Vendor: Cisco

Exam Code: 200-310

Exam Name: CCDA - Designing for Cisco Internetwork

Solutions (DESGN)

Version: 17.041
QUESTION 1
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design
implementation plan? (Choose three.)

A. step description
B. design document references
C. easy guidelines in case of failure
D. estimated implementation time
E. simple implementation guidelines
F. estimated rollback time in case of failure

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics:

Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend?

A. NAC Appliance
B. Cisco IBNS
C. CSM
D. Cisco Security MARS

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on
the network devices themselves.
Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while
being customized according to each interface?

A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. On which router should you configure redistribution?
A. Router 1
B. Router 2
C. Router 3
D. Router 4
E. Router 5

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.)

A. NetFlow
B. FWSM
C. ISE
D. VRRP
E. sFLOW

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?

A. IPsec VPN
B. AnyConnect VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. EasyConnect VPN

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?

A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 2338
C. RFC 2460
D. RFC 2740

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple
routers?

A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. IGRP

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three.)

A. consolidation
B. virtualization
C. automation
D. standardization
E. optimization
F. modulation

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design?

A. higher availability
B. repeatable scalability
C. increased security
D. improved resiliency

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network
bandwidth. Which would satisfy this requirement?

A. RIPv2
B. RIPng
C. OSPF
D. ARP
E. EGP

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose
two.)

A. IPS
B. NAC
C. ASA
D. ACS
E. WCS

Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent
propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?

A. stub
B. totally stubby
C. backbone
D. NSSA
E. virtual link

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?

A. monitor mode
B. sniffer mode
C. rogue detector mode
D. local mode

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers, given that the two
data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate
this requirement?
A. VRF
B. OTV
C. MPLS
D. SPT
E. vPC

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?

A. 300 bytes
B. 1 sec
C. 150 ms
D. 500 ms

Answer: C

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the network is route summarization recommended?

A. data link layer

B. core layer
C. distribution layer
D. access layer

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple
branch offices?

A. DSL
B. DWDM
C. ISDN
D. Metro Ethernet

Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the
Enterprise edge?

A. Cisco IOS router

B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Catalyst FWSM
D. Cisco IPS
Answer: D

QUESTION 20
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPSEC VPN connection, which
technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport?

A. ISDN
B. Metro Ethernet
C. Frame Relay
D. ADSL
E. ATM

Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?

A. signal attenuation
B. required bandwidth
C. required distance
D. electromagnetic interference
E. cost

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of the following? (Choose two.)

A. route summarization
B. faster convergence
C. unequal cost load balancing
D. redistribution
E. virtual links

Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Service Provider Module? (Choose
three.)

A. ring
B. star
C. full mesh
D. core/edge
E. collapsed core
F. partial mesh

Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is a component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module?

A. Teleworker
B. E-Commerce
C. Internet Connectivity
D. Building Distribution
E. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN

Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments? (Choose two.)

A. automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs

B. LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
C. automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
D. Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
E. controller redundancy
F. mobility groups

Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an environment for teleworkers?
(Choose three.)

A. supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and nontechnical users

B. simplifying router installation and configuration
C. verifying available power at employee's house for necessary equipment
D. avoiding situations where employees might use nonstandard hardware or configurations
E. reducing daily commuting time to main office location
F. providing access to FTP servers located in main office location
G. implementing leased line connectivity between main office and employee's home location

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 27
Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
models?

A. It divides the network into functional network modules.

B. It divides the network into role-based network modules.
C. It divides the network into regional network modules.
D. It divides the network into operational network modules.

Answer: A
QUESTION 28
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider
before deployment? (Choose two.)

A. All areas need to connect back to area 0.

B. The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 29
Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?

A. RIPE
B. ARIN
C. IANA
D. IEEE
E. APNIC

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)

A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN

Answer: CD

QUESTION 31
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy.
Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent
propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?

A. stub
B. totally stubby
C. backbone
D. NSSA
E. virtual link

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?

A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing
data for billing network usage?

A. BGP
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. QoS
D. RMON
E. NetFlow

Answer: E

QUESTION 35
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose
three.)

A. Use organizational input.

B. Perform a traffic analysis.
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 36
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP

Answer: DE

QUESTION 37
What is the benefit of VLSM?

A. reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length

B. reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization
C. reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization
D. allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised
E. secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose
two.)

A. extends the network to remote users

B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN

Answer: DE

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured.
Which numbered box represents the core layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
E. #5

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)

A. video streaming on the LAN

B. security between departments
C. the segmenting of collision domains
D. the segmenting of broadcast domains
E. the use of multivendor equipment
F. a limited corporate budget

Answer: BD

QUESTION 41
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an
existing network? (Choose three.)

A. staff input
B. visual inventory
C. network audit
D. traffic analysis
E. server statistics

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 42
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional
campus network design?

A. Layer 3 service support at the network edge

B. the routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C. the routing abilities of the host devices
D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core

Answer: A

QUESTION 43
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?

A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of
services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the
dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer.

Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which statement is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design?

A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by
STP.
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent
of any other devices.
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is the most optimal.
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging
IP routes and MAC address tables.

Answer: C

QUESTION 45
When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed
multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options?

A. Will the switches be required to provide inline power?

B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?

Answer: D

QUESTION 46
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to
the designer have their own strengths. Which statement is an example of such a strength?

A. Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize
intercontroller roaming events.
C. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the
controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center.
D. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the
same subnet for more efficiency.

Answer: B

QUESTION 47
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100
meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)

A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX

Answer: AD

QUESTION 48
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?

A. monitor mode
B. sniffer mode
C. rogue detector mode
D. local mode

Answer: C

QUESTION 49
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center
network should these services be provisioned?

A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution

Answer: B

QUESTION 50
A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. What two virtualization technologies can
address the problem by directly reducing the number of physical devices? (Choose two.)

A. virtual switching systems

B. virtual device contexts
C. virtual servers
D. virtual routing and forwarding
E. virtual port channels
F. virtual LANs

Answer: BC

QUESTION 51
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What
routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?

A. floating static entry

B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths

Answer: A

QUESTION 52
When designing a new enterprise campus network, what topology should be used for maximum
scalability?

A. flat
B. three-layer
C. star
D. partial mesh
E. full mesh

Answer: B

QUESTION 53
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the
distribution block?

A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links

Answer: D

QUESTION 54
An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network. What must be
considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?

A. reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the
routing table
B. centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer
C. reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer
D. performance differences between core, distribution and access layer equipment

Answer: D

QUESTION 55
What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?

A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16

Answer: C

QUESTION 56
Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?

A. service port
B. management port
C. controller port
D. virtual port

Answer: A

QUESTION 57
In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion
detection services?

