Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
Jason M. Ampoloquio
copyright 2005
ISBN 971-92592-7-2
And to the following: Vic Buenconsejo (Colegio de San Agustin Bacolod) and
Dean Christopher Taclobos (UNO-R Bacolod) for their continuous trust in my
potentials and warmth accommodation during my stay in their respective
places.
To Engr. Reynante Abuyan: Thank you for lending me your awesome printer
and editing the first few chapters of this superb guidebook.
To all ECE reviewees: Thank you for your patronage and trust! And may all
your dreams be electric!
jma/pece
f e
F
or as much as many have tried to create a good ECE guide book, it seems
good to me also, having had a fine understanding to finally craft a review
book intended not to compete to those which are existing but in my own
little way and with Gods help, to properly guide ECE students on their quest to
the elusive licensure examination.
T
he Self-sufficient Guide to Electronic Communications Engineering (ECE)
that I preferred to call SUPERBook, is a comprehensive and meticulous
compilation of modified concepts in every aspect of communications
engineering discipline. The SUPERBook is carefully scrutinized to cover
important details that are imperative to board exam preparation but also
taken into account minute pieces of information commonly neglected by
reviewees that lead to occasionally guessing the board exam questions.
S
ince it is also a proven fact that 50% of learning process comes from
visual aids and illustration, and past ECE board questions require the
knowledge of block diagram to be answered correctly, the
author/compiler painstakingly prepared lavish illustration that will scintillate
the interest of readers.
A
lso the SUPERBook flagships is its minefield of 250+ scrupulously
solved and 2100+ multiple choice practice problems aimed to help ECE
reviewees to keep abreast to the recent trend of ECE board
examination.
T
he answer to even-numbered questions are intentionally withheld by the
author/compiler but will be discuss to EXPERTS reviewees during
review, refresher and coaching program for the reason that the author is
anticipating ECE school teachers and co-reviewers will use some of the
question as a safe and quick exam references since the answers are withheld
and encourage readers to test their knowledge in the field of communications
engineering.
A
nd finally, the author/compiler firmly believed that knowledge is
cumulative. It is not based on each persons re-inventing that is known,
but rather accumulating what has been learned from the past,
synthesizing new ideas from old formulas and principles, and creating
completely new insights, I hope elements of all three can be found in these
pages, and I want to acknowledge the contribution of all those works
(textbooks, journals, manuals, magazine, and website tutorials) has added to
my understanding of the various topics of this lavish guidebook.
Section 2
Amplitude
Modulation
Section 3 m 2Pc
Angle Modulation PLSB = PUSB = 0
4
Section 4
Noise Analysis and
dB Calculations
Section 5
Transmitters & m 2Pc
PLSB = PUSB = 0
Receivers 4
Introduction to
Electronics
Communication
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1820 Hans Christian Oersted discovered the relation between electricity and
magnetism, later known as electromagnetism.
1866 James Clerk Maxwell put together the principles of Oersted, Faraday
and hypothesized the existence of electromagnetic waves.
Adjectival
Frequency Range Metric Subdivision
Designation
0.03 to 0.3 Hz Gigametric ELF
0.3 to 3 Hz Hectomegametric ELF
3 to 30 Hz Decamegametric ELF
30 to 300 Hz Megametric ELF
300 to 3400 Hz Hectokilometric ULF (Voice)
3 to 30 kHz Myriametric VLF
30 to 300 kHz kilometric LF
300 to 3000 kHz Hectometric MF
3 to 30 MHz Decametric HF
30 to 300 MHz metric VHF
300 to 3000 MHz decimetric UHF
3 to 30 GHz centimetric SHF
30 to 300 GHz millimetric EHF
300 to 3000 GHz decimillimetric EHF
3 to 30 THz centimillimetric EHF
30 to 300 THz Micrometric EHF
300 to 3000 THz Decimicrometric EHF
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-3
1. Transmitter
A collection of electronic components and circuits designed to convert
the information or intelligence into a signal suitable for transmission
over a given communication medium.
2. Channel
The medium by which the electronic/electromagnetic signal is sent
from one place to another.
2 General Categories
i. Wire Medium
The signal is confined within the proximity of the channel or
medium.
a.k.a. Bounded or Guided medium
ii. Wireless Medium
The signal is not subjected to limits, boundaries, or channel
restrictions.
a.k.a. Unbounded or Unguided Medium
Noise
Noise is a random, undesirable electrical energy that enters the
communications system and interferes with the transmitted message.
3. Receiver
The receiver is another collection of electronic components and circuits
that accept the transmitted message from the channel and convert it
back into a form understandable by humans.
Noise SPECTRUM
White Noise - White noise is defined as a noise that has equal amount
of energy per frequency.
This means that if you could measure the amount of white noise energy between
100 Hz and 200 Hz it would equal the amount of energy between 1000 Hz and
1100 Hz.
Pink Noise - Pink noise is noise that has an equal amount of energy
per octave.
This means that pink noise would have equal power in the frequency range from
40 to 60 Hz as in the band from 4000 to 6000 Hz.
Brown noise - Brown noise is similar to pink noise, but with a power
density decrease of 6 dB per octave with increasing frequency (density
proportional to 1/f2) over a frequency range which does not include
DC.
Blue Noise - Blue noise is noise that is the opposite of pink noise in
that it doubles the amount of energy each time you go up 1 octave.
C. .MODULATION.
1. Analog modulation
Angle Modulation
Frequency modulation (FM)
Phase modulation (PM)
2. Digital Modulation
Pulse modulation
Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
i. Differential PCM (DPCM)
ii. Delta Modulation (DM)
iii. Adaptive DM (ADM)
iv. Continuously Variable Slope Delta (CVSD)
v. Sigma-Delta Modulation ()
D. .WAVEFORM REPRESENTATION.
A standard oscilloscope is
used to display the amplitude
versus time representation of
the input signal.
i. Frequency (f)
The number of times a particular phenomenon occurs in a given
period of time expressed in Hertz.
ii. Wavelength ()
Wavelength is the distance between two points of similar cycles of
a periodic wave or the distance traveled by an electromagnetic
wave during the time of one cycle typically expressed in meters.
c c 1
= f= T=
f f
where:
= wavelength in meters
c = speed of light
= 3 x 108 m/s
f = frequency in Hertz
T = period in sec
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-7
Solution:
Wavelength :
c 3 x 108
= =
f 30 x 106
= 10 m
A spectrum analyzer is
used to display the
amplitude versus
frequency representation
of the input signal.
A
A
t
f
DOPPLER EFFECT
A perceived change in the frequency of a wave as the distance between
the source and the observer changes.
The top sign apply if the source and/or object are moving toward each
other and the bottom sign apply if they move away from each other.
Sample Problem:
An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren
emitting a sound with a frequency of 400 Hz. What frequency is heard
(a) by someone standing still when the ambulance approaches?
(b) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it approaches the ambulance?
(c) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it moves away from the ambulance? 75 mi/h = 33.5 m/s, 55 mi/h =
24.6 m/s.
Solution:
c r
fo = fs
c r
fo = Observed frequency in Hz
c = Speed of light
= 3 x 10 8 m / s
r = Velocity of source relative to observer in m/s
fs = Source frequency in Hz
The top sign apply if the source and/or object are moving toward each
other and the bottom sign apply if they move away from each other.
Sample Problem:
A LEO communications satellite is orbiting the earth at 27,000 kph
(7,500 m/s). Calculate the frequency received by a mobile station antenna
due to Doppler shift 450 km below if the satellite is operating at 1.28 GHz.
Also compute the Doppler shift. (Assume the satellite is moving away from
the subscriber)
Solution:
c r
fo = fs 27,000 kph
c + r
c 7500 m
s
= 1.28 GHz
c + 7500 m
s
450 km
= 1.279968 GHz
1. Absolute bandwidth
Absolute bandwidth is the difference between the upper and lower
frequency limits (f2-f1), where the spectrum is zero outside the interval
f1<f<f2 along the positive frequency axis.
5. Power bandwidth
Power bandwidth is f2-f1, where f1<f<f2 defines the frequency band in
which 99% of the total power resides.
FCC bandwidth
FCC bandwidth is an authorized bandwidth parameter assigned by
the FCC to specify the spectrum allowed in communication
systems.
Example:
What is the necessary bandwidth designation for 180.5 kHz?
A. 181K B. 180K5
C. 181K5 D. 180.5K
Answer. A
The ITU divides the world into three regions, with each region having
its own allocations although there is much commonality between the
regions.
FIRST SYMBOL
Type of Modulation of the Main Carrier
(1.1) Emission of unmodulated carrier N
(1.2) Emission in which the main carrier is AMPLITUDE MODULATED
(1.2.1) Double Sideband A
(1.2.2) Independent Sideband B
(1.2.3) Vestigial Sideband C
(1.2.4) Single Sideband, full carrier H
(1.2.5) Single Sideband, reduced or variable-level carrier R
(1.2.6) Single Sideband, suppressed carrier J
SECOND SYMBOL
Nature of Signal(s) Modulating the Main
THIRD SYMBOL
Type of Information(s) to be transmitted
T N T D N
FOURTH SYMBOL
Details of Signal(s)
FIFTH SYMBOL
Nature of Multiplexing
(5.1) None N
(5.2) Code Division Multiplex C
(5.3) Frequency Division Multiplex F
(5.4) Time Division Multiplex T
(5.5) Combination of frequency division multiplex and W
time division multiplex
(5.6) Other types of multiplexing X
FIRST SYMBOL
Type of Modulation of the Main Carrier
(1.1) Amplitude A
(1.2) Frequency or Phase F
(1.3) Pulse P
SECOND SYMBOL
Type of Transmission
(2.1) Absence of any modulation intended to carry information 0
(2.2) Telegraphy without the use of a modulating audio frequency 1
(2.3) Telegraphy by the on-off keying of a modulating audio frequency, 2
or by the on-off keying of the modulated emission (special case:
an unkeyed modulated emission)
(2.4) Telephony (including sound broadcasting) 3
(2.5) Facsimile (with modulation of main carrier directly or by a 4
Frequency-modulated subcarrier)
(2.6) Television (visual only) 5
(2.7) Four-frequency duplex telegraphy 6
(2.8) Multichannel voice-frequency telegraphy 7
(2.9) Cases not otherwise covered 9
THIRD SYMBOL
Supplementary Characteristics
(3.1) Double sideband
(3.2) Single sideband
(3.2.1) Reduced carrier A
(3.2.2) Full carrier H
(3.2.3) Suppressed carrier J
(3.3) Two independent sideband B
(3.4) Vestigial sideband C
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-15
(3.5) Pulse
(3.5.1) Amplitude modulated D
(3.5.2) Width (or duration) modulated E
(3.5.3) Phase (or position) modulated F
(3.5.4) Code modulated G
(3.6) Digital modulations Y
H. .FORMER DESIGNATION.
A0 No modulation
A1 Telegraphy; on-off ; no other modulation
A2 Telegraphy; on-off ; amplitude-modulated tone
A3 Telephony; DSBFC
A3A Telephony; SSBRC
A3J Telephony; SSBSC
A3H Telephony; SSBFC
A3B Telephony; ISB
A3Y Digital voice modulation
A4 Facsimile
A5C Television with vestigial sideband
A9B Telephony or telegraphy with ISB
A9Y Nonvoice digital modulation
F1 Telegraphy; FSK
F2 Telegraphy; on-off ; frequency-modulated tone
F3 Telephony; FM or PM
F3Y Digital voice modulation
F9Y Nonvoice digital modulation
F4 Facsimile
F5 Television
F6 Telegraphy; four-frequency duplex
3. PulseModulated
P0 RADAR
P1D Telegraphy; ASK
P2D Telegraphy; pulse-carrier tone-modulated
P2E Telegraphy; pulse-width tone-modulated
P2F Telegraphy; phase or position tone-modulated
P3D Telephony; amplitude-modulated pulses
P3E Telephony; pulse-width modulated
P3F Telephony; pulse phase or position-modulated
I. .TRANSMISSION MODES.
1. Simplex
Transmissions can occur only in one direction. Sometimes called one-
way-only, receive-only, or transmit-only.
2. Half-Duplex
Transmissions can occur in both directions, but not at the same time.
Sometimes called two-way-alternate, either-way, or over-and-out
systems.
3. Full Duplex
Transmissions can occur in both directions at the same time.
Sometimes called two-way-simultaneous, duplex, or both-way line.
4. Full/Full Duplex
Possible to transmit and receive simultaneously, but not necessary
between the same two locations (i.e. one station can transmit to a
second station and receive from a third station at the same time).
J. .CIRCUIT ARRANGEMENTS.
1. Two-Wire Transmission
2. Four-Wire Transmission
K. .MULTIPLEXING TECHNIQUE.
L. .TRANSMISSION FACILITIES.
1. Narrowband
A single channel (64 Kbps) or some number of 64 Kbps channels (N
64 Kbps), but less than wideband.
2. Wideband
Wideband is multi-channel capacity that is between 1.544 Mbps and
45 Mbps according to U.S. standards (2.048 Mbps-34 Mbps according
to European/international standards.)
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-19
3. Broadband
Broadband is multi-channel capacity which is 45 Mbps according to
U.S. standards and 34 Mbps according to European/international
standards.
M. .TRANSMISSION IMPAIRMENTS.
Signals travel through transmission media, which are not perfect. The
imperfection causes signal impairment. This means that the signal at the
beginning of the medium is not the same as the signal at the end of the
medium. What is sent is not what is received. Three causes of impairment
are attenuation, distortion, and noise.
1. Attenuation
A type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to
the resistance and length of the transmission medium.
A
TRANSMISSION MEDIUM
2. Distortion
The alteration of information in which the original proportions are
changed, resulting from a defect in communication system.
CHANNEL
SOURCE RECEIVER
3. Noise
A type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as
crosstalk corrupts a signal.
SOURCE RECEIVER
N. .CLASSIFICATION OF COMMUNICATIONS.
1. Distress
A mobile station in distress is in need of immediate assistance.
2. Urgency
Radio messages with an urgency classification refer to a situation that
requires immediate attention and might conceivably become distress
in nature.
Radiotelegraph XXX
Radiotelephone PAN PAN
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-21
3. Safety
Radio communications with a safety classification refer to
meteorological information, particularly about storms, hurricanes, etc.
Radiotelegraph TTT
Radiotelephone SECURITY
O. .MESSAGE PRIORITIES.
P. .OPERATIONAL WORDS.
Code Meaning
I H
1. A 5-frame TDM multiplexer has a total frame period of 625 s. If the timeslot
per channel is 5.208 sec, determine the number of channels per frame and
the total number of digital channels.
A. 60, 12 B. 120, 24
C. 12, 60 D. 24, 120
3. If several musical instruments are playing the same note, you should be able to
distinguish one instrument from another because of which of the following
characteristics of sound?
A. Frequency B. Intensity
C. Overtones D. Quality
6. ____ noise is noise that has an equal amount of energy per octave.
A. Pink B. Yellow
C. White D. Blue
9. The world's first operational packet switching network, and the progenitor of
the global Internet.
A. DECNET B. ARPANET
C. ISDN D. NMT
10. ______ would have equal power in the frequency range from 40 to 60 Hz as in
the band from 4000 to 6000 Hz.
A. pink noise B. blue noise
C. white noise D. green noise
14. ______ would have equal power in the frequency range from 40 to 60 Hz as in
the band from 4000 to 4020 Hz.
A. pink noise B. blue noise
C. white noise D. green noise
15. What is the wavelength for a color in the middle of the visible light band if the
visible light frequency range is from 0.39 PHz (red) to 0.79 PHz (violet)?
A. 5000 nm B. 50 nm
C. 5 D. 500 nm
16. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
A. Marconi B. Bell
C. Maxwell D. Hertz
17. What percentage of the VHF band does a 6-MHz TV signal occupy?
A. 2.2% B. 8.8%
C. 4.4% D. 1.1%
18. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 0.15 MHz BW if the allocated
BW per station is 10 KHz?
A. 100 B. 50
C. 150 D. 15
20. Determine the BW of sonic frequency range if the infrasonic frequency ends at
20 Hz while ultrasonic frequency begins at 20, 000 Hz.
A. 4 kHz C. 10 kHz
B. 8 kHz D. 19.98 kHz
21. What percentage of the audio passband does a high fidelity CD quality music
occupy?
A. 66.67% B. 43.25%
C. 74.82% D. 50%
25. In AT&T FDM hierarchy the group BW is 48 KHz, determine the number of voice
channel that a supergroup can handled if it needs 5 groups to form a
supergroup.
A. 12 B. 300
B. 60 D. 600
28. A quasi-stationary noise with a finite power spectrum with a finite number of
small bands of zero energy dispersed throughout a continuous spectrum
A. white noise B. orange noise
C. violet noise D. blue noise
41. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
A. its amplitude
B. its amplitude and frequency
C. its amplitude, frequency, and direction
D. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
44. In 1820, he discovered the relation between electricity and magnetism, later
known as electromagnetism.
A. Michael Faraday B. Hans Christian Oersted
C. Karl Gauss D. Nikolai Tesla
47. He developed the first wireless telegraph and successfully sent a message over
a distance of few kilometers using a spark gap transmitter.
A. James Clerk Maxwell B. Edwin Arsmtrong
C. Guglielmo Marconi D. Heinrich Hertz
52. Defined as the noise that has equal amount of energy per frequency.
A. Pink Noise B. Transit-time noise
C. Blue Noise D. White Noise
55. Which of the following types of energy cannot be seen, heard, or felt?
A. Heat waves B. Sound waves
C. Light waves D. Radio waves
56. The operational word I have completed transmitting and await your reply
means
A. Break B. Over
C. Roger D. Copy
59. A sound wave that moves back and forth in the direction of propagation is an
example of which of the following types of wave motion?
A. Longitudinal B. Composite
C. Concentric D. Transverse
60. What wave propagation principle accounts for the apparent increase in
frequency as a train whistle approaches and the apparent decrease in
frequency as it moves away?
A. Reflection B. Diffraction
C. Refraction D. Doppler effect
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-29
63. The operational word I have completed my communication and do not expect
to transmit again means
A. Over B. Copy
C. Out D. Roger
64. Noise that is the opposite of pink noise in that it doubles the amount of energy
each time you go up 1 octave.
A. Yellow B. White
C. Blue D. Magenta
65. The number of times a particular phenomenon occurs in a given period of time
expressed in Hertz.
A. Period B. Crest
C. Frequency D. Wavelength
66. ______ is the distance between two points of similar cycles of a periodic wave
or the distance traveled by an electromagnetic wave during the time of one
cycle typically expressed in meters.
A. Peak-to-peak value B. Crest
C. Wavelength D. Period
67. ______ is f2-f1, where for frequencies inside the f1<f<f2 the magnitude spectra
fall no lower than 0.707 times the maximum value magnitude, and the
maximum value occurs at a frequency inside the band.
A. -3dB bandwidth B. FCC bandwidth
C. zero-crossing BW D. Bounded spectrum bandwidth
72. Noise whose power density increases 3 dB per octave with increasing frequency
over a finite frequency range.
A. pink noise B. blue noise
C. white noise D. green noise
75. A micron is
A. One-millionth of a foot B. One-thousandth of a meter
C. One ten-thousandth of an inch D. One-millionth of a meter
76. Radio-frequency waves cannot be seen for which of the following reasons?
A. Because the human eye detects only magnetic energy
B. Because radio-frequency waves are below the sensitivity range of the
human eye
C. Because radio-frequency waves are above the sensitivity range of the
human eye
D. Because radio-frequency energy is low powered
79. ______ is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limits (f2-f1),
where the spectrum is zero outside the interval f1<f<f2 along the positive
frequency axis.
A. half-power BW B. zero-crossing BW
C. -3dB bandwidth D. Absolute bandwidth
86. A unique band of frequencies within the wideband frequency spectrum of the
medium is allotted to each communication channel on a continuous time basis.
A. Time Division Duplexing (TDD)
B. Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD)
C. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
D. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
88. _____ can allocate bandwidth, in the form of time slots, in consideration of the
transmission requirements of individual devices serving specific applications.
A. Statistical Time Division Multiplexing (STDM)
B. Passive Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
C. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
D. Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM)
93. The operational word I am changing from one part of the message to another
means
A. Roger B. Copy
C. Break D. Over
94. Noise whose power density increases 6 dB per octave with increasing frequency
over a finite frequency range.
A. pink noise B. green noise
C. blue noise D. purple noise
95. ______ for a given class of emission is defined as the width of the frequency
band that is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of information at the rate
and with the quality required under specified conditions.
A. -3dB bandwidth B. Necessary Bandwidth
C. Absolute bandwidth D. half-power BW
98. In 1866, put together the principles of Oersted and Faraday and hypothesized
the existence of electromagnetic waves.
A. Guglielmo Marconi B. Arthur Clarke
C. Heinrich Hertz D. James Clerk Maxwell
102. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz,
what is the highest frequency?
A. 57 KHz B. 47 KHz
C. 10 KHz D. 5 KHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-33
108. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then
the period of B is ________ that of A.
A. one-half B. twice
C. the same as D. indeterminate from
114. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A. bandwidth-period B. frequency-amplitude
C. bandwidth-delay D. delay-amplitude
117. For a given bandwidth signal, more channel space is available for signals in
the range of
A. VHF B. UHF
C. SHF D. EHF
127. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in
the _____ domain.
A. time; frequency B. frequency; time
C. time; phase D. phase; time
130. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical
maximum bit rate.
A. noisy B. noiseless
C. bandpass D. low-pass
131. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal
directly to the channel.
A. low-pass B. bandpass
C. low rate D. high rate
134. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?
A. 1 MHz B. 1 kHz
C. 100 Hz D. 1 Hz
136. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and
the lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A. frequency B. period
C. bandwidth D. amplitude
144. Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this
data for analysis is the process of
A. Telemetry B. Instrumentation
C. Modulation D. Multiplexing
148. A signal occupies the spectrum space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The
bandwidth is
A. 0.007 MHz B. 7 MHz
C. 237 MHz D. 700 MHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-37
149. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point
and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________.
A. P2 is zero B. P2 equals P1
C. P2 is much larger than P1 D. P2 is much smaller than P1
150. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
A. noisy B. noiseless
C. bandpass D. low-pass
--End of Text--
Section Amplitude
= Read it
till it
2 Modulation Hertz!
A. .THE AM WAVEFORM.
AM ( t ) = ( Vc + em ) sin c t
Hence,
mVc mVc
AM (t) = Vc sin c t cos ( c + m ) t + cos ( c m ) t
2 2
where :
AM (t) = AM modulated wave
Vc = peak amplitude of the carrier in V
em = instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal in V
c = angular frequency of the carrier wave in rad/s
m = angular frequency of the modulating signal in rad/s
m = modulation index
First, note that the amplitude of the carrier after modulation is the
same as it was before modulation
(In short, AM is a bit of a misnomer).
Mathematically,
where :
V Vm = peak amplitude of the
m= m
Vc modulating signal in V
Vc = peak amplitude of the
carrier signal in V
In terms of AM Envelope,
Solution: 40
mV c V 30 15 15
VSB = m= m = = 0 .75
2 Vc 40
0 .75 (40 )
= = 15 V
2 fc-fm fc fc+fm
Sample Problem:
Calculate the modulation index for a standard AM transmission, if the
maximum peak voltage of the modulated wave is 150 V and the modulating
signal voltage is 50 V peak.
Solution:
Vm
m= Vc = Vmax Vm
Vc
50
=
150 50
= 0 .5
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-41
Several Cases of m:
Sample Problem:
A modulating signal consists of a symmetrical triangular wave having zero dc
component and peak-to-peak voltage of 11 V. Calculate the value of
modulation index if it used to amplitude modulate a carrier of peak voltage
10 V.
Solution:
For Emax;
Vm 11
Emax = Vc + = 10 +
2 2
= 15.5 V
For Emin;
Vm 11
Emin = Vc = 10
2 2
= 4.5 V
For m;
Emax Emin 15.5 4.5
m= =
Emax + Emin 15.5 + 4.5
= 0.55
Answer : 0.55
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-43
B. .SIMULTANEOUS MODULATION.
where :
m T = total modulation index
m1 , m2 ...mn = modulation indices due to several modulating signals
Solution:
mT = m12 + m22 = 0 .22 + 0 .82 = 0 .824
Sample Problem:
Calculate the modulating voltage of an audio signal necessary to provide
100% modulation of a 100-V carrier that is simultaneously modulated by 2
audio waves with m1 and m2 equal to 75% and 45% respectively.
Solution:
For m3 at 100 % mod ulation;
m3 = ( )
m2T m12 + m22 = (
12 0.752 + 0.452 )
= 48 .5 %
For Modulating Voltage;
Vm3 = m3 x Vc = 0.485 x 100 V
= 48 .5 V
Answer : Vm = 48 .5 V
1. Frequency Spectrum
2. Voltage Spectrum
3. Power Spectrum
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-45
1. AM Bandwidth
BW = 2fm
fSB = fc fm
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB = PLSB =
4
m2
Transmit Voltage VT = Vc 1 +
2
m2
Transmit Current I T = Ic 1 +
2
where:
BW = AM bandwidth
fm = Modulating frequency in Hz
Vc = Unmodulated carrier in V
VT = Modulated carrier in V
Pc = Unmodulated carrier power in W
PT = Modulated power in W
m = modulation index
Solution:
m2Pc
PT = Pcarrier + PSB where PSB =
2
0.95 2 (1200 )
PSB = = 541 .5 Watts
2
Solution:
2 2 .4 2
m2 I
I T = Ic 1 + m= 2 T 1 =
2 1 = 0.938
2 Ic 2
m2Pc 0 .938 2 (50 )
Pusb = Plsb = = = 11 watts
4 4
Sample Problem:
Calculate the total power and the power in each side frequency for a
standard AM transmission that is sinusoidally modulated to a depth of 80% if
the unmodulated carrier power is 50 kW.
Solution:
For PT ;
m2 0 . 82
PT = Pc 1 + = 50kW 1 +
2 2
= 66 kW
For Each Side Frequency Power ;
m2Pc (0 .82 )50 kW
Pside = =
4 4
= 8 kW each
Answer : PT = 66 kW , Pside = 8 kW
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-47
Sample Problem:
Calculate the amplitude and resulting side frequency if a carrier wave of
frequency 10 MHz with a peak value of 10 V is amplitude modulated by a 5
kHz sine wave of amplitude 6 V.
Solution:
For m;
Vm 6
m= =
Vc 10
= 0.6
For Side Frequency;
fside = fc fm = 10 MHz 0.005 MHz
= 10.005 MHz and 9.995 MHz
For amplitude;
mVc 0.6 (10 )
VSB = = = 3V
2 2
Sample Problem:
The output voltage of an AM transmitter is 40 V when sinusoidally
modulated to a depth of 100%. Calculate the voltage at each side frequency
when the modulation depth is reduced to 50%.
Solution:
For Vc ;
VT 40
Vc = =
2
m 12
1+ 1+
2 2
= 32 .65 V
For Each Side Frequency Voltage ;
Vside =
mVc
=
(0.5)32 .65 V
2 2
= 8 .16 V each
The extra power with modulation goes into the sidebands; the carrier
power does not change with modulation.
The useful power, that is, the power that carries the information, is
rather small reaching a maximum of one-third of the total signal power
at 100% modulation.
E. .SUPPRESSED-CARRIER AM SYSTEM.
mVc mVc
(t) = cos 2 (fc + fm )t + cos 2(fc fm )t
2 2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-49
m2Pc
Transmit Power PT =
2
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB = PLSB =
4
mVc
Transmit Voltage VT =
2
mIc
Transmit Current IT =
2
Solution:
Poriginal Porig
SdB = 10 log Pred = S dB
Preduced
10 10
10
Pred = 50 dB
= 0.1 x10 3 W = 100 W
10 10
mVc
(t) = Vc sin2fc t + cos 2(fc fm )t
2
m2Pc
Transmit Power PT = Pc +
4
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB or PLSB =
4
m2
Transmit Voltage VT = Vc 1 +
4
m2
Transmit Current I T = Ic 1 +
4
Solution:
For H3E (SSBFC )
m2PC 12 (1000)
PSB = = = 250 watts
4 4
3. Single-Sideband Suppressed-Carrier
mVc
(t) = cos 2(fc fm )t
2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-51
m2Pc
Transmit Power PT =
4
m2Pc
Sideband Power PUSB or PLSB =
4
mVc
Transmit Voltage VT =
2
mI c
Transmit Current IT =
2
m2Pc m2Pc
PT = 0.1Pc + PUSB = PLSB =
4 4
PCAM Ptx
%PS = x100%
PCAM
where :
PCAM = Conventional or Standard AM
Ptx = Transmitted AM system
Solution:
For Conventional AM;
m2 2
PT = Pc 1 + = Pc 1 + 0 .8
2 2
= 1 .32 Pc
For Suppressed Carrier system ;
m2Pc 0 .82 Pc
Ptx = =
2 2
= 0 .32 Pc
Perce ntage Power Saved
P Ptx
% = CAM x 100 %
PCAM
1 .32Pc 0 .32Pc
= x 100 % = 75 .75 %
1 .32Pc
Sample Problem:
Calculate the percentage power saving for J3E system at 90% modulation.
Solution:
For Conventional AM;
m2 2
PT = Pc 1 + = Pc 1 + 0 .9
2 2
= 1 .405 Pc
For J3E system ;
m2 0 .92
PJ3E = Pc x = Pc x
4 4
= 0 .2025 Pc
Perce ntage Power Saved
P Ptx
% = CAM x 100 %
PCAM
1 .405Pc 0 .2025 Pc
= x 100 % = 85 .6 %
1 .405Pc
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-53
0% 100% 50%
DSB-SC 66.67%
of PT of PT of PT
The standard AM broadcast band starts at 535 kHz and ends at 1605
kHz.
I H
1. The standard AM broadcast band ______.
A. starts at 88 kHz and ends at 108 kHz
B. starts at 535 kHz and ends at 1605 kHz
C. starts at 535 MHz and ends at 1605 MHz
D. starts at 88 MHz and ends at 108 MHz
2. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a
20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5-MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the
output of the mixer?
A. 5 MHz and 15 MHz B. 20 MHz and 100 MHz
C. 15 MHz and 25 MHz D. 5 MHz and 25 MHz
4. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7%
modulation?
A. 333.33 watts B. 125 watts
C. 666.67 watts D. 70.7 watts
5. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the
tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation index?
A. 0.636 B. 1.2
C. 0.707 D. 0.9
6. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is
100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
A. 0.25 B. 1.25
C. 0.6 D. 0.75
11. For H3E transmitter, the useful power, that is, the power that carries the
information, is rather small reaching a maximum of _____.
A. one-third of the total signal power at 100% modulation
B. one-fifth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
C. one-fourth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
D. one-tent of the total signal power at 100% modulation
12. For A3E transmitter, the useful power, that is, the power that carries the
information in one of the sideband, is rather small reaching a maximum of
_____.
A. one-third of the total signal power at 100% modulation
B. one-fifth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
C. one-fourth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
D. one-sixth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
13. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power
supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power
does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation?
A. 16.67 watts B. 50 watts
C. 33.33 watts D. 66.67 watts
14. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what
is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
A. 400 volts B. 50 volts
C. 200 volts D. 100 volts
15. Determine the power saving in percent when the carrier is suppressed in an AM
signal modulated to 80%. NOV 2003
A. 75.76% B. 82.82%
C. 33.33% D. 16.67%
18. An emission technique where the total current will be twice as much when the
modulation index is doubled.
A. R3E B. H3E
C. A3E D. J3E
19. What is the maximum modulating signal frequency that can be used with an
H3E system with 20-kHz bandwidth?
A. 10 kHz B. 20 kHz
C. 5 kHz D. 40 kHz
21. How many percent of the total transmitted power is present in the sideband in
an A3E system?
A. 16.67% B. 80%
C. 50% D. 33.33%
25. An AM transmitter has a 1-kW carrier and is modulated by three different sine
waves having equal amplitudes. If the total modulation index is 80%, calculate
the individual values of m in % and the total transmitted power.
