at the floor at which N

lives. T doesnt live either at fifth or first floor.

65. Among seven person P, R, S,T, V, W and Z who is the second fastest runner?

I. T runs at the rate 22 km/hr but is not the fastest. R runs slower than V and W but is faster

than P and S.

II. S runs faster than only V. W is faster than T and P but not the faster one

66. In how many days does B complete the work?

I. According to A,B started working after 6th March and completed the work on 25th March

with taking some leave in that period

II. E takes two leave more than F. B takes one leave less than E. F takes four leave

67. What is the position of K with respect of S?

I. L is to the west of S and to the east of R. K is to the south of J, who is south of L

II. N is to the south of L and J, and K is to the south west of J

Directions (68-70): In the following questions, the symbol $, @, # and = are used with following

meaning as illustrated below:

A % B means B is daughter of A

A B means A is son of B

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A $ B means A is wife of B

A # B means A is father of B

68. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given expression, if R is brother-in-law of

V?

RT$K?N$V

1) # 2) % 3) 4) $ 5) Either 1 or 2

69. In the given expression, how is V related to K?

N%V$T%E$K

1) Daughter 2) Mother 3) Mother-in-law

4) Sister-in-law 5) Daughter-in-law

70. In which of the following options is P maternal uncle of U?

1) P T % K % R $ U 2) P T # K $ R U

3) T # P K $ U 4) P T % K $ R % U

5) Other than the given options

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English Language

Directions (71-75): In each of the following sentence parts of the sentence are left blank. Beneath

each sentence four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the best

alternative from among the given options.

71. Though one eye is kept firmly on the the company now also promotes .

Contemporary art

1) Present, experimental 2) Future, popular 3) Present, popular

4) Market, popular 5) None of these

72. The law prohibits a person from felling a sandalwood tree even if it grows on ones own

land without prior permission from the government. As poor people cannot deal with the

government this legal provision leads to a rip roaring business for who care neither

for the . nor for the trees

1) Middle men, rich 2) The government, poor 3) Touts, poor

4) Touts, rich 5) None of these

73. It will take some time for many South Koreans to the conflicting images of North

Korea, let alone to .. what to make of their northern cousin

1) Reconcile, decide 2) Understand, clarify 3) Make out, decide

4) Reconcile, understand 5) None of these

74. In these bleak and depressing times of prices, non-performing governments and

. Crime rates, Sourav Ganguly has given us Indians a lot to cheer about

1) Escalating, increasing 2) Spiralling, booming 3) Spiralling, soaring

4) Ascending, debilitating 5) None of these

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75. The manners and .. of the nouveau riche is a recurrent in the literature.

1) Style, motif 2) Morals, story 3) Wealth, theme

4) Morals, theme 5) None of these

Directions (76-80): The sentence given in each question, when properly sequenced form a

coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of

sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. If caught in the act, they were punished, not for the crime , but for allowing themselves to

be caught another lash of the whip

B. The bellicose Spartans sacrificed all the finer things in life for military expertise

C. Those fortunate enough to survive babyhood were taken away from their mothers at the

age of seven to undergo rigorous military training

D. This consisted mainly of beating and deprivations of all kinds like going around barefoot

in winter, and worse, starvation so that they would be forced to steal food to survive

E. Male children were examined at birth by the city council and those deemed too weak to

become soldiers were left to die of exposure.

76. Which of the following should be in the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) F 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) C

77. Which of the following should be in the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D

78. Which of the following should be in the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) E 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) B

79. Which of the following should be in the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) B 2) G 3) D 4) E 5) C

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80. Which of the following should be in the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?

1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) F

Directions (81-84): Read the following passage and answer the questions.

We consumed the recommendations of the Thirteenth finance Commission (TF) on the

fiscal front, as reported. The commission has dumped numerical targets in favour of qualitative

ones for the fiscal and revenue deficits. The deficits are to go up in the downswing of a business

cycle and come down on the upswing all the way to a surplus in the case of the revenue deficit

with a council of wise men moderating any inclination on the part of the government of the

day to declare a downswing when there is only an election on the horizon. The commission has

focused on the governments liabilities as a proportion of GDP. All this makes sense. Public

finance experts have pointed out a tendency for the fiscal deficit to go up in an election year,

whatever the state of the business cycle. In the recent showdown, an election-oriented wise

deficit was already in place when the economic squeeze came, and the economy came through

handsomely. We cant count on such lucky coincidences all the time. So, the sort of institutional

mechanism suggested by the commission would be quite appropriate.

A cyclically adjusted policy would call for more discipline, both by the Centre and the

States. They would have to build a surplus during an upswing that would provide a cushion to

spend more during a downtrun. This would mean reducing their indebtedness in a boom. Both

the Centre and the State cannot go on a spending binge during a boom as they need to save for

a rainy day, that would inevitably turn up, sooner or later. The TFCs suggestion to disclose

liabilities as a proportion of GDP would give a more accurate picture of the governments

balance sheet. The commission also stresses the need for the government to make its accounting

more transparent. At present, subsidies paid to oil or fertilizer companies through bonds are

accounted as below-the-line items to camouflage a high fiscal deficit. This must end. But the

ultimate goal should be comprehensive reforms to rein in subsidies. A fiscal course correction is

very much in order.

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

81. According to the passage,

I. TFC recommended that discipline should be maintained while tackling fiscal deficit

II. TFC commented that only a lucky coincidence saved the country from economic crisis

III. TFCs criticized the Central and State Governments for spending binge during boom

period.