A. monitor mode
B. promiscuous mode
C. discovery mode
D. sniffer mode

Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Which HSRP parameters must match, to ensure proper functionality?

A. group parameters
B. priority parameters
C. preempt parameters
D. tracking parameters

Answer: A

QUESTION 59
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose
three.)

A. existing documentation
B. new documentation
C. existing network management software
D. new network management tools
E. management personnel
F. technical personnel

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 60
Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)

A. core layer
B. distribution layer
C. access layer
D. aggregation layer
E. network layer
F. Internet layer

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 61
Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements?
(Choose three.)

A. support for legacy applications

B. bandwidth support for new applications
C. limited budget allocation
D. policy limitations
E. limited support staff to complete assessment
F. support for existing legacy equipment
G. limited timeframe to implement

Answer: ABF
QUESTION 62
Which two common cable management strategies are used in high-density server deployments in
the data center? (Choose two.)

A. top-of-rack
B. middle-of-rack
C. bottom-of-rack
D. beginning-of-row
E. middle-of-row
F. end-of-row

Answer: AF

QUESTION 63
Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol for an existing infrastructure
that contains multiple vendors and platforms?

A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF

Answer: B

QUESTION 64
Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default?

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RSTP
E. BGP

Answer: A

QUESTION 65
Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.)

A. Looped Triangle
B. Looped Square
C. Looped U
D. Loop-Free Triangle
E. Loop-Free Square
F. Loop-Free U

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 66
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)

A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. backbone
E. aggregation

Answer: AB

QUESTION 67
What is a characteristic of campus core designs?

A. fast transport
B. security
C. summarization
D. redistribution

Answer: A

QUESTION 68
Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to all other enterprise modules?

A. network management servers

B. DHCP servers
C. Active Directory servers
D. IP SLA servers
E. web servers

Answer: A

QUESTION 69
Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach without a repeater?

A. 1000Base-CX
B. 1000Base-LX
C. 1000Base-SX
D. 1000Base-T

Answer: B

QUESTION 70
Which three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified IP Phone

B. Cisco 880 Series Router
C. Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D. Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E. Cisco 2900 Series Router
F. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G. Leased lines

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 71
What is the maximum number of groups that is supported by GLBP?

A. 64
B. 256
C. 512
D. 1024

Answer: D

QUESTION 72
Which three service categories are supported by an ISR? (Choose three.)

A. voice
B. security
C. data
D. Internet
E. storage
F. satellite

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 73
Which three protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)

A. RIPv2
B. RIPv1
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IGRP

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 74
Which statement describes a unique advantage of EIGRP?

A. It enables unequal-cost load balancing.

B. It enables equal-cost load balancing.
C. It enables source-based load balancing.
D. It enables port-based load balancing.

Answer: A
QUESTION 75
ACME corporation is implementing dynamic routing on the LAN at its corporate headquarters.
The interior gateway protocol that they select must support these requirements: multivendor
environment, efficient subnetting, high scalability, and fast convergence.
Which interior gateway protocol should they implement?

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIPng
D. BGP

Answer: B

QUESTION 76
Which routing protocol classification should you use when full topology information is needed?

A. link-state
B. distance vector
C. stateful
D. path vector

Answer: A

QUESTION 77
When you are designing a large IPv6 multivendor network, which IGP does Cisco recommend
that you use?

A. OSPFv3
B. EIGRP for IPv6
C. BGP
D. RIPng

Answer: A

QUESTION 78
Which is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?

A. 2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words

B. 8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C. 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D. 2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words

Answer: D

QUESTION 79
When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the enterprise edge, which solution would
be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1X
B. ACLs in the core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. AAA

Answer: D

QUESTION 80
Which two design approaches provide management of enterprise network devices? (Choose
two.)

A. in-band
B. out-of-line
C. out-of-band
D. in-line

Answer: AC

QUESTION 81
Refer to the list of requirements.
Which IP telephony design model should you implement to fulfill these requirements?

A. centralized
B. distributed
C. clustered
D. decentralized

Answer: A

QUESTION 82
What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)

A. strict
B. loose
C. VRF
D. global
E. PIM
F. local

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 83
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer
switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n

Answer: B

QUESTION 84
Which technology enables WLCs to peer with each other to enable roaming support?

A. WAP profiles
B. roaming profiles
C. mobility groups
D. peer groups

Answer: C

QUESTION 85
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?

A. client endpoints
B. voice-enabled infrastructure
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center

Answer: B

QUESTION 86
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and
systems?

A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE

Answer: B

QUESTION 87
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO
design model? (Choose three.)

A. goals
B. budget
C. user needs
D. locations
E. policies
F. tasks

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 88
An engineer receives a resource utilization alert on a router. What command should be used to
investigate the issue?

A. show processes cpu

B. show memory
C. show running-config
D. show version

Answer: A

QUESTION 89
What part of the network does a top-down network design focus on for solution development?

A. presentation
B. hardware
C. session
D. application
E. data link
F. transport

Answer: D

QUESTION 90
An engineer has configured a router to send level 7 messages to a syslog server. What severity
level are these messages?

A. error
B. warning
C. debug
D. informational
E. notice

Answer: C

QUESTION 91
A network engineer must implement a design where LAN clients are to connect to various access
layer devices, while remaining on the same VLAN . What type of design would support this
requirement?

A. routed
B. switched
C. tunneled
D. virtual
Answer: B

QUESTION 92
When evaluating network designs, what indicator demonstrates that the modular approach was
followed?

A. ability to scale
B. follows best practices
C. redundant connectivity
D. easy to deploy

Answer: A

QUESTION 93
A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. To which network layer
would a branch office connect to using a private WAN?

A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module

Answer: D

QUESTION 94
A network engineer is following the three tiered Network Hierarchical Model. At which tier is route
summarization implemented?

A. core
B. distribution
C. backbone
D. access

Answer: B

QUESTION 95
A network engineer is using the Cisco enterprise architecture model.
In what module do network management servers reside?

A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Remote Modules
D. SP Edge WAN/internet

Answer: A

QUESTION 96
What three design requirements are key to designing a campus core? (Choose three.)

A. low latency
B. access control
C. traffic filtering
D. high speed
E. redundant links
F. QoS tagging

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 97
What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast domain?

A. router
B. switch
C. IDS
D. IPS

Answer: B

QUESTION 98
To what Layer 2 technology does VRF closely compare?

A. VSS
B. VPC
C. VLAN
D. VTP

Answer: C

QUESTION 99
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the
number of physical devices?

A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS

Answer: C

QUESTION 100
During the design of a new campus network, the customer requests the ability to route
overlapping IP addresses. What technology can be leveraged to meet this request?