A. 56.2%, 1.32 kW B. 46.2%, 1.72 kW
C. 46.2%, 1.32 kW D. 56.2%, 1.72 kW
26. The total bandwidth needed for an AM signal at 55.25 MHz with 0.5 MHz video
modulation is ______.
A. 0.5 MHz B. 1 MHz
C. 101.5 MHz D. 10 MHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-57
27. A transmitter radiates 9 kW with the carrier unmodulated and 2.08 kW when
the carrier is sinusoidally modulated and then suppressed. The modulation
index is ______.
A. 0.6 B. 0.8
C. 0.68 D. 0.58
30. An SSB transmitter has an average power ranging from 750-1000 W. What is
the PEP?
A. 9 kW B. 6 kW
C. 3 kW D. 5 Kw
31. Calculate the average power of an SSB signal with 2-tone modulation if the
peak voltage is 25 V, and assume that the load is 50, resistive.
A. 1.56 to 2.08 W B. 1.32 to 2.8 W
C. 1.12 to 2.08 W D. 1.66 to 2.58 W
32. Determine the percentage power saving if the carrier and the USB is
suppressed in an AM system modulated at 85%.
A. 82.23% B. 66.67%
C. 86.73% D. 89.71%
34. In amplitude modulated wave equation, the carrier is _______ with both the
upper and lower side frequencies, and the upper and lower side frequencies are
_______ with each other.
A. 90 out of phase, 180 out of phase
B. 180 out of phase, 90 out of phase
C. 90 out of phase, 270 out of phase
D. 270 out of phase, 90 out of phase
36. Calculate the modulation index for a standard AM transmission, if the maximum
peak voltage of the modulated wave is 150 V and the modulating signal voltage
is 50 V peak.
A. 25% B. 75%
C. 50% D. 100%
37. What is the value of modulation index and the relation between modulating
signal amplitude and carrier amplitude if the transmitted AM wave is
undermodulated.
A. m=1, Vm=Vc B. m>1, Vm>Vc
C. m<1, Vm<Vc D. m= infinite, Vm=Vc=0
38. At 75% modulation, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in the
sideband?
A. 21.95% B. 33.33%
C. 16.67% D. 12.67%
39. Calculate the suppressed carrier voltage of a DSBSC system if the transmitted
voltage is 75 V at 89% modulation.
A. 63.476 V B. 119.18 V
C. 68.52 V D. 146.31 V
40. Calculate the modulated current of a SSBSC transmitter if the carrier current is
6.5 A at 75% modulation.
A. 2.44 A B. 6.94 A
C. 7.36 A D. 3.45 A
41. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 50
watts. The unmodulated current is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
APRIL 2004
A. 22.1 W B. 31.4 W
C. 50 W D. 25 W
42. How many percent of the total transmitted power is present in the carrier in an
H3E system?
A. 0% B. 66.67%
C. 25% D. 16.67%
43. A 200 W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75%. The power of the modulated
wave is
A. 56.25 W B. 228.125 W
C. 256.25 W D. 200 W
45. At 100% modulation J3E, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in
sideband?
A. 100% B. 0%
C. 80% D. 50%
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-59
46. The antenna current of an SSBFC AM transmitter is 8 A when only the carrier is
sent. It is increases to 8.5 A when the carrier is sinusoidal modulated. The
percentage modulation is _____.
A. 77.7% B. 71.8%
C. 66.7% D. 50.7%
51. An AM transmitter uses a high level modulation. The RF power amplifier runs
from 12 volt source, putting out a carrier power of 85 watts, with an efficiency
of 85%, what load impedance is required in order for it to deliver the rated
power? APRIL 2004
A. 2.16 B. 0.13
C. 1.69 D. 0.85
53. At 100% modulation H3E, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in
the carrier?
A. 66.67% B. 20%
C. 33.33% D. 80%
57. What is the value of modulation index and the relation between modulating
signal amplitude and carrier amplitude at 100% modulation.
A. m=1, Vm=Vc B. m>1, Vm>Vc
C. m<1, Vm<Vc D. m= infinite, Vm=Vc=0
58. What is the carrier power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power
is 300 W, with 80% modulation? NOV 2004
A. 300 W B. 96 W
C. 150 W D. 48 W
59. Overmodulation in AM creates side frequencies further from the carrier known
as ________.
A. splatter B. image frequencies
C. nyquist frequency D. jitter
61. Calculate the modulating voltage of an audio signal necessary to provide 100%
modulation of a 100-V carrier that is simultaneously modulated by 2 audio
waves with m1 and m2 equal to 75% and 45% respectively.
A. 24.25 V B. 32.8 V
C. 50.3 V D. 48.5 V
62. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB from its original value of
10 W. To what value must the carrier be reduced? NOV 2004
A. 1 mW B. 10 mW
C. 0.1 mW D. 0.01 mW
63. The total power in an AM signal increases with modulation, reaching a value of
_____ greater than that of the unmodulated carrier at 100% modulation.
A. 25% B. 75%
C. 50% D. 100%
66. At 100% modulation, what percentage of the total transmitted power is in each
sideband?
A. 50% B. 66.67%
C. 16.67% D. 33.33%
69. An audio system requires a frequency response from 50 Hz to 15 kHz for high
fidelity. If this signal were transmitted using AM, what bandwidth would it
require?
A. 15 kHz B. 25 kHz
C. 8 kHz D. 30 kHz
71. What is the value of modulation index and the relation between modulating
signal amplitude and carrier amplitude if the transmitted AM wave is
overmodulated.
A. m=1, Vm=Vc B. m>1, Vm>Vc
C. m<1, Vm<Vc D. m= infinite, Vm=Vc=0
74. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency = 150 MHz;
modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts; and peak
modulating voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak voltage of the lower
sideband frequency. APRIL 2004
A. 7.5 V B. 5 V
C. 10 V D. 15 V
75. The amplitude of the upper and lower side frequencies is a function of both the
_______.
A. carrier frequency and the modulation frequency
B. carrier amplitude and the modulation index
C. modulated wave amplitude and the modulation index
D. sideband amplitude and the modulation frequency
76. An AM transmitter is modulated by two sine waves at 1.5 kHz and 2.5 kHz, with
modulation of 20 percent and 80 percent respectively. Calculate the effective
modulation index. APRIL 2004
A. 82% B. 85%
C. 80% D. 78%
78. For conventional AM, the useful power, that is, the power that carries the
information, is rather small reaching a maximum of _____.
A. one-third of the total signal power at 100% modulation
B. one-fifth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
C. one-fourth of the total signal power at 100% modulation
D. one-tent of the total signal power at 100% modulation
79. The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope is
2.6 and 0.29 respectively. Determine the percentage modulation. NOV 2002
A. 69.2& B. 39.95&
C. 79.9% D. 34.6&
80. If Va sin(at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the
frequencies:
A. c + a and c a B. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2
C. c + a and 2c + 2a D. (c x a)/2 and (c x a)/2
82. What will be the total sideband power of an AM transmitting station whose
carrier power is 1200 W and a modulation of 95%? NOV 2004
A. 1200 W B. 541.5 W
C. 270.75 W D. 483.5 W
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-63
83. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the shape of the modulating signal and
is called the
A. Carrier variation B. Envelope
C. Waveshape D. Trace
86. During 100% modulation, what percentage of the average output power is in
the sidebands?
A. 66.67% B. 33.33%
C. 22.22% D. 88.88%
88. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1 MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The
outputs are
A. 500 kHz B. 2.5 MHz
C. 1.5 MHz D. 500 kHz and 2.5 MHz
90. A SSB signal is generated around a 200-kHz carrier. Before filtering, the upper
and lower SB are separated by 200 Hz. Calculate the filter Q required to obtain
40-dB suppression.
A. Q=2.5 B. Q=25
C. Q=250 D. Q=2500
94. An unmodulated carrier is 300 Vp-p. Calculate %m when its maximum p-p value
reaches 400, 500, and 600 V.
A. %m1=44.4%, %m2=83.3%, %m3=100%
B. %m1=22.2%, %m2=33.3%, %m3=100%
C. %m1=16.67%, %m2=83.3%, %m3=100%
D. %m1=33.3%, %m2=66.7%, %m3=100%
97. A 100-V carrier is modulated by a 1-kHz sine wave. Determine the side
frequency amplitudes when m=0.75.
A. Vsf=37.5 V B. Vsf=86.5 V
C. Vsf=46.5 V D. Vsf=57.5 V
101. The inputs to a mixer are fo and fm. In down conversion, which of the
following mixer output signals is selected?
A. fo B. fm
C. fo-fm D. fo+fm
103. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
A. Tuned circuit B. Transformer
C. Capacitor D. Inductor
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-65
104. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating
signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of
A. Rectification B. Resonance
C. Variable resistance D. Absorption
106. That circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM
signal is known as a
A. Modulator B. Demodulator
C. Mixer D. Crystal set
107. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due
to
A. Phase shift B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression D. Phase inversion
108. A SSB transmission drives 121 Vp into a 50- antenna. Calculate the PEP.
A. PEP=642 W B. PEP=31.7 W
C. PEP=146 W D. PEP=35.6 W
112. Calculate the filters required Q to convert DSB to SSB, given that the two
sidebands are separated by 200 Hz. The suppressed carrier (40 dB) is 2.0 MHz.
A. Q=12,241 B. Q=44,670
C. Q=36,250 D. Q=6,610
114. A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called
a(n)
A. Amplitude modulator B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier D. Balanced modulator
124. A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?
A. Addition B. Multiplication
C. Division D. Square root
125. The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is
referred to as
A. The voltage ratio B. Decibels
C. The modulation index D. The mix factor
126. Calculate the power advantage gained by suppressing the carrier at 100%
modulation.
A. 7.78 dB B. 6 dB
C. 4.78 dB D. 3 dB
127. Calculate the S/N improvement by suppressing the carrier and one of the
sideband at 100%.
A. 7.78 dB B. 6 dB
C. 4.78 dB D. 3 dB
128. An SSB transmitter has an average power ranging from 750-1000 W. What is
the PEP?
A. 3 kW B. 5 kW
C. 6 kW D. 9 kW
129. Calculate the average power of an SSB signal with 2-tone modulation if the
peak voltage is 25 V, and assume that the load is 50, resistive.
A. 1.32 to 2.8 W B. 1.66 to 2.58 W
C. 1.56 to 2.08 W D. 1.12 to 2.08 W
A. .ANGLE MODULATION.
f
FM ( t ) = Vc cos c t + sin mt
fm
PM ( t ) = Vc cos ( c t + sin mt )
where:
f = Frequency deviation in Hz
= Phase deviation in rad
c = Carrier radian frequency in rad
s
m = Modulating signal radian frequency in rad
s
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-69
Direct FM Generation
INPUT OUTPUT
SIGNAL SIGNAL
Type of
Angle-Modulated Wave Equation
Modulation
Direct PM Generation
OUTPUT
SIGNAL
INPUT
SIGNAL
Type of
Angle-Modulated Wave Equation
Modulation
PM (t) = Vc cos C t + K PM m (t)dt
PM
K V
PM (t) = Vc cos C t + PM m sin(mt)
m
FM
The maximum frequency deviation occurs during the maximum
positive and negative peaks of the modulating signal.
PM
The maximum frequency deviation occurs during the zero crossing of the
modulating signal.
2. Modulator Output
FM
For FM modulator, changes would occur in the output frequency in
respect to changes in the amplitude of the input voltage.
PM
For PM modulator, changes would occur in the phase of the output
frequency in respect to changes in the amplitude of the input voltage.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-71
FM
The instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to
the amplitude of the modulation signal and inversely proportional
to its frequency.
Vm
f
fm
PM
The instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the first derivative or
slope of the modulating signal.
d
f m (t)
dt
FM
The instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the integral
of the modulating signal voltage.
m (t)dt
PM
The instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the amplitude
of the modulation signal and unaffected by its frequency.
Vm
5. Modulation Index
FM
The modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the
modulating signal and inversely proportional to the frequency of
the modulating signal.
Vm
mFM
fm
PM
The modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating
signal, independent of its frequency.
mPM Vm
This simply means that if a 10-volt signal causes a frequency shift of 20 kHz,
then a 20-volt signal will cause a frequency shift of 40 kHz.
If a 10-volt signal causes a phase shift of 20, then a 20-volt signal causes a
phase shift of 40.
This implies that if the carrier is modulated with a 1-kHz tone, then the
carrier is changing frequency 1,000 times each second.
If the carrier were modulated with a 1-kHz tone, the carrier would advance
and retard in phase 1,000 times each second.
1. Frequency Deviation ()
Frequency deviation is the amount of frequency shifts that occurs
when it is acted on by a modulating signal.
where :
= peak frequency deviation in Hz
= k FM x Vm
k FM = frequency deviation sensitivit y in Hz
V
Vm = peak value of modulating signal in V
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-73
2. Phase Deviation ()
Phase deviation is the amount of phase shifts that occurs when it is
acted on by a modulating signal.
where:
= peak phase deviation in rad
= k PM x Vm
k PM = phase deviation sensitivity in rad
V
Vm = peak value of modulating signal in V
Solution:
30 x 180 Vm
= k PM x Vm Vm = = rad
= 0.262 V Vrms = = 0.185 V
k PM 2 2
V
FM PM
mFM = mPM = max
fm
Sample Problem:
An FM modulator has a frequency deviation sensitivity of 5 kHz/V and
modulating signal m(t) = 2 cos(4000)t . Calculate the peak frequency
deviation and modulation index.
Solution:
5 kHz 10 kHz
= k FM x Em = x 2V mFM = =
V fm 4 kHz
= 10 kHz 2
=5
Sample Problem:
A PM modulator has a phase deviation sensitivity of 2.5 rad/V and
modulating signal m(t) = 2 cos(4000)t . Calculate the peak phase deviation
and modulation index.
Solution:
2 .5 rad mPM = max = 5 rad
= k PM x Em = x 2V
V
=5
= 5 rad
actual
% mod ulation = x 100%
max
Solution:
actual
%M = x100 % actual = %M x max = 0 .8 x 75 kHz = 60 kHz
max
CS = 2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-75
Sample Problem:
Calculate the frequency deviation and % modulation under FCC standards
for a given modulating signal that produces 100 kHz carrier swing.
Solution:
For frequency deviation;
CS 100 kHz
= = = 50 kHz
2 2
For % modulation;
actual 50 kHz
%M = x 100 % = x 100 %
max 75 kHz
= 67%
max
DR =
fm(max)
Narrowband FM
BW = 2fm
(m<0.25)
Wideband FM (m>100) BW = 2
Carsons Rule
BW = 2( + fm )
(Approximate formula)
Using Bessel Table
BW = 2(n x fm )
(Exact formula)
where:
fm = modulating signal frequency in Hz
= peak frequency deviation in Hz
n = number of significant sidebands
Solution:
BW = 2( + fm ) = 2(100 + 15) = 230 kHz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the deviation ratio and approximate bandwidth for the worst-case
modulation index for an FM broadcast-band transmitter (FCC standard).
Solution:
max 75 kHz BW = 2( + fm ) = 2(75 + 15) = 180 kHz
DR = = =5
fm(max) 15 kHz
Lock Range
f
Capture Range
Solution:
R lock = 2(fol fvco ) = 2(14 MHz 10 MHz ) = 8 MHz
Solution:
R cap = 2(fvco fl ) = 2(14 MHz 12 MHz ) = 4 MHz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the range of frequencies will the PLL be able to capture and
subsequently maintain lock if it used a VCO with a free-running frequency of
100 kHz, PLL has a 10% capture range and 20% lock range.
Solution:
R cap = fc C = 100 kHz 10%(100 kHz) = 90 to 110 kHz
R lock = fL L = 100 kHz 2 0%(100 kHz) = 8 0 to 120 kHz
Sample Problem:
The capture range of a PLL and filter is 12%, while the lock range is 18%
and the VCO has a center frequency of 20 MHz. Calculate the PLL operation
with an 18.5 MHz input?
Solution:
20 18.5
f = fC = x100% = 7.5%
20
= 20 MHz 7.5%(20 MHz)
= 18.5 to 21.5 MHz
E. .STEREOPHONIC FM.
1. Pre-emphasis
The process of boosting or amplifying the high-frequency components
of the modulating signal prior to performing modulation for the reason
of uneven signal-to-noise ratio at high frequencies.
2. De-emphasis
The reverse process that is doned in the receiver to compensate for
the uneven amplification in the transmitter to restore the original level
of the modulating signal.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the approximate break frequency for FM broadcast band pre-
emphasis circuit. (FCC standards)
Solution:
1 1 L
fb = = Time Cons tan t = 75 s = RC or
2RC 2 RL R
1
= = 2.12 kHz FCC standards
2(75 s)
This band was abandoned after World War II and is now allocated to a
seldom-used two-way communications service.
1. Direct Method
FM Reactance Modulator
The variation in the reactance of a junction FET will cause the
frequency of oscillation or resonant frequency to vary in
accordance with the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating
signal thereby directly producing FM.
2. Indirect Method
Armstrong Method
A relatively low-frequency subcarrier is phase shifted 90 and fed
to a balanced modulator, where it is mixed with the input
modulating signal. The output from the balanced modulator is a
DSBSC wave that is combined with the original carrier in a
combining network to produce a low-index, phase modulated
waveform.
Noise Immunity
Probably the most significant advantage of angle modulation over
AM is noise immunity.
Noise Performance
With the use of limiters, FM & PM demodulators can actually
reduce the noise level and improve the signal-to-noise ratio during
demodulation process since most noise results in unwanted
amplitude variations in the modulated wave.
Capture Effect
A phenomenon that allows a receiver to differentiate between two
signals received with the same frequency. The receiver will
capture the stronger signal and eliminate the weaker signal. With
AM, if two signals are received with same frequency, both will be
demodulated and produce audio signals that could be heard
simultaneously.
Bandwidth
FM and PM require much more bandwidth than AM (approximately
20 times that of AM).
Circuit Complexity
FM and PM modulators, transmitters, demodulators, and receivers
are more complex to design and build than their AM counterparts.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-81
I H
1. In PM, if the carrier were modulated with a 5-kHz tone,
A. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each second
B. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each minute
C. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each
millisecond
D. the carrier would advance and retard in phase 5,000 times each kilosecond
2. Calculate the range of frequencies will the PLL be able to capture and
subsequently maintain lock if it used a VCO with a free-running frequency of
100 kHz, PLL has a 20% capture range and 40% lock range.
A. Capture Range = 80 to 110 kHz, Lock Range = 60 to 120 kHz
B. Capture Range = 80 to 120 kHz, Lock Range = 60 to 140 kHz
C. Capture Range = 90 to 120 kHz, Lock Range = 80 to 140 kHz
D. Capture Range = 60 to 140 kHz, Lock Range = 90 to 120 kHz
4. Determine the worst case output signal-to-noise ratio for a broadcast FM that
has a maximum intelligence frequency of 10 kHz. The input signal-to-noise
ratio is 2.
A. 5 B. 15
C. 10 D. 20
9. In PM system,
A. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the phase of
the modulation signal and unaffected by its frequency
B. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the amplitude
of the modulation signal and unaffected by its phase
C. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the of the
frequency modulation signal and unaffected by its amplitude
D. the instantaneous phase deviation is directly proportional to the amplitude
of the modulation signal and unaffected by its frequency
10. The amount of frequency deviation from the carrier center frequency in an FM
transmitter is proportional to what characteristic of the modulating signal?
A. Shape B. Phase
C. Amplitude D. Frequency
11. If the amplitude of the modulating signal decreases, the carrier deviation
A. Goes to zero B. Decreases
C. Remains constant D. Increases
19. Calculate the approximate bandwidth for an FM system with a 60 kHz deviation
and 12 kHz modulating frequency.
A. 144 kHz B. 134 kHz
C. 124 kHz D. 184 kHz
20. In PM system,
A. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the first derivative or
slope of the modulating signal
B. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the first derivative
or slope of the modulating signal
C. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the second
derivative or slope of the modulating signal
D. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the second derivative
or slope of the modulating signal
21. Determine the peak phase deviation for a PM modulator with a deviation
sensitivity of 2.5 rad/V and a modulating signal of 2cos(4000t).
A. 25 rad B. 15 rad
C. 0. 5 rad D. 5 rad
24. The reverse process that is doned in the receiver to compensate for the uneven
amplification in the transmitter to restore the original level of the modulating
signal.
A. Post-emphasis B. Frequency Masking
C. Heterodyning D. Squelching
26. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the
modulation index?
A. 1 B. 6
C. 2 D. 8
27. In FM system,
A. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the integral of the
modulating signal voltage
B. the instantaneous phase deviation is proportional to the derivative of the
modulating signal voltage
C. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the derivative of
the modulating signal voltage
D. the instantaneous frequency deviation is proportional to the integral of the
modulating signal voltage
28. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what characteristic of the modulating
signal is changing?
A. Shape B. Phase
C. Amplitude D. Frequency
29. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
A. 4.5 kHz B. 9 kHz
C. 0 kHz D. 6 kHz
32. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of
a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
A. 500 watts B. 673 watts
C. 57.3 watts D. 166.67 watts
33. ______ is the span of frequencies over which the PLL can remain locked and
track a signal.
A. Acquire range B. Track range
C. Capture range D. Tune-in range
34. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of
a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
A. 100 mW B. 400 mW
C. 200 mW D. 800 mW
35. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a
modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
A. 15 kHz B. 10 kHz
C. 30 kHz D. 45 kHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-85
36. Determine the deviation ratio and bandwidth for the worst case modulation
index for an FM broadcast-band transmitter.
A. 75, 240 kHz B. 15, 200 kHz
C. 5, 240 kHz D. 5, 1500 kHz
40. Determine the voltage at the output of a phase comparator with a transfer
function of 0.5 V/rad and a phase error of 0.75 rad.
A. 0.75V B. 3.73V
C. 0.373V D. 0.73V
41. Determine the percent modulation for a TV broadcast station with a maximum
deviation of 50 kHz when the modulating signal produces 40 kHz at the
antenna.
A. 70% B. 80%
C. 60% D. 90%
43. The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the noise effect in FM system.
A. pre-emphasis B. antinoise
C. noise masking D. noise killing
49. Determine the change in frequency for a VCO with a transfer function of 4
kHz/V and a dc input voltage change of 1.2Vp.
A. 4.8 kHz B. 0.333 kHz
C. 3.33 kHz D. 0.48 kHz
50. In PM system,
A. the modulation index is proportional to the amplitude and frequency of the
modulating signal, independent of its phase
B. the modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating
signal, independent of its frequency
C. the modulation index is proportional to the phase and frequency of the
modulating signal, independent of its amplitude
D. the modulation index is proportional to the phase deviation of the
modulating signal, independent of its phase
52. A FM wave has bandwidth of 160 kHz and modulation index of 7.5, the
frequency deviation will be ______.
A. 115 kHz B. 75 MHz
C. 70.5 kHz D. 115 MHz
54. In frequency modulation for a given frequency deviation, the modulation varies
______.
A. inversely as the modulating frequency
B. directly as the modulating frequency
C. independent of modulating frequency
D. all of the above
55. Determine the carrier swing for an FM modulator with a deviation sensitivity of
4 kHz/V and a modulating signal of 10sin(22000t).
A. 40 kHz B. 75 kHz
C. 80 kHz D. 20 kHz
56. ______ is the range of frequencies over which the VCO can lock onto a new
signal.
A. Track range B. Hold-in range
C. Capture range D. Lock range
58. In FM system, the maximum frequency deviation occurs during the _____.
A. maximum positive of the modulating signal
B. maximum negative peaks of the modulating signal
C. maximum positive and negative peaks of the modulating signal
D. zero crossing of the modulating signal
59. The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting
band is ______. April 2003 & March 1996
A. 120 kHz B. 200 kHz
C. 150 kHz D. 180 kHz
61. Calculate the approximate break frequency for FM broadcast band pre-
emphasis circuit.
A. 0.212 kHz B. 2.12 kHz
C. 21.2 kHz D. 212 kHz
66. What approximate frequency deviation will produce a 150 kHz of available
bandwidth for a 10 kHz modulating signal?
A. 75 kHz B. 55 kHz
C. 65 kHz D. 85 kHz
70. In FM system,
A. the modulation index is proportional to the frequency deviation of the
modulating signal and inversely proportional to the amplitude and
frequency of the modulating signal
B. the modulation index is proportional to the phase deviation of the
modulating signal and inversely proportional to the amplitude and phase of
the modulating signal
C. the modulation index is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating
signal and inversely proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal
D. the modulation index is proportional to the frequency of the modulating
signal and inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
73. Calculate the carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation using the FCC
standards in the FM broadcast band.
A. 140 kHz B. 110 kHz
C. 120 kHz D. 130 kHz
75. In PM system, the maximum frequency deviation occurs during the _____.
A. maximum positive of the modulating signal
B. maximum negative peaks of the modulating signal
C. maximum positive and negative peaks of the modulating signal
D. zero crossing of the modulating signal
78. FM stereo:
A. uses DSBSC AM modulation
B. is implemented using an SCA signal
C. has a higher S/N than mono FM
D. is not compatible with mono FM
82. ______ is the amount of frequency shifts that occurs when it is acted on by a
modulating signal.
A. frequency drift B. carrier swing
C. frequency deviation D. carrier tolerance
83. Phase deviation is the amount of phase shifts that occurs when it is acted on by a
_______.
A. noise B. temperature variation
C. carrier signal D. modulating signal
84. Direct Phase Modulation is an angle modulation scheme in which the _______
of a constant-amplitude carrier is varied in proportion to the _______ of the
modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the _______ signal.
A. phase, amplitude, carrier B. amplitude, phase, carrier
C. phase, amplitude, modulating D. amplitude, phase, modulating
85. In FM system,
A. the instantaneous frequency deviation is inversely proportional to the
amplitude of the modulation signal and inversely proportional to its
frequency
B. the instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
frequency of the modulation signal and inversely proportional to its
amplitude
C. the instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
amplitude of the modulation signal and inversely proportional to its
frequency
D. the instantaneous frequency deviation is directly proportional to the
frequency of the modulation signal and directly proportional to its
amplitude
86. If a 10-volt signal causes a frequency shift of 20 kHz, then a 20-volt signal will
cause a frequency shift of how many kHz?
A. 5 B. 20
C. 200 D. 40
87. If a 5-volt signal causes a phase shift of 40, then a 20-volt signal causes a
phase shift of how many degrees?
A. 2.5 B. 5
C. 160 D. 80
88. ______ is the difference between the maximum positive and negative deviation
of the carrier in Hz.
A. Carrier Range B. Carrier swing
C. Frequency deviation D. Dynamic range
89. The ratio of actual frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation
allowed by law stated in percent form.
A. deviation ratio B. efficiency
C. percent modulation D. percent deviation
90. The worst case modulation index and is equal to the maximum peak frequency
deviation divided by the maximum modulating signal frequency.
A. Deviation factor B. Carrier deviation
C. Deviation Ratio D. Frequency index
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-91
92. Decreasing the input frequency to a locked PLL will cause the VCO output to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Jump to the free-running frequency
94. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track input signal variations is
known as
A. Circuit bandwidth B. Capture range
C. Band of acceptance D. Lock range
95. An FM receiver provides 100 dB of voltage gain prior to the limiter. Calculate
the receivers sensitivity if the limiters quieting voltage is 300mV.
A. Sensitivity=3 V B. Sensitivity=4 V
C. Sensitivity=5 V D. Sensitivity=6 V
97. If an FM transmitter employs one doubler, one tripler, and one quadrupler,
what is the carrier frequency swing when the oscillator frequency swing is 2
kHz?
A. CS=22 kHz B. CS=33 kHz
C. CS=48 kHz D. CS=66 kHz
99. A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 200,000 (106 dB) prior to its
limiter. The limiters quieting voltage gain is 200 mV. Determine the receivers
sensitivity.
A. Vsensitivity=0.1 V B. Vsensitivity=1 V
C. Vsensitivity=10 V D. Vsensitivity=100 V
100. A PLL is set up such that its VCO free-runs at 10-MHz. The VCO does not
change frequency until the input is within 50 kHz of 10 MHz. After that
condition, the VCO follows the input to +200 kHz of 10 MHz before the VCO
starts to free-run again. Determine the lock range and capture range of the
PLL.
A. fcap=50 kHz, flock=200 kHz B. fcap=150 kHz, flock=400 kHz
C. fcap=100 kHz, flock=400 kHz D. fcap=250 kHz, flock=500 kHz
102. The local FM stereo rock station is at 96.5 MHz. Calculate the local oscillator
frequency and the image frequency for a 10.7 MHz IF receiver.
A. LO= 105.7 MHz, IMAGE=127.9 MHz
B. LO= 107.2 MHz, IMAGE=117.9 MHz
C. LO= 105.2 MHz, IMAGE=117.9 MHz
D. LO= 107.2 MHz, IMAGE=127.9 MHz
106. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband FM receiver with
max=10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz. The input S/N is
3:1.
A. S/N=5 B. S/N=10
C. S/N=20 D. S/N=30
111. Determine the worst case output S/N for a broadcast FM program that has a
maximum intelligence frequency of 5 kHz. The input S/N is 2.
A. S/N=10 B. S/N=20
C. S/N=30 D. S/N=40
112. The band of frequencies over which a PLL will acquire or recognize an input
signal is called the
A. Capture range B. Circuit bandwidth
C. Band of acceptance D. Lock range
113. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier generators because of their good
frequency stability?
A. LC B. RC
C. LR D. Crystal
114. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a limited noise spike
that still causes undesired phase shift of 35 when the intelligence frequency
(fi) is 5 kHz.
A. 1.05 kHz B. 2.05 kHz
C. 3.05 kHz D. 4.05 kHz
115. In a broadcast FM system, the input S/N=4. Calculate the worst-case S/N at
the output of the receivers internal noise effect is negligible.
A. S/N=16.8:1 B. S/N=17.8:1
C. S/N=18.8:1 D. S/N=19.8:1
NOISE ANALYSIS
A. .2 GENERAL CLASSIFICATIONS.
1. Correlated Noise
Correlated noise is noise that is correlated to the signal and cannot be
present in a circuit unless there is an input signal present.
2. Uncorrelated Noise
Noise that is present regardless of whether there is a signal present or
not.
1. Harmonic distortion
Results when unwanted harmonics of a signal are produced through
non-linear amplification (mixing).
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-95
higher
%THD = X100%
fun
where:
%THD = %Total Harmonic Distortion
higher = Quadratic sum of the r.m.s. harmonics
= 22 + 23 + ... n2
fun = rms voltage of the fundamental frequency
Sample Problem:
Calculate the total harmonic distortion if the %2nd order and %3rd order are
2.5% and 1.25 % respectively and fundamental amplitude of 8 V.
Solution:
2 3
%2 nd Order = X100 %3 rd Order = X100
f f
2 3
2 .5 % = x 100 1 . 25 % = x 100
8 8
2 = 0 .2 V 3 = 0 .1 V
0.2 2 + 0.1 2
%THD = X100
8
= 2.795%
Answer : 2.795%
2. Intermodulation distortion
Results when unwanted sum and difference frequencies are generated
when two or more signals are amplified in a non-linear device.
1. External
Noise that is generated outside the device or circuit.
2. Internal
Electrical interference generated within a device or circuit.
iv. Burst noise - Burst noise is another low frequency noise that
seems to be associated with heavy-metal ion contamination. Burst
noise produce popping sound if amplified in an audio system,
hence the name popcorn noise or 1/f2.
v. Transit-time noise - Transit time noise occurs when the time taken
by charge carrier to cross a junction is comparable to the period of
the signal.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-97
vi. Thermal noise - Thermal noise is associated with the rapid and
random movement of electrons within a conductor due to thermal
agitation.