1) I and II are correct 2) I and III are correct

3) I, II and III are correct 4) II and III are correct

5) None of these

82. It can be inferred from the passage that

1) the Central and State government are unable to contain the fiscal deficit

2) the Central and State government should take adequate steps to reduce the fiscal deficit

3) the Central and State government are responsible for the economy not doing well

4) the Central and State government should stop all subsidies which are creating fiscal

deficit.

5) None of these

83. According to the passage, subjects that are discussed included

1) what items should be given subsidy 2) GDP growth

3) why the economy has fared well despite economic squeeze

4) misdirected planning of earlier finance commissions

5) None of these

84. According to the passage, which one of the following inferences is true?

1) Subsidies should be reigned in gradually to achieve fiscal control

2) Subsidies are more than what the economy can absorb

3) GDP should take into account government spending

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

4) GDP calculations are manipulated without accounting for foreign investments

5) None of these

Directions (85-90): Each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option from the four

options given below the statements to make up the missing part.

85. The ancient Egyptians believed. So that when these objects were magically reanimated

through the correct rituals, they would be able to function effectively

1) that it was essential that things they portrayed must have every relevant feature shown as

clearly as possible

2) it was essential for things they portray to have had every relevant features shown as

clearly as possible

3) it was essential that the things they portrayed had every relevant feature shown as clearly

as possible

4) that when they portrayed things, it should have every relevant features shown as clearly

as possible

5) None of these

86. Many people suggest and still others would like to convince people not to buy pirated

cassettes.

1) to bring down audiocassette prices to reduce the incidence of music piracy, others

advocate strong legal action against the offenders

2) bringing down audiocassette prices to reduce the incidents of music piracy, others are

advocating strong legal action against offenders

3) bringing down audiocassette prices to reduce the incidence of music piracy, others

advocate strong legal action against offenders

4) Audiocassette prices to be brought down to reduce incidence of music piracy, others

advocate that strong legal action must be taken against offenders

5) None of these

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

87. Archaeologists believe that the pieces of red-ware pottery excavated recently near

Bhavnagar and . shed light on a hitherto dark 600-year period in the Harappan

history of Gujarat

1) estimated with a reasonable certainty as being about 3400 years old,

2) are estimated reasonably certain to be estimated years old

3) estimated at about 3400 years old with reasonable certainty,

4) estimated with reasonable certainty to be about 3400 years old,

5) None of these

Directions (88-90): In each question, a word is given which is used in four different ways,

numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or IN

APPROPRIATE.

88. PASSING

1) She did not have passing marks in mathematics

2) The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road

3) At the birthday party all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel

4) A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital

5) None of these

89. BOLT

1) The shopkeepers showed us a bolt of fine silk

2) As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate

3) Could you please bolt the door?

4) The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime

5) None of these

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

90. FALLOUT

1) Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiations

2) People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant

3) Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?

4) The headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the

public examination

5) None of these

Directions (91-95): Fill up the blanks, numbered [i], [ii] .. up to [v], in the passage below with

the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

Between the year 1946 and the year 1955, I did not file any income tax returns. With

that [i] statement, Ramesh embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax

Department. I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [ii] and fines, the 20,000

became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned firsthand just

how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [iii];

automobiles may be [iv], and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [v] until the case is settled.

91. 1) devious 2) blunt 3) tactful 4) pretentious 5) other than the options

92. 1) interest 2) taxes 3) principal 4) returns 5) other than the options

93. 1) closed 2) detached 3) attached 4) impounded 5) other than the options

94. 1) smashed 2) seized 3) dismantled 4) frozen 5) other than the options

95. 1) purchaser 2) victim 3) investor 4) offender 5) other than the options

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

Directions (96-100): Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the

word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? In the sentence is

correct as it is given and no correction is required, select No correction required as the answer

96. People though are trying making lighting of the incidence

1) trying to make lighting in 2) tried to make light in

3) are trying to make light of 4) are tried making light

5) No correction required

97. It is a well known fact that more than 60 per cent population of this world live under the

poverty line

1) live behind 2) live below

3) lives under 4) living under

5) No correction required

98. Since we are living in a metro city for three years, we are reluctant to move to another city

1) As we lives at 2) Since we lived at

3) Since we have been living in 4) For we are living in

5) No correction required

99. Being too economical for him, he purchased two samples of the toy

1) It been too economical for him 2) It being too economical for him

3) Him being too economical by it 4) His being too economical for it

5) No correction required

100. The cloud of misfortunes appears to have blown out

1) over 2) up 3) away 4) in 5) No correction required

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IBPS PO Prelims Model Paper

Answer Key

1.3 2.4 3.4 4.3 5.1 6.2 7.3 8.2 9.4 10.4

11.5 12.1 13.2 14.2 15.5 16.4 17.1 18.2 19.3 20.3

21.4 22.1 23.5 24.4 25.2 26.1 27.3 28.3 29.5 30.1

31.3 32.4 33.5 34.1 35.2 36.2 37.1 38.2 39.4 40.4

41.1 42.2 43.4 44.2 45.3 46.1 47.2 48.1 49.3 50.4

51.1 52.4 53.3 54.3 55.4 56.4 57.3 58.2 59.2 60.5

61.2 62.4 63.1 64.1 65.4 66.5 67.1 68.5 69.3 70.4

71.2 72.3 73.1 74.3 75.4 76.3 77.4 78.4 79.3 80.2

81.3 82.1 83.2 84.3 85.3 86.3 87.4 88.1 89.2 90.4

91.2 92.1 93.3 94.2 95.4 96.3 97.2 98.3 99.2 100.1

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