A. VRF
B. VLANs
C. VSS
D. VPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 101
A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using a virtualization technology.
What protocol can be configured to perform this task?

A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. VRF
D. VPC

Answer: C

QUESTION 102
What device virtualization technology allows for a single point of management and a centralized
routing instance?

A. ACE
B. VSS
C. VDC
D. VM

Answer: B

QUESTION 103
What two performance considerations must be taken into account when designing a remote
worker access solution? (Choose two.)

A. simultaneous VPN connections

B. port density
C. throughput capacity
D. packet size
E. latency

Answer: AC

QUESTION 104
In which network location should an external DNS server be placed?

A. campus data center

B. enterprise branch
C. internet
D. remote access

Answer: C
QUESTION 105
What submodule is found within the Enterprise Edge module?

A. enterprise WAN
B. remote branch
C. campus IPS
D. building distribution

Answer: A

QUESTION 106
A company requires a managed WAN solution that supports Layer 2 adjacency across remote
offices for applications and services. What solution should be selected?

A. DMVPN
B. MPLS
C. VPLS
D. FR

Answer: C

QUESTION 107
A circuit order has been placed for Gigabit Ethernet and is 80KM from the carrier equipment.
What type of SFP will be required?

A. TX
B. SX
C. ZX
D. LX

Answer: C

QUESTION 108
Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below?

A. IKE
B. PIX
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
E. HMAC

Answer: D
QUESTION 109
A secure WAN design requires dynamic routing and IP multicast.
What two VPN protocols meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Standard IPsec
B. P2P GRE over IPsec
C. DMVPN
D. AnyConnect
E. PPTP
F. Easy VPN
G. SSL/TLS

Answer: BC

QUESTION 110
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls?

A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. extra large

Answer: C

QUESTION 111
A network engineer is designing an enterprise managed VPN solution for a large number of
remote offices that do not have on-site IT support and communicate only with the home office.
What type of VPN solution should be implemented?

A. VPLS
B. GRE
C. IPsec
D. EVPN
E. DMVPN
F. SSL client

Answer: D

QUESTION 112
A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client
requests WAN redundancy to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types
satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit

B. ISDN BRI
C. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet
D. DWDM l
E. POTS Line T1 WAN
Answer: AC

QUESTION 113
What two features are advantages of adding a secondary WAN link at the enterprise edge?
(Choose two.)

A. provides additional bandwidth and load balancing capabilities

B. acts as a backup link in event the primary link fails
C. reduces capital and operational costs
D. improves security and prevents against denial of service attacks
E. distributes traffic proactively based on link utilization

Answer: AB

QUESTION 114
What technology can secure data over an insecure medium and provide WAN redundancy in the
event of a primary connection failure?

A. virtual private network

B. shadow PVC
C. dial-up ISDN
D. GRE Tunnel

Answer: A

QUESTION 115
A client wants to consolidate applications that are currently housed at multiple sites to a remote
data center. What two design requirements are unique to this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. bandwidth
B. security
C. latency
D. storage
E. availability

Answer: AC

QUESTION 116
What IPv4 addressing technique allows for the division of addresses into subnets of different
sizes?

A. VLSM
B. RIR
C. CIDR
D. NAT

Answer: A
QUESTION 117
An organization is conducting an evaluation on the migration to IPv6 within the enterprise network
and has requested clarification on recommended migration strategies.
What three migration models would accomplish the organization's goal? (Choose three.)

A. Dual Stack
B. Service Block
C. Top-Down
D. Hybrid
E. Tunneled
F. Fork-Lift

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 118
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application
communicate using IPv6?

A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast

Answer: A

QUESTION 119
What significant advantage does EIGRP have over OSPF?

A. easy summarization
B. shorter convergence times
C. single area operation
D. low processor utilization

Answer: B

QUESTION 120
What routing protocol requires full mesh between internal peers in an enterprise network?

A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. ISIS
E. RIP

Answer: C

QUESTION 121
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol?
(Choose three.)
A. classful routing
B. scalability
C. default route origination
D. multi vendor support
E. link load balancing
F. hop count

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 122
By default, how does EIGRP's metric differ from OSPF?

A. hops
B. cost
C. bandwidth
D. delay

Answer: D

QUESTION 123
What characteristic separates link state routing protocols from a distance vector?

A. creates a topological view of the entire network

B. path calculation utilizes a more granular metric
C. does not scale well for large networks
D. constantly shares link state updates throughout the topology

Answer: A

QUESTION 124
A company must deploy an IGP routing protocol on an Enterprise Network.
Where should route summarization be implemented?

A. distribution
B. core
C. access
D. backbone

Answer: A

QUESTION 125
What routing configuration can prevent routing loops between IGPs?

A. route filters
B. route reflectors
C. auto summarization
D. virtual links
Answer: A

QUESTION 126
What is the first step when creating a network security policy?

A. define what should be protected

B. investigate how likely an attack is to occur
C. implement measures to protect assets
D. hire a security firm to perform penetration tests

Answer: A

QUESTION 127
A customer requests a filtering design based on the need to scan all internet traffic, including
remote workers. What solution meets these requirements?

A. Cisco Cloud Web Security

B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

Answer: A

QUESTION 128
A customer wants to support a BYOD environment. What two products allow for posture
assessment? (Choose two.)

A. ACS
B. NAC
C. ASA
D. ISE
E. WAAS
F. IDS

Answer: BD

QUESTION 129
What two CoS values are used by voice traffic? (Choose two.)

A. COS1
B. COS2
C. COS3
D. COS4
E. COS5

Answer: CE
QUESTION 130
A client wants to deploy a video conferencing platform in a multisite WAN environment. What two
design considerations need to be evaluated? (Choose two.)

A. CODECs supported by the video units

B. buffer sizes on the routers
C. POE capabilities of the switches
D. number of current calls
E. number of hops between sites

Answer: AD

QUESTION 131
What wireless authentication option requires a Public Key Infrastructure?

A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. LEAP
D. EAP-FAST

Answer: A

QUESTION 132
What two access point modes support the transmission of user traffic over a LWAPP/CAPWAP
tunnel? (Choose two.)

A. local
B. H-REAP
C. rogue detector
D. monitor
E. sniffer
F. standalone

Answer: AB

QUESTION 133
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN
design?

A. roaming between APs

B. RADIUS user authentication
C. radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer

Answer: C

QUESTION 134
A wireless LAN client is sending traffic to the wired LAN client. What path will the packet take to
reach the destination endpoint in a lightweight wireless deployment?
A. switch > controller > ap > client
B. controller > ap > switch > client
C. ap > controller > switch > client
D. switch > ap > controller > client

Answer: C

QUESTION 135
What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange
services in remote data centers?

A. Application Control Engine

B. Wide Area Application Services
C. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller

Answer: B

QUESTION 136
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?