NOISE CALCULATIONS
PN = kTB SN = kT
where:
PN = noise power in W
SN = noise spectrum density in W/Hz
k = Boltzmann's constant (1.38 x 10-23 J/K)
B = bandwidth in Hertz
T = ambient temperature in K
Sample Problem:
Calculate the spectrum density and thermal noise power for a certain
communication system with an IF bandwidth of 10.7 MHz.
Solution:
For Spectrum Density For Noise Power
SN = kT = (1.38 x 10 23 ) x 290 PN = kTB = SN x B
= 4 x 10 21 W = (4 x 10 21) x 10.7 MHz
Hz
= 4.28 x 1014 W
VN = 4kTBnR L
where:
VN = noise voltage in V
RL = load resistor in
2 2 2 2
Vn(total) = Vn(1) + Vn(2) + Vn(3) + ...Vn(N)
where:
Vn(total) = total noise voltage in V
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-99
Solution:
Vn(input) = 4KTBNR t
Solution:
Vn(total) = Vn(1)2 + Vn(2)2 = 4kB{T1R 1 + T2R 2 }
D. .CASCADED AMPLIFIER.
R2 R3 RN
R eq = R1 + + +
A12 A12 A22 A12 A22 AN
2
1
Sample Problem:
The first stage of a two-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a 600-
input resistor, a 1600- equivalent noise resistance and a 27k output
resistor. For the 2nd stage, these values are 25, 81k, 10k and 1M,
respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise resistance.
Solution:
For R 1
R1 = R IN1 + R eq1 = 600 + 1600
= 2.2 k
For R 2
R OUT1 x R IN2 27 x 81
R2 = + R eq2 = + 10
R OUT1 + R IN2 27 + 81
= 30.2 k
For R 3
R3 = 1 M
For R eq
R2 R3
R eq = R1 + +
A12 A12 A22
30.2 k 1 M
= 2.2 k + +
102 102 x 252
= 2518
Answer : 2.518 k
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-101
VN = 4KTBNR D
Q
RD = = Q0L = Q2r
0 C
where:
R D = dynamic resistance in
Q = quality factor
0 = angular frequency in rad
C = capacitance in Farad
L = coil inductance in Henry
r = coil resistance in
Sample Problem:
A parallel tuned circuit at the input of a radio receiver is tuned to resonate at
125 MHz by a capacitance 23.5 pF. The Q-factor of the circuit is 40 and with
a channel bandwidth of the receiver limited to 10 kHz by the audio sections.
Determine the effective noise voltage of this radio receiver tuned circuit.
Solution:
For the Dynamic Impedance
Q 40
RD = =
0C 2 (125 x 106 ) (23.5 x 1012 )
= 2.17 k
For Noise Voltage
VN = 4kTBRD
Answer : 0.589 V
Solution:
For Noise Current For Diode Current
V 10 V IN = 2qI0B
IN = N =
R 75
= 0.133 A IN2 (0.133 A)2
I0 = =
2qB 2 (1.6 x 1019 C) (200 x 103 )
= 276 mA
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-103
1. Ideal case
S S
=
N out N in
2. Practical case
S ApSin
N = A N + N
out p in int ernal
( NS )IN
F= S
( N ) OUT
2. Noise Figure (NF)
Noise factor expressed in dB
NF = 10 logF
Solution:
()
S
N in 100
NFdB = 10 log
()
S
N ou
= 10 log
20
7 dB
F2 1 F3 1 Fn 1 S S
FT = F1 + + + ... N = N 10 logn
A1 A1 A 2 A1 A 2 ...A n 1 T 1
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-105
Solution:
Answer :0.56 dB
F = Noise Factor
R eq = R a (F 1)
R a = Antenna Resistance in
Teq R eq
=
Ta Ra
1. Decibel (dB)
A unit of measure (abbreviated dB) originally used to compare sound
intensities and subsequently electrical or electronic power outputs;
now also used to compare voltages. An increase of 10 dB is equivalent
to a 10-fold increase in intensity or power, and a 20-fold increase in
voltage.
2. Neper (Np)
A transmission unit used in Northern European countries originally
used to express the attenuation of current along a transmission line,
using natural logarithm.
P I
dB = 10 log 1 Np = ln 1
P2 I2
ii. For four-wire switching, these are theoretical points; the CCITT
adopted a relative level of -3.5 dBr (0dBr) for the sending end of a
four-wire circuit. In American system, -2 dBr (0 dBr) is widely
used).
3. 0 dBr
Any point in a circuit with the same relative level as the sending
terminal is a point of zero relative level 0 dBr.
4. 0 TLP
Zero transmission level point (0 TLP) is the point at which the test
tone level should be 0 dBm.
0 TLP = 0 dBr
5. dBm
dBm is the dB in reference to 1 mW.
6. dBm0
An absolute unit of power in dBm measured at or referred to a point of
0 TLP.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the strength of a signal in dBmO if it has an absolute power level
of -27 dBm at -24 dBm TLP.
Solution:
Note that 0 dBr = 0 TLP
Answer : 3 dBm 0
7. dBrn
dBrn is the unit of measurement of noise power used in the Western
Electric 144-type handset with a sensitivity of -90 dBm at 1000 Hz.
8. dBrn0
dBrn0 relates noise power reading in dBrn to 0 TLP to establish a
common reference point throughout the system.
9. dBa
Subsequent to the 144 handset, the Western Electric developed the
F1A handset that is 5 dB less sensitive (-85 dBm at 1000 Hz) to the
older handset (144-type). The noise measurement unit was the dBa.
10. dBa0
dBa0 relates noise power reading in dBa to 0 TLP to establish a
common reference point throughout the system.
11. dBrnC
A third more sensitive handset unit was developed by Western Electric
(500-type) giving rise to the C-message line weighting curve and its
companion unit, the dBrnC.
12. dBrnC0
dBrnC0 relates noise power reading in dBrnC to 0 TLP to establish a
common reference point throughout the system.
Solution:
dBrnC 0 = dBrnC 0 TLP dBrnC = dBm + 90
= dBm + 90 0 TLP
= 76 + 90 (4)
= 18 dBrnC 0
Sample Problem:
A 1 kHz tone has a level of 70 dBrnC at a point that is 9 dB TLP. What
would be the maximum C-message weighted noise level at the 0 TLP for a
signal-to-noise ratio of 30 dB?
Solution:
dBrnC 0 = dBrnC 0 TLP
= 70 ( 9 )
= 79 signal level in dBrnC0
S
= SdBrnC 0 NdBrnC 0
N dB
30 dB = 79 NdBrnC 0
N = 49 dBrnC 0
Answer : 49 dBrnC 0
13. dBmp
The CCITT weighting unit for commercial circuit which is nominally
identical to the American F1A weighting unit.
14. dBm0p
dBmp0p relates noise power reading in dBmp to 0 TLP to establish a
common reference point throughout the system.
Sample Problem:
A -42 dBmp of noise at a -5 dBr point would be reported as ____ dBm0p.
Solution:
dBm 0p = dBmp 0 TLP (0 dBr )
= 42 ( 5)
= 35
Answer : 35 dBm 0p
15. pWp
The unit of noise power measured with the CCITT recommended
psophometer. The reference tone is -90 dBm (1 picowatt) at 800 Hz.
16. pWp0
pWp0 relates noise power reading in pWp to 0 TLP to establish a
common reference point throughout the system.
dBrnC = dBa + 5
Sample Problem:
A 1 kHz test tone is inserted at a local loop with an amplitude of +4 dBm
and is transmitted towards the central office. In this direction the loop has a
level of +10 dB TLP, because the signal will be attenuated as it moves
towards the central office (about 5 dB). Express the level of the tone in
dBrnCO.
Solution:
dBrnC = dBm + 90 dBrnC0 = dBrnC 0 TLP
= 4 + 90 = 94 10 dB
= 94 = 84
And since the signal will be attenuated on its way to the C.O.
dBrnC 0 = 84 5 dB
= 79
Answer : 79 dBrnC 0
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-113
dBrnC = dBa + 6
The VU or volume unit is a unit used to measure the power level (volume)
of program channels (broadcast) and certain types of speech or music.
Pt(dBm) = VU 1.4
Solution:
Pt(dBm) = 5 1.4 = 3.6 dBm
I H
1. A deep space communications system dish antenna receives a signal from a
space satellite with -100 dBm of power. The special pre-amplifer boosts this by
50 dB, and another pre-amplifier boosts it an additional 40 dB. Further
amplifier stages add 20, 25, and 10 dB to the signal. What is the signal level,
in mW, after the last stage?
A. 28.525 W B. 8.12 W
C. 31.6 W D. 60.8 W
2. Calculate the input S/N for an amplifier with an equivalent noise resistance of
300, equivalent shot noise current of 5 A if the amplifier is fed from a 150,
10 V rms sinusoidal source over a bandwidth of 10 MHz.
A. 5.71 dB B. 3.568 dB
C. 9.68 dB D. 1.4 dB
4. The resistor R1 and R2 are connected in series at 300oK and 400oK temperatures
respectively. If R1 is 200 and R2 is 300, find the power produced at the load
(RL = 500) over a bandwidth of 100 kHz. APRIL 2003
A. 0.496 fW B. 5.78 pW
C. 0.15 fW D. 52.48 pW
8. Determine the noise figure for a non-ideal amplifier with the following
parameters:
Input S/N=80 dB; Power gain=60 dB;
Input Noise=2x10-18 W Internal Noise=6x10-12 W
A. 1.85 dB B. 6 dB
C. 4.65 dB D. 2.5 dB
9. Calculate the total noise voltage at the input and the input S/N ratio in dB for
an amplifier with an equivalent noise resistance of 300, and the equivalent
shot noise current is 5 A. The amplifier is fed from a 150, 10 V rms
sinusoidal source and the noise BW is 10 MHz.
A. VN=12.34V, S/N=1.4 dB B. VN=12.34V, S/N=26.4 dB
C. VN=8.51V, S/N=26.4 dB D. VN=8.51V, S/N=1.4 dB
11. What is the effect on the signal-to-noise ratio of a system (in dB) if the
bandwidth is doubled, considering all other parameters to remain unchanged
except the normal thermal noise only. The S/N will be____. APRIL 2003
A. S/N ratio is decreased by 1/16 B. S/N ratio is decreased by
C. S/N ratio is decreased by 1/8 D. S/N ratio is decreased by
12. Calculate the approximate talker power in dBm for a complex signal with VU
meter readout of 5 VU.
A. 6.4 dBm B. 3.6 dBm
C. 8.6 dBm D. 1.4 dBm
14. Calculate the output signal-to-noise ratio in dB for three identical links, given
that the S/N ratio for any one links is 60 dB.
A. 21.83 dB B. 43.21 dB
C. 55.23 dB D. 18.79 dB
15. Calculate the diodes equivalent voltage if the forward bias current is 1mA over
a 100 kHz bandwidth. (Assume the dynamic resistance of the diode equal to
26mV/Idc)
A. 10.851 Vrms B. 4.25 Vrms
C. 23.56 Vrms D. 0.147 Vrms
16. Calculate the strength of a signal in dBmO if it has an absolute power level of -
27 dBm at -24 dBm TLP.
A. 3dBm0 B. -3dBm0
C. -51 dBm0 D. -24 dBm0
17. Calculate the overall noise figure referred to the input for a mixer stage that
has a noise figure of 20 dB, and this is preceded by an amplifier that has a
noise figure of 9 dB and an available power gain of 15 dB.
A. 9.45 dB B. 10.44 dB
C. 11.78 dB D. 12.56 dB
18. Calculate the noise factor of an attenuator pad that has an insertion loss of 6
dB.
A. 6 B. 8
C. 4 D. 2
20. Noise that consists of electrical signals that originate from outside Earths
atmosphere.
A. static B. Extra terrestrial noise
C. Pink noise D. Shot noise
21. A 20,000 ohms resistor is at room temperature (290 deg K). Calculate the
threshold noise voltage for a bandwidth of 100 kHz. NOV 2002
A. 56.58 V B. 5658 V
C. 565.8 V D. 5.658 V
22. Calculate the overall noise temperature of the receiving system for a receiver
that has a noise figure of 12 dB, and it is fed by an LNA that has a gain of 50
dB and a noise temperature of 90 K.
A. 90 K B. 76.12 K
C. 122 K D. 43.89 K
23. Consist of sudden burst of irregularly shaped pulses that generally last between
a few microseconds and a fraction of a millisecond.
A. static B. Popcorn noise
C. Impulse noise D. Shot noise
24. A tone measures 80 dBrnC at the output of a four wire central office. What will
it be at a local loop that is 8 dB TLP?
A. 70 dBrnC B. 72 dBrnC
C. 74 dBnrnC D. 18 dBrnC
26. Zero transmission level point is the point at which the test tone level should be
0 dBm.
A. 0 dBm B. 0 TLP
C. pWp D. dBmO
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-117
27. A single tuned circuit has a Q-factor of 70 and is resonant at 3 MHz with a 470
pF tuning capacitor. Calculate the equivalent noise BW for the circuit.
A. 657.69 Hz B. 67.32 kHz
C. 145.12 kHz D. 538.19 kHz
29. What is the reference level and frequency in F1A-line weighting curve?
A. -85 dBm and 1000 Hz B. -88 dBm and 3000 Hz
C. -85 dBm and 800 Hz D. -90 dBm and 1000 Hz
30. Two resistors rated 5 ohms and 10 ohms are connected in series and are
at 27 degrees Celsius. Calculate their combined thermal noise voltage for a
10 kHz bandwidth. NOV 2003
A. 50 V B. 5 V
C. 0.005 V D. 0.05 V
32. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N ratio of 44 dB, are connected in
tandem if a fourth circuit is added that has an S/N ratio of 34 dB. Determine
the overall S/N ratio.
A. 32.86 dB B. 41 dB
C. 46.84 dB D. 50 dB
33. The ENR for an avalanche diode is 13 dB. Given that the cold temperature is
equal to room temperature, determine the hot temperature of the source.
A. 612.3 K B. 63,769.3 K
C. 6,076.3 K D. 16,348.3 K
34. A random fluctuation that accompanies any direct current crossing a potential
barrier caused by the random arrival of carrier at the output element of
electronic devices.
A. Shot noise B. Impulse noise
C. Transit-time noise D. Popcorn noise
35. A tone introduced at a -3.5 dBr point with an absolute power level of -18.5
dBm may be referred to as _____ dBm0 signal.
A. -21 B. 75
C. -15 D. 81.5
36. A 3000 Hz white noise is attenuated how many dB when measured by a noise
measurement set using an F1A weighting.
A. 1.5 dB B. 3 dB
C. 5 dB D. 8 dB
37. A three stage amplifier system has a 3-dB bandwidth of 200 kHz, determined
by an LC tuned circuit at its input, and operates at 22C. The first stage has a
power gain if 14 dB and a noise figure of 3 dB. The second and third stages
are identical, with power gains of 20 dB and noise figure of 8 dB. The output
load is 300. The input noise is generated by a 10-k resistor. Calculate the
overall noise figure of the system.
A. 7.29 dB B. 3.45 dB
C. 6.36 dB D. 7.41 dB
38. In measuring noise in a voice channel at -46 dB transmission point level, the
meter reads -70 dBm (F1A weighted), convert the reading into pWp.
A. 100 pWp B. 57 pWP
C. 85 pWP D. 79 pWp
41. You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB transmission point level, the
meter reads -73 dBm (pure test tone) convert the reading into dBrnCO.
A. 16 dBrnCO B. 13 dBrnCO
C. 8 dBrnCO D. 21 dbrnCO
43. In a microwave communications system, determine the noise power in dBm for
an equivalent noise bandwidth of 10 MHz. APRIL 2003
A. -121.4 dBm B. -169.28 dBm
C. 117.89 dBm D. -103.98 dBm
44. What is the equivalent signal in dBm for 4 different signals +10 dBm each?
A. 40 dBm B. 4 dBm
C. 16 dBm D. 14 dBm
45. The alteration of information in which the original proportions are changed,
resulting from a defect in communication system.
A. Interference B. Distortion
C. Attenuation D. Noise
46. Determine the shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1.40 mA over an 80
kHz bandwidth. (q=1.6x10 raised to minus 19 C). APRIL 2003
A. 0.06 A B. 0.006 A
C. 0.6 A D. 6 A
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-119
47. Calculate the strength of a signal in dBa when it is equal to -74 dBrnC.
A. -69 dBa B. 11 dBa
C. -79 dBa D. 16 dBa
48. Results when unwanted harmonics of a signal are produced through non-linear
amplification (mixing).
A. Amplitude distortion B. Pink Noise
C. White noise D. Intermodulation distortion
49. Two resistors, 20k and 50k are at ambient temperature. Calculate for a
bandwidth equal to 100 kHz, the thermal voltage for the two resistors
connected in parallel. Nov 1997
A. 55.12 V B. 15.29 V
C. 4.78 V D. 13.12 V
50. A 10dBmO signal introduce at the 0dBr point (0 TLP) has an absolute value of
signal level of ____?
A. -80 dBm B. -10 dBm
C. -70 dBm D. 0 dBm
52. A satellite receiving system include a dish antenna with a Teq equal to 35 K is
connected via a coupling network with a Teq of 40 K to a microwave receiver
with a Teq of 52 K referred to its input. What is the noise power to the receivers
input over a 1-MHz frequency range and also determine the receivers noise
figure.
A. 1.75 fW, 0.716 dB B. 17.5 fW, 0.76 dB
C. 0.75 fW, 0.16 dB D. 1.75 fW, 0.16 dB
53. Figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates
as a signal passes trough a circuit or series of circuit.
A. Noise voltage B. Signal-to-noise ratio
C. Noise factor D. Carrier-to-noise ratio
54. Express the ratio in decibels of power ratio 50 is to 10 Watts. NOV 2002
A. 5.66 dB B. 6.99 dB
C. 3.87 dB D. 8.13 dB
55. Given a noise factor of 10, what is the noise figure in dB? APRIL 2003
A. 10 dB B. 15 dB
C. 16 dB D. 21 dB
56. The equivalent noise resistance for an amplifier is 300, and the equivalent
shot noise current is 5 A. the amplifier is fed from a 150, 10Vrms
sinusoidal signal source. If the noise bandwidth is 10 MHz, calculate the input
S/N ratio in dB.
A. 1.4 dB B. 3.78 dB
C. 4.2 dB D. 10.5 dB
58. A naturally occurring electrical disturbance that originate within the Earths
atmosphere.
A. Static B. Gaussian Noise
C. Transit-time noise D. Amplitude distortion
59. Calculate the output S/N ratio in dB for three links, the first two of which have
S/N ratios of 45 dB and the third has 40 dB.
A. 31.4 dB B. 37.87 dB
C. 40.2 dB D. 50.5 dB
61. An RF stage uses a single amplifier with 1000 gain that adds 50 V noise, on a
received input signal of 20V+2V noise. Calculate the output signal-to-noise
ratio.
A. 21.4 dB B. 19.8 dB
C. 14.3 dB D. 15.7 dB
62. The signal power of the input to an amplifier is 100 microW and the noise
power is 1 microW. At the output, the signal power is 1W and the noise power
is 40 mW. What is the amplifier noise figure? APRIL 2003
A. 87.5 dB B. 31.67 dB
C. 6.02 dB D. 16.13 dB
63. What is the signal strength of a -18 dBm 1000 Hz tone in dBa?
A. 67 B. 64
C. 72 D. 70
65. Results when unwanted sum and difference frequencies are generated when
two or more signals are amplified in a non-linear device.
A. Transit-time noise B. Amplitude distortion
C. Gaussion Noise D. Intermodulation distortion
66. A -50 dBmp of noise at a -7 dBr point would be reported as ____ dBm0p.
A. -57 B. -43
C. -47 D. 47
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-121
67. Three amplifiers are cascaded together. Determine the total noise figure in dB
if the noise figure of each amplifier is equal to 3 dB and the amplifiers gain is
10 dB each. NOV 2002
A. 3.24 dB B. 30.24 dB
C. 0.324 dB D. 13.24 dB
68. An amplifier operating over a 4 MHz bandwidth has 100- input resistance. It
has a voltage gain of 46 dB, and has an input signal of 5Vrms Determine the
rms output signal-to-noise ratio in dB.
A. 5.78 dB B. 3.55 dB
C. 2.89 dB D. 4.12 dB
69. Is a form of external noise and happens when information signal from source
produce frequencies that fall outside their allocated bandwidth and interfere
with information signal from another source.
A. Interference B. Distortion
C. Attenuation D. Noise
70. Noise that is present regardless of whether there is a signal present or not.
A. Amplitude distortion B. Correlated Noise
C. Harmonic distortion D. Uncorrelated Noise
71. Three amplifiers are cascaded together. Determine the total noise figure in dB if
the noise figure of each amplifier is equal to 3dB and the amplifiers gain is 10
dB each. NOV 2002
A. 0.24 dB B. 2.24 dB
C. 3.24 dB D. 1.24 dB
72. When measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -
76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnCO. APRIL 2004
A. 14 dBrnCO B. 18 dBrnCO
C. 16 dBrnCO D. 20 dBrnCO
73. Noise that occurs wherever current has to divide between two or more
electrodes and results from the random fluctuation in the division.
A. Shot noise B. Impulse noise
C. Transit-time noise D. Partition noise
74. A transistor has a measured S/N power of 100 at its input and 20 at its output.
Determine the noise figure of the transistor. NOV 2004
A. 9.98 dB B. 3.18 dB
C. 6.98 dB D. 4.49 dB
75. Any point in a circuit with the same relative level as the sending terminal is a
point of zero relative level abbreviated as.
A. 0 dBr B. 0 dBm
C. 0 pWp D. dBrnCO
78. Determine the noise current and equivalent noise voltage for a diode with
forward bias of 1 mA over a 1-MHz bandwidth.
A. In=56.3 nA, Vn=0.718 V B. In=89.2 nA, Vn=0.648 V
C. In=17.9 nA, Vn=0.465 V D. In=47.9 nA, Vn=0.482 V
79. Calculate the S/N ratio for a receiver output of 4V signal and 0.48V noise both
as a ratio and in decibel form.
A. 24.58, 64.52 dB B. 33.72, 97.15 dB
C. 89.34, 56.23 dB D. 69.44, 18.42 dB
80. An amplifier with NF=6 dB has Si/Ni of 25 dB. Calculate the So/No in dB and as
a ratio.
A. 13 dB, 66.82 B. 16 dB, 93.24
C. 19 dB, 79.4 D. 11 dB, 61.57
81. A single stage amplifier has a 200-kHz BW and a voltage gain of 100 at room
temperature. Assume that the external noise is negligible and that a 1-mV
signal is applied to the amplifiers input. Calculate the output noise voltage if
the amplifier has a 5-dB NF and the input noise is generated by a 2-k resistor.
A. 813 V B. 458 V
C. 945 V D. 678 V
82. Calculate the noise voltage of a 1-k resistor at 17 C over a 1-MHz BW.
Repeat for the series and parallel combination of three 1-k resistors.
A. 4 V, 6.93 V, 2.31 V
B. 5 V, 1.55 V, 5.53 V
C. 2 V, 5.78 V, 5.52 V
D. 8 V, 3.31 V, 1.16 V
83. Calculate the noise voltage for a 1-k resistor at 17 C tuned by an LC circuit
with a BW of 1 MHz.
A. 50.1 V B. 15.01 V
C. 535.01 V D. 5.01 V
84. A three-stage amplifier has an input stage with noise ratio NR=5 and power
gain equal to 50. Stages 2 and 3 have NR=10, and Ap=1000. Calculate the NF
for the overall system.
A. 4.71 dB B. 8.33 dB
C. 14.79 dB D. 32.84 dB
85. Calculate the noise power at the input of a microwave receiver with an
equivalent noise temperature of 45 K. It is fed from an antenna with a 35 K
equivalent noise temperature and operates over a 5-MHz BW.
A. Pn=97.33x10-15 W B. Pn=5.52x10-15 W
-15
C. Pn=6.38x10 W D. Pn=25.3x10-15 W
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-123
89. Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio
in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
A. In the atmosphere B. In the receiver front end
C. In the receiver rear end D. In the ionosphere
91. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a
specified total frequency band.
A. White noise B. Gaussian noise
C. Thermal noise D. All of these
92. Referred to as the stage in the radio contributes most of the noise
A. IF amplifier B. Mixer
C. Supply stage D. Speaker
94. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
A. -90 dBm B. 90 dBm
C. 90 dB D. -90 dB
103. The most common of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing
A. dBm B. dBW
C. dBrn D. NPR
104. The random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both
internal and external to the system is known as
A. attenuation B. noise
C. distortion D. interference
105. The ratio of the level of the modulated output with no modulation standard
test modulation to the level demodulated output with no modulation applied
both measured with the same bandwidth
A. Residual noise level B. Reference audio output
C. Audio frequency response D. None of these
Section
Transmitters Read it
till it
5 and Receivers Hertz!
1. High-Level Modulation
The FCC defines high-level modulation in the Code of Federal
Regulations as "modulation produced in the plate circuit of the last
radio stage of the system."
Plate Modulator
The plate modulator is a high-level modulator. The modulator tube
must be capable of varying the plate-supply voltage of the final
power amplifier.
Collector-Injection Modulator
A collector-injection modulator is a transistorized version of the
plate modulator.
2. Low-Level Modulation
The FCC defines low-level modulation in the Code of Federal
Regulations as "modulation produced in an earlier stage than the
final."
Control-Grid Modulator
A control-grid modulator is a low-level modulator that is used
where a minimum of a.f. modulator power is desired. It is less
efficient than a plate modulator and produces more distortion.
Base-Injection Modulator
A base-injection modulator is used to produce low-level
modulation in equipment operating at very low power levels. It is
often used in small portable equipment and test equipment.
Cathode Modulator
The cathode modulator is a low-level modulator employed where
the audio power is limited and the inherent distortion of the grid
modulator cannot be tolerated.
Emitter-Injection Modulator
The emitter-injection modulator is an extremely low-level
modulator that is useful in portable equipment.
Information Source
Generally an acoustical transducer, such as microphone, a
magnetic tape, a CD, or a phonograph record.
Pre-amp Stage
Typically a sensitive, class A linear voltage amplifier with a high
input impedance whose function is to raise the amplitude of the
source signal to a usable level while producing non-linear
distortion.
Driver Stage
A linear amplifier that simply amplifies the information signal to an
adequate level to sufficiently drive the modulator.
Transmitter Efficiency ()
When no
modulation is When modulation is applied
applied
When m=1
General Solution
P (50% increased)
= c
Ps Psb Psb 0.5Pc
= = =
Pmod Pmod Pmod
where:
= conversion efficieny
Pc = unmodulated carrier power in W
Ps = dc input power to the collector in W
Psb = sideband power due to modulation in W
Pmod = average(audio) power supplied by the modulator in W
Solution:
Pc P 40 Ps 57.14
= Ps = c = = 57.14 W Ic = = = 0.952 A
Ps 0.7 Vs 60
Solution:
Psb
= ; when m = 1; PT = 1.5Pc and Psb = 0.5Pc = 0 .5 x 25 = 12 .5 W
Pmod
Psb 12.5
Pmod = Paudio = = = 17.85 W
0.7
fout = fc + kfc (T To )
where:
fc = center frequency in MHz
k = temperature coefficient in Hz per MHz per degree C
= Hz/MHz/ C ppm
Solution:
fout = fc + kfc (T To )
= 146 MHz + 106 x 146 MHz (5 20)
= 145.99635 MHz
Sample Problem:
A quartz watch is guaranteed accurate to 125 seconds per year. Assuming a
year has 8760 hrs, calculate the accuracy of the crystal oscillator in the
watch in parts per million.
Solution:
125 sec
a= x (1x106 ) = 4 ppm
3600 sec
8760 hrsx
1 hr
C. .RADIO RECEIVER.
Collection of electronic devices that transform the transmitted message
back into a form understandable by human.
TRF Selectivity
where:
f fr = resonant frequency in Hz
Q= r
BW 1
=
2 LC
Sample Problem:
A TRF receiver is to be designed with a single tuned circuit using a 10H
inductor. Calculate the capacitance range of the variable capacitor required
to cover the entire AM band (535-1605 kHz) and also calculate the BW of
this receiver at 540 kHz and 1600 kHz (assume Q=110).
Solution:
At 535 kHz At 1605 kHz
1 1 1 1
fr = C = fr = C =
2 LC L (2 fr )2 2 LC L (2 fr )2
1 1
C = C =
10 H(2 x 535 kHz )2 10 H(2 x1605 kHz )2
= 8 .85 nF = 983 pF
2. Receiver Components
i. Antenna
Collect very weak signal radiated by a broadcast station.
ii. RF Section
The RF amplifier amplifies the modulated RF signal received by the
antenna. This section determines the sensitivity of the receiver.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-131
Image Frequency
Any frequency other than the selected radio frequency carrier
that, if allowed to enter a receiver will produce a cross-product
frequency that is equal to the I.F.
IM = LO + IF IM = LO IF
IM = RF + 2IF IM = RF 2IF
fimage fRF
IFRR = (1 + Q22 ) =
fRF fimage
Double Spotting
Double Spotting occurs when a receiver picks up the same station
at two nearby points on the receiver dial caused by poor front-end
selectivity or inadequate image-frequency rejection.
iv. IF Section
The IF section provides most of the receiver gain and selectivity.
Gain
k=kc
k=1.5kc
k=3kc
1
kc = k o = 1.5k c BW = k fo
Qp Q s
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-133
where:
Qp = Q of primary circuit
Q s = Q of secondary circuit
k c = critical coupling factor
k o = optimum coupling factor
fo = resonant frequency in Hz
BW = bandwidth in Hz
Solution:
1 1
kc = = = 0.0224 k o = 1.5 k c = 1.5 x 0.0224 = 0.0336
QpQd 50 x 40
Some Popular IF
System IF
AM Broadcast 455 kHz
AM Broadcast
262.5 kHz
(automobiles)
FM Broadcast 10.7 MHz
FM Two-way radios 21.4 MHz
Picture IF 41.25 MHz
Sound IF 45.75 MHz
Radar RX/TX 30 or 60 MHz
Satellite RX 70 MHz
v. Detector Section
The purpose of the detector section is to extract or demodulate
the original source information from the IF signal.
D. .DEMODULATOR CIRCUITS.
1. AM Demodulators
2. FM Demodulator
i. Slope Detector
The simplest form of tuned-circuit frequency discriminator which is
basically composed of a tuned-circuit and a peak detector that
converts the amplitude variations to an output voltage that varies
at a rate equal to that of the input frequency changes and whose
amplitude is proportional to the magnitude of the frequency
changes.
v. Quadrature FM Demodulator
Sometimes called as coincidence detector which extracts the
original information signal from the composite IF waveform by
multiplying two quadrature (90 out-of-phase) signals
1. Sensitivity
The minimum RF signal level that can be detected at the input to the
receiver and still produced usable demodulated information.
2. Selectivity
The measure of the ability of a receiver to accept a given band of
frequencies and reject all others.
Selectivity is the degree of distinction made by the receiver between the desired
signal and unwanted signals.
Solution:
Vadj 450 V
SdB = 20 log = 20 log = 53.06 dB
Vr 1 V
BW60dB
SF =
BW 3dB
4. Fidelity
The fidelity of a receiver is its ability to accurately reproduce, in its
output, the signal that appears at its input.
V(max_ input )
DR dB = 20 log
sensitivity (volts)
P(max_ input )
DR dB = 10 log
threshold( watts )
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-137
Solution:
Vinput DR 60
DR dB = 20 log Vinput = Vsensitivity 10 20 = 0.6 V 10 20 = 600 V
Vsensitivity
Sample Problem:
A receiver has a dynamic range of 85 dB. It has 1.5 nW sensitivity
(threshold). Determine the maximum allowable input signal.
Solution:
P(max_ input)
DR dB = 10 log
threshold(watts)
P(max_ input)
85 dB = 10 log
1.5 x 10 9 W
P(max_ input) = 0.474 W
Reverse AGC
When we use an AGC voltage to cause degeneration by driving the
amplifiers toward cutoff, it is referred to as reverse AGC.
Forward AGC
For forward AGC the amplifier is driven toward the saturation
region of its characteristic curve.
3. Squelch Circuit
The sensitivity of a receiver is maximum when no signal is being
received. This condition occurs, for example, when a receiver is being
tuned between stations. The purpose of a squelch circuit is to quiet a
receiver in the absence of a received signal.
4. Blanking Circuit
In essence, a blanking circuit detects the occurrence of a high-
amplitude, short duration noise spike, then mutes the receiver by
shutting off a portion of the receiver for the duration of the pulse.
5. S-meter
The S-meter is designed to indicate signal strength for comparison and
to aid in tuning the receiver and sometimes in adjusting the antenna.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-139
I H
1. The oscillator of a CB transmitter is guaranteed accurate to +0.005%. What is
the maximum frequency at which it could actually transmit if it is set to
transmit on channel 20, with a nominal carrier frequency of 27.205 MHz.
A. 27.2064 MHz B. 38.6128 MHz
C. 24.1289 MHz D. 14.8123 MHz
4. Determine the overall bandwidth for three single-tuned amplifiers each with a
BW of 10 kHz.
A. 10 kHz B. 5.098 kHz
C. 30 kHz D. 2.08 kHz
10. A tuned circuit tunes the AM radio broadcast band or from 540 to 1700 kHz. If
its bandwidth is 10 kHz at 535, what is it at 1605 kHz?
A. 17.32 kHz B. 51.46 kHz
C. 31.56 kHz D. 917.32 kHz
13. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20C, and a temperature coefficient
of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What will be the shift in frequency at 70C?
What percentage is that?
A. 50 kHz, 0.5% B. 25 kHz, 0.05%
C. 25 kHz, 0.5 % D. 50 kHz, 0.05%
14. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
A. Capacitor B. Inductor
C. Transformer D. Tuned circuit
15. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microV and a blocking dynamic range of 60
dB. What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microV
signal without blocking taking place? NOV 2004
A. 0.06 V B. 0.6 V
C. 600 V D. 60 V
17. The two inputs to a mixer are the signal to be translated and a signal from a(n)
A. Filter B. Local Oscillator
C. Modulator D. Antenna
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20. Determine the quality factor necessary for a single sideband filter with a 1-MHz
carrier frequency, 80 dB unwanted suppression and 200-Hz frequency
separation.
A. 15,000 B. 125,000
C. 12,000 D. 25,000
24. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would
be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable
baseband shift is 100 hertz?
A. 1.499 MHz + 100 Hz B. 1.5 MHz + 1000 Hz
C. 1.5 MHz + 100 Hz D. 1.4999 MHz + 100 Hz
25. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.3 V. The same receiver can handle a signal
level of 75 mV without overloading. What is its AGC range in dB?
A. 108 dB B. 125 dB
C. 51 dB D. 83 dB
26. If two signals, Va = sin(at) and Vb = sin(bt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
A. will contain 1 = a + b and 2 = a b
B. will contain 1 = a / b and 2 = b / a
C. will contain = (a + b ) / 2
D. will contain 1 = a x b and 2 = b x a
27. When measuring the selectivity of a receiver, you discover that a signal level of
450 microV on an adjacent channel is required to give the same output as 1
microV signal on the channel to which the receiver is tuned. Calculate the
adjacent channel selectivity in dB. NOV 2003
A. 16.87 dB B. 74.95 dB
C. 26.5 dB D. 53 dB
28. A receivers IF filter has a shape factor of 2.5 and a bandwidth of 6 kHz at the -
3 dB point. What is its bandwidth at -60 dB point?
A. 23 kHz B. 48 kHz
C. 15 kHz D. 62 kHz
30. When measuring the selectivity of a receiver, you discover that a signal level of
500 V on an adjacent channel is required to give the same output as a 1 V
signal on the adjacent channel to which the receiver is tuned. What is the
adjacent channel selectivity in dB?
A. 43 dB B. 54 dB
C. 38 dB D. 23 dB
32. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
A. the loop-gain criteria B. the Hartley criteria
C. the Bode criteria D. the Barkhausen criteria
34. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage
will be:
A. approximately half the DC supply voltage
B. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
C. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
D. approximately 1.414 times the DC supply voltage
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-143
38. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off frequency could its
output be at 30MHz?
A. 250 Hz B. 120 Hz
C. 200 Hz D. 150 Hz
39. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-
hertz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to
400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency?
A. 2 MHz B. 6 MHz
C. 4 MHz D. 8 MHz
50. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local
oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz?
A. 4 MHz B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz D. 3 MHz
52. Determine the voltage at the output of a phase comparator with a transfer
function of 0.5 V/rad and a phase error of 0.75 rad.
A. 0.75 V B. 3.73 V
C. 0.373 V D. 0.73 V
53. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power
supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power
does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation?
A. 16.67 watts B. 50 watts
C. 33.33 watts D. 66.67 watts
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-145
54. Determine the phase error necessary to produce a VCO frequency shift of 10
kHz for an open loop gain of 40 kHz/rad.
A. 25 rad B. 0.125 rad
C. 0.25 rad D. 0.5 rad
56. Determine the change in frequency for a VCO with a transfer function of 4
kHz/V and a dc input voltage change of 1.2Vp.
A. 4.8 kHz B. 0.48 kHz
C. 3.33 kHz D. 0.333 kHz
58. Determine the hold-in range for a PLL with an open loop gain of 25. kHz/rad
A. 9.271 kHz B. 39.271 kHz
C. 9.1 kHz D. 3.271 kHz
59. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 microV and a blocking dynamic range of 60
dB. What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6 microV
signal without blocking taking place? APRIL 2003
A. 0.06 V B. 0.6 V
C. 600 V D. 60 V
62. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier
frequency of 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be
mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50
MHz?
A. 20 MHz B. 10 MHz
C. 40 MHz D. 60 MHz
63. Determine the improvement in the noise figure for a receiver with an RF
bandwidth equal to 200 kHz and an IF bandwidth equal to 10 kHz.
A. 0.13 dB B. 1.3 dB
C. 3 dB D. 13 dB
64. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what
is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
A. 400 volts B. 50 volts
C. 200 volts D. 100 volts
65. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz.
The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB,
what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter?
A. 9.95 MHz B. 10.005 MHz
C. 9.995 MHz D. 10.05 MHz
66. For an AM commercial broadcast band receiver with an input filter Q-factor of
54, determine the bandwidth at the low and high end of the spectrum.
A. 1 kHz, 29.630 kHz B. 10 kHz, 29.630 kHz
C. 1 kHz, 2.630 kHz D. 10 kHz, 2.630 kHz
71. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
A. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
B. it increases sensitivity
C. it increases selectivity
D. it is cheaper
73. For an AM receiver with a -80 dBm RF input signal level and the following gains
and losses, determine the audio signal level
Gains: RF = 33 dB, IF = 47 dB, Audio amp = 25 dB
Losses: Preselector = 3 dB, Mixer loss = 6 dB, detector loss = 8 dB
A. 8 dBm B. 0.8 dBm
C. 80 dBm D. 18 dBm
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 1-147
74. For a citizen band receiver using high-side injection with an RF carrier of 27
MHz, determine the preselector Q required to achieve an IFRR of 40.32 dB.
A. 540 B. 120
C. 353 D. 84
76. When a super heterodyne receive with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at
1200 kHz, the image frequency will be ______.
A. 1650 kHz B. 900 kHz
C. 2100 kHz D. 750 kHz
81. A crystal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off frequency its
output be at 27MHz?
A. 125 Hz B. 115 Hz
C. 155 Hz D. 135 Hz
84. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running frequency of 16 MHz. As
the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from zero, the loop
locks at 12 MHz and comes out of lock again at 20 MHz. Find the capture
range and lock range.
A. 8 MHz, 8 MHz B. 4 MHz, 8 MHz
C. 2 MHz, 4 MHz D. 8 MHz, 4 MHz
85. A quartz watch is guaranteed accurate to 125 seconds per year. Assuming a
month has 30 days, calculate the accuracy of the crystal oscillator in the watch
in ppm.
A. 8.12 ppm B. 3.23 ppm
C. 1.24 ppm D. 4.02 ppm
86. A tuned circuit tunes the AM radio broadcast band (540 to 1700 kHz). If its
bandwidth is 10 kHz at 540 kHz, what is it at 1700 kHz?
A. 17.7 kHz B. 1700 kHz
C. 10.5 kHz D. 21.7 kHz
87. A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.5 V and a blocking dynamic range of 70 dB.
What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.5 V signal
without blocking taking place?
A. 1.58 mV B. 15.8 mV
C. 158 mV D. 0.158 mV
90. The 10 MHz crystal oscillator in a PLL frequency synthesizer has been calibrated
to a reference standard known to be accurate to 5 ppm. The oscillator is
guaranteed to drift no more 10 ppm per month. Suppose this oscillator is used
in a simple single-loop PLL to generate a frequency of 45 MHz. What are the
maximum and minimum values that the output frequency could have after one
year?
A. 10.0025 MHz, 9.99875 MHz B. 9.0025 MHz, 10.99875 MHz
C. 10.25 MHz, 9.75 MHz D. 9.25 MHz, 10.75 MHz
Section 6
Acoustics
Fundamentals w/
Basic Illumination
Section 7
Television
Fundamentals
Section 8
AM, FM and TV
Broadcasting
Standards
Section 9
Microphones and
Loudspeakers
Acoustics &
Broadcasting
General Subdivision
i. Infrasonic -- below 20 Hz
ii. Sonic -- 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
iii. Ultrasonic -- above 20,000 Hz
1. Velocity of Propagation
Sound travels at different velocities depending upon the medium.
Since sound travels not only in air but also through parts of the
structure it is of interest to know the velocities in other media.
i. In a gas medium
PO
s=
O
where :
PO = is the steady pressure of the gas in N/m 2
O = is the steady or average density of the gas in kg/m 3
= ratio of the specific heat of constant pressure to that
of the constant volume
TK
s = 331.45 for TC > 20C
273
Sample Problem:
Determine the speed of sound in air at STP.
(Used = 1.4 for air, = 1.29 kg/m3, = 1 atm = 1.013 x 105 Pa)
Solution:
N
1.41.013 x 105 2
P0 m
s= = kg
= 332 m
s
0 1.29 3
m
Sample Problem:
A camera focuses using ultrasound. If it focuses precisely at 20 C, how far
off (%) will it be at 0 C?
Solution:
s = 331.45 + 0.607(0o )
= 331.45 m for 0 degrees
s = 331.45 + 0.607(20o )
= 343.59 m for 20 degrees
343.59 331.45
%miss = %100
343.59
= 3.53%
Answer : 3.53%
B. .CLASSES OF SPEECH.
1. Voiced Sounds
Voiced Sounds are produced when our vocal chords vibrate as a result
of our lungs generating sufficient pressure to open our vocal folds. For
most person, the vibration frequency of their folds is within 50 to 400
Hz range and is referred to as the pitch frequency component of voice.
2. Unvoiced Sounds
Unvoiced Sounds refer to the period of time when our vocal folds are
normally open, allowing air to pass from our lungs freely into the rest
of our vocal tract. Examples of unvoiced sounds include s, f, and sh,
generated by constricting the vocal tract by slightly closing our lips.
3. Plosive Sound
Plosive Sound results from the complete closure of our vocal tract,
resulting in air pressure becoming extremely high behind the closure.
C. .ATTRIBUTES OF SOUND.
1. Pitch
Pitch (music), highness or lowness of a musical tone as determined by
the rapidity of the vibrations producing it.
2. Timbre
Timbre is a more elusive qualitative attribute of sound.
Timber is a quality of a sound that distinguishes it from others of the same pitch or
volume. Timbre can be considered the texture or color of a sound.
3. Loudness
Loudness is the human impression of the strength of a sound. The
loudness of a noise does not necessarily correlate with its sound level.
Loudness level of any sound, in phons, is the decibel level of an equally loud 1
kHz tone, heard binaurally by an ontologically normal listener.
4. Duration
This is probably the quality that is simplest to relate to a measurable
quantity: the duration of a sound is the time interval between its
beginning and end points.
Summary
Sound
Measurable Quantity
Quality
Pitch frequency of sound waves
Timbre pressure oscillation waveform
loudness amplitude of pressure oscillation
duration time interval
Sample Problem:
Two public address speaker systems are being compared, and one is
perceived to be 64 times louder than the other. What will be the difference
in sound intensity levels between the two when measured by a dB-meter?
Solution:
Remember: A 10dB sound level increase is perceived to be about "twice as loud"
ln 64
64 = 2 = = 6
ln 2
The intensities differs by 6 factors of 10,
SIL = x (10 dB rule) = 6 x 10 = 60 dB
Sample Problem:
Given the following data:
D. .FREQUENCY PARAMETERS.
1. Harmonics
Harmonics is defined as the integral multiples of the fundamental.
2. Overtone
Musical term for harmonics.
N th Overtone = (n + 1)xfF
3. Octave
Frequency interval of 2.
N th Octave = 2 n xfF
4. Decade
Frequency interval of 10.
Sample Problem:
A flute with all of the holes closed can be considered as a tube with both
ends open. It has a fundamental frequency of 261.6 Hz (which is middle C).
Calculate the 3rd harmonics, 3rd overtones, 3rd octaves, and 3rd decades of
this fundamental generated.
Solution:
3rd Harmonics = 3 x (261.6 Hz) 784.8 Hz
3rd Overtones = (3 + 1) x (261.6 Hz) 1.0464 kHz
3rd Octaves = 23 x (261.6 Hz) 2.0928 kHz
3rd Decades = 103 x (261.6 Hz) 261.6 kHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-7
E. .SOUND FIELDS.
1. Near Field
The area where the direct sound dominates and the sound pressure
may vary significantly with just small changes in position.
2. Far Field
The area beyond the near field. This is made up of two sections;
i. Free field
Free field where the direct sound still dominates and the sound
pressure level decreases 6 dB for each doubling of distance.
F. .LEVELS OF SOUND.
Sound Power Level (PWL) is often quoted on machinery to indicate the total
sound energy radiated per second. It is quoted in decibels with respect to the
reference power level.
i. General Solution
W = Acoustic power in W
W
PWL dB = 10 log W0 = Reference acoustic power
W0
= 10 12 Watts
In dB
WT
PWL T = 10 log WT = W1 + W2 + W3 + WN
W0
Sample Problem:
Determine the total PWL of 3 motors with a radiated acoustic power of 25
mW, 40 mW, and 85 mW respectively.
Solution: 85 mW
40 mW
25 mW
WT
WT = W1 + W2 + W3 + Wn PWL T = 10 log
W0
= 25 mW + 40 mW + 85 mW
150 mW
= 150 mW = 10 log
1012 W
= 111.76 dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-9
Sound Intensity Level is the ratio between a given intensity and reference
intensity.
i. General Solution
I W
SIL dB = 10 log I0 = 10 12
I0 m2
In dB
IT
SIL T = 10 log I T = I1 + I2 + I3 + IN
I0
Sample Problem:
You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce
sound levels of the same magnitude at your position. The combined level
when all four talks at once is 70 dB.
a. What is the sound level from one person?
b. What is the sound intensity from one person?
c. If two additional people joined the conversation with an individual level
of 68 dB each, compute for the new combined intensity level.
Solution:
I
a.) SIL T = SIL + 10 log n b.) SIL = 10 log
I0
70 = SIL + 10 log 4
I
SIL = 64 dB 64 = 10 log
12 W
10
m2
W
I = 2.51
m2
c.) IT = I(4 people) + I(2 people)
W W
= 10 + 12.59
m2 m2
W
= 22.59 SIL T = 73.54 dB
m2
i. General Solution
P0 = reference pressure
= 20 Pa
P
SPL dB = 20 log = 0 .0002 bar
P0
lb
= 2 .089
ft 2
In dB
SPL dB = 20 logP + k
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-11
PT
SIL T = 20 log PT = P12 + P22 + P32 + PN2
P0
Sample Problem:
Calculate the effective SPL for a telephone ring, an operating vacuum
cleaner, and an air conditioner with an individual SPL of 82 dB, 76 dB, and
80 dB respectively relative to 20 Pa.
Solution:
Telephone Ring Vacuum Cleaner Air conditioner
P P P3
SPL1 = 20 log 1 SPL2 = 20 log 2 SPL 3 = 20 log
P0 P0 P0
P1 P2 P3
82 = 20 log 76 = 20 log 80 = 20 log
20 Pa 20 Pa 20 Pa
P1 = 251 .78 mPa P2 = 126 .2 mPa P3 = 200 mPa
Solution:
P 5
SPL = 20 log = 20 log = 7.58 dB
Po 2.089
Given Unit To dB
Atmosphere
20log P + 194.1
(Standard)
Atmosphere
20log P + 193.8
(Technical)
lb/in2 20log P + 170.8
Microbar 20log P + 74
i. General Solution
where :
P2
I=
410 rayls
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-13
Sample Problem:
What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 81.2 x10-3N/m2?
Solution:
P2
I= c = 331,45 + 0.607(25C)
c
(81.2 mPa)2 W
= = 15.85 x 106 2
1.2 x 346.625 m
15.85 x 106
SIL = 10 log = 72 dBSIL
1012
i. General Solution
where:
WQ W = sound power in W
I=
4 r 2 Q = Directivity factor
r = distance from the source in m
In dB
where :
W Q = 1
I=
4 r 2 PWL = 10 log W
SIL = 10 log I
In dB
Solution:
1 km
where :
W Q =2
I=
2 r 2 PWL = 10 log W
SIL = 10 log I
In dB
Sample Problem:
A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m
away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
Solution:
SIL = 90 dB
10 m
PWL dB = SIL dB + 20 log rm + 8 since SILdB = SIL dB
a. General Solution
I T = ID + IR
Q 4
SPL dB = PWL dB + 10 log 2
+ +K
4 r R
where :
S W
R = room constant I T = total sound intensity in
m2
1
WQ
S = Room surface area ID = direct sound intensity
4 r 2
= absorption coefficien t 4W
IR = R
reverberan t sound intensity
K = 0 . 2 dB metric
= 10.5 dB English
2. Sabine Equation
The equation governing the decay of uniformly diffuse sound in a live
room for an average absorption less than or equal to 0.2
Metric System
V
RT60 = 0.161 where:
A
V = Room volume
A = room total absorption A = S
English system S = room total surface area
= ave. room absorption coefficient
V
RT60 = 0.049
A
Solution:
0.16V 0.049V
RT60 = RT60 =
A A
0.16(2,550) 0.049(90.05)
= = 2.19 s = = 2.19 s
186 2000 x103
3. Norris-Eyring Equation
The equation governing the decay of uniformly diffuse sound in a live
room for an average absorption greater than 0.2
Metric System
V
RT60 = 0.161 where:
S ln(1 )
V = Room volume
A = room total absorption A = S
English system S = room total surface area
= ave. room absorption coefficient
V
RT60 = 0.049
S ln(1 )
RT60 (Sabine)
RT60 (Norris Eyring) =
ln(1 )
Sample Problem:
Calculate the Norris-Eyring reverberation time of uniformly diffuse sound in
a live room if the average absorption is 0.8 and the Sabine reverberation
time is 1.75 s.
Solution:
RT60(Sabine) 1.75
RT60(Norris Eyring) = = = 1.087 s
ln(1 ) ln(1 0.8)
H. .NOISE ANNOYANCE.
1. Noisiness
Defined as the subjective impression of the unwantedness of a sound
or annoyance.
2. Noy
A subjective unit of noisiness. A sound of 2 noys is twice as noisy as a
sound of 1 noy and half as noisy as a sound of 4 noys.
i. Nerve deafness
Caused by damage or degeneration of hair cells in organ of Corti
in the cochlea (inner ear). Such hearing loss is typically uneven,
and there is greater loss of higher frequencies than lower
frequencies.
This is the type of hearing loss normally found with aging and once
degeneration has occurred it usually cannot be remedied.
ii. Conduction deafness
Caused by some problem in the outer or middle ear that affects
transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. Conduction
deafness is more even across frequencies and doesn't result in
complete hearing loss. Conduction deafness is only partial hearing
loss because sound waves can be transmitted to inner ear by
conduction through bones of the skull.
1. Presbycusis
Hearing loss due to normal aging process. Typically this is greater for
men than women.
2. Sociocusis
Hearing loss due to non-occupational noise sources e.g. household
noises, TV, road traffic, etc. (criteria for occupational/ non-occupation
fuzzy).
3. Nosocusis
Hearing loss due to a pathological condition.
L. .ILLUMINATION BASIC.
Important Terminology
1. Luminous Intensity
Luminous intensity is the amount of luminous flux per unit solid angle
in a given direction.
3. Incandescence
Emission of radiation due to the temperature of the source.
4. Luminescence
Emission of radiation due to causes other than temperature of the
source.
5. The lumen
The amount of luminous energy (flux) emanating from one square foot
(meter) of surface on the sphere is one lumen.
Unit of light quantity. 1 Lumen = 1.5 mW
6. Fluorescence
Luminescence stimulated by radiation, not continuing more than about
10-8 s after the stimulating radiation is cut-off.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-21
Unit Conversion
Parameter Multiply By To obtain
ft-candle 10.764 Lux
Illumination
Lux 0.0929 ft-candle
ft-lambert 0.00221 candlela/in2
Luminance
candela/in2 452 ft-lambert
Intensity Candlepower 1 Candela
Solution:
Luminous flux in Lumen 500 candle power
Illu min ation = =
Area (12 ft)2
candle power 1 Candela 10.764 lux
= 3.47 x x
ft2 candle power foot candle
= 37.375 lux
I H
1. You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce sound
levels of the same magnitude at your position. The combined level when all
four talks at once is 76 dB. If another group of people join the conversation
with an individual level of 68 dB each and produce a total level of 82.12 dB
together with the 1st group, determine how many people join the conversation.
A. 15 B. 5
C. 30 D. 20
2. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of
1 foot, 1.5 inches?
A. 500 Hz B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz D. 2000 Hz
5. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB (ref 10
exponent -12 W). What is the maximum sound pressure level on the ground
directly below the plane assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions? APRIL 1997
A. 59.1 dB B. 69.1 dB
C. 79.1 dB D. 89.1 dB
7. A periodic wave passes an observer, who records that there is a time of 0.5 s
between crests.
A. the frequency is 0.5 Hz B. the speed is 0.5 m/s
C. the wavelength is 0.5 m D. the period is 0.5 s
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-23
11. A dB-meter is placed in front of an audio system reads 62 dB. The volume is
turned up and the meter now reads 72 dB. Evidently, the sound got
A. twice as loud B. half as loud
C. 20x louder D. 10x louder
12. A sound that has an intensity level of 100 dB is how many times more intense
than a sound of 20 dB?
A. 5 B. 8
C. 1000 D. 108
13. ______ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room
through common wall, floors or ceilings. APRIL 1997
A. Reflection B. Flanking transmission
C. Refraction D. Reverberation
15. ______ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction
through a cross sectional area of 1square meter at right angle to the direction.
NOV 1996
A. Pressure variation B. Loudness
C. Sound pressure D. Sound intensity
16. If one stereo system sound 16x louder than another, the difference in their
sound levels is about
A. 40 dB B. 30 dB
C. 16 dB D. 160 dB
17. A speaker cabinet has an internal volume of 84,950 square cm. It has a port
area on the baffle of 3,230 square cm and a baffle thickness of 19 mm. What is
the Helmholtz resonance in hertz of this speaker enclosure? MARCH 1996
A. 245 Hz B. 250 Hz
C. 260 Hz D. 265 Hz
18. A person standing at one side of a playing field on a cold winter night emits a
brief yell. The short acoustical wavetrains returns 1 s later as an echo having
bounced off a distant dormitory. Approximately how far away is the building.
A. 100 meters B. 165 meters
C. 500 meters D. 332 meters
19. Two audio systems at a demonstration are blasting away, with one putting out
10x the acoustic power of the other. What is the difference in their sound
levels?
A. 10 dB B. 5 dB
C. 13 dB D. 16 dB
20. The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per
unit time. APRIL 1997
A. Sound stress B. Loudness
C. Coherence D. Sound intensity
21. A small but noisy printer produces an acoustic intensity of 560 W/m2 at a
point 5 m away. Approximately what value will a dB-meter read 20 m from the
printer?
A. 85 dB B. 65 dB
C. 75 dB D. 95 dB
22. Calculate the effective SPL for a washing machine, a radio receiver, and a
blender with an SPL of 76 dB, 84 dB, and 92 dB respectively relative to 2x10-5
N/m2.
A. 63 dBSPL B. 93 dBSPL
C. 83 dBSPL D. 73 dBSPL
24. What is the combined SPL produce by 2 guitars and 4 violins with an individual
SIL of 82 dB and 80 dB each?
A. 77.35 dBSPL B. 88.56 dBSPL
C. 84.64 dBSPL D. 37.71 dBSPL
25. One violin playing produces a sound level of 68 dB at your ears. If a second
violin plays, producing the same sound level at your ear, what is the sound
level from both violins playing?
A. 75 dB B. 71 dB
C. 77 dB D. 79 dB
26. Two sound sources produce intensity levels of 50 dB and 60 dB, respectively, at
a point. When functioning simultaneously, what is the total SIL?
A. 60.4 dB B. 110 dB
C. 50.4 dB D. 70 dB
28. The speed of a wave on a stretched string ______ when the tension in it is
doubled
A. doubles B. increases by a factor of 2
C. decreases by a factor of 2 D. increases by a factor of 1.414
29. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is double?
A. 2 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 4 dB
30. If the RMS sound pressure is 355 lb/ft2, what is the sound pressure level?
A. 10 dB B. 45 dB
C. 108 dB D. 88 dB
32. Calculate the brightness of a light source that causes 100 lumens on a 1 sq-ft
surface with a diffuse reflectance of 60%.
A. 6 footlamberts B. 60 footlamberts
C. 12 footlamberts D. 120 footlamberts
33. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 s. Find
the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
A. 35.3 B. 379.8
C. 109.6 D. 10.96
35. A 40-W, 430 mA fluorescent tube produces 3200 lumens. What is the
illumination on the floor of a 10-ft2 room assuming 40% overall efficiency and
uniform illumination?
A. 17.7 lux B. 37.7 lux
C. 137.7 lux D. 13.7 lux
37. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled?
A. 2 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 4 dB
38. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to
the original amount, the intensity is reduced to _____.
A. 2 times as great B. 4 times as great
C. 3 times as great D. 5 times as great
39. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, the
intensity is reduced to _____.
A. B. 1/8
C. 1/16 D.
41. What is the sound pressure level of a sound having an RMS pressure of 200
N/m2?
A. 140 dB B. 170 dB
C. 150 dB D. 160 dB
43. What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/m2?
A. 96.8 W/m2 B. 95.8 W/m2
C. 97.8 W/m2 D. 94.8 W/m2
45. Determine the total PWL of 3 motors with a radiated acoustic power of 22 mW,
43 mW, and 79 mW respectively and calculate the SPL 15 m from an observer.
A. 116.7 dBPWL, 83.87 dBSPL B. 83.87 dBPWL, 116.7 dBSPL
C. 56.53 dBPWL, 111.6 dBSPL D. 111.6 dBPWL, 56.53 dBSPL
46. A sound intensity that could cause painful sensation in the human ear. APRIL
1999
A. Sensation intensity B. Hearing threshold
C. Threshold of pain D. Threshold of sense
47. What is the individual PWL of 7 air-conditioned with a total PWL of 116 dB?
A. 127. 55 dB B. 107. 55 dB
C. 97. 55 dB D. 117. 55 dB
48. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160
dB. Find the maximum intensity of sound on the ground directly below the
flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions.
A. 8128.3 W/m2 B. 8.1283 W/m2
C. 794.32 W/m2 D. 81.283 W/m2
50. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is
87 dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly?
A. 0.15 W B. 0.18 W
C. 0.21 W D. 0.24 W
51. Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble.
NOV 1997
A. Pitch B. SPL
C. Frequency D. Intensity
53. A church has an interval volume of 90.05 ft3 (2,550 m3). When it contains
2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its
reverberation time in seconds.
A. 3.0 B. 2.5
C. 2.0 D. 2.2
54. Calculate the total loudness level of sound sources with a combined loudness of
22.5 sones.
A. 53.52 phons B. 84.92 phons
C. 48.39 phons D. 99.5 phons
55. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. NOV 1996
A. dolby B. dBm
C. dBa D. dBx
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1878 William Crookes in England invented the Crookes tube, which produce
cathode rays.
1897 Karl Ferdinand Braun, also in Germany, modified the Crookes tube to
produce the ancestor of the modern TV receiver picture tube.
1900 The Russian scientist Constantin Perskyi is credited with coining the
word "television".
1906 Boris Rosing in Russia began experimenting with the Nipkow disc and
cathode-ray tube, eventually succeeding in transmitting some crude
TV pictures.
1923 Vladimir Zworykin in the USA invented the first electronic camera
tube, the ICONOSCOPE.
1929 The BBC began regular broadcasting using Bairds system (405
lines/frame, 25 frames/s).
A. .PICTURE REPRODUCTION.
B. .PICTURE QUALITIES.
1. Brightness
The overall or average intensity, which determines the background
level in the reproduced picture.
2. Contrast
The difference in intensity between black-and-white parts of the
reproduced picture.
3. Detail
The quality of detail, which is also called resolution or definition,
depends on the number of picture elements that can be reproduced.
5. Hue
The color of an object that depends on the phase angle of the 3.58
MHz chrominance signal.
6. Aspect Ratio
The ratio of width to height of the picture frame.
WIDTH
a=
HEIGHT
Sample Problem:
Calculate the number of active pixel in a line in an NTSC TV system if 42
lines out of every 525 are blanked out to leave time for the vertical retraces.
Solution:
# of pixel = a x no. of active lines
4
= x (525 42)
3
= 644 pixels
1. Photoconduction
In photoconduction, the conductance or resistance is change; more
light decreases the resistance.
2. Photoemission
In photoemission, electron are emitted when light strikes the surface;
more light produce more electrons
Life
Type Size Image Plate Notes
(Hrs)
Length:
1,500
Image 15-20 in High quality,
Photocathode to
Orthicon Diameter: high sensitivity
6,000
3-4 in
Length: Simple
5,000
5-8 in Selenium construction,
Vidicon to
Diameter: Photoconductor used for film
20,000
0.6-1.6 in pickup
Simple
Length:
construction, 2,000
8 in PbO
Plumbicon low lag, to
Diameter: Photoconductor
sensitivity low 3,000
1.2 in
for red light
Silicon Length: Low lag,
2,000
Diode 6 in Silicon diode sensitive to red
to
Array Diameter: array and infrared
3,000
Vidicon 1 in light
HORIZONTAL VERTICAL
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-33
INTERLACE SCANNING
When an image is scanned line by line from top to bottom, the top of the
image on the screen will begin to fade by the time the electron beam
reaches the bottom of the screen. With interlaced scanning, odd-numbered
lines are scanned first, and the remaining even-numbered lines are
scanned next. A full image is still produced 30 times a second, but the
electron beam travels from the top of the screen to the bottom of the
screen twice for every time a full image is produced.
*Read first the odd lines and then the even lines.
I. .PICTURE DEFINITION.
Hp
Width of Line =
N
Hp NH
Aspect Ratio a= =
Vp NV
Number of Horizontal NV = N NS
Visible Lines
(# of Pixels in the NV = 0.7(N NS )
Vertical Direction)
If Kell factor is considered
Number of Vertical NH = a x NV
Visible Lines
(# of Pixels in the NH = BWvideo x 2TH
Horizontal Direction)
If Kell factor is considered
NH
NL =
Total Number of Pixel 0.835
per Horizontal Line NL = NH
If Kell factor is considered
NP = NL xNV
Total Number of Pixel
in a Frame NP = NH xNV
If Kell factor is considered
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-35
NL xfH
BWvideo =
2
NV
BWvideo =
Video Bandwidth 80
If Kell factor is considered
BWvideo = 0.35NH xfH
If Kell factor is considered
where:
N = Total number of scanlines period per frame period (525 for NTSC )
NS = Number of scanlines suppressed during retraced ( 40 to 42 )
= width of each scan line
Vp = Vertical dimension of the viewing area of the CRT
Hp = Horizontal dimension of the viewing area of the CRT
a = Aspect ratio ( 4/3 )
N V = Vertical resolution in lines/details or pixels
NH = Horizontal resolution in lines/details or pixels
TH = Horizontal Tra ce period (53 to 53.5 sec )
fH = 15, 750 Hz
Sample Problem:
Find the picture height and width in terms of number of pixels also find the
total number of pixels and the highest video bandwidth (assuming NTSC
system).