A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular

Answer: B

QUESTION 137
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access
model in the data center?

A. It enables NIC teaming.

B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It decreases convergence.

Answer: A

QUESTION 138
Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168.1.0/24 network, which are listed here:

The variance 4 command was issued on Router A.

How many active entries does Router A have in its routing table for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 139
Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose
two.)

A. split horizon
B. route summarization
C. route poisoning
D. tuned timers

Answer: AC

QUESTION 140
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS

Answer: C

QUESTION 141
What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)

A. strict
B. loose
C. VRF
D. global
E. PIM
F. local

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 142
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. What layer of the OSI
model is used to start the design?

A. physical
B. network
C. transport
D. application

Answer: D

QUESTION 143
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?

A. backbone
B. core
C. access
D. distribution

Answer: C

QUESTION 144
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose
two.)

A. reduces operational cost

B. higher port density
C. investment protection
D. consistent operation
E. improved fault tolerance

Answer: DE

QUESTION 145
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design.
The client has asked to increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution.
How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding new physical connections?

A. enable spanning-tree portfast

B. enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches

Answer: B

QUESTION 146
Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise, and PIM Sparse- mode has been
enabled on all VLANs. What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted
on the access layer switches?

A. IGMP snooping
B. Multicast boundary filter
C. PIM dense-mode
D. Dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: A

QUESTION 147
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)

A. ISCSI
B. FCoE
C. SATA
D. Fiber Channel
E. AoE

Answer: AB

QUESTION 148
A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the
public Internet using GRE. What technology can be used to encrypt this communication channel?

A. access lists
B. IP security
C. context based access
D. intrusion prevention system

Answer: B

QUESTION 149
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.

B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 150
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:

Which technology should the organization use?

A. DSL
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. wireless
E. analog modem
Answer: A

QUESTION 151
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?

A. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.

B. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
E. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 152
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes traffic across multiple gateways?

A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. IBGP

Answer: B

QUESTION 153
A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router. What two
tools can provide this information? (Choose two.)

A. NBAR
B. CiscoWorks
C. SNMP collector
D. NetFlow collector
E. Syslog

Answer: AD

QUESTION 154
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing
network infrastructure?

A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback

Answer: C
QUESTION 155
A design engineer must send management information messages across the public internet.
What solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these messages?

A. SNMP v3
B. NetFlow v9
C. Syslog Traps
D. Secure Shell v2
E. SNMP v2

Answer: A

QUESTION 156
A network engineer is designing a solution that will monitor IP traffic through corporate routers
with the ability to export the flows to a collection engine without using network probes. What
technology meets this requirement?

A. RMON
B. NetFlow
C. SNMP
D. Syslog
E. IP SLA

Answer: B

QUESTION 157
A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. Where are aggregation
switches found?

A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge WAN
D. Remote Module

Answer: A

QUESTION 158
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces?
(Choose two.)

A. VTP transparent mode

B. BPDUguard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode

Answer: BD

QUESTION 159
What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange
services in remote data centers?

A. Application Control Engine

B. Wide Area Application Services
C. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller

Answer: B

QUESTION 160
What design feature should be considered when accessing resources from a remote data center
over a WAN connection?

A. security
B. bandwidth
C. reliability
D. management

Answer: B

QUESTION 161
What two addresses are defined under RFC 1918? (Choose two.)

A. 19.22.37.1
B. 10.1.7.19
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 172.31.1.1
E. 239.15.12.1

Answer: BD

QUESTION 162
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of
entries in a routing table?

A. filtering
B. tunneling
C. summarization
D. translation
E. supernetting

Answer: C

QUESTION 163
What two components are used when creating an endpoint's modified EUI-64 format IPv6
address? (Choose two.)

A. IPv6 Prefix
B. 64-bit MAC address
C. 48-bit MAC address
D. IPv4 Address
E. Link Local Suffix

Answer: AC

QUESTION 164
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its
own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?

A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area

Answer: C

QUESTION 165
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose
two.)

A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput

Answer: BC

QUESTION 166
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the
distribution and access layer?

A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links

Answer: B

QUESTION 167
What network technology consolidates network and storage traffic in the data center?

A. virtual storage-area network

B. unified fabric
C. unified computing system
D. virtual switching system

Answer: B

QUESTION 168
What type of topology supports WAN redundancy when a balance is required between cost, high
availability, and performance?

A. partial meshed
B. full meshed
C. star
D. ring
E. hub-and-spoke
F. bus
G. point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 169
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?

A. circuit bandwidth
B. prioritization
C. security
D. operational expense

Answer: B

QUESTION 170
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence
in a Cisco environment. What protocol allows for this?

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS

Answer: A

QUESTION 171
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)

A. allows a quick response to a design request

B. facilitates design that is based on previous experience
C. requires little or no notation of actual organizational requirements for implementation
D. incorporates organizational requirements
E. provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer
Answer: AB

QUESTION 172
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?

A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access

Answer: F

QUESTION 173
Directory services and electronic messaging are performed at which layer of the network?

A. core
B. application
C. distribution
D. network

Answer: B

QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load
balancing at the same time?

A. R1
Interface Ethernet0
 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track serial 0
standby 2 priority 95
!
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 1 priority 95
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1
Interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 1 priority 95
!
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 1 priority 95
C. R1
Interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 1 priority 95
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track serial 0
standby 2 priority 95
!
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1
Interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 1 priority 95
!
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100

Answer: A

QUESTION 175
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet
environments. What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning.

B. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame.
C. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet
in all campus networks.
D. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows
load balancing between redundant paths.
E. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 176
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using
optical connections. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. In this design, which
solution ensures that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?

A. optimized OSPF SPF timers

B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. automatic protection switching
D. optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring

Answer: B

QUESTION 177
Which statement is true about using a DNS server to discover a controller IP?

A. The AP sends a discovery request to the first controller on the list and then goes down the list
 chronologically until it receives a discovery response.
B. The AP sends a discovery request to the last controller on the list and then goes up the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response.
C. The AP sends a discovery request to all controllers on the list simultaneously.
D. Multiple controller IP addresses in a DNS response are not supported.

Answer: C

QUESTION 178
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer
complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at
a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is
being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer
headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?

A. The wrong CIR is configured.

B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.

Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Which option is an advanced congestion management mechanism?

A. weighted fair queuing

B. policing
C. payload compression
D. header compression

Answer: A

QUESTION 180
Which option is an example of physical device virtualization?

A. VSS
B. VPN
C. VRF
D. VLAN

Answer: A

QUESTION 181
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?

A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric

Answer: A

QUESTION 182
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the
capability to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the
new design should use the existing WAN. Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?