Solution:
For number of active lines For total number of pixels
NV = N NS NH 647
NL = =
= 525 40 0.835 0.835
= 485 lines = 775 pixels
Solution:
NH = BW x 2T = 4MHz x 2(53.5 s) = 428 pixels
tN = (# of pixels) x (time to scan a pixel)
53 .5s
= (20 pixels) x
428 pixels
= 2.5s
Period Time(s)
Total Line (H) 63.5
H blanking 9.5 to 11.5 (10.5 typical)
H sync pulse 4.75 + 0.5
Front Porch 1.27
Back Porch 3.81
Visible Line time 52 to 54
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-37
PERIOD TIME
Total Field (V) 16.7 ms
where :
IRE = 7.5 + A x (A max A min )
A = Luminance of a video signal
Sample Problem:
Find the equivalent IRE units of a video signal which has 80% of the
maximum luminance level.
Solution:
IRE = 7.5 + 80% (100 7.5)
= 81.5 IRE units
Frequency
Channel Number
Band (MHz)
1 48-54
Low Band
2-4 54-72
VHF
5-6 76-88
High Band
7-13 174-210
VHF
14-83 UHF 470-884
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-39
1. Monochrome TV
2. Color TV
Sample Problem:
Calculate the picture carrier, exact color subcarrier, and sound carrier of the
ff channels: a. Ch 2 b. Ch 6
Solution:
Channel 2 (54 to 60 MHz) Channel 6 (82 to 88 MHz)
P = 54 + 1.25 = 55.25 MHz P = 82 + 1.25 = 83.25 MHz
C = P + 3.579545 = 58.829545 MHz C = P + 3.579545 = 86.829545 MHz
S = 60 0.25 = 57.75 MHz S = 88 0.25 = 87.75 MHz
The sound carrier frequency must be 4.5 MHz + 1000 Hz above the
picture carrier frequency.
The exact carrier frequencies for different stations on the same channel
are offset by +10 kHz or -10 kHz.
IF Signal Frequencies
Frequency
Parameter
(MHz)
Picture IF 45.75
1st Chrominance IF 42.17
st
1 Sound IF 41.25
2 nd
Chrominance IF 3.58
2nd Sound IF 4.50
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-41
P. .RECEIVER TROUBLES.
Troubles Caused
Since the sound is normal, the trouble of no
No raster, with normal
brightness is usually the result of no anode
sound
voltage from the high voltage supply.
This trouble is in the signal circuits, before
No picture and no sound,
the sound take-off point, because both the
with normal raster
picture and sounds are affected.
No picture, with normal The most probable section with trouble is the
raster and normal sound video amplifier section.
No sound, with normal The trouble must be in the sound circuits,
raster and normal after the sound take-off points, because only
picture the sound is affected.
Only a horizontal line on The trouble must be in the vertical deflection
the screen oscillator and the vertical output stage.
This trouble means the raster and the signal
No raster and no sound
circuits are not operating.
Sample Problem:
Determine the difference in path lengths between the direct and multipath
signal which produces a TV ghost displaced by 2 centimeters from the direct
image on a 19-inch screen.
Solution:
For the picture width
W 4 3
a= = ; H = W; Diagonal = H2 + W2
H 3 4
2
3 9 25 2
192 = W + W2 = W2 + W2 = W
4 16 16
4 4
W = D = (19) = 15.2 inches (38.6 cm)
5 5
For the 2cm delay
Ghost displacement 2 cm
td = x visible trace = x 53 sec
Width 38.6 cm
= 2.7 sec
For the path length difference
d = Vp x t d = (3 x 108 m / s) x 2.75 sec = 825 meters
Luminance
The luminance signal contains all information required to construct
a black and white picture from the signal.
R= 0.62Q + 0.95I + Y
G = 0.64Q 0.28I + Y
B = 1.73Q 1.11I + Y
where:
Y = Luminance signal R = Red signal
I = In-phase signal G = Green signal
Q = Quadrature signal B = Blue signal
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-43
Sample Problem:
An RGB video signal has normalized value of R=0.2, G=0.4, B=0.8. Find the
value of Y, I, Q, and C.
Solution:
Luminance signal
Y = 0.30R + 0.59G + 0.11B
= (0.30 x 0.2) + (0.59 x 0.4) + (0.11 x 0.8)
= 0.384
In-phase signal
I = 0.60R 0.28G 0.32B
= (0.60 x 0.2) (0.28 x 0.4) (0.32 x 0.8)
= 0.248
Quadrature signal
Q = 0.21R 0.52G + 0.31B
= (0.21 x 0.2) (0.52 x 0.4) + (0.31 x 0.8)
= 0.082
Note that the components (negative) of -0.28G and -0.32B total -0.60,
which equals the positive value of 0.60R.
These values are chosen to make the amplitude of the I-video signal become
zero (0) for white.
Note that the components (posititive) of 0.21G and 0.31B total 0.52,
to equal the negative component of -0.52G.
These values are chosen to make the amplitude of the Q-video signal become
zero (0) for white.
Both the I and Q signals are zero for white, since there is no
chrominance information in white.
Green
Red
Blue
Wh Yel Cyn Grn Mg Rd Bl Blk
Sample Problem:
Calculate the luminance signal and the IRE equivalent unit for saturated
green and yellow.
Solution:
For saturated green;
Y = 0.3R + 0.59G + 0.11B
= (0.3 x 0) + (0.59 x 1) + (0.11 x 0)
= 0.59 59% of max lu min ance
IRE
Color Luminance Equivalent
Unit
White 100% 100
Yellow 89% 89.825
Cyan 70% 72.25
Green 59% 62.075
Magenta 41% 45.425
Red 30% 35.25
Blue 11% 17.675
Black 0% 7.5
Q
CMAGNITUDE = I2 + Q2 CPHASE = 33 tan1
I
Sample Problem:
Calculate the chrominance signal for saturated red vector.
Solution:
In-Phase Chrominance
Color Q Signal
Signal Vector Notation
White -0 -0 0
Black -0 -0 0
Yellow -0.31 -0.32 0.4577
Blue -0.31 -0.32 0.45257
Green -0.52 -0.28 0.59151
Magenta -0.52 -0.28 0.59331
Cyan -0.21 -0.6 0.64193.7
Red -0.21 -0.6 0.6413.7
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-47
Spain,
North & Italy,
South England,
Parameter France USSR
America, Germany,
Japan CCIR
System
Lines/Frame 525 625 625 625
Lines/second 15,750 Hz 15,625 Hz 15,625 Hz 15,625 Hz
Frames/second 30 25 25 25
Channel BW
6 7 8 8
(MHz)
Video BW (MHz) 4.2 5 6 6
Polarity of AM
video Negative Negative Positive Negative
modulation
Type of Aural
FM FM AM FM
carrier
Advantages
a. Higher Frame Rate - Use of 30 frames per second (really
29.97) reduces visible flicker.
Disadvantages
a. Lower Number of Scan Lines - Reduced clarity on large screen
TVs, line structure more visible.
Advantages
a. Greater Number of Scan Lines - more picture detail.
Disadvantages
a. More Flicker - Due to the lower frame rate, flicker is more
noticeable on PAL/625 transmissions; particularly so for
people used to viewing NTSC/525 signals.
Advantages
a. Stable Hues and Constant Saturation - SECAM shares with PAL
the ability to render images with the correct hue, and goes a
step further in ensuring consistent saturation of color as well.
Disadvantages
a. Greater Flicker Same with PAL/625
NTSC
The oldest existing standard, developed in the USA. First used in 1954.
Consists of 525 horizontal lines of display and 60 vertical lines.
Sometimes irreverently referred to as "Never Twice the Same Color."
Only one type exists, known as NTSC-M.
PAL
PAL was developed by German engineer Walter Bruch and the German
electronic corporation Telefunken. Walter Bruch patented his invention
1963 and the first commercial application of the PAL system was in
August 1967. Also a 625/50-line display and variant of NTSC.
Proponents call it "Perfection At Last." Due to the cost of the enormous
circuit complexity, critics often refer to it as "Pay A Lot".
SECAM
SECAM was developed in France. First used in 1967. A 625-line vertical,
50-line horizontal display.
Sometimes referred to by wags as "Something Essentially Contrary to
the American Method" or SEcond Colour Always Magenta!"
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-51
Since 1987, the FCC has been encouraging the development of High-
definition television (HDTV) system to replace the NTSC system. In May of
1993, the proponents of these four competing system joined forces to
develop a single digital television (DTV) system that used the best ideas of
the four competing system.
i. Video Specification
Format HD HD SD SD SD
Type Packet
TDM technique MPEG-2
Packet size 188 bytes
Packet header size 4 bytes
X. .HIGH-DEFINITION PARAMETERS.
where:
D = diagonal dimension of the viewing area
a = aspect ratio
X = distance from screen to observer/viewer
= angle subtended by the horizontal dimension H
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-53
Sample Problem:
Find the minimum viewing distance a viewer should sit from the tube to
eliminate seeing any scan lines and the viewing angle subtended by the
screen for HDTV system, assuming the projector screen with diagonal
dimension of 1.55 m with 1125 vertical lines (90 suppressed).
Solution:
2
16
2 2 + 1.552
aD 9
H= = = 1.35 m
1 + a2 16
2
1+
9
16
NH = aNV = a(N Ns ) = x(1125 90) = 1840 pixels
9
1 min ute 1
= NH x = 1840 x = 30.7
60 60
H 1.35 m
X= = = 2.45 m
30.7
2 tan 2 tan
2 2
Y. .VIDEO STANDARDS.
1. JPEG
JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) was developed jointly by the
ISO and ITU-T. JPEG is a compression standard that is used for editing
of still images, as well as color facsimile, desktop publishing, graphic
arts, and medical imaging. JPEG is not appropriate for video
transmission, as the compression rate is in the range of only 20:1-
30:1. JPEG transmission in support of videoconferencing requires
bandwidth in the range of 10 to 240 Mbps.
2. MPEG
MPEG (Motion Picture Experts Group) standards are several and still in
final development stages. MPEG standards provide very high
compression levels and excellent presentation quality. MPEG is a joint
technical committee of the International Standards Organization (ISO)
and the IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission).
MPEG 1
Standardized in 1992, provides VHS (videotape) quality at 1.544
Mbps and is compatible with single-speed CD-ROM technology. In
fact, it was designed to put movies on compact disc. MPEG 1
integrates synchronous and isochronous audio with video, and
allows the random access required by interactive multimedia
applications.
MPEG 2
(1994) is the proposed standard for digital video at 4 to 100 Mbps
over transmission facilities capable of such support (fiber optics,
hybrid fiber/coax and satellite). MPEG 2 already has found
application in Direct Broadcast Satellite (DBS) services, also
known as Direct Satellite Systems (DSS).
MPEG 3
Designed for HDTV application, was folded into MPEG-2 in 1992.
MPEG-4
A low bit-rate version intended for application in videophones and
other small-screen devices. It is still under development.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-55
I H
1. Calculate the equivalent IRE unit of a video signal with a luminance of 72%.
A. 4.1 IRE units B. 53.8 IRE units
C. 74.1 IRE units D. 66.4 IRE units
4. Calculate the decrease in horizontal details if the video signal bandwidth were
reduced from 4 to 3.5 MHz.
A. 458 to 322 pixels B. 458 to 375 pixels
C. 428 to 375 pixels D. 428 to 322 pixels
5. Calculate the vertical resolution if the video signal bandwidth were reduced
from 4 to 3.5 MHz assuming that the horizontal resolution was not to change.
A. 307 lines B. 337 lines
C. 327 lines D. 317 lines
7. One-half line spacing between the start positions for scanning even and
odd fields produces
A. linear scanning B. exact interlacing
C. fishtailing D. line pairing
8. Calculate the minimum recorder wavelength for an audio cassette recorder with
a tape speed of 1,875 ips, 12 kHz top recording frequency.
A. 0.364 mil B. 0.567 mil
C. 0.156 mil D. 0.87 mil
9. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for channel 2 offset by -10 kHz?
A. 55.24 MHz B. 55.34 MHz
C. 51.25 MHz D. 55.75 MHz
11. Calculate the sound and picture carrier frequency for channel 10 after
frequency translation to the IF.
A. P=45.75 MHz, S=41.25 MHz B. P=45.25 MHz, S=41.75 MHz
C. P=41.75 MHz, S=45.25 MHz D. P=41.25 MHz, S=45.75 MHz
16. What is the horizontal resolution in lines of a monochrome receiver which has a
2.8 MHz video bandwidth? April 2003 & Nov 2004
A. 324 lines B. 254 lines
C. 524 lines D. 224 lines
17. Calculate the total number of picture elements (pixels) in an NTSC frame if the
video BW is 4.2 MHz. (Assume 0.7 Kell factor, 4/3 aspect ratio, and 10 s
retrace time)
A. 151,761 pixels B. 211,161 pixels
C. 181,661 pixels D. 192,416 pixels
19. Weak emission from one cathode in a tricolor picture tube causes _____,
_____, and _____ in the raster and picture.
A. a stronger picture, a long warm up time, color balance
B. a weak picture, a long warm up time, and color imbalance
C. a stronger picture, a short warm up time, and color imbalance
D. a weak picture, a short warm up time, and color balance
20. Degaussing means _____ the picture tube with 60-Hz alternating current
from the power line.
A. de-energizing B. magnetizing
C. energizing D. demagnetizing
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-57
21. _____ correction signals can be inserted in series with the V and H coils of
the deflection yoke, to straighten the edges of the raster.
A. Gamma B. Pincushion
C. Comb D. Contrast
22. The PAL system in Europe uses a 625 lines/frame and 25frames/sec. Assuming
a video bandwidth of 5 MHz, determine the number of distinguishable picture
element, assuming 84% of each horizontal line and 90% percent of the 625
lines are visible.
A. 143,400 B. 122,400
C. 330,400 D. 302,400
23. Calculate the minimum viewing distance for an HDTV system assume that a
projector screen with a diagonal dimension of 1.4 m and an aspect ratio of 16:9
is used with 1125 vertical lines (90 suppressed).
A. 2.7 m B. 2.23 m
C. 3.61 m D. 1.8 m
25. Greater p-p amplitude of the 3.58-MHz chrominance signal indicates more
A. saturation B. yellow
C. white D. hue
27. With a 2-MHz video signal modulating the picture carrier signal for channel
4, which of the following frequencies are transmitted?
A. 67.25-MHz carrier frequency with 65.25-MHz upper side frequencies
B. 66-MHz carrier frequency and 68-MHz upper side frequency
C. 67.25-MHz carrier frequency and 69.25-MHz upper side frequency
D. 71.75-MHZ carrier frequency with 69- and 73-MHz side frequency
29. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
A. about the same
B. much higher
C. much lower
D. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
30. The horizontal lines scanned during vertical retraces are the ______ lines.
A. horizontal flyback B. vertical sync
C. vertical flyback D. horizontal blanking
31. Interfaced scanning eliminates _____ because of the ____ blanking rate,
while maintaining the _____ rate for complete picture frames.
A. flicker, 60-Hz vertical, 30-Hz
B. flicker, 30-Hz vertical, 15,750-Hz
C. ghost, 60-Hz vertical, 15,750-Hz
D. ghost, 15,750-Hz vertical, 30-Hz
32. The equalizing pulses and the serrations in the vertical pulse occur at half-
line intervals with the frequency of _____ Hz.
A. 30 B. 60
C. 31,500 D. 15,750
33. Determine the ghost width on a TV screen 15 in wide when a reflected wave
results from an object mi behind a receiver.
A. 151 in B. 15.1 in
C. 1.51 in D. 0.151 in
34. Calculate the ghost width for a 17-in wide TV screen when a reflected wave
results from an object 3/8 mi behind a receiver.
A. 12.8 in B. 128 in
C. 0.128 in D. 1.28 in
37. In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the
A. disk size B. wavelength of the scanning light
C. speed of rotation D. pit depth
38. The part that rotates to meter out the tape at constant speed is the
A. control head B. entrance guide
C. capstan D. erase head
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-59
39. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as
the
A. upper envelope without the lower envelope
B. lower sideband without the upper sideband
C. average carrier level
D. symmetric envelope of amplitude variations
40. Calculate the horizontal resolution possible if the video modulating signal
bandwidth is 5 MHz.
A. 515 lines B. 433 lines
C. 535 lines D. 483 lines
42. Calculate the exact horizontal frequency if the sound carrier of 4.5 MHz is made
to be the 286th harmonics of the horizontal line frequency.
A. 15,735.27 Hz B. 15,610.27 Hz
C. 15,750 Hz D. 15,625 Hz
43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz modulated chrominance signal
is
A. the saturation of the color B. zero for most colors
C. the brightness of the color D. close to black for yellow
44. The second IF value for color in receivers, for any station, is
A. 0.5 MHz B. 1.3 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 3.58 MHz
45. If the 3.58-MHz C amplifier in the receiver does not operate, the result will
be
A. no color B. too much blue
C. too much yellow D. no red
46. _____ is done in the camera to compensate for the nonlinear drive
characteristics of the picture tube.
A. Error correction B. Beam correction
C. Gamma correction D. Contrast correction
49. A _____ is a special camera tube with a test pattern printed on the image
plate.
A. plumbicon B. iconoscope
C. monoscope D. vidicon
50. What is the exact vertical frequency if there are 262.5 lines per field?
A. 50 Hz B. 49.94 Hz
C. 60 Hz D. 59.94 Hz
51. Calculate the exact color subcarrier frequency if this value is made to be the
455th harmonic of half of the horizontal frequency.
A. 3.58 MHz B. 4.2 MHz
C. 3.579545 MHz D. 4.5 MHz
52. The ______ is the current that flows in the target circuit when the camera
lens is capped for no light input.
A. flash current B. leakage current
C. dark current D. reverse current
53. _____ is an exponential value that specifies how white light values are
expanded or compressed, and this affects the contrast ratio.
A. Alpha B. Gamma
C. Beta D. Sigma
54. Which of the following camera tubes uses lead oxide (PbO) for the
photoconductive target plate?
A. plumbicon B. vidicon
C. image orthicon D. saticon
55. What is the exact frequency separation between sound carrier and color
subcarrier?
A. 0.92 MHz B. 0.920455 MHz
C. 0.920945 MHz D. 0.920495 MHz
56. Ability of monochrome receiver to use Y signal for picture in black and
white.
A. monotonacity B. adaptability
C. compatibility D. selectivity
57. The complementary color for blue, red and green are ____, ____, and
____ respectively.
A. cyan, yellow, magenta B. magenta, yellow, cyan
C. cyan, magenta, yellow D. yellow, cyan, magenta
58. Determine the total number of details for an NTSC frame if 42 lines are blanked
out because of vertical flyback. Used 0.7 Kell factor, 4.2 MHz video bandwidth.
A. 161, 751 B. 121, 221
C. 151, 761 D. 131, 231
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-61
59. Converting hue and saturation in the C signal to R, G, and B primary color
video signals for the tricolor picture tube.
A. compandoring B. decoding
C. multiplexing D. encoding
60. Converting the R, G, and B primary color video signals to hue and
saturation in the C signal.
A. pre-emphasis B. decoding
C. encoding D. degaussing
61. How many flyback lines are produced during vertical retrace for each field and
each frame when the retrace time is 0.03V?
A. 8 and 16 B. 16 and 18
C. 18 and 16 D. 16 and 8
64. Calculate the maximum number of vertical details that can be reproduced with
483 visible scanning lines with a 70% utilization factor.
A. 303 B. 438
C. 348 D. 338
65. Determine the number of horizontal details for a 4 MHz video bandwidth.
A. 416 picture elements B. 446 picture elements
C. 426 picture elements D. 486 picture elements
67. Pictures frames are repeated at the rate of ____ per second.
A. 60 B. 50
C. 30 D. 25
69. In all standard television broadcast channels, the difference between the
picture and sound carrier frequencies is
A. 0.25 MHz B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 6 MHz
70. The beat frequency between the 3.58-MHz color subcarrier and the 4.5-
MHz sound signal is
A. 3.58 MHz B. 4.8 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz D. 0.92 MHz
71. Which control varies the phase angle of the demodulated color video
signal?
A. picture B. drive
C. tint D. color level
72. Which of the following stages must be on during horizontal flyback time?
A. R Y vido amplifier B. Chroma BPA
C. Burst separator D. Y video amplifier
73. Picture tubes have two black conductive coating made of ______.
A. Tellurium B. Phospor
C. Aquadag D. Arsenic
74. The _____ of the picture tube is the total angle that the beam can be
deflected without touching the sides of the envelope.
A. deflection angle B. critical angle
C. optical angle D. envelope angle
75. _____ adjustments cause the three electron beams to excite the correct
colors on the screen.
A. Comb B. Color
C. Convergence D. Gamma
76. Picture tubes with an anode voltage of _____ can emit x-rays.
A. 20 to 30 GV B. 200 to 300 MV
C. 20 to 30 kV D. 200 to 300 kV
77. What are the lower and upper side frequencies for 200-kHz color video
modulation in the 3.58-MHz bandpass amplifier?
A. 3.28 and 6.78 MHz B. 3.38 and 3.78 MHz
C. 3.28 and 5.48 MHz D. 3.38 and 6.28 MHz
78. The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube
screen is
A. 10 B. 262
C. 20 D. 525
79. In the frame for which interlaced scanning is used, alternate lines are
skipped during vertical scanning frequency because
A. the frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio
B. the vertical scanning frequency is doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. the horizontal scanning is slower than vertical scanning
D. the trace is slower than the retrace
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-63
82. How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and
the next?
A. 8% of V B. V
C. H D. 16.5% of H
83. For a 4-MHz video signal, the number of horizontal details in a line is ____.
A. 525 B. 331
C. 426 D. 645
84. Assume a facsimile reproduction with specifications of 200 lines per frame,
progressive scanning, and 5 frames per second. Calculate the video
frequency corresponding to 100 total black-and-white elements in a line.
A. 52 kHz B. 5.2 kHz
C. 0.52 kHz D. 520 kHz
87. Black on the picture tube screen results from _____ beam current.
A. negative B. maximum
C. zero D. positive
88. Determine the total number of picture elements possible for the entire image if
the video bandwidth is 4 MHz and 70% utilization factor is used.
A. 104,000 B. 144,000
C. 184,000 D. 124,000
90. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV
receiver is:
A. SSB B. vestigial sideband AM
C. suppressed-carrier AM D. FM
92. A 3.125 MHz of video signal bandwidth is equal to how many horizontal
resolutions?
A. 250 lines B. 320 lines
C. 205 lines D. 225 lines
95. If the phase chrominance for color yellow is 167, what is the phase
chrominance for color blue?
A. 3.47 B. 34.7
C. 37 D. 347
98. Consider a video signal that has a resolution of 640x480 pixels, with a frame
rate 0f 30 Hz using progressive scanning. The luma signal is sampled using 8
bits/sample. The two chroma channels also use 8 bits/sample, but the color
resolution is that is used for luma. Find the approximate bit rate for this
signal, neglecting synchronization, error correction, and compression.
A. 110.6 Mbps B. 1.6 Mbps
C. 10.6 Mbps D. 11.6 Mbps
102. The _____ is deflected horizontally and vertically to fill the screen area.
A. permanent magnet B. yoke
C. electron beam D. raster
104. How much time passes between one vertical pulse in an odd field and the
next in an even field?
A. V B. H
C. 8% of V D. 8% of H
105. The back porch is ____ longer than the front porch
A. 3x B. 4x
C. 2x D. 8x
108.A certain receiver has a vertical retrace time of 0.025V, where V is the time for
one field. How many horizontal lines does this represent?
A. 2.1 B. 3.3
C. 6.6 D. 4.2
110.Suppose that the aspect ratio of a TV system were change from 4:3 to 2:1,
with the horizontal resolution keeping the same ratio to vertical resolution as at
present. Assume the number of scan lines remains at present. How many
details would have to be shown on a horizontal line?
A. 428 B. 338
C. 674 D. 525
111.Under ideal conditions, the eye can resolve two details subtending 0.5 minutes
of arc. Suppose a monitor screen 30 cm wide is located 1.5 m from a viewer.
What video bandwidth would be required to separate horizontal details in the
center of the screen by 0.5 minutes of arc assuming NTSC video?
A. 4.5 MHz B. 1.5 MHz
C. 5.1 MHz D. 12.9 MHz
115. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
A. SSB B. vestigial sideband AM
C. suppressed-carrier AM D. FM
121. Video signal amplitude determines the picture quality called _____
A. contrast B. resolution
C. color saturation D. brightness
123. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
A. SSB B. vestigial sideband AM
C. suppressed-carrier AM D. FM
124. The amount of color saturation in the picture depends on the amount of
_____ signal.
A. blanking B. chrominance
C. luminance D. contrast
125. _____ convergence adjustments vary the correction current in the coils of
the convergence yoke.
A. Passive B. Static
C. Dynamic D. Fixed
127. A low-contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in detail
suggests.
A. excessive gamma B. high gain in the preamplifier
C. insufficient scanning width D. low beam current
128. The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the
greatest output is
A. infrared B. yellow-green
C. blue D. red
133. A permanent-magnet ring on the neck of the tube is used for _____.
A. scanning B. centering
C. deflecting D. focusing
135. The gamma of 2.2 for the picture tube that means that the ____ values
are stretched.
A. green B. black
C. yellow D. white
136. A picture tube with deflection angle of 110 needs a yoke with a ____
angle.
A. 10 B. 220
C. 110 D. 55
139. The linear rise on the sawtooth waveform is the_____; the sharp drop in
amplitude is for the ____.
A. Trace part, retrace B. Flyback part, retrace
C. Retrace part, blanking D. Trace part, blanking
140. The frequency of the sawtooth waveform for horizontal deflection is ____.
A. 30 Hz B. 15,750 Hz
C. 31,500 Hz D. 60 Hz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-69
Section
Broadcasting Read it
till it
8 Standards Hertz!
Channel Frequency
Number (kHz)
1 531
2 540
3 549
4 558
. .
. .
. .
131 1701
C. .SERVICE AREAS.
AM broadcast station shall not operate more than 5% and not lower
than 10% of its authorized operating power.
The carrier shift at any percentage of modulation shall not exceed 5%.
Metro Manila 50 kW
C ---
D 10 W authorized
F. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGY.
1. Operating Frequency
The carrier frequency at any particular time.
2. Authorized Frequency
The carrier frequency authorized by the Authority.
4. Operating Power
Operating Power is the transmitter output power.
7. Modulator Stage
Modulator Stage means the last audio amplifier stage of the
modulating wave which modulates a radio-frequency stage.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-73
8. Modulated Stage
Modulated Stage means the radio frequency stage to which the
modulator is coupled and in which the continuous carrier wave is
modulated in accordance with the system of modulation and the
characteristics of the modulating wave.
9. Daytime
The term Daytime refers to the period of time between 2200
Universal Time Coordinates (UTC) to 1000 Universal Time Coordinates
(UTC) or 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM local standard time.
10. Nighttime
The term Nighttime refers to the period of time between 1000
Universal Time Coordinates (UTC) to 2200 Universal Time Coordinates
(UTC) or 6:00 PM to 6:00 AM local standard time.
13. Authority
The National Telecommunications Commission.
I H
A. .FM BROADCAST STANDARDS.
FM 2-way Analog TV
Parameter
(Mobile Radio) (Aural Portion)
Maximum Frequency
+ 5 kHz + 25 kHz
Deviation
Intermediate
21.4 MHz 45.75 MHz
Frequency
1 for f= 5 kHz 1.67 for f= 25 kHz
Modulation Index
and fm=5 kHz and fm=15 kHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-75
Channel Frequency
Number (MHz)
201 88.1
202 88.3
203 88.5
204 88.7
. .
. .
. .
300 107.9
3. Table of Assignments
The frequency assignments for the cities of Manila, Laoag, Legaspi,
Cebu, Davao, and Zamboanga shall be
Authorized
Class Service ERP AHAAT
Power
25 kW authorized
A Commercial 125 kW 2000 ft
10 kW minimum
10 kW authorized
B Commercial 30 kW 500 ft
1 kW minimum
Non-commercial
C community --- 1 kW ---
station
Educational
D 10 W authorized --- ---
Station
AHAAT=Antenna Height above Average Terrain
Operating
Band Maximum Power
Frequency
A 300 to 315 MHz 15 W
B 734 to 752 MHz 15 W
Operating
Band Maximum Power
Frequency
A 315 to 325 MHz 35 W
B 450 to 451 MHz 35 W
C. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGY.
1. Frequency Swing
The instantaneous departure of the frequency of the emitted wave
from the center frequency resulting from modulation.
ERP = PT x GT
ERP = PT x GF2
Solution:
ERP = PT x G F 2 = (20 x 10 3 W) x 2 2 = 80 kW
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-79
I H
A. .TV BROADCAST STANDARDS.
Philippine Technical
Parameter
Standards
Number of lines/frame 525
Interlace 2:1
Frame frequency
29.97 Hz
(picture/sec)
Horizontal frequency
15,734.264 Hz
(lines/sec)
Tolerance (lines/sec) +0.044
Tolerance +10 Hz
Parameter %H sec
Parameter Duration
Philippine Technical
Parameter
Standards
Nominal RF Bandwidth 6 MHz
Sound carrier-to-Visual
+4.5 MHz
carrier separation
Nearest edge of channel
1.25 MHz
relative to visual-carrier
Nominal width of main
4.2 MHz
sideband
Nominal width of vestigial
0.75 MHz
sideband
Type of polarity of visual
A5C, negative
modulation
Synchronizing levels as a %
100%
of peak carrier
Blanking level as a % of
72.5 to 77.5%
peak carrier
Difference between black
level and blanking level as a 2.875 to 6.75%
% of peak carrier
Peak-white level as a % of
10 to 15%
peak carrier
F3 + 25 kHz,
Type of sound modulation
75 sec pre-emphasis
For towers higher than 150 ft the top beacon light consists of two 620
or 700 W PS-40 Flashing Code beacon lamps (2000 candelas) with
aviation red filters. Midway between flashing and top beacons, steady
burning red beacon light are installed.
Channel Duration
2 to 6 48 dBu
7 to 13 55 dBu
21 to 32 65 dBu
62 to 69 70 dBu
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-83
B. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGY.
1. Aspect Ratio
The ratio of picture width to picture height as transmitted.
2. Aural Transmitter
The radio equipment for the transmission of the aural signal only.
4. Blanking Level
The level of the signal during the blanking interval, except the interval
between scanning synchronizing pulse and the chrominance subcarrier
synchronizing burst.
5. Chrominance
The colorimetric difference between any color having a specific
chromacity.
6. Chrominance Subcarrier
The carrier which is modulated by the chrominance information.
7. Field
Scanning through the picture area once in the chosen scanning
pattern.
8. Frame
Scanning all of the picture area once, in the line interlaced scanning
pattern of two to one, a frame consists of two fields.
9. Luminance
Luminous flux emitted, reflected, or transmitted per unit solid angle
per unit projected area of the source.
15. Scanning
The process of analyzing successively, according to a predetermined
method, the light values of picture elements constituting the total
picture area.
I H
1. One of the following is a possible cause of an abrupt frequency variation in a
self exited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to poor frequency stability to
hold a constant frequency oscillation. NOV 1998
A. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. DC and RF heating of resistors which change in values
D. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits
6. How many visible horizontal lines are left due to vertical retrace interval? NOV
1999
A. 525 lines B. 485 lines
C. 40 lines D. 500 lines
7. One of the following is the referred to as the number of scanning lines per
frame for NTSC standard. NOV 1999
A. 625 lines B. 325 lines
C. 425 lines D. 525 lines
9. One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or
more stages, the oscillator stage which determines the frequency of operation
and RF amplifier stage or stages that develop the high power output. The
purpose of which is to develop a good frequency stability. NOV 1998
A. Hartley B. Alexanderson
C. MOPA D. Goldsmith
10. One of the following is a possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in a self-
excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to poor frequency stability. NOV
1998
A. heating of capacitor in the oscillator
B. loose shielding
C. faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors
D. poor soldered connections
14. ______ is the time duration for one horizontal trace. APRIL 1997
A. 62 s B. 48 s
C. 52 s D. 50 s
15. An antenna that can only receive a television signal. APRIL 1997
A. TVRO B. Reference antenna
C. Isotropic antenna D. Yagi antenna
17. With which emission type is the capture-effect more pronounced? APRIL 1998
A. CW B. FM
C. SSB D. AM
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 2-87
21. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? APRIL 1998
A. UHF B. MF
C. HF D. VHF
24. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
NOV 1996
A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter
C. Band reject filter D. Band-pass filter
28. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is.
NOV 1996
A. local oscillator B. Mixer stage
C. limiter stage D. RF amplifier
A. .ELECTRO-ACOUSTIC TRANSDUCERS.
1. Electromagnetic transducer
The electromagnetic transducer consists of a permanent magnet, soft
magnetic pole-shoe, an anchor and a spring.
2. Electrodynamic transducer
The electrodynamic transducer has a fixed air gap. Inside the air gap,
there is a magnetic field in which a conductor is moving.
3. Electrostatic transducer
The electrostatic transducer is essentially a capacitor consisting of one
fixed and one moving electrode.
4. Piezoelectric transducer
The piezoelectric transducer makes use of the ability of certain
materials to produce unbalanced charge distribution on their surface
when they are deformed. In the inverse effect, deformation appears
when electrical field is applied.
B. .MICROPHONE BASIC.
1. Characteristics
2. General Classification
According to Power:
i. Generator - one which does not require external power
source.
C. .LOUDSPEAKERS.
Loudspeaker types
Woofers
A woofer is a loudspeaker capable of reproducing the bass
frequencies. The frequency range varies widely according to
design and hence while some woofers can cover the audio band
from 50 Hz to 3 kHz, yet others may only work up to 1 kHz.
Mid-ranges
A mid-range loudspeaker, also known as a squawker is designed
to cover the middle of the audio spectrum, typically from about
200 Hz to about 4-5 kHz.
Tweeters
A tweeter is a loudspeaker capable of reproducing the higher end
of the audio spectrum, usually from about 1 kHz to 20 or 35 kHz.
Full-ranges
A full-range speaker is designed to have as wide a frequency
response as possible. There exist full-range drivers with pure
titanium diaphragm which are capable of reproducing a frequency
range from 50 Hz to 20 kHz. Typically 2" to 5" in diameter.
Subwoofers
A subwoofer driver is a woofer optimised for the lowest range of
the audio spectrum. A typical subwoofer only reproduces sounds
below 120 Hz (although some subwoofers allow a choice of the
cross-over frequency).
2. Broad Categories
i. Dynamic
a. Moving Coil - A moving coil loudspeaker uses a coil of wire
suspended in a stationary magnetic field (complements of a
permanent magnet).
ii. Electrostatic
Operates on the principles of electrostatic attraction.
3. Enclosure Design
Sample Problem:
A loudspeaker is driven by a voltage of 0.7 V (RMS). The resulting pressure
(measured under standard conditions at a distance of 1 meter) is 0.3 Pa.
Calculate the voltage sensitivity of the loudspeaker.
Solution:
Sample Problem:
A loud speaker with a sensitivity of 85dB/2.83V@1m is driven by 1.5V
(RMS). What is the resulting SPL at
a. 1 meter b. 5 meters
Solution:
a. 1.5
SPL = 20 log = 5.5dB
2.83
hence SPL=85-5.5dB=79.5dB at 1meter
b. 1
SPL = 20 log = 14dB
5
hence SPL=79.5-14dB=65.5dB at 5 meters
Section 10
Transmission
Lines and
Waveguides
Section 11
Fiber Optics
Communications
Section 12
Telephone Networks
and System
Section 13
Facsimile
Transmission
Wire
Communications
Section
Transmission Read it
till it
10 Lines and Waveguides Hertz!
A. .2 BROAD CATEGORIES.
1. Balance
Impedance to ground from each of the two wires is equal and this
ensures that the current in both wires are equal in magnitudes but
opposite in sign or travel in opposite directions.
2. Unbalance
One wire is at ground potential, while the other is at signal potential.
3. Twisted Pair
As the name implies, the line consists of two insulated wires twisted
together to form a flexible line without the use of spacers. It is not
used for transmitting high frequency because of the high dielectric
losses that occur in the rubber insulation.
4. Shielded Pair
Consists of parallel conductors separated from each other and
surrounded by a solid dielectric. The conductors are contained within a
braided copper tubing that acts as an electrical shield. The assembly is
covered with a rubber or flexible composition coating that protects the
line from moisture and mechanical damage.
Onset Current
Effect
Level (mA)
1 Threshold of sensation
8 Mild sensation
10 Painful
13 Cannot let go
21 Muscular paralysis
20 Severe shock
38 Breathing labored
42 Breathing upset
70 Extreme breathing difficulties
90 Ventricular fibrillation
100 Death
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-3
1. Copper Losses
One type of copper loss is I2R loss. In RF lines the resistance of the
conductors is never equal to zero. Whenever current flows through
one of these conductors, some energy is dissipated in the form of
heat. This heat loss is a POWER LOSS.
Another type of copper loss is due to SKIN EFFECT where currents tend to flow
near the surface of the conductor. A special type of wire called Litzendraht wire
(Litz wire) is often used to reduce skin effect.
2. Dielectric Losses
Result from the heating effect on the dielectric material between the
conductors.
4. Coupling Loss
Occurs whenever a connection is made to or from a transmission line
or when two separate pieces of transmission lines are connected
together.
Distributed Parameters
They are constant in the sense that they do not vary with voltage and
current; however, they are frequency dependent to some extent.
d d D
2
D C
Coaxial L ln D
2 d ln
d
where :
= Permeability of medium in H/m
= Permittivity of medium in F /m
S = center to center spacingbetween conductors in m
d = diameter of conductor in m
For Coaxial line
D = Diameter of outer conductor in m
d = diameter of inner conductor in m
where:
Z = series impedance
Z
ZO = = R + j L
Y
Y = shunt admittance
= G + j C
R L
ZO = ZO =
G C
S 138 D
Z o = 276 log10 Zo = log10
r r d
Sample Problem:
The primary line constant for a coaxial cable at a frequency of 10 MHz were
determine approximately as follows; L = 234 nH/m, C = 93.5 pF/m, R =
0.568 /m, G = 0. Determine the characteristic impedance.
Solution:
Since f = 10 MHz
L 234 x 10 9
ZO = =
C 93.5 x 10 12
= 50
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-7
2. Propagation Constant ()
Used to determine the reduction in voltage or current with distance as
a TEM propagates down a transmission lines.
Attenuation Coefficient ()
1. General Solution
Velocity of light (c) =
c
Permeability () &
=
Permittivity ()
Velocity of Propagation
=
(Vp) Vp
Sample Problem:
A signal will undergo a phase shift of how many rad/m when propagating on
a 25-m coaxial cable with a velocity of 0.66c and operating at 5 MHz. Also
compute for the total phase delay in degrees.
Solution:
Phase shift coefficient;
2(5 x 106 ) rad
= = = 0.16
Vp 0.66(3 x 108 ) m
Total phase delay in degrees;
rad 180
A = 0.16 x x 25 m = 229.18 delay
m
Relative permittivity 1
F=
(dielectric constant) r
1
Refractive Index F=
n
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-9
Solution:
Vp 1 1
F= = Vp =
c c LC LC
1
= ;
c (50 H)(40 pF)
= 0.0745
2. Electrical Length
The length of a transmission line relative to the length of the wave
propagating down the line.
360L L
A = A rad =
where :
A = electrical length in deg
A rad = electrical length in rad
L = physical length in m
= operating wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
What length of standard RG-8/U coaxial cable would required to obtain a 45
phase shift at 300 MHz?
Solution:
360 360 360
A = xA = xA = = x A = 45
Vp 0.66c 0.66(3 x 108 )
f 300 x 106
45 0.66(3 x 108 )
A= x = 0.0825 m
360 300 x 106
3. Reflection
A transmission line phenomena wherein a portion of the incident
energy is delivered back to the source due to impedance mismatched.
4. Reflection Coefficient ()
A vector quantity representing the ratio of reflected voltage to incident
voltage or reflected current to incident current.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the magnitude of reflection because of the mismatch between a
75 line and (50-j25) load.
Solution:
ZL ZO (50 j25) 75 25 j25
= = =
ZL + ZO (50 j25) + 75 125 j25
= 0.154 j0.231 = 0.277 123 = 0.277
5. Standing Waves
An interference pattern that exists (because of impedance
mismatched) when two sets of traveling waves going on opposite
direction meets.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-11
1+ SWR 1
SWR = =
1 SWR + 1
Sample Problem:
Calculate the SWR & reflection coefficient of the line if the forward power is
250 W, and the reverse power is 45 W.
Solution:
Pref Pref 45
2 = = = = 0.424
Pinc Pinc 250
1 + 1 + 0.424
SWR = = = 2.47
1 1 0.424
1
RL = RL dB = 20 log
2
SWR 1
2
Standing Wave TL dB = 10 log 1
Ratio
SWR + 1
Reflection
TL dB = 10 log(1 2 )
Coefficient
Sample Problem:
A coaxial TL with a Z0 of 50- is connected to the 50- output of a signal
generator, and also to a 20- load impedance. Calculate the mismatch loss.
Solution:
2
Z ZO
Mismatch(dB) = 10 log(1 2 ) = 10 log1 L
ZL + ZO
20 50
2
= 10 log1 = 0.88 dB
20 + 50
Vref
V = 1 + V = 1 +
Vinc
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-13
S
O Incident L
U O
Reflected Transmitted
R A
C D
E
Iref
C = 1 + C = 1
Iinc
Sample Problem:
A 10 V positive going pulse is sent down a 50 m of lossless 50 cable with a
velocity factor of 0.8. The cable is terminated with a 150 resistor.
Calculate the voltage and current transmission coefficient and the amount of
transmitted voltage to the load.
Solution:
ZL ZO 150 50 1
= = =
ZL + ZO 150 + 50 2
1 3 1 1
V = 1 + = 1 + 2
= C = 1 = 1 =
2 2 2
3
Vtransmitted = V x Vinc = (10) = 15 V
2
One may be puzzled to note that the transmitted voltage can be greater than the
incident voltage; however, this is not of concern since the transmitted current will be less
than the incident current. In fact, what is important is that the transmitted power is
always less than (or equal to) the incident power irrespective of whether is positive or
negative.
Sample Problem:
A generator sends a 75 mW down a 50 line. The generator is matched to
the line, but the load is not. If the coefficient of reflection is 0.6, how much
power is reflected and how much is dissipate in the load?
Solution:
Pabs = Pinc Pref = Pinc 2Pinc = Pinc (1 2 )
= 75 x 103(1 0.62 ) = 48 mW
ZL + jZ 0 tan A
Zin = Z 0
Z 0 + jZL tan A
Sample Problem:
Calculate the effective inductance seen at the input of an open circuit TL of
length 0.12 m at 3 GHz. Assume Z0=75, velocity factor of 0.65
Solution:
ZL + jZO tan A 2f
Zin = ZO ZL = (open ckt); =
ZO + jZL tan A Vp
2(3 x 109 )
= jZO cot A = j(75) cot 8
x 0.12 = j51.77
0.65(3 x 10 )
from Z = R jX XL = 51.77 = 2fL
XL 51.77
L = = = 2.75 nH
2f 2(3 x 109 )
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-15
For open-load TL
The reflected voltage is the same (in phase) as the incident voltage
and the total voltage at the destination end of the line is twice the
incident voltage.
For shorted-load TL
The reflected current is the same (in phase) as the incident current
and the total current at the destination end of the line is twice the
incident current.
V(z) = V + e j z + Vo e + j z
o
I(z) = Io+ e j z + I o e + j z
V0+ V0
I0+ = I0 =
Z0 Z0
+
dmin = = ( + )
2 4
When =0, which occurs when ZL is purely real and greater than Z0, dmin=/4
and a voltage maximum exists right at the load.
When =-, which occurs when ZL is purely real and less than Z0, dmin=0 and a
voltage minimum exists right at the load.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the voltage reflection coefficient, SWR, and determine the position
of the first voltage minimum from the load which has an impedance of (15-
j20). (Use Z0=50)
Solution:
ZL Z0 (15 j20) 50 35 j20
= = =
ZL Z0 (15 j20) + 50 65 j20
8.06 150.26
= = 0.593 133.16
13.6 17.1
= 0.593e j0.74 = 0.74
1 + 1 + 0.593
SWR = = = 3.914
1 1 0.593
dmin = ( + ) = (0.74 + ) = 0.065
4 4
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-19
One Section
Two Sections
Z1 = 4 Z 03 xZL Z2 = 4 Z 0 xZL 3
2. Stub Matching
ZL + jZ 0 tan d
Z(z = d) = Z 0
Z 0 + jZL tan d
The distance d is chosen so that G=Y0, this condition leads to the solutions
R [
XL L (Z0 RL )2 + XL2
Z0
]
d= tan1 t t=
2 RL Z0
Y
LS = tan1 0
2 B
B
LS = tan1
2 Y0
Sample Problem:
Determine the relative position of the stub needed to match the load with an
impedance of 35-j47.5 to a TL with a characteristic impedance of 50
using a shunt, short-circuited single-stub tuner.
Solution:
XL
RL
Z0
{
(Z0 RL )2 + XL2 } 47.5
35
50
{ }
(50 35)2 + 47.52 0.388
t = = =
RL Z0 35 50 5.945
1
tan1(0.388) = 0.0589
1
d= tan1 t = 2
2 1 tan1(5.945) = 0.2235
2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-21
1. Microstrip
A miniaturized version of stripline best suited to circuit integration of
semiconductor devices.
Parameter Equation
T
Inductance L=
L
L
Capacitance C=
T
T T
Z o = 120 when << 1
Characteristic L L
Impedance 200 6T
Zo = log
r + 1.41 0.8L + w
Z0 = characteristic impedance,
r = dielectric constant
T = dielectric thickness
L = width of the conducting copper trace
w = thickness of conducting copper trace
Sample Problem:
What is the value of Zo for a single 0.1-in wide, 0.005-in thick track plus
groundplane microstrip line? Assume that the PC board is 0.075-in thick and
that the dielectric constant of the board is 2.
Solution:
200 6T
Zo = log
r + 1.41 0.8L + w
200 6(0.075)
= log
2 + 1.41 0.8(0.1) + 0.005
= 78.4
276 x
Z0 = log
r L + w
Sample Problem:
A microstrip line is formed using a 0.095-in thick PC board (r=1.8) with a
bottom groundplane and a double 0.15-in wide, 0.008-in thick track on the
top separated 0.2-in. What is the characteristic impedance?
Solution:
276 x 276 0.2
Zo = log = log = 123.3
r L + w 1.8 0.15 + 0.008
2. Stripline
Consists of a printed conductor between two ground planes, typically
formed from copper-clad polyethylene sheets.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-23
138 2T
Zo = log
r w
L(0.8 + )
t
Z0 = characteristic impedance,
r = dielectric constant
T = dielectric thickness
L = width of the conducting copper trace
w = thickness of conducting copper trace
t = distance between copper trace and the ground plane
Sample Problem:
A stripline is formed using multilayer board (r=2). The center track is 0.15-
in wide and 0.005-in thick, and the PC board first layer thickness is 0.05-in
thick, with an overall board thickness of twice the single layer. What is the
characteristic impedance?
Solution:
138 2T 138 2(2 x 0.05)
Zo = log = log 17
r L 0.8 + w 2 0.15 0.8 + 0.005
t 0.05
3. Balanced 4-wire
2
1
Z0 =
138 2D
log10 2 1 + D2
r d D1
2
1
276 2D D
Z0 = log10 1+
r d 2h
2
1
69 4h 2h
Z0 = log10 1+
r d D
1
276 2D D2
Z0 = log10 1 +
r d 4h1h2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-25
138 4h
Z0 = log10
r d
138 4h
Z0 = log10
r d
D
276 4h tanh 2h
Z0 = log10
r d
276 2h
Z0 = log10
r d
N. .WAVEGUIDE THEORY.
1. Waveguide Dimension
Widest dimension of a
waveguide is called the "a"
dimension and determines
the range of operating
frequencies.
3. Boundary Conditions
2
c =
2 2
m n c = 2a
a + b
where:
m = # of 2
variations of field in the "a" dimension
n = # of 2
variations of field in the "b" dimension
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-29
Solution:
c 3 x 108
fc = = = 4.92 GHz
2a 2(1.2 in x 0.0254 m )
1 in
Solution:
c 3 x 108
fc = = = 9.84 GHz
2a 2(0.6 x 0.0254 m )
1 in
Sample Problem:
Determine the high pass cut-off of a rectangular waveguide which has a
broad dimension wall of 1.5 inches.
Solution:
0.0254 m c 3 x 108
c = 2a = 21.5 in x fc = =
1 in 2a 2(0.0762)
= 0.0762 m = 3.94 GHz
6. Waveguide Velocities
G
G P = c2 = sin2
P
where :
c = speed of light
= angle of incidence
In terms of Equation
2
Waveguide Dimension G = c 1
2a
2
f
Critical Frequency G = c 1 c
f
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-31
In terms of Equation
c
P =
Waveguide 2
Dimension
1
2a
c
P =
2
Cut-off Frequency f
1 c
f
Sample Problem:
Determine the group and phase velocities within a rectangular waveguide
with an internal dimension of 1.52 x 0.9 in and is fed by a 12 GHz carrier
using a coaxial probe.
Solution:
2 2
0.025
G = c 1 = c 1 = 283.84 x 106 m
2a 2 x 0 .03861 s
2
c
GP = c2 P = = 317.08 x 106 m
283.84 x 106 s
In terms of Equation
120
Zo =
Waveguide 2
Dimension
1
2a
120
Zo =
2
Cut-off Frequency f
1 c
f
Solution:
120 120
Zo = = = 570
2 2
f 3.75
1 c 1
f 5
In terms of Equation
P
Phase Velocity g =
f
o
g =
Waveguide 2
Dimension
1
2a
o
g =
2
Cut-off Frequency f
1 c
f
Sample Problem:
A 5.6 GHz microwave signal is propagated in a waveguide. Assuming that
the internal angle of incidence to the waveguide surfaces is 42. Calculate
the wavelength of the signal in the waveguide.
Solution:
Compute first the phase velocity;
c 3 x 108
Vp = = = 4.5 x 108 m
sin sin 42 s
then for the guide wavelength
Vp 4.5 x 108
g = = = 0.08 m
f 5.6 x 109
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-33
O. .CIRCULAR WAVEGUIDES.
2r where :
c, mn =
k mn r = waveguide radius
2 r
c,mn =
k 'mn
1. Microwave Tubes
i. Magnetron
A combination of diode vacuum tube with built in cavity
resonators and an extremely powerful permanent magnet.
ii. Klystron
A microwave vacuum tube using two cavity resonators to produce
velocity modulation.
viii. MASER
(Microwave Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation)
Developed by Charles Townes in 1954 and provided extremely
low noise amplification of microwave signals by a quantum
mechanical process.
I H
1. What is the impedance of two sections of quarter-wave transformer (connected
in series) needed in order to match a line 54 to a load of 300
A. 28.9 , 958.4 B. 82.9 , 195.4
C. 8.9 , 15.4 D. 182.9 , 295.4
5. A TDR display shows a discontinuity 1.4 s from the start. If the line has a
velocity factor of 0.8 how far is the fault from the reflectometer?
A. 16.8 m B. 168 m
C. 32.5 m D. 325 m
6. Two adjacent minima on a slotted line are 23 cm apart. Find the frequency,
assuming a velocity factor of 95%.
A. 620 MHz B. 230 MHz
C. 452 MHz D. 134 MHz
7. The forward power in a transmission line is 150 W, and the reverse power is 20
W. Calculate the SWR on the line.
A. 0.55 B. -1.6
C. 2.15 D. 0.15
10. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-
circuit:
A. would reflect as a positive pulse
B. would reflect as a negative pulse
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all
12. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
A. Capacitor B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit D. Parallel resonant circuit
13. A transmitter delivers 50 W into a 600 lossless line that is terminated with an
antenna that has an impedance of 275 , resistive. How much power actually
reaches the antenna?
A. 43.1 W B. 10.71 W
C. 22.42 W D. 38.43 W
16. A receiver requires 0.5 V of signal for satisfactory reception. How strong must
the signal be at the antenna if the receiver is connected to the antenna by 25
m of matched line having an attenuation of 6 dB/100m?
A. 0.814 V B. 0.671 V
C. 0.594 V D. 0.36 V
17. Calculate the impedance looking into a 50 line 1 m long, terminated in a load
impedance of 100 , if the line has velocity factor of 0.8 and operates at a
frequency of 30 MHz.
A. 10 j50 B. 40 - j30
C. 30 j60 D. 20 j40
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-39
23. The attenuation coefficient of a line is 0.0006 N/m. Determine the attenuation
coefficient in dB/m
A. 0.0521 dB/m B. 0.521 dB/m
C. 0.00521 dB/m D. 5.21 dB/m
24. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are
considered to be:
A. lumped B. distributed
C. equal reactances D. ideal elements
25. The primary line constant for a coaxial cable at a frequency of 10 MHz were
determine approximately as;
L = 234 nH/m, C = 93.5 pF/m, R = 0.568 /m, G = 0
Calculate the attenuation coefficient in dB/m.
A. 0.00568 dB/m B. 0.493 dB/m
C. 0.568 dB/m D. 0.0493 dB/m
26. When the load impedance matches the line impedance, the value of standing
wave ratio and reflection coefficient is _____, _____ respectively.
A. 1, 0 B. , 1
C. -1, D. 0, -1
28. What is the effective capacitance of a shorted TL 3/7 long at 25 MHz (assume
Zo=54)?
A. 52.1 pF B. 245 pF
C. 0.79 pF D. 4.5 pF
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a 3.6-cm parallel-strip line, which has a
spacing 0.8 cm?
A. 346.2 B. 145
C. 84 D. 103
32. Calculate the characteristic impedance of a uniform transmission line which has
the following constants R=12 /m, G=1.4 S/m, L=1.5 H/m, and C=1.4 nF/m
at 7 kHz.
A. 33-j2.5 B. 18.5-j34
C. 0.63-j16.7 D. 27-j48.3
33. For a shorted load TL, the value of reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio
is _____, _____ respectively.
A. -1, B. 0, -1
C. , 1 D. -1, 0
34. A transmitter supplies 50 W to a load through a line with an SWR of 2:1. Find
the power absorbed by the load.
A. 34.51 W B. 25 W
C. 44.4 W D. 38.5 W
37. RG-59U, a common type of transmission line for microwave applications, has
an open circuit impedance of 15025 and a short circuit impedance of
37.525 . What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
A. 55-35 B. 35-15
C. 95-55 D. 75-5
40. What is the effective inductance of an open-circuited stub 4/9 long at 42 MHz
(assume Zo=50 )?
A. 76.34 nH B. 130 nH
C. 520 nH D. 89.3 nH
44. Calculate the line wavelength in feet for a 1.8 GHz signal propagating in a
medium with an index of refraction equal to 1.68
A. 0.325 ft B. 0.919 ft
C. 0.546 ft D. 0.422 ft
45. Calculate the velocity factor for a transmission line with a series inductance of
280 nH/m and a shunt capacitance of 82.5 pF/m
A. 1.24 B. 1.42
C. 0.693 D. 0.936
48. Calculate the capacitance of a line with a dielectric constant of 2.21 and a
series inductance of 321 nH/m
A. 7.5 pF B. 76.5 pF
C. 57.6 pF D. 67.5 pF
50. ____ determines the variation of current or voltage with distance along a TL
A. Distributed parameters B. Reflection coefficient
C. Propagation coefficient D. Characteristic impedance
51. Determine the amount of distributed resistance of a 15-m coaxial cable with a
total capacitance of 1.4025 nF, total inductance of 3.51 H and total
attenuation of 0.7395 dB
A. 0.569 /m B. 5.69 /m
C. 569 /m D. 56.9 /m
53. Calculate the amount of phase shift coefficient in rad/m for a line with a
velocity factor of 0.85 and operating at 12 MHz.
A. 0.296 rad/m B. 29.6 rad/m
C. 296 rad/m D. 2.96 rad/m
54. Calculate the operating frequency that will produce a phase shift of 0.05 rad/m
in a coaxial cable with a Zo of 55 and a C=92.5 pF/m
A. 43.7 MHz B. 5.43 MHz
C. 81.2 MHz D. 1.56 MHz
55. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its
characteristic impedance:
A. would reflect as a positive pulse
B. would reflect as a negative pulse
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all
57. What is the equivalent capacitance for a 50 shot-circuited line 3/8 in length
at 500 MHz?
A. 56 pF B. 90.2 pF
C. 6.4 pF D. 23.5 pF
59. Find the characteristic impedance of the waveguide if the cut-off frequency is
3.75 GHz and will operate at 5GHz.
A. 50 B. 570
C. 5.7 D. 57
61. Calculate the guide wavelength for the waveguide whose cut-off is 3.75 GHz
and operates at 5 GHz.
A. 98 cm B. 908 cm
C. 9.08 cm D. 90.8 cm
62. A signal with a level of 20 dBm enters the main waveguide of a directional
coupler. The coupler has an insertion loss of 1 dB, coupling of 20 dB, and
directivity of 40 dB. Find the strength of the signal emerging from each guide.
A. 19 dBm (main guide), 0 dBm (secondary guide)
B. 19 dB (main guide), 0 dB (secondary guide)
C. 0 dBm (main guide), 19 dBm (secondary guide)
D. 0 dB (main guide), 19 dB (secondary guide)
63. For an open load TL, the value of return loss and reflection coefficient is
_____, _____ respectively.
A. -1, B. 1, 1
C. -1, 1 D. , -1
67. A microstrip line is formed using a 0.095-in thick PC board (r=1.8) with a
bottom groundplane and a single 0.15-in wide, 0.008-in thick track on the top.
What is the characteristic impedance?
A. 112.14 B. 72.4
C. 85.34 D. 66.8
68. Two series-connected /4 sections are used to match a 400- load to a 100-
line. The first /4 section has an impedance of 141.4- , calculate the
impedance of the second /4 section.
A. 438 B. 8333
C. 283 D. 338
69. Calculate the group and phase velocities for an angle of incidence of 33
A. 1.6x108 m/s, 5.51x108 m/s B. 2.8x108 m/s, 3.2x108 m/s
C. 5.51x108 m/s , 1.6x108 m/s D. 3.2x108 m/s , 2.8x108 m/s
70. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3cm x 5cm. Calculate the TE10
mode cut-off frequency.
A. 0.3 GHz B. 3 GHz
C. 13 GHz D. 33 GHz
71. A waveguide with a 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency is excited with a 6.7 GHz signal.
Find the wavelength in free space, and the wavelength in the waveguide.
A. 0.716 m, 0.224 m B. 0.136 m, 0.448 m
C. 0.448 m, 0.136 m D. 0.224 m, 0.716 m
72. Calculate the spacing of a 300- folded dipole when inch tubing is used in its
construction.
A. 2.5 inches B. 4.5 inches
C. 7.5 inches D. 8.5 inches
73. A 50- short circuited line is 0.1 in length, at a frequency of 500 MHz.
Calculate the equivalent inductance.
A. 24.5 nH B. 0.245 nH
C. 245 nH D. 2.45 nH
74. A rectangular waveguide has a broad dimension wall of 0.9-in and is fed by a
10-GHz carrier from a coaxial cable. Determine the guide wavelength, phase,
and group velocities.
A. 2.264 cm, 2.264x108 m/s, 3.975x108 m/s
B. 2.264 cm, 3.975x108 m/s, 2.264x108 m/s
C. 3.975 cm, 3.975x108 m/s, 2.264x108 m/s
D. 3.975 cm, 2.264x108 m/s, 3.975x108 m/s
77. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point
at the dead center line?
A. 0 - j50 B. 50 j0
C. 0 j0 D. 0 j
78. What is the impedance seen at the input when the transmission line is open?
A. jZ o tan( A) B. jZ o cot( A)
C. 0 D.
79. On a Smith chart, what does a point in the bottom half of the chart represent?
A. A capacitive impedance B. Power saturation
C. Resistive impedance D. An inductive impedance
80. What is the power of a 2 Vpk-pk sine wave across a 50 ohm load?
A. +19.0 dBm B. +10.0 dBm
C. -10.0 dBm D. -20.0 dBm
81. What are the minimum and maximum combined VSWR limits at an interface
characterized by a 1.25:1 VSWR and a 2.00:1 VSWR?
A. 3.75:1 (min), 1.25:1 (max) B. 1.60:1 (min), 2.50:1 (max)
C. 0.75:1 (min), 3.25:1 (max) D. 1.75:1 (min), 2.25:1 (max)
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-45
82. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point
at the far left edge of the center horizontal line?
A. 50 ohm match
B. Infinite ohms (open circuit)
C. Zero ohms (short circuit)
D. pure inductive reactance
83. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point
at the far right edge of the center horizontal line?
A. 0 - j50 B. 50 j0
C. 0 j0 D. 0 j
86. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point
at the top edge of the center vertical line?
A. pure inductive reactance B. open circuit
C. short circuit D. pure capacitive reactance
87. What is the impedance seen at the input when the transmission line is shorted?
A. jZ o tan( A) B. jZ o cot( A)
C. 0 D.
88. The rate at which the wave appears to move along the wall of the guide, based
on the way the phase angle varies along the walls.
A. Velocity of propagation B. Phase velocity
C. Wave velocity D. Group velocity
90. While we're on the subject of Smith charts, what is the impedance of the point
at the bottom edge of the center vertical line?
A. 0 - j50 B. 50 j0
C. 0 j0 D. 0 j
92. What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration
of time digital signal passes a circuit?
A. Elapsed time B. Travel delay
C. Propagation delay D. Transmission time
94. In an open wire transmission line, what is the normal separation between its
two (2) conductors?
A. 2.5 to 5 feet B. 2 to 3 meters
C. 2 to 6 cm D. 0.001 to 0.01 cm
95. Which of the following term is used to describe the attenuation and phase shift
per unit length of a transmission line?
A. Propagation constant B. Degree of shift
C. Phase shift D. Line constant
96. If voltage change is equal to twice its original what is the corresponding change
in dB?
A. 10 dB B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB D. 9 dB
97. Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted
A. Modulated waves B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves D. Incident waves
99. What is the main reason why coaxial cable is not used in microwave signal
transmission?
A. Number of repeaters B. High attenuation
C. Wide bandwidth D. Low impedance
102. How does a shorted half-wave line act a certain operating frequency?
A. Series resonant circuit B. Capacitor
C. Inductor D. Parallel resonant circuit
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-47
104. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
A. Conductor diameter B. Length
C. Conductor radius D. Conductor spacing
105. What is the input impedance equivalent of an open ended transmission line
which is longer than a quarter wavelength?