A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM

Answer: C

QUESTION 183
In which two places is redundancy recommended in an enterprise campus network design?
(Choose two.)

A. building distribution
B. campus core
C. building access
D. e-commerce
E. Internet connectivity

Answer: AB

QUESTION 184
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)

A. minimize the effect of link failures

B. minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C. minimize the convergence time of STP
D. load balance across redundant paths
E. save network costs

Answer: AB

QUESTION 185
Which two statements are true regarding a hierarchical network? (Choose two.)

A. facilitates choosing the type of routing protocols to be used in the network

B. provides scalability without affecting other layers and functionality
C. provides better performance as network resources are efficiently utilized
D. limits redundancy at the distribution layer
E. complicates manageability because of the added security

Answer: BC

QUESTION 186
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors

Answer: AC

QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what
is the main limitation that must be addressed?
A. scalability
B. serviceability
C. redundancy
D. resiliency

Answer: A

QUESTION 188
A network engineer is tasked with summarizing the routes to a remote site. What is the optimal
route statement to connect to the 192.168.101.0/24 and 192.168.102.0/24 networks across the
corporate WAN?

A. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

B. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.252.0 10.1.1.1
C. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
D. ip route 192.168.101.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Where should routes in the routing table be aggregated or summarized?
A. in the core toward the data center
B. in the distribution toward the access
C. in the core toward the distribution
D. in the distribution toward the core

Answer: D

QUESTION 190
Which option is used by OSPF to reduce the flooding domain of database updates in a network?

A. hello packets
B. virtual links
C. interface cost
D. areas

Answer: D

QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit. Which three OSPF routers are the only routers that may perform
summarization with the current network layout? (Choose three.)
A. Router 2
B. Router 3
C. Router 4
D. Router 5
E. Router 7
F. Router 8

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 192
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose
two.)

A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

B. fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing

Answer: AB

QUESTION 193
Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop will the router select if given an IP packet with the destination
address 19.48.254.3?

A. Router 2
B. Router 1
C. Interface 0
D. Interface 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. In this suboptimal design of a homogeneous Cisco network, which version of
spanning tree provides the fastest convergence?

A. PVST+
B. CST
C. RPVST
D. VSTP
E. PVST

Answer: C

QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active
moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?

A. The STP root becomes the gateway.

B. The interdistribution link is used for transit.
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway.
D. The interaccess link is used for transit.
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active.

Answer: B

QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. The organization is migrating away from FHRP. VSS has been implemented
on a pair of Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches. In order to avoid changes to end hosts, the
default gateway is carried over to the SVI on the VSS. Why does the implementation plan require
a four-hour wait after removing the FHRP configuration?
A. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. It takes four hours
for the VLAN interface to come up.
B. The SVI IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the SVI to
come up.
C. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. It takes four hours
for the ARP cache to time out.
D. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the
VLAN interface to come up.
E. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the
ARP cache to time out.

Answer: C

QUESTION 197
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on a Cisco wireless controller?

A. config create interface

B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface

Answer: C

QUESTION 198
Which three series of Cisco wireless controllers support wireless Bidirectional Rate Limiting?
(Choose three.)

A. Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers

B. Cisco 5500 Series Wireless Controllers
C. Cisco 5700 Series Wireless Controllers
D. Cisco 7500 Series Wireless Controllers
E. Cisco 8500 Series Wireless Controllers
F. Cisco 7200 Series Wireless Controllers

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 199
Which option can use deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?

A. network IPS
B. NetFlow collector
C. stateful firewall
D. syslog server

Answer: A

QUESTION 200
Refer to the exhibit. Which location is best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has visibility into the
most data center traffic?

A. inline before the firewall

B. inline after the firewall
C. passive off the firewall
D. passive off the internal switch

Answer: D

QUESTION 201
A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access
internal resources using a company laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT
department. Which VPN method is used for connectivity?

A. DMVPN
B. SSL VPN
C. IPsec VPN
D. GET VPN

Answer: C

QUESTION 202
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?

A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network

B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users

Answer: A

QUESTION 203
Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support OTV technology? (Choose
two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers
D. Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers
E. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches

Answer: BC

QUESTION 204
Which IETF standard technology can be used with data center design to readily scale server
virtualization?

A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

B. OTV
C. vPC
D. FCoE

Answer: A

QUESTION 205
Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization? (Choose three.)

A. virtual PortChannel
B. virtual machine
C. Virtual Device Context
D. Virtual Switching System
E. virtual device driver

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 206
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security
components?

A. logical
B. physical
C. layered
D. virtual

Answer: A

QUESTION 207
What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the appropriateness of the design?

A. Operate
B. Optimize
C. Design
D. Implement

Answer: A

QUESTION 208
What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and resolution of issues prior to
moving the entire network to production?

A. Optimize
B. Operate
C. Implementation
D. Design

Answer: A

QUESTION 209
You are tasked with designing a new branch office that will support 75 users with possible
expansion in the future and will need a highly available network.
Which of the branch design profiles should be implemented?

A. large branch design

B. medium branch design
C. teleworker design
D. small branch design

Answer: B
Explanation:
Medium Branch Design
The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users, which is
similar to the small branch but with an additional access router in the WAN edge (slightly larger)
allowing for redundancy services. Typically, two 2921 or 2951 routers are used to support the
WAN, and separate access switches are used to provide LAN connectivity.

QUESTION 210
Which four services does the architecture for Media Services contain? (Choose four.)

A. access services
B. transport services
C. storage services
D. forwarding services
E. session control services
F. security services
G. filtering services
H. remote access services

Answer: ABCE
Explanation:
An architecture framework for media services supports different models of video models. As
shown in Figure 14-13, the network provides service to video media in the Media Services
Framework. Those services are access services, transport services, bridging services, storage
servers, and session control services, which arc provided to endpoints. Access services provide
identity of end devices, mobility, and location services. Transport services provide QoS for
reliable packet delivery. Bridging services provide transcoding, conferencing, and recording
services of media streams.
Storage services provide capture and storage of media streams and content management and
distribution. Session control services provide session signaling and control and gateway services.

QUESTION 211
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)

A. VSS: Virtual Switching System

B. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C. VCI: virtual channel identifier
D. VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E. VM: virtual machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same
physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the
other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of
policies, QoS levels, and independent routing paths. Here are some examples of network
virtualization technologies:
VLAN: Virtual local-area network
VSAN: Virtual storage-area network
VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding
VPN: Virtual private network
VPC: Virtual Port Channel

QUESTION 212
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time
stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal
impact on the network devices themselves.
Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?