A. Equivalent to reactive circuit B. As pure inductor
C. As resistive equivalent D. Open equivalent
107. The greater the diameter of a wire, the _____ is the resistance.
A. unstable B. lesser
C. stable D. higher
109. Technical study which deals with production, transport and delivery of a
quality signal from source to destination
A. Communication System Engineering
B. Telephony Engineering
C. Telegraphic Engineering
D. Transmission System Engineering
110. The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always grounded at the
A. input and output B. output only
C. point of high SWR D. input only
111. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity
of light in vacuum
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating
impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of
the light in a vacuum
115. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels
through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Standing wave ratio
D. Surge impedance
122. The standing wave ratio is equal to ____ if the load is properly matched with
the transmission line.
A. 50 B. 1
C. 0 D. 2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-49
124. When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/an _______line.
A. balanced B. unbalanced
C. ungrounded D. grounded
128. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohms flexible
coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11, 58, and 59?
A. 0.66 B. 0.10
C. 2.70 D. 0.30
130. A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance
per unit length
A. Balanced line B. Open-wire line
C. Unbalanced line D. Coaxial line
DEFINITION. Optics: Branch of physical science dealing with the propagation and
behavior of light.
DEFINITION. Optical Fibers: In the simplest form, they are cylindrical dielectric
waveguides made up of central cylinder of glass (core) with one index of refraction,
surrounded by an annulus (clad) with a slightly different index of refraction.
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1930 John L. Baird and C. W. Hansell were granted patent for scanning and
transmitting television images through uncoated fiber cables.
1951 A.C.S. van Heel, H.H. Hopkins and N.S. Kapany experimented with light
transmission through bundles of fiber that led to the development of
the flexible fiberscope.
1958 Charles Townes and Arthur Schawlow wrote a technical paper about
LASER and MASER.
1967 K.C. Kao and G.A. Bockham proposed a cladded fiber cables.
7. Lightweight - The weight and bulk of fiber optical cable is much less
than the equivalent wire cables for the same effective bandwidth and
number of users.
Disadvantages:
1. Cost - The cost of the fiber is a little greater than that of basic
copper wire in some configurations.
B. .NATURE OF LIGHT.
In fiber optics and any other field of expertise concerning light signals, it is
more pronounced to express it in wavelength rather than frequency.
Multiply
Unit Value To Obtain
by
103 m nanometer
micron 10-6 m
104 m Angstrom
-3
10 m micron
nanometer 10-9 m
10 m Angstrom
10-4 m micron
Angstrom 10-10 m
10-1 m nanometer
Solution:
10 4 micron
a. 20 Angstrom x = 0.002 micron
1 Angstrom
10 4 micron
b. 100 Angstrom x = 0.01 micron
1 Angstrom
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-53
i. General Subdivision
a. Infrared
Band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the
human eye. (770 nm to 100,000 nm)
b. Visible Light
Band of light wavelengths to which the human eye respond.
(390 nm to 770 nm)
c. Ultraviolet
Band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the
human eye. (10 nm to 390 nm)
a. Wavelength
The wavelength of a monochromatic wave is the distance
between two consecutive wave peaks.
b. Frequency
Corresponds to the number of wavelengths that pass by a
certain point in space in a given amount of time.
c. Amplitude
The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave corresponds to the
maximum strength of the electric and magnetic fields and to
the number of photons in the light.
a. Reflection
Phenomenon of wave motion, in which a wave is returned
after impinging on a surface. When energy, such as light,
traveling from one medium encounters a different medium,
part of the energy usually passes on while part is reflected.
b. Refraction
The change in direction that occurs when a wave of energy
such as light passes from one medium to another of a
different density, for example, from air to water.
In 1849, the French physicist A.H. Fizeau developed the first non-
astronomical method of measuring the speed of light with the use of
an apparatus.
The designation c for the speed of light originates from the Latin word
celeritas, which means velocity.
c. Diffraction
The bending or spreading out of waves as they pass around
the edge of an obstacle or through a narrow aperture.
d. Absorption
The reduction in the intensity of radiated energy within a
medium caused by converting some or all of the energy into
another form.
e. Dispersion
The separation of visible light or other electromagnetic waves
into different wavelengths.
1.241
E(J) = hf E(eV) =
where:
h = Planck's constant
= 6.625 x 10-34 Js
f = Frequency in Hz
= wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
Find the number of photons incident on a detector in 1 s if the optic power is
1W and the wavelength is 0.8m.
Solution:
Energy of a single photon
hc
EP = hf =
(6.625 x 10 34 Js)(3 x 10 8 m/s )
=
0.8 m
= 2.48 x 10 19 J
Compu ting for Total Energy
E = Power x time
= 1 W x 1 s
= 10 6 J
The number of photon required is
E 10 6 J
=
EP 2.48 x 10 19 J
= 4.03 x 1012 photons
C. .LENSES.
Rays traveling through the center of the lens are undeviated. Ray1
Incident rays traveling parallel to the lens axis pass trough the
focal point after emerging from the lens. Ray2
An incident ray traveling parallel to a central ray in the focal plane
after transmission through the lens. Ray3
An incident ray passing trough the focal point travels parallel to
the lens axis after it merges from the lens. Ray4
2. Object Position
The position of the objects and focused image are related by the thin
lens equation.
o im
1 1 1 di
+ = M=
do di f do
where:
do = Object distance
di = Image distance
M = Magnification factor
Sample Problem:
Find the object and image distance for a lens with a magnification factor
equal to 4 and the focal length is 20 mm.
Solution:
If M is equal to 4 Comp uting for di
d 1 1 1
M= i = 4 + =
do di 4di 20
di = 4do 5 1
=
4di 20
Answer : di = 25 mm , do = 6.25 mm
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-59
3. Beam Focusing
i. Spot Size (wo)
The distance at which the beam intensity has dropped to 1/e2 of
its peak value.
where :
f
w0 = wo = spot size in mm
w
w = collimated spot size
2 where :
=
w = divergence angle in rad
Sample Problem:
Consider a Gaussian beam whose spot size is 1 mm when collimated. The
wavelength is 0.82 m. Compute the divergence angle. Also compute for
the spot size at 10 km.
Solution:
n2
C = sin1
n1
2. Snells Law
This important law, named after Dutch mathematician Willebrord
Snell, states that the product of the refractive index and the sine of
the angle of incidence of a ray in one medium is equal to the product
of the refractive index and the sine of the angle of refraction in a
successive medium.
where:
n1 = index of the 1st medium
n1 sin 1 = n2 sin 2 n2 = index of the 2nd medium
1 = angle of incidence in degrees
2 = angle of refraction in degrees
In terms of v2 sin 2
=
propagation velocity v1 sin 1
In terms of F2 sin 2
=
velocity factor F1 sin 1
Sample Problem:
What striking angle in the fiber surface is needed to produce a minimum
angle of incidence (critical angle) between the core-clad boundary that will
effectively confine the light signals within the fiber if n1=1.55 and n2=1.45?
Solution:
Computing for the Critical angle Computing for the striking angle
n2 n
C = sin1 sin0 = 1 sin1 1 = 90 c
n2 n0
1.45 1.55
= sin1 0 = sin1 sin(90 69.3)
1.55 1
= 69.3 = 33.21
Sample Problem:
Calculate the resulting deviation from the normal line for a light signal that
travels from air-to-glass-to-diamond if the striking angle is 38.
Solution:
From air - to - glass : n1 = air, n2 = glass
n 1
2 = sin1 1 sin 1 = sin1 (sin 38) = 24.94
n2 1.46
From glass - to - diamond : n1 = glass, n2 = diamond
n 1.46
'2 = sin1 1 sin 1 = sin1 sin(24.94) = 14.74
n2 2.42
4. Index Profile
A graphical representation of the value of the refractive index across
the fiber.
NA = n12 n22
where :
n1 = index of the 1st medium
n2 = index of the 2nd medium
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-63
General Approximate
Solution Solution
n12 n22 n1 n2
=
2n12 n1
FIBER TYPES
General Alternate
Solution Solution
0.383 0.383
rmax = rmax =
NA n1 2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum core radius to support single mode operation for a
fiber with a NA of 0.15 and =0.82m.
Solution:
0 .383 0 .383 (0 .82 m)
rmax = = = 2 .1m
NA 0 .15
Construction n1 n2 NA
All-Plastic 1.49 1.41 0.48 29.0 0.0540
PCS 1.46 1.40 0.41 24.2 0.0410
SCS 1.48 1.46 0.24 13.9 0.0135
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-65
General Alternate
Solution Solution
d d
V= NA V= n1 2
1 2
#M V
2
Sample Problem:
Compute the number of modes for a fiber whose core diameter is 50 m.
Assume that n1=1.48, n2=1.46, and =0.82m.
Solution:
d (50 )
V = NA = x 1 .48 2 1 .46 2 = 46 .45
0 .82
Number of modes
1 1
# M V 2 (46 .45)2 1,079 modes
2 2
F. .FIBER LOSSES.
1. Absorption
Absorption is caused by three different mechanisms:
a. Absorption by atomic defects in the glass composition.
b. Extrinsic absorption by impurity atoms in the glass material.
Material Absorption
Are those due to the molecules of the basic fiber material either
glass or plastic that can be overcome only by changing the fiber
material.
Ultraviolet absorption
Caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which
fibers are manufactured.
Infrared absorption
Result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the
glass core molecule.
Hydrogen Effects
The hydrogen either can interact with the glass to produce
hydroxyl ions and their losses or it can infiltrate the fiber and
produce its own loss. The solution is to eliminate the hydrogen-
producing source or to add coating to the fiber that is
impermeable to hydrogen.
2. Scattering Losses
Occurs when a wave interacts with a particle in a way that removes
energy in the directional propagating wave and transfer it to other
directions.
i. Linear Scattering
Primarily characterized by having no change in frequency in the
scattered wave
Rayleigh Scattering
Results from light interacting with the inhomogeneities
(submicroscopic irregularities) in the medium that are much
smaller than the wavelength of the light.
0.887
L=
4
where :
= signal wavelength in m
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-67
Sample Problem:
Calculate the Rayleigh scattering loss in dB for a 50/125 step-index fiber
operating at 1200 nm. Also compute for the attenuation in neper.
Solution:
The Rayle igh Loss is The attenuation is
0 .887 1 Neper
L dB = 10 log = L dB x
4 8.686 dB
0 .887 1 Neper
= 10 log = 3.68 dB x
8.686 dB
1 .2 4
= 0.423 Neper
= 3 .68 dB
Mie Scattering
Occurs at inhomogeneities that are comparable in size to a
wavelength and can be reduce by carefully controlling the
quality and cleanliness of the manufacturing process.
Brillouin Scattering
Modeled as a modulation of the light by the thermal energy in
the material mainly in the backward directions.
where :
= signal wavelength in m
a = core radius in m
= signal attenuation
= line frequency in THz
Sample Problem:
Consider an 8/125 single-mode fiber operating at 1300 nm with a loss of 0.8
dB/km. The line width of the source is 0.013 nm. Calculate the Brillouin
scattering threshold.
Solution:
c 3 x 10 8
= 2
( ) = (0 .013 x 10 9 )
(1300 x 10 9 )2
= 2 .31 x 10 9 Hz
Brillouin Scattering
PB = (17 .6 x 10 3 )( a2 )( 2 )( )( )
= (17 .6 x 10 3 )( 42 )(1 .32 )(0 .8)(2 .31)
= 0 .879 Watts
Raman Scattering
The non-linear interaction produces a high-frequency phonon
and a scattered photon predominately in the forward
directions.
Sample Problem:
Consider an 8/125 single-mode fiber operating at 1300 nm with a loss of 0.8
dB/km. The line width of the source is 0.013 nm. Calculate the ratio of the
Brillouin scattering threshold to the Raman scattering threshold.
Solution:
PR = (23 .6 x 10 2 )( a2 )( 2 )( ) Ratio of threshold power
2 2 2 PB 0.879
= (23 .6 x 10 )( 4 )(1 .3 )(0 .8)
=
= 5 .105 Watts PR 5.105
= 0.172
= 17.2%
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-69
3. Macrobending
Refers to a large-scale bending, such as that which occurs intentionally
when wrapping the fiber on a spool or pulling it around a corner.
4. Microbending
Occurs when a fiber is sheathed within a protective cable. The
stresses set up in the cabling process cause small axial distortions to
appear randomly along the fiber.
3n2 0.24n2
rCRITICAL = =
4 ( NA )
3
NA 3
Sample Problem:
Calculate the critical radius of curvature for a multimode 50/125 fiber with
an NA of 0.2, n2 of 1.48 and operating at 850 nm.
Solution:
0.24n2
rCRITICAL =
NA3
=
(
0.24(1.48) 850 x 109 )
0.23
= 37.74 m
5. Connector Losses
Lateral misalignment
Lateral misalignment loss is simply due to the non-overlap of the
transmitting and receiving fiber cores
Angular misalignment
n
L = 10 log 1 o
NA
where:
= misalignment angle in radians
n0 = refractive index of the material
filling the groove
Sample Problem:
Calculate the coupling loss for a fiber facility with a misalignment angle of
2.4 and 0.24 NA.
Solution:
n
L = 10 log 1 o
NA
(1) 2.4D x D
180
= 10 log 1
x 0 . 24
= 0.248 dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-71
Dispersion
The spreading (in time-domain) of light pulses as it propagates down the
fiber end.
t MAT
= DM x
A km
Sample Problem:
For the step-index fiber 12.5 km long is to be used with a 0.8m light source
with a spectral width of 1.5 nm. What value of material dispersion might be
expected assuming DM = 0.15ns/nm-km.
Solution:
tMAT For 12.5 km length
= DM x
A 0.225 ns
0.15 ns tMAT = x 12.5 km
= x 1.5nm km
nm km
= 2.81 ns
0.225 ns
=
km
t WAVE
= DW x
A km
Sample Problem:
A 12.5-km single-mode fiber is used with a 1.3m light source which has a
spectrum width of 6 nm. Find the total expected waveguide dispersion.
Solution:
t WAVE For 12.5 km length
= DM x
A 39.6 ps
6.6 ps t WAVE = x 12.5 km
= x 6nm km
nm km
= 495 ps
39.6 ps
=
km
Ln1 Ln
t MODAL = 1
c 1 c
Sample Problem:
Consider a 50/125 step-index fiber with n1=1.47 and =1.5%. Calculate
the group delay (modal dispersion) for this fiber at an operating wavelength
of 850 nm.
Solution:
tMODAL
Ln1
(12.5 km)(1.47)(0.015) 918.75 ns
c 3 x 105 km / s
4. Total Dispersion
At any wavelength the total dispersion is the root mean square
combination of material, modal and waveguide dispersion.
:FACTS TO REMEMBER:.
Modal dispersion is only present for multi-mode fiber.
Sample Problem:
A single-mode fiber operating at 1.3 m is found to have a total material
dispersion of 2.81 ns and a total waveguide dispersion of 0.495 ns.
Determine the receive pulse width approximate bit rate for the fiber if the
transmitted pulse has a width of 1.5 ns.
Solution:
Computing t TOTAL
= 2.812 + 02 + 0.4952
= 2.85 ns
where:
ts = system rise time in ns
t tx = source rise time in ns
trx = receiver rise time in ns
t f = fiber rise time in ns
= rise time owing to material, modal, and waveguide
dispersion
1 1
UPRZ fb = fb
2t s 2 t
1 1
UPNRZ fb = fb
ts t
3. Bandwidth (BW)
0.35
Electrical BWe =
t
BWo = 2 x BWe
Optical
1
BWo =
2 t
4. Bandwidth-Distance product
1
BW xA = xA km
2 t
Sample Problem:
A fiber optic system uses a detector with a rise time of 1.5 ns and a source
with a rise time of 4ns. If an RZ code is used with a data rate of 100 Mbps
over a distance of 20 km, calculate the maximum acceptable dispersion for
the fiber and the equivalent BW-Distance product.
Solution:
1 1 1 1
fb = = ts = = = 5 ns
2 t 2t s 2fb 2(100 x 106 bps)
Fiber rise time;
1. Reflection Coefficient ()
The ratio of the reflected electric field to the incident electric field.
n1 n2 n1 = core index
=
n1 + n2 n 2 = cladding index
2. Reflectance (R)
The ratio of the reflected beam intensity to the incident beam
intensity.
Uncoated fiber
2
n n2
R= 1
n1 + n2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-77
Sample Problem:
Calculate the reflectance for an air to glass interface assuming the refractive
index of glass is 1.5
Solution:
2 2
n n2 1.5 1
R = 1 = = 0.04
n
1 + n2 1.5 + 1
Coated fiber
2
n1n3 n22 n1 = 1st medium index
R=
2 n 2 = coating material index
n1n3 + n22
n 3 = 2nd medium index
Sample Problem:
Determine the refractive index of a coating layer place between fibers whose
index is 1.5 and 1.57 respectively, to produce a zero reflectance.
Solution:
R =
[n n
1 3 n22 ]
2
= 0 n2 = n1n3 = 1.5 x 1.57 = 1.534
[n n
1 3 + n22 ]
2
n
B = tan1 2
n1
Sample Problem:
Find the Brewster angle for the air-to-glass and glass-to-air interface.
Solution:
air - to - glass(n1 = air, n2 = glass)
n 1.5
B = tan1 2 = tan1 = 56.3
n
1 1
glass - to - air (n1 = glass, n2 = air)
n 1
B = tan1 2 = tan1 = 33.7
n1 1.5
1. Light-emitting semiconductors
Wavelength Bandgap
Material
Range (m) Energy (eV)
GaAs 0.9 1.4
AlGaAs 0.8-0.9 1.4-1.55
InGaAs 1.0-1.3 0.95-1.24
InGaAsP 0.9-1.7 0.73-1.35
Laser Single-Mode
Property LED
Diode Laser Diode
Spectral Width (nm) 20-100 1-5 0.2
Rise time (ns) 2-250 0.1-1 0.05-1
BW 300 2000 6000
Coupling Efficiency Very low Moderate High
Lifetime (hours) 105 104-105 104-105
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-79
2. Quantum Efficiency ()
where :
e
= e = # of emitted electrons
p
p = # of incident photons
3. Responsivity (R)
The ratio of the output current of the detector to its optic input
current.
I q
R= R=
P E
where:
q = charge of an electron
= 1.6 x 10-19 C
E = energy of incident photon
= hx f
Sample Problem:
Compute the responsivity of a detector having a quantum efficiency of 1% at
0.8 m.
Solution:
q c
R = E = h x f = hx
E f
q (1.6 x 10 19 )(0.8 x 10 6 )
= = 0.01 = 0.0064 A W
hc (6.625 x 10 34 )(3 x 10 8 )
4. Radiance (R)
where:
P r = radiance in mW /st cm2
r=
A = solid angle in steradians
A = aperture area of light source in cm2
5. Irradiance (ir)
where:
P
ir = ir = irradiance in W /cm2
A
A = aperture area of light source in cm2
1. Double Crucible
Molten core-glass is placed in the inner vessel and molten cladding-
glass occupies the outer vessel and later forms a glass-cladded core.
2. Rod in Tube
In the rod-in-tube procedure a rod of core-glass is placed inside of a
tube of cladding-glass where the end of this combination is heated,
softening the glass so that a thin fiber can be pulled from it.
4. External Deposition
External deposition by hydrolysis is referred to as external chemical
vapor deposition (external VCD).
5. Axial Deposition
The deposition occurs on the end of the rotating bait, which is
withdrawn as the perform builds up.
6. Internal Deposition
In this process the chemical vapors are deposited on the inside of a
glass tube that is rotating in a glass lathe where a traveling oxy-
hydrogen torch moves along the tube, fusing the deposited material to
form a transparent glassy film.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-81
M. .LASER FUNDAMENTALS.
1. Laser Characteristics
Coherent
The property of laser light wherein corresponding points on the
wavefront are in phase.
Collimated
Property of laser light wherein light rays travel parallel with each
other.
Monochromatic
Laser emits light signal with single color, frequency or wavelength.
2. Laser Types
Gas
Gas lasers use a mixture of helium and neon enclosed in a glass
tube.
Liquid dye
Solid lasers use a solid cylindrical crystal, such as ruby, for the
active medium. The ruby is excited by a tungsten lamp tied to an
ac power supply.
Semiconductor
Semiconductor lasers are made from semiconductor p-n junctions
and are commonly called injection laser diodes or ILDs. The
excitation mechanism is a dc power supply that controls the
amount of current to the active medium.
LASER SAFETY
CLASS DESCRIPTION
N. .FIBER-BASED TECHNOLOGY.
Optical Equivalent
SONET SDH Signal Level
Carrier DS-0
STS-n STM-n (Mbps)
(OC-n) (64 kbps)
OC-1 STS-1 51.84 672
2. SONET Terms
Payload is the actual data content of the SONET frame and rides
within the SPE. Total usable payload at the OC-1 level consists of
up to 49.54 Mbps, into which a T3 frame fits quite nicely. The
balance of the 51.84 Mbps is consumed by Transport Overhead
and Path Overhead.
i. Network Elements
Terminal Multiplexer
The PTE, an entry level path terminating terminal multiplexer,
acts as a concentrator of DS1 signals and tributaries.
Regenerator
These are optical amplifier that boosts the signal level in the
fiber due to significant distance between multiplexers.
Add/Drop Multiplexer
Provides interfaces between the different network signals and
SONET signals.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-85
ii. Overheads
Virtual Tributaries
Virtual Tributaries carry one form of signal, such as a DS-1, DS-2
or DS-3 signal within a byte-interleaved frame. Virtual tributaries
can be mapped into a single virtual path. A virtual tributary may
be channelized (e.g., a 48-channel T-1 for voice) or unchannelized
(e.g, a clear channel DS-1 for full motion video).
O. .MEASUREMENT OF LIGHT.
SI Photometry Units
SI Radiometry Units
Radiant
Q joule J energy
energy
I H
1. A fiber has a NA = 0.2588. A light source us coupled to it which emits
75% of its light into a 60o full-cone angle , 50% into a 30o cone, and 25%
into a 15o cone. What is the coupling efficiency when this source and fiber
are connected?
A. 25% B. 75%
C. 50% D. 85%
5. How many photons are arriving per second at a receiver if the power is 1
nW at wavelength of 1.3 m?
A. 0.654 x 109 photons/sec B. 6.54 x 109 photons/sec
C. 65.4 x 109 photons/sec D. 654 x 109 photons/sec
9. The multimode graded-index fiber that has the best bend performance and will
show the least amount of optical degradation if mishandled is what size?
A. 50/125 m B. 62.5/125 m
C. 85/125 m D. 100/140 m
10. What are the two basic types of single mode step-index fibers?
A. Low NA and high NA B. Solid core and air core
C. Enriched clad and depressed D. Matched clad and depressed clad
11. How many voice channels can be modulated onto a light carrier at a
wavelength 1.06 m? Assume a system BW equal to 1% of the carrier
frequency.
A. 5 x 108 channels B. 8 x 108 channels
C. 4 x 108 channels D. 7 x 108 channels
12. The use of plastic-clad silica and all plastic fibers has what primary drawback?
A. Higher NA B. Higher cost
C. Higher bandwidth D. Limited optical performance
14. Increased extrinsic absorption at 950 nm, 1,250 nm, and 1,383 nm is caused
by what impurity in glass optical fibers?
A. Phosphorus B. Germanium
C. Titanium D. Water
15. The power incident on a detector of light is 100 nW. (a) Determine the
number of photons per second incident on the detector if the wavelength is
1550 nm.
A. 7.8 x 1016 photons/sec B. 7.8 x 1012 photons/sec
C. 7.8 x 1011 photons/sec D. 7.8 x 1013 photons/sec
16. Which type of scattering loss is proportional to the reciprocal of the fourth
power of the wavelength of the light?
A. Mie B. Raman
C. Rayleigh D. Brillouin
17. For a multi-mode step-index fiber with glass core (n1 = 1.55) and a fused
quartz cladding (n2 = 1.46), determine the critical angles. April 2003
A. 70.18 degrees B. 70.38 degrees
C. 70.24 degrees D. 7.11 degrees
22. Calculate the maximum data rate for the 45 km fiber system which has a
pulse spreading constant of 100 ns when it is used with a transmitter
having a rise time of 50 ns and a receiver having a rise time of 75 ns, if
the line code is RZ.
A. 0.7 MHz B. 83.1 MHz
C. 3.7 MHz D. 7.4 MHz
23. A radius of curvature is larger than the fiber diameter in which of the following
types of fiber bends?
A. Macrobends B. Microbends
C. Gentle bends D. Serpentine bends
24. A fiber optic cable has a loss of 16 dB/Km. What would be its attenuation
if the cable is 2000 ft long? April 2003
A. 97.6 dB B. 26 dB
C. 2.6 dB D. 9.76 dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-91
25. Calculate the velocity of light in a medium which has a relative permittivity
of 2.5
A. 1.89 x 10 8 m/s B. 5.67 x 10 8 m/s
7
C. 3.43 x 10 m/s D. 2.85 x 10 6 m/s
26. Only in multimode fibers does which of the following types of dispersion occur?
A. Modal B. Material
C. Waveguide D. Chromatic
27. When different colors of light travel through the fiber at different speeds, which
of the following types of dispersion occurs?
A. Modal B. Intramodal
C. Intermodal D. Modal delay spreading
30. In a step-index fiber, the refractive index profile of the fiber core has which of
the following characteristics?
A. It is uniform over the fiber core
B. It linearly decreases from a maximum at the fiber center to a minimum at
the core-cladding boundary
C. It is parabolic with a maximum index of refraction at the center and a
minimum index of refraction at the core-cladding boundary
D. It linearly increases from a minimum at the fiber center to a maximum at
the core cladding boundary
31. Calculate the Rayleigh scattering loss in dB for a 50/125 step-index fiber
operating at 1200 nm.
A. 5.27 dB B. 3.68 dB
C. 2.65 dB D. 3.68 dB
32. In a graded-index fiber, the refractive index profile of the fiber core is best
described by which of the following statements?
A. It is uniform over the fiber core
B. It linearly decreases from a maximum at the fiber center to a minimum at
the core-cladding boundary
C. It is parabolic with a maximum index of refraction at the center and a
minimum index of refraction at the core-cladding boundary
D. It linearly increases from a minimum at the fiber center to a maximum at
the core cladding boundary
33. Which of the following multimode fiber core sizes is NOT a standard commercial
fiber size?
A. 25 m B. 50 m
C. 85 m D. 100 m
Loading ECE SUPERBook
3-92 FIBER OPTICS COMMUNICATIONS
34. Elements other than silicon and oxygen are added to glass material by the fiber
manufacturer to change its index of refraction. What are these elements called?
A. Spices B. Dopants
C. Additives D. Impurities
37. To operate properly, a fiber optic receiver requires -34 dBm power. The
system losses total 31 dBm from the light source to the receiver. How
much power does the light source emit (in mW)?
A. 0.05 mW B. 0.005 mW
C. 0.5 mW D. 5 mW
38. A T3 system has a 10-9 BER. Compute the number of errors per minute.
A. 2.7 errors/min B. 8.16 errors/min
C. 4.3 errors/min D. 7.5 errors/min
39. To describe the nature of light, which of the following ways can be used?
A. Particles of energy only
B. Electromagnetic wave only
C. Electromagnetic wave and particles of energy
D. Element
40. An optic fiber is made of glass with a surface index of 1.55 and is clad with
another glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place on
air. Determine the numerical aperture of the fiber. April 2003
A. 0.35 B. 0.214
C. 0.0465 D. 0.0305
41. Of the following advantages, which one does NOT apply to fiber optics?
A. Improved environmental protection
B. Improved signal security
C. Increased bandwidth
D. Established standards
42. Calculate the travel time of an axial ray in a 10-km multimode step index
fiber with a NA of 0.248 and 1.28% fractional refractive index change.
A. 15.67 sec B. 1.67 sec
C. 5.7 sec D. 51.67 sec
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-93
43. Of the following factors, which ones are advantages of fiber optic systems?
A. Electrical isolation and immunity to noise
B. Immunity to noise and low bandwidth
C. Signal security and high price
D. Electrical isolation and low bandwidth
46. What does a transparent substance do to light rays that fall on it?
A. Refracts them B. Transmits them
C. Reflects them D. Absorbs them
47. Compute the responsivity of a silicon APD operating at 0.82 m and having
a 0.8 quantum efficiency if its gain is 100. How much optical power is
needed by this detector to produce 20 nA?
A. 3.8 A/W, 5.3 nW B. 53 A/W, 0.38 nW
C. 5.3 A/W, 3.8 nW D. 0.38 A/W, 53 nW
48. What does a translucent substance do to light rays that fall on it?
A. Reflects and absorbs them B. Refracts and absorbs them
C. Transmits and diffuses them D. Transmits and reflects them
49. An erbium-doped fiber amplifier has a noise figure of 6 and a gain of 100.
The input signal has a 30-dB signal-to-noise ratio and a signal power of 10
W. Compute the signal power (in dBm) and a signal-to-noise ratio (in
dB) at the amplifiers output.
A. 0 dBm, 22.2 dB B. 22.2 dBm, 2.2 dB
C. 22.2 dBm, 0 dB D. 20 dBm, 2.22 dB
50. What does an opaque substance do when light rays fall on it?
A. Refracts them B. Reflects or absorbs them
C. Transmits them only D. Transmits and diffuses them
52. Calculate the Brewster angle for a parallel-polarized wave incident from air
onto paraffin with a relative permittivity of 2.
A. 32.5 B. 44.4
C. 54.7 D. 87.5
53. Fibers are single mode at a particular wavelength only when V < 2.405. Under
what condition, if any, will the fiber cease to be single mode?
A. When the wavelength of the light is greater than the cutoff wavelength
B. When the wavelength of the light is less than the cutoff wavelength
C. When the core fiber diameter is extremely small
D. Both B and C
54. In making a preform, layers of glass powder are deposited on the inside or
outside of a glass rod or tube. What is this glass powder called?
A. Soot B. Smoke
C. Preform D. Afterburn
55. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with an axial
propagation time of 53.18sec and a critical angle meridional propagation
time of 54.25sec
A. 1.33 ns/km B. 733 ns/km
C. 7.33 ns/km D. 71.33 ns/km
56. The process used in drawing the fiber is best described by which of the
following statements?
A. The preform is melted and the molten glass is molded, using special fiber
molds
B. The preform is softened and the glass is pulled into a thin glass filament
C. The preform is softened and the glass is rolled into a thin glass filament
D. The preform is melted and the fiber is formed by blowing the molten glass
through a small hole
57. To protect the fiber from contaminants in the drawing process, what substance
is added over the fiber?
A. Water B. Coating
C. Preform D. Cladding
59. A 45 km length of fiber must not lengthen pulses by more than 100 ns.
Find the maximum permissible value for the pulse-spreading constant.
A. 1.11 ns/km B. 222 ns/km
C. 11.22 ns/km D. 2.22 ns/km
60. The spreading of a light pulse as it travels along the fiber is caused by what
mechanism?
A. Diffraction B. Attenuation
C. Absorption D. Dispersion
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-95
61. A fiber optic system uses a detector with a rise time of 3 ns and a source
with a rise time of 2 ns. If an RZ code is used with a data rate of 100
Mbps over a distance of 25 km, calculate the maximum acceptable
dispersion for the fiber and the equivalent BW-Distance product.
A. 38.6 ns/km, 361 GHz-km
B. 0.1386 ns/km, 3.61 GHz-km
C. 0.16 ns/km, 31 GHz-km
D. 13.86 ns/km, 361 GHz-km
65. A cable contains 144 single-mode fiber, each operating at 2.3 Gbps. How
many digitized voice messages can be transmitted simultaneously along
this cable?
A. 5175 million B. 51.75 million
C. 5.175 million D. 517.5 million
66. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with a NA of
0.2482 and 1.55 core index of refraction.
A. 0.62 ps/km B. 624 ps/km
C. 66.24 ns/km D. 6.24 ps/km
67. To operate properly, a fiber optic receiver requires -34 dBm power. The
system losses total 31 dB from the light source to the receiver. How much
power does the light source emit?