A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:
NetFlow provides extremely granular and accurate traffic measurements and a high-level
collection of aggregated traffic. The output of netflow information is displayed via the show ip
cache flow command on routers. The Table shows a description of the fields for NetFlow output.
Table. Netflow Output escription
QUESTION 213
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)

A. frame relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Frame relay is old 'shared' technology today's sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION 214
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content
server?

A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable

Answer: C
Explanation:
Any cast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which data grams from a single
sender are routed to the topologically nearest node in a group of potential receivers all identified
by the same destination address.

QUESTION 215
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow
across the network?

A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS

Answer: C
Explanation:
RSVP Signaling protocol that enables end stations or applications to obtain guaranteed
bandwidth and low delays for their data flows.

QUESTION 216
Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802.1X protocol. Which other
authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802.1X to authenticate users for network
access?

A. RADIUS
B. LEAP
C. IPsec
D. TACACS
E. ISAKMP

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Identity-Based Network Services
The Cisco Identity-Based Network Services solution is a way to authenticate host access based
on policy for admission to the network. IBNS supports identity authentication, dynamic
provisioning of VLANs on a per-user basis, guest VLANs, and 802.1X with port security.
The 802.1 X protocol is a standards-based protocol for authenticating network clients by
permitting or denying access to the network. The 802.1 X protocol operates between the end-
user client seeking access and an Ethernet switch or wireless access point (AP) providing the
connection to the network. In 802.1 X terminology, clients are called supplicants, and switches
and APs are called authenticates. A back-end RADIUS server such as a Cisco Access Control
Server (ACS) provides the user account database used to apply authentication and authorization.
With an IBNS solution, the host uses 802.IX and Extensible Authentication Protocol over LANs
(EAPoL) to send the credentials and initiate a session to the network. After the host and switch
establish LAN connectivity, username and password credentials are requested. The client host
then sends the credentials to the switch, which forwards them to the RADIUS ACS.
The RADIUS ACS performs a lookup on the username and password to determine the
credentials' validity. If the username and password are correct, an accept message is sent to the
switch or AP to allow access to the client host. If the username and password are incorrect, the
server sends a message to the switch or AP to block the host port. Figure 13-4 illustrates the
communication flow of two hosts using 802.1X and KAPoL with the switch, AP, and back-end
RADIUS server.
QUESTION 217
Refer to the exhibit. Which layer is the distribution layer?

A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Answer: B

QUESTION 218
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?

A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize

Answer: B
Explanation:
Plan Phase
The Plan phase identifies the network requirements based on goals, facilities, and user needs.
This phase characterizes sites and assesses the network, performs a gap analysis against best-
practice architectures, and looks at the operational environment. A project plan is developed to
manage the tasks, responsible parties, milestones, and resources to do the design and
implementation. The project plan aligns with the scope, cost, and resource parameters
established with the original business requirements. This project plan is followed (and updated)
during all phases of the cycle.

QUESTION 219
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?

A. Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached devices

B. Generates a profile based on username and group
C. Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based on LAN traffic
D. A database used to map user VPN accounts

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco NAC Profiler: Enables network administrators to keep a real-time, contextual inventory of
all devices in a network. It greatly facilitates the deployment and management of Cisco Network
Admission Control (NAC) systems by discovering and tracking the location and type of all LAN-
attached endpoints, including those that are not capable of authenticating. It also uses the
information about the device to determine the correct policies for NAC to apply.

QUESTION 220
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?

A. Obtain site contact information

B. Perform network audit
C. Identify customer requirements
D. Perform gap analysis

Answer: C
Explanation:
Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network
strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. Technologies
that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a
financial justification for a network strategy.

QUESTION 221
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch
office environment?

A. CST
B. RSPT
C. PVST
D. MISTP
E. Rapid PVST +

Answer: E

QUESTION 222
Drag and Drop Question

Answer:
QUESTION 223
Drag and Drop Question

Answer:

QUESTION 224
Drag and Drop Question
Answer:

QUESTION 225
Drag and Drop Question

Answer:

QUESTION 226
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design
methodology? (Choose three.)

A. logical
B. physical
C. layered
D. network components
E. technological
F. protocols
G. virtual

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 227
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?

A. high cost per port

B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance

Answer: C

QUESTION 228
Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and reliability? (Choose two.)

A. hardware failures
B. layer 1 link failures
C. application failures
D. core layer failures
E. distribution layer failures

Answer: AB

QUESTION 229
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do they have on the routing
table?

A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added.

B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added.
C. Both routes are added.
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 230
Which two options are benefits of using a modular network architecture? (Choose two.)

A. facilitates troubleshooting
B. accurate monitoring
C. consistent documentation
D. increased flexibility
E. reduced cabling requirements

Answer: AD

QUESTION 231
What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses?

A. shorter addresses
B. automatic summarization
C. hierarchal global address space
D. faster IGP convergence

Answer: C

QUESTION 232
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.

Answer:

QUESTION 233
Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the
Cisco Network Architecture for the Enterprise?

A. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the enterprise campus access layer and enterprise branch.
B. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the enterprise campus server farm layer and enterprise
branch.
C. Place the DHCP server in the enterprise campus core layer and remote access and VPN module,
and place the DNS server in the Internet connectivity module.
D. Place the DHCP server in the enterprise campus distribution layer, and place the DNS server in
the Internet connectivity module.

Answer: B

QUESTION 234
For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts, which subnet is the most efficient?

A. 10.0.0.1/8
B. 172.31.17.0/26
C. 192.168.1.0/25
D. 192.168.15.0/24

Answer: C

QUESTION 235
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.

Answer:
QUESTION 236
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?

A. a VRF instance
B. a MIB database
C. a GRE tunnel
D. redundant hardware

Answer: A

QUESTION 237
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a
single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF
for internal routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this
situation?

A. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
B. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP
routing protocol.
C. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
E. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.

Answer: D

QUESTION 238
In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion
detection services?
A. monitor mode
B. promiscuous mode
C. discovery mode
D. sniffer mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 239
You design a network with the following network addresses:

Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?

A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16

Answer: C

QUESTION 240
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically
connected hosts?

A. core
B. access
C. aggregation
D. distribution

Answer: A

QUESTION 241
Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization?

A. It reduces the size of the routing table.

B. It causes routes to be updated more frequently.
C. It lowers the cost metric.
D. It enables neighbor discovery.

Answer: A
QUESTION 242
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an
Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol
between the two locations?

A. GRE over IPsec

B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN

Answer: A

QUESTION 243
GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor relationship between two routers,
across the public Internet. Which technology can you use to encrypt this communication channel?

A. access lists
B. IPsec
C. CBAC
D. IPS

Answer: B

QUESTION 244
According to fundamental design principles, which location is best for implementing Cisco QoS
policies?

A. hardware
B. software
C. Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running IOS software
D. WAN routers running IOS software

Answer: A

QUESTION 245
Refer to the exhibit.

Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private
addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

A. NAT
B. VLAN
C. GARP
D. PPP

Answer: A

QUESTION 246
In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances? (Choose two.)

A. inline
B. promiscuous
C. VTP group
D. threat mitigation
E. threat detection

Answer: AB

QUESTION 247
What three design best practices are key functions of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)

A. fault domain isolation

B. admission control
C. access switch aggregation
D. QoS tagging
E. address summarization
F. end user and application isolation

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 248
A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large existing production network. From
the IOS CLI, what two protocols can be used to build a topology map of the existing network?
(Choose two.)

A. SNMP
B. IP SLA
C. ICMP Echo
D. LLDP
E. Traceroute

Answer: DE

QUESTION 249
A network engineer needs to create a controller-based, high-density RF design. Which two
factors determine the cell size? (Choose two.)
A. antenna type
B. ClientLink support
C. TPC threshold setting
D. QoS setting
E. free space path loss

Answer: AC

QUESTION 250
According to Cisco best practices, which traffic control should you apply to the strict priority
queue?

A. Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity.

B. Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps.
C. Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-time traffic should be permitted.
D. The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100 ms.

Answer: A

QUESTION 251
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right.

Answer:
QUESTION 252
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)

A. discarding
B. learning
C. blocking
D. listening
E. disabled

Answer: AB

QUESTION 253
What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Migration
B. Deployment
C. Optimization
D. Design
E. Configuration

Answer: AB

QUESTION 254
Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco WLC? (Choose three.)

A. Platinum
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Silver
E. Premier
F. Critical

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 255
What is the optimal device and location to fulfill these requirements?

A. IPS inline outside of the firewall

B. IPS inline inside the firewall
C. Cisco IOS IPS on the border router
D. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the firewall
E. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside the firewall

Answer: A

QUESTION 256
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols
would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require
optimization? (Choose two.)

A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP

Answer: BE

QUESTION 257
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)

A. ESX host
B. VM
C. switches
D. routers
E. Hyper-V host

Answer: CD

QUESTION 258
An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a collapsed core. What design
issue is a primary concern per Cisco best practices?

A. services delineation
B. port density
C. feature availability
D. resource utilization
Answer: D

QUESTION 259
Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model?

A. focuses on the needs of user communities

B. includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements
C. facilitates a quick response to client requests
D. produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome

Answer: C

QUESTION 260
When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network,
which of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider?

A. 802.1X
B. ACLs in the core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. NetFlow

Answer: A

QUESTION 261
Which network virtualization technique can you implement without disrupting the existing network
design and infrastructure?

A. VRF-Lite
B. EVN
C. MPLS
D. VNET tags

Answer: A

QUESTION 262
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?

A. when remote-site APs are centrally managed

B. when each remote site has its own wireless controller
C. when each remote site runs VSS
D. when the remote sites use WAN optimization

Answer: A

QUESTION 263
Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an LWAP can communicate with the
Cisco WLC in a different subnet?
A. 7
B. 19
C. 43
D. 150

Answer: C

QUESTION 264
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.

Answer:

QUESTION 265
Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model?

A. modular
B. top-down
C. bottom-up
D. full-mesh

Answer: A

QUESTION 266
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1

Answer: C

QUESTION 267
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. provides information about directly connected Cisco devices

B. provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard

Answer: A

QUESTION 268
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.

Answer:
QUESTION 269
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A. reduces routing table size

B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability

Answer: AD

QUESTION 270
What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder scalability? (Choose two.)

A. routing table bloat

B. inability to utilize automatic summarization
C. insufficient IP addresses
D. slowed packet forwarding
E. delayed interface queuing

Answer: AB

QUESTION 271
QUESTION 272

QUESTION 273

QUESTION 274
QUESTION 275

QUESTION 276

AB

QUESTION 277

QUESTION 278
A network architect working for a large financial institution is designing a VPN solution that must
include encryption.
Which VPN type meets this requirement?

A. getvpn
B. l2vpn
C. mpls vpn
D. l3vpn

Answer: D

QUESTION 279
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (Choose two)

A. implement redundant links

B. increase data plane bandwidth
C. implement serial device connection
D. reduce network size
E. implement redundant topology

Answer: AE

QUESTION 280
A consultant at company XYZ connects to the guest wireless network but cannot reach the mgmt
vlan to complete an audit.other users can connect to the mgmt vlan without any issues. Why is
the consultant unable to access the MGMT VLAN?

A. the access is not permitted

B. Ap is offline
C. the wlc is offline
D. the MGMT VLAN is down

Answer: A

QUESTION 281
In an enterprise Layer 2 switched network, which protocol must be running to enable link
redundance?

A. CDP
B. PAGP
C. LACP
D. STP

Answer: D

QUESTION 282
What are two important aspects to Consider when looking at backup circuit options for a branch
location?

A. Type of dynamic routing protocol

B. Backup MPLS Connection
C. Internet service provider diversity
D. local exchange carrier diversity
E. type of core switch

Answer: AB

QUESTION 283
What is the maximum switch in VSS?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: A

QUESTION 284
What is the technology that allows you to combine more than two switches?

A. stackwize
B. vss
C. vpc
D. etherchannel

Answer: A

QUESTION 285
Which phase of cisco design life cycle the validation of network infrastructure happened?

A. Assessment in plan
B. deployment in build
C. Validation in build
D. optimization in operate

Answer: C

QUESTION 286
Drag and drop the top-down approach process

Analysis of application and organization requirements

Design from the top of the OSI reference model
Define requirements for upper layers (Application, Presentation, Session)
Specify infrastructure for lower OSI layers (transport, network, data link, physical)
Gather additional data on the network

Answer:
Analysis of application and organization requirements
Design from the top of the OSI reference model
Define requirements for upper layers (Application, Presentation, Session)
Specify infrastructure for lower OSI layers (transport, network, data link, physical)
Gather additional data on the network

QUESTION 287
Which two network services should you host on the DMZ? (Choose two)

A. WWW
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. TACACS+

Answer: AB

QUESTION 288
What is the benefit of using VLSM?

A. To save a wested ip address

B. To expand a subnet

Answer: A

QUESTION 289
In layer 2 design approach, how you can describe STP redundancy?

A. It use the most efficiency of redundant link

B. Only one link is active per time
C. It redistribute the traffic between links

Answer: B

QUESTION 290
What is the vlan subnet that can handle 60 host?

A. /21
B. /24
C. /25
D. /26

Answer: D

QUESTION 291
A network engineer must collect application-level information of deep attack?

A. NBAR
B. CiscoWorks
C. SNMP collector
D. NetFlow collector
E. Syslog

Answer: D

QUESTION 292
When you make change on Network, what the consideration of environment Data center network
network?

A. Location
B. Air condition and cooling
C. storage and rack
D. Floor &

Answer: B

QUESTION 293
Which in build stage?

A. assesetment
B. vlidation
C. deployment

Answer: BC

QUESTION 294
What is the important in access layer?

A. Port secutity
B. Spaning tree

Answer: AB

QUESTION 295
Which QOS level should VOIPset on WLC?

A. Platinium
B. Gold
C. premier
D. critical

Answer: A

QUESTION 296
Which cisco technology can connect more than two switches so that they behave as one switch?

A. Etherchannel
B. Trunking
C. VSS
D. Stackwise

Answer: D

QUESTION 297
Which two processes are included in the Build phase of the Cisco Design Life Cycle? (Choose
two.)

A. Design
B. Validation
C. Analysis
D. Deployment
E. Assessment

Answer: BD

QUESTION 298
What two benefits of Top Down approach? (Choose two.)

A. Incorporate organizational requirements

B. Design will follow application
C. Based on previous experience and quick response.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 299
When designing changes to an existing network, which two options are documented to
understand environmental constraint? (Choose two.)

A. Utilization of network resources

B. Floor and rack space availability
C. Host naming conventions
D. Heating and Air conditioning
E. Location of existing documentation

Answer: BD

QUESTION 300
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are
true? (Choose two.)

A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer

Answer: D
QUESTION 301
Which level needed to be set on Cisco WLC for VolP traffic:

A. PLATINUM
B. GOLD
C. SILVER
D. BRONZE

Answer: A

QUESTION 302
Choose considerations for access layer design? (Choose two.)

A. QOS
B. Routing
C. Port security
D. Load balance
E. HSRP

Answer: AC

QUESTION 303
For a VLAN that requires 60 hosts, which subnet is the most efficient?

A. 10.0.0.1/20
B. 172.31.17.0/27
C. 10.10.10.0/26
D. 192.168.15.0/24

Answer: C

QUESTION 304
Which option is an advantage of a Layer 3 access model over the traditional Layer 2 access
model?

A. Increased neighbor adjacencies

B. Faster convergence
C. Reduced resources on the router
D. Reduced size of routing table

Answer: B

QUESTION 305
Which data center connection supports QoS , full mesh deployment and typically offers SLAs?

A. Internet VPN
B. MPLS
C. DMVPN
D. Frame Relay

Answer: B

QUESTION 306
In Cisco ACI, which option is the unified point of automation , management , monitoring and
programmable?

A. Python
B. REST
C. APIC
D. Postman

Answer: C

QUESTION 307
An engineer is designing a solution for multiple multihomed to establish router between one
another which design must be ?

A. OSPF
B. iBGP
C. eBGP
D. EIGRP

Answer: C

QUESTION 308
Which statement about modular network design is true?

A. It is complex and should be used only in specialized situations

B. Each deployed module is identical to the others,simplifiying configuration
C. It is flexible architecture that simplify design,management and troubleshooting
D. Each module include access,distribution and core layers.

Answer: C

QUESTION 309
Which option is an object instance than an API identifies using information model-based
architecture?

A. DN
B. Class
C. Method
D. MO

Answer: A

QUESTION 310
A Consulting engineer is tasked with designing a company LAN Network Infrastrue.Two
requirements are the ability for fast convergence summarization anywhere in the network ,
independent of router location or role .Which routing protocol support this effort?

A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. EIGRP

Answer: D

QUESTION 311
Traditionally, the DMZ exists between which two locations? (Choose two.)

A. Metro Access
B. Corporate Network
C. Building access
D. Building distribution
E. Internet

Answer: BE

QUESTION 312
What branch connection type supports SLAs,Full-Mesh connectivity and QoS?

A. Frame Relay
B. MPLS
C. Internet VPN
D. Point-to-Point

Answer: B

QUESTION 313
which statement about using STP in a redundant-link scenario is true?

A. It provides the most efficient use of redundant links

B. It bonds the two links and treats them as one link
C. It uses only one redundant link at any one time
D. It balances traffic by transmitting packets on alternating links

Answer: C

QUESTION 314
Company ABC has intermittent problems registering remote-site IP phones over the WAN with
Cisco Unified CallManager at headquartes.The Company hires a network consultant to help
implement QoS in its network.Which technique should the consultant use to identify traffic and
applications that traverse the network?

A. NBAR
B. RSVP
C. Policing
D. Priority queuing

Answer: A

QUESTION 315
Which statement about VSS is true?

A. It requires HSRP
B. It requires STP for link redundancy
C. It can maintain the topology independently of STP
D. It has two control planes

Answer: C

QUESTION 316
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same
AS? (Choose two.)

A. Community
B. Route reflectors
C. Local preference
D. Confederations
E. Atomic aggregate

Answer: BD

QUESTION 317
Which address is the broadcast address of subnet 120.20.78.8/30?

A. 120.20.78.8
B. 120.20.78.12
C. 120.20.78.1
D. 120.20.78.11

Answer: D

QUESTION 318
Which connection provides cost effective backup connectivity for a branch network?

A. Frame Relay
B. MPLS
C. ATM
D. Internet VPN

Answer: D
QUESTION 319
A network engineer is implementing a new mesh WAN topology. The solution support
synchronous bandwidth and allow for future growth?
Which solution is best suited to meet these requirements?

A. DMVPN over business class modem

B. SSL VPN over business class cable modem
C. Bonded T1s
D. MPLS over Ethernet

Answer: A

QUESTION 320
Refer to the exhibit . Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two network for
translating private address into "Legal" public addresses on a onefor-one basis?

A. PPP
B. VLAN
C. NAT
D. PAT

Answer: C

QUESTION 321
Which application can provide AAA services for Cisco Devices?

A. IP SLA
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. TACACS+
D. Cisco FirePOWER

Answer: C

QUESTION 322
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?

A. To make a subnet public

B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet

Answer: B

QUESTION 323
Which option characterizes normal traffic flow and performance of a network?

A. Utilization
B. Baseline
C. Availability
D. Bandwidth

Answer: A

QUESTION 324
Refer to the exhibit. When a VSS configuration is reviewed,it is determined that the nodes are not
detecting each other. Which option is the issue with the switches?

A. The Switch virtual domains incorrect

B. The switches have not been restarted after the VSS configuration application
C. Additional port-channel links are required
D. 10GB Ethernet must be confirmed

Answer: A

QUESTION 325
Based on best practices , which QoS profile should be configured on the WLAN of the WLC for
wireless VoIP communications?

A. Platinum
B. Gold
C. Bronze
D. Silver

Answer: A

QUESTION 326
How many switches can be combined into a single network element using VSS?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 6
D. 2

Answer: D