A. 0.05 mW B. 5 mW
C. 50 mW D. 0.5 mW
68. A silica multimode step-index fiber has core and cladding refractive indices
of 1.46 and 1.459, respectively. Compute the RZ rate-length product of
this fiber at if the source emits at 1550 nm and has a line width of 120
nm.
A. 922 Mbps B. 9.2 Mbps
C. 2.2 Mbps D. 92.2 Mbps
70. Fiber optic systems use what two types of optical sources?
A. PIN diodes and LEDs B. Laser diodes and APDs
C. LEDs and APDs D. LEDs and laser diodes
72. Given the pulse-spreading constant equal to 10 ns/m and the cable length
equal to 100 meters, determine the maximum bit rate in Mbps for UPNRZ
transmission. April 2003
A. 500 Mbps B. 1000 Mbps
C. 1.0 Mbps D. 0.5 Mbps
73. Find the Brewster angle for the air-to-glass and glass-to-air interface.
A. 5.3, 3.7 B. 56, 3.7
C. 56.3, 33.7 D. 5.3, 33.7
74. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.55 and is clad
with another glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place
from air. What numerical aperture and acceptance angle does the fiber
have? April 2003
A. 0.35, 20.5 B. 0.512, 10.6
C. 0.532, 10.6 D. 0.352, 25.6
75. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with a core
index of 1.55 and 1.53 cladding index of refraction.
A. 66.7 ns/km B. 654 ns/km
C. 7.54 ns/km D. 6.54 ns/km
76. Calculate the pulse spreading per unit length of a 15-km fiber with a
fractional index change of 0.0129 and 1.55 core index of refraction.
A. 667 ns/km B. 6.67 ns/km
C. 76.67 ns/km D. 66.67 ns/km
79. A parallel polarized ray is incident at an angle of 85O when traveling from a
medium of index 1.48 into a medium having index 1.465. The wavelength
is 1300 nm. Compute the reflection coefficient.
A. 55.48 B. 34.39
C. 91.2 D. 74.9
80. The fiber optic transmitter has which of the following functions?
A. Amplifies the output electrical signal
B. Converts the input optical signal to an electrical signal
C. Converts the electrical input signal to an optical signal
D. Amplifies the optical signal
81. What fiber mechanisms weaken and distort the optical signal launched into the
fiber?
A. Dispersion, radiation, and absorption
B. Scattering, radiation, and absorption
C. Scattering, reflection, and refraction
D. Scattering, absorption, and dispersion
83. Consider a fiber whose core index is 1.5 and whose cladding index is
1.485. The core radius 100 m. At what bending radius does a ray
traveling along the fiber axis strike the cladding at the critical angle in the
bend?
A. 1000 cm B. 1 cm
C. 100 cm D. 10 cm
84. The fiber optic receiver performs which of the following functions?
A. Amplifies the electrical signal
B. Converts the electrical signal back into an optical signal
C. Converts the optical signal back into an electrical signal
D. Amplifies the optical signal
85. Consider a SI fiber with n1=1.5 and n2=1.485 at 0.82m. If the core
radius is 50 m, how many modes can propagate?
A. 3286 modes B. 328 modes
C. 386 modes D. 326 modes
89. Extremely high losses occurred in early fibers because of which of the following
conditions?
A. Holes in the fiber sides
B. Impurities in the fiber material
C. Cracks in the fibers
D. Core areas too small in the fibers
90. The fiber has zero dispersion at a wavelength of 1310 nm and has a zero-
dispersion slope of 0.05 ps/(nm2-km). Calculate the total dispersion of 50
km fiber when it is used with a source having a linewidth of 2 nm at a
wavelength of 1550 nm.
A. 9.49 ps B. 18.98 ps
C. 8.44 ps D. 949 ps
91. What was the first light source developed that could be easily coupled into a
fiber?
A. Lamp B. YAG laser
C. PIN diode D. LED
93. Light waves that strike a surface but are neither transmitted nor absorbed?
A. Diffused B. Refracted
C. Reflected D. Diffracted
95. What is the name of the law that states "The angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of reflection"?
A. Snell's Law B. Murphy's Law
C. Huygens Law D. Law of Reflection
96. A receiver has a 10-cm focal length, a 1-cm photodetector diameter, and
air between the lens and photodetector. Compute the receivers NA.
A. 0.55 B. 0.05
C. 0.005 D. 0.523
97. A light wave is incident on a surface. The reflected power is the greatest in
which of the following incidences?
A. 30 B. 45
C. Perpendicular D. Almost parallel
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-99
98. A light wave passes from one medium into another medium with a different
velocity. As the wave enters the second medium, the change of direction is
known by which of the following terms?
A. Reflection B. Refraction
C. Absorption D. Diffusion
99. A certain fiber has a core diameter of 50 m and is used at a medium light
wavelength of 0.80 m and NA=0.35. Calculate the number of modes it
will support.
A. 1260 B. 2500
C. 2,361 D. 5345
100. If a light wave passes from a less dense medium to a more dense medium,
how does the angle of refraction compare to the angle of incidence?
A. Greater than the angle of incidence only
B. Equal to the angle of incidence only
C. Greater than or equal to the angle of incidence
D. Less than the angle of incidence
102. Calculate the travel time of a critical angle meridional ray in a 10-km
multimode step index fiber with a NA of 0.248, n2=1.53 and 1.28%
fractional refractive index change.
A. 52.34 sec B. 5.34 sec
C. 0.534 sec D. 2.4 sec
103. When light falls on a piece of black paper, what happens to most of the light?
A. It is absorbed B. It is reflected
C. It is scattered D. It is refracted
105. Compute the rise time of a photodetector if its 3-dB bandwidth is 500
MHz.
A. 70 ps B. 7 ps
C. 700 ps D. 0.7 ps
106. How does the speed of light in the fiber compare to the speed of light in the
air?
A. It is slower in the fiber
B. It is faster in the fiber
C. It is the same in both the fiber and the air
D. Both A and B
107. Compute the pulse spread for a 10-km length fiber when the light source
emits at 1320 nm and has a 2-nm spectral width. The fiber has zero
dispersion wavelength at 1300 nm and the dispersion is 1.86 ps/nm-km.
A. 0.32 ps B. 3.2 ps
C. 37.2 ps D. 372 ps
108. Calculate the reflectance for an air to glass interface assuming the
refractive index of glass is 1.5
A. 0.4 B. 0.004
C. 4 D. 0.04
109. The relationship between the incident rays and the refracted rays at a
boundary between mediums with different indexes of refraction describes what
law?
A. Bragg's Law B. Snell's Law
C. Lenzs Law D. Law of Reflection
113. The cladding performs all except which of the following functions?
A. Reduces the loss of light from the core
B. Reduces the scattering loss at the surface of the core
C. Protects the fiber core from absorbing surface contaminants
D. Reduces mechanical strength
114. Calculate the bandwidth and figure of merit of a fiber optic system (50
km) with a total dispersion of 949 ps.
A. 52.68 MHz, 2.63 GHz-km B. 526.8 MHz, 2.63 GHz-km
C. 526.8 MHz, 26.3 GHz-km D. 52.68 MHz, 26.3 GHz-km
117. The lowest signal loss and the highest bandwidth are characteristic of which of
the following types of fibers?
A. Air core B. Multimode
C. Single mode D. Plastic core
118. Compared to single mode fibers, multimode fibers have which of the following
advantages?
A. Ease of making connections only
B. Ease of launching light into them only
C. Ease of both making connections and launching light into them
D. Lower dispersion
120. There are 1010 photons per second incident on a photo detector at
wavelength 0.8 m. Compute the power incident on the detector. If this
detector converts light to current at a rate of 0.65 mA/mW, what current is
produced?
A. 2.48 x10-19W, 1.6 nA B. 2.48 x10-9W, 1.6 nA
C. 2.48 x10-19W, 1.6 pA D. 2.48 x10-9W, 1.6 pA
121. The loss of optical power as light travels along a fiber is called
A. attenuation B. absorption
C. scattering D. dispersion
122. Determine the refractive index of a coating layer place between fibers
whose indices are 1.5 and 1.57 respectively, to produce a zero reflectance.
A. 1.534 B. 1.34
C. 1.435 D. 1.4
124. Glass optical fibers have low loss between the infrared and ultra- violet
absorptive regions. The approximate wavelength of operation for glass optical
fibers is in which of the following ranges?
A. 1 nm to 700 nm B. 700 nm to 1600 nm
C. 1600 nm to 9000 nm D. 9 m to 20 m
125. An optical fiber has a loss of 0.35 dB/km. If an LED with a power output
of 25 W is connected to one end of a 20 km length of this fiber. How
much power reaches the detector at the other end?
A. -0.23 dBm B. -23 dBm
C. -2.3 dBm D. -230 dBm
126. Optical networks are based on the emergence of the ______ layer in ______
networks.
A. optical; integrated B. optical; transport
C. transport; optical D. optical; high-capacity
127. DWDM increases the capacity of ____ fiber by first assigning incoming ____ to
specific frequencies within a designated frequency band and then ____ the
resulting signals out onto one fiber.
A. optical fiber; wavelengths; combining
B. group; signals; multiplexing
C. embedded; optical signals; multiplexing
D. dense; wavelengths; multiplexing
128. DWDM enables different formats, such as ______, to be transmitted over the
optical layer.
A. SONET and SDH B. IP and ATM
C. ATM and SONET D. all of the above
131. Which feature is expected to accelerate the growth of optical Ethernet in the
WAN?
A. fiber-channel compatibility B. 10.000Gbps speeds
C. improved optical fiber D. SONET OC192 speeds
133. When was the Fast Ethernet over fiber optics first standardized?
A. in 1994, as part of the first Fast Ethernet standards
B. in 2000, six years after Fast Ethernet over copper
C. in 1990, as part of the 10BASET specification
D. in 1998, six years after Fast Ethernet over copper
134.______ occurs as light travels down single-mode fibers, and when the core of
the fiber is asymmetric, the light traveling along one side moves slower or
faster than the light traveling along the other side.
A. Slope mismatch dispersion
B. Chromatic dispersion
C. Polarization mode dispersion
D. Rayleigh dispersion
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-103
135. The one aspect of SONET that has allowed it to survive during a time of
tremendous changes in network capacity needs is its
A. versatility B. fiber capacity
C. scalability D. functionality
136. One of the great revenue-producing aspects of optical networks is the ability
to resell ____ rather than _____.
A. bandwidth; fiber B. fiber; bandwidth
C. single fiber; double fiber D. wavelength; bandwidth
137. Future DWDM terminals will have the capacity to transmit ____ volumes of an
encyclopedia in one second.
A. 90 B. 250
C. 1500 D. 90000
138. _____ is based on the principal that different-colored pulses of light travel at
different speeds.
A. Polarization mode dispersion
B. Rayleigh dispersion
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Ultraviolet absorption
139. The types of media that can transmit information in the telecommunications
world are the following
A. copper wire, coaxial cable, fiber, and wireless
B. hybrid fiber/coax and copper wire
C. copper wire, coaxial cable, fiber, and hybrid fiber/coax
D. wireless and copper wire
140. The _____ is a particular set of standards that allows the interworking of
products from different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber-optic ring that will
permit transmission in both directions.
A. LAN B. WAN
C. SONET D. CCS
141. Two digital signals whose transitions occur at almost the same rate are
A. synchronous B. asynchronous
C. plesiochronous D. all of the above
144. The largest possible optical Ethernet can span what distance?
A. 10 kilometers B. global
C. 100 kilometers D. 1000 kilometers
147. ITU's H.320 standard defines the protocols for transporting voice, data and
video over
A. PSTN B. the public Internet
C. ISDN networks D. SONET
149.Controlling the ______ at which light waves are transmitted makes it possible
to control how efficiently they reach their destination.
A. the wavelength above which a single-mode fiber supports only one mode
or ray of light
B. the inherent curvature along a specific length of optical fiber
C. the reduction of signal strength over the length of the light-carrying
medium
D. the time distortion of an optical signal that results from the time of flight
differences of different components of that signal
153. A physics principle that became the theoretical foundation of optical fiber
communications holds that ______ in a ______ medium can carry more
information over longer distances.
A. electrical signals; glass B. light; coaxial
C. light; silica D. electrical signal: glass
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-105
155. What determines how many fibers a multimedia backbone can run?
A. wavelength B. frequency
C. spectral efficiency D. spatial multiplexing
156. What are the three primary steps in the optical fiber manufacturing process?
A. laydown, compilation, and draw
B. laydown, consolidation, and draw
C. assembly, consolidation, and pull
D. assembly, compilation, and pull
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1860 JOHANN PHILIPP REIS (Germany) build Das Telephon, the 1st
telephone to be publicly demonstrated.
1871 ANTONIO MEUCCI (Italy) files a caveat for a telephone that he claims
to have built in 1849 though it is not demonstrated and ever patented.
1876 ALEXANDER GRAHAM BELL (Scotland) files a patent for the telephone.
Hours later ELISON GRAY files a caveat for the same invention.
1889 ALMOND STROWGER files a patent for the first automatic telephone
exchange later called STROWGER SWITCH.
1946 AT&T inaugurates the 1st commercial mobile radio telephone service.
INTERMEDIATE
END TOLL SWITCHING TOLL END
TELEPHONE TELEPHONE
OFFICE OFFICE OFFICE(S) OFFICE OFFICE
TOLL TOLL
LOCAL INTER-TOLL INTER-TOLL LOCAL
CONNECTING CONNECTING
LOOP TRUNKS TRUNKS LOOP
TRUNKS TRUNKS
B. .SWITCHING SYSTEM.
1. Transmitter
Made up of a flat round diaphragm that converts speech signal into
electrical signal.
Carbon Transmitter
The carbon transmitter is constructed by placing carbon granules
between metal plates called electrodes.
Electret Transmitter
The electret transmitter is composed of a thin disk of metal-coated
plastic and a thicker, hollow metal disk.
2. Receiver
The receiver of a telephone set is made from a flat ring of magnetic
material with a short cuff of the same material attached to the rings
outer rim.
3. Ringer/Alerter
The alerter in a telephone is usually called the ringer, because for
most of the telephones history, a bell was used to indicate a call. The
alerter responds only to a special frequency of electricity that is sent
by the exchange in response to the request for that telephone
number.
4. Dial Technique
Rotary Dial
In a rotary dial, the numerals one to nine, followed by zero, are
placed in a circle behind round holes in a movable plate. The user
places a finger in the whole corresponding to the desired digit and
rotates the movable plate clockwise until the users finger hits the
finger stop.
Push-button dial
Push button dialing results in the generation of a unique
combination of frequencies or tones when a button is pushed.
Push-button telephones usually have a switch on the base that the
customer can set to determine whether the telephone will send
pulses or tones.
5. Hybrid
Converts the four-wire interface into a two-wire interface, which
enables the telephone to operate via a 2-wire connection to the
telephone company.
6. Switch-Hook
The switch-hook is place in an open position by pressure from the
handset. Thus, when handset is lifted, the switch hook closes,
enabling current to flow through the telephone and local loop and
signaling the telephone company switch.
7. Sidetone Generator
The sidetone represents a design of the hybrid within the telephone
that enables a portion of speech to bleed over the earpiece or
receiver. The purpose of the sidetone is to enable a person hear
themselves talk so they have a better ability to adjust the tones of
their conversation.
D. .TELEPHONE SIGNALING.
1. In-Band Signaling
In-band signaling and control functions take place over the same
physical path as the conversation, and occupy the same frequency
band. As the impact of simultaneous conversation and signaling is
most unpleasant, it is seldom used in contemporary networks, with the
exception of analog local loops.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-111
2. Out-Of-Band Signaling
Out-of-band signaling and control, in the simplest analog application,
takes place over frequencies separate from those that carry the
information. Out-of-band signaling and control is the standard
approach in digital networks and, most certainly, in the internal carrier
networks. Ex. 3700 Hz, 3825 Hz
3. Inter-Office Signaling
c. E and M Signaling
Employs two leads to connect the signaling equipment to the
trunk circuit where the M lead transMit battery or ground signal to
the distant end of the circuit while incoming signals are recEived
on the E lead as either a ground or open condition.
0 10 pulses 1 sec
An average of 50 to 250
msec for every dialed digit.
-------------------------
Another 50 to 250 msec for
the interdigit interval.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-113
Sample Problem:
Calculate the time saved in dialing 640-8267 using DTMF system over PD
system.
Solution:
DTMF system
tDTMF 7(0.25 sec) + 6(0.25sec) = 3.25 s
PD system
tPD 6(0.1 sec) + 4(0.1 sec) + 10(0.1 sec) + 8(0.1 sec)
2(0.1 sec) + 6(0.1 sec) + 7(0.1 sec) + 6(0.5 sec) = 7.3 sec
Frequency parameter
Frequency (Hz)
Signaling Cadence
350 440 480 620
Dial tone x x Continuous
0.5 sec ON
Busy tone x X
0.5 sec OFF
2 sec ON
Ringing tone x x
4 sec OFF
Call-waiting Single 500
x
tone ms pulse
Item Standards
Line open circuit, min dc
On hook (idle status)
resistance 30k
Line closed circuit, max dc
Off hook (busy status)
resistance 200
Battery voltage -48 V
Operating current 20 to 80 mA, 40 mA typical
Subscriber-loop resistance 0 to 1300, 3600 (max)
Loop loss 8 dB typical, 17 dB max
Ringing voltage 90 Vrms, 20 Hz (typical)
Pulse dialing
Pulsing rate 10 pulses/sec +10%
Duty cycle 58 to 64% break
Touch tone dialing
Tone level -6 to -4 dBm
Maximum level +2 dBm
Frequency tolerance +1.5%
Pulse width 50 ms
Time between digits 50 ms minimum
1. Centrex
As a concept, Centrex (central exchange), is something of a step back
in time, providing PBX-like features through special software loaded
into the Central Office Exchange. Generally speaking, each Centrex
station is generally connected to the central exchange via an individual
twisted pair local loop.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-115
F. .TELEPHONE LOSSES.
1. Net Loss
The net loss of a transmission channel is the ratio of the signal power
at the input and the output of the channel.
2. Insertion Loss
The ratio of the power delivered from a source to a load, to the power
delivered from the same source to the same load through a
transducer.
3. Transducer Loss
The ratio of the maximum power available from a source to the power
delivered by that source to a load through a transducer.
4. Return Loss
A measure of the match between the two impedance on either side of
a junction point.
1. Crosstalk
Unwanted interference or other signal picked up by one channel of an
electronic communications system from other channel.
Near-End Crosstalk
Measured on a channel at a receiving point near the sending point
of the interfering channel.
Far-End Crosstalk
Measured on a channel at a receiving point near the receiving
point of the interfering channel.
2. Singing
Singing is the result of sustained oscillations due to positive feedback
in telephone amplifiers or amplifying circuits.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-117
3. Telephone Echo
Talker Echo
A signal returned to the talker after making one or more round
trips between the talker and a distant reflection point.
Listener Echo
A signal first returned down the talker at a distant reflection point
and then reflected again toward the listener.
0 to 150 ms acceptable.
150 to 400 ms, acceptable, provided that care is exercised on
connection when the mean, one-way propagation time exceeds
about 300 ms.
Above 400 ms, unacceptable.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the one-way propagation delay for an analog network and digital
network which spans 5 km and 8 km respectively.
Solution:
For Analog Network
{ }
D = 12 + 0.004 x d(km) = 12 + (0.004 x 5) = 12.02 ms
For Digital Network
{ }
D = 3 + 0.004 x d(km) = 3 + (0.004 x 8) = 3.032 ms
L
VNL (dB ) = 0.2 + 0.4 dB VNL ( dB ) = 0.2 t + 0.4 dB
vp
Solution:
VNL(dB) = 0.2t + 0.4 dB = 0.2(11.8) + 0.4 = 2.76
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-119
i. Resistance Limit
/1000 ft of /km of
Gauge /mi of loop
loop loop
26 83.5 440 268
24 51.9 274 168.5
22 32.4 171 106
19 16.1 85 53
Sample Problem:
If we want a 10-mi loop and allow 100/mi of loop. What diameter of
copper wire would we need?
Solution:
0.1095 0.1095
100 = d= = 0.033 in
d2 100
Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum loop length permissible for transmission design
consideration if we use a cable gauge of 19.
Solution:
max 6 dB
L max = = = 28.57 kft = 5.4 mi = 13.04 km
19 0.21 dB
1000 ft
Unigauge Design
Unigauge is a concept developed by BELL-CORE of North America.
This is done by reducing the gauge (diameter) of wire pairs as
much as possible while retaining specific resistance and
transmission limits.
Resistance Design
Resistance design is a method of designing subscriber loops based
on establishing a common maximum resistance limit for a switch.
This valued is set at 1300 primarily to control transmission loss.
J. .MULTIPLEXING.
i. T-Carrier System
Data Line
Voice Overhead
System Rate Rate Line Code
Channel (Mbps)
(Mbps) (Mbps)
T1 24 1.536 0.008 1.544 BPRZ
T2 96 6.144 0.168 6.312 B6ZS RZ
T3 672 43.008 1.728 44.736 B3ZS RZ
T4 4032 258.048 16.128 274.176 Polar NRZ
T5 8064 516.096 44.064 560.160 Polar NRZ
*BnZS denotes binary n-zero substitution
FDM Process
Hierarchy JG MG SG G VB
Group --- --- --- --- 12
Supergroup --- --- --- 5 60
Mastergroup --- --- 10 50 600
Jumbogroup --- 6 60 300 3600
Superjumbogroup 3 18 180 900 10,800
Parameter Group SG MG
2520 kHz (U600)
Bandwidth 48 kHz 240 kHz
2728 kHz (L600)
564-3084 kHz
Occupied (U600)
60-108 kHz 312-552 kHz
spectrum 60-2788 kHz
(L600)
Hierarchy MG SG G VB
Group --- --- --- 12
Supergroup --- --- 5 60
Mastergroup --- 5 25 300
Supermastergroup 3 15 75 900
1. HDSL
HDSL uses two twisted pair
(one transmit and one Data
receive) to support 1.544
Mbps at a full duplex at a
distance of up to 12,000 ft Voice
ISDN
from the RT. It uses a 2B1Q
line code if ISDN or
suppressed carrier version of
Video
QAM called carrierless
amplitude-phase (CAP)
2. SDSL
SDSL is a one pair version of HDSL. It provides full duplex to support
768 kbps in each direction using a hybrid or echo canceller to separate
data transmitted from data received.
3. ADSL
ADSL uses one twisted pair to support 6 Mbps sent downstream to the
customer and 640 kbps sent upstream over a distance of up to 12,000
ft. The ADSL spectrum is above 25 kHz. The band below 4 kHz is
used for a voice frequency POTS signal. Two variations of ADSL called
G.DMT and G.Lite.
4. VDSL
VDSL uses one pair of wires to support 25 Mbps downstream for
distances up to 3,000 ft from the RT or 51 Mbps downstream for
distances up to 1,000 ft.
TE2 - This are classified as non-ISDN compatible, physical interface is used like
RS 232C and host computer with X.25.
Reference Points
6. Data Rates
Symmetric
Asymmetric
L. .TRAFFIC ENGINEERING.
1. Terminology
Calling rate: The average number of calls placed during the busy
hour.
2. Traffic Unit
Erlang
The international dimensionless unit of traffic intensity. One
erlang is the traffic intensity represented by an average of one
circuit busy out of a group of circuits over some period of time.
Call-Hour
The quantity represented by one or more calls having an
aggregate duration of 1 hour.
Call-minute (Cm)
1 Cm is the quantity represented by one or more calls having an
aggregate duration of 1 minute.
Call-second (Cs)
1 Cs is the quantity represented by one or more calls having an
aggregate duration of 1 second.
Average number of calls initiated per unit time (e.g. attempts per hour). a.k.a.
Arrival Rate
n
C=
t
n
C group =
t
n
C=
mx t
5. Departure Rate ()
1
= T = mean holding time per call
T
where :
V = nx T V = volume of calls in time t
n = # of calls in time period t
T = mean holding time per call
n
A= xT A = C xT
t
C V
A= A=
t
where:
A = Traffic intensity in Erlang n = # of calls in time period t
T = mean holding time per call t = time period of observations
C = calling rate = departure rate
V = volume of calls
Sample Problem:
Suppose that the average holding time is 2.5 min per call and the calling
rate in the BH for a particular day is 237. Determine the traffic flow (A) in
call-minutes (Cm) and call-hours (Ch).
Solution:
A = CxT 1 Ch
A = 592 .5 Cm x
= 237 x 2.5 min 60 Cm
= 592.5 Cm = 9.87 Ch
Sample Problem:
Call established at 2 am between a central computer and a data terminal.
Assuming a continuous connection and data transferred at 34 kbit/s what is
the traffic if the call is terminated at 2:45 am?
Solution:
A = Cx T
1 hr
= 1 call x 45 min x
60 min
= 0.75 Erlang
Sample Problem:
A group of 20 subscribers generate 50 calls with an average holding time of
3 minutes, what is the average traffic per subscriber?
Solution:
1hr 2.5 Erlangs
A total = 50 calls x 3 min x A sub =
60 min 20 subscriber
= 2 .5 Erlangs 0.125 Erlang
=
subscriber
TO = TC + TL TL = T O x P (B ) TC = TO x (1 P(B))
TC where:
=
#N #N = no. of trunk circuits
Sample Problem:
Calculate the trunk efficiency for a group of 26 trunks that offers 10 Erlangs
of traffic and a blocking probability of 0.2%.
Solution:
TC
= TC = TO x(1 P(B))
#N
10(1 0.002)
=
26
= 0.384 38.4%
TL TL
GoS = P(B) = =
TO TL + TC
Sample Problem:
If we know that there are 354 seizures (lines connected for service) and 6
blocked calls (lost calls) during the BH, what is the grade of service?
Solution:
# of lost calls
GOS =
# of offered calls
6
=
354 + 6
= 0.017
Dedicated Service
Erlang
Offered Traffic 0.1 x150 = 15 Erlang
source
15 Erlang
Trunk Utilization x100% = 10%
150 Trunks
150 ter min al
Terminal/Trunk ratio = 1 (Expensive)
150 trunks
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-135
Traffic-engineered Service
Erlang
Offered Traffic 0.1 x150 = 15 Erlang
source
14.85 Erlang
Trunk Utilization x100% = 61.875%
24 Trunks
150 ter min al
Terminal/Trunk ratio = 6.25 (Economical)
24 trunks
M. .BLOCKING PROBABILITY.
SCENARIO
The assumption that calls not immediately satisfied at the first attempt are cleared
from the system and do not reappear during the period under consideration.
Used in the Erlang B Loss-probability equation.
An where :
GOS = PB = n n! A = traffic intensity in Erlang
Ax
x=0
x!
n = # of trunks
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-137
Sample Problem:
Suppose we use 5 trunks, and the route offered 1.66 Erlangs of traffic.
Calculate the grade of service required to implement this configuration.
Solution:
1.665
5!
GoS = x 100%
1.660 1.661 1.662 1.663 1.664 1.665
+ + + + +
0! 1! 2! 3! 4! 5!
= 2%
The assumption that calls not immediately satisfied at the first attempt are held in
the system until satisfied. Used in the Erlang C delay-probability equation.
where :
z
PC = n 1 An n
Ax
z=
+z n! n A
x=0
x!
The assumption that calls not immediately satisfied at the first attempt are held in
the system until served or abandoned. Used in the Poisson loss-probability
equation.
Ax
PP = e A x!
x =n
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-139
N. .CHOICE OF FORMULA.
O. .CONGESTION.
1. Time Congestion
Proportion of time a system is congested (all servers busy).
2. Call Congestion
Probability that an arriving call is blocked.
Sample Problem:
On a particular traffic relation the calling rate is 461 (calls in a 1-hr period)
and the average call duration is 1.5 minutes during the busy hour. What is
the traffic intensity in Erlangs? In ccs?
Solution:
calls 1 hr
461 x 1 .5 min x = 11 .525 Erlangs
hr 60 min
36 ccs
11 .525 Erlangs x = 414 .9 ccs
1 Erlang
Sample Problem:
Company X has 10 employees, each placing an average of 20 minutes of
long-distance calls per day. The average call lasts 5 minutes. It has been
determined that 20% of the calls are made during the busy hour. A total of
4 external phone lines are used to place the pool of calls. Calculate the
traffic intensity in Erlang, during the busy hour.
Solution:
Each employee places on average
20 min calls
= 4
5 min day
For 10 employees, a total of
calls calls
4 x 10 = 40
day day
The traffic during the busy hour is
calls calls
20% x 40 =8
day hr
calls 1 Erlang
8 x 5 min x = 0.6667 Erlangs
hr 60 min
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-141
Sample Problem:
Suppose 100 data terminals are to be connected to a computer by way of
leased circuits:
1st plan: The terminals are clustered into four groups that use separate
groups of shared circuits.
2nd plan: Traffic from all terminals is concentrated into one group of
circuits.
Determine the cluster traffic in both cases assuming each terminal is active
10% of the time.
Solution:
a. For the 1st plan;
# of terminal for each cluster
100 ter min als ter min als
= 25
4 groups group
The total traffic for each cluster is
25 x 10% = 2.5 Erlangs
I H
1. If there are 2800 maximum calls arriving per hour to a trunk circuits without
blocking, calculate the offered traffic for an average calling time of 1.76
minutes and compute the GoS for 2812 simultaneous calls.
A. 82.13 Erlangs, 0.43% B. 74.18 Erlangs, 0.22%
C. 143.66 Erlangs, 0.22% D. 88.88 Erlangs, 0.34%
2. If a group of user made 30 calls in one hour, and each call had an average call
duration of 5 minutes, this is equivalent to how many Erlangs of traffic?
A. 1.5 Erlang B. 8.5 Erlang
C. 12.5 Erlang D. 2.5 Erlang
7. Find the holding time if 300 calls registered 13.5 erlang traffic?
A. 27 s B. 261 s
C. 162 s D. 22.23 s
10. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.
If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
A. 1300 ohms B. 1500 ohms
C. 1000 ohms D. 2300 ohms
11. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.
If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
A. 48 0hms B. 200 ohms
C. 40 ohms D. 1300 ohms
13. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
A. -90 dBrn B. -85 dBrn
C. 90 dBrn D. 85 dBrn
15. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB
TLP. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in
dBrnc0?
A. 80 dBrnC TLP B. 65 dBrnC TLP
C. 60 dBrnC TLP D. 75 dBrnC TLP
16. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and
running at 8000 samples per second?
A. 56 kbps B. 128 kbps
C. 64 kbps D. 384 kbps
17. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate
be for each channel in the frame?
A. 64 kbps B. 8 kbps
C. 128 kbps D. 56 kbps
19. Calculate the traffic flow in call-minute and call-hour if 100 calls are generated
in 1 hour of 3 minutes average duration.
A. 260 call-minute, 4 call-hour B. 600 call-minute, 10 call-hour
C. 300 call-minute, 5 call-hour D. 480 call-minute, 8 call-hour
22. Determine the actual traffic carried by a group of trunks with an offered traffic
of 20 Erlangs and 0.98785 blocking probability.
A. 1.113 Erlang B. 0.243 Erlang
C. 6.743 Erlang D. 13.756 Erlang
24. Calculate the blocking probability for a group of 4 trunks that offers 10 Erlangs
of traffic and a trunk efficiency of 88%.
A. 0.8666 B. 0.64666
C. 0.9666 D. 0.466
26. A single GSM carrier supports 8 (TDM) speech channels. If the traffic volume is
129.6 ccs. How many 3 minute calls does this represent?
A. 172 calls B. 7.2 calls
C. 72 calls D. 720 calls
29. If we know that there are 512 seizures (lines connected for service) and 24
blocked calls (lost calls) during the BH, what is the grade of service?
A. 0.017 B. 0.032
C. 0.045 D. 0.067
31. On a particular traffic relation the calling rate is 461 and the average call
duration is 1.5 min during the BH. What is the traffic intensity in CCS?
A. 345.75 CCS B. 414.9 CCS
C. 1,152.5 CCS D. 691.5 CCS
34. The BRI requires _____ kbps of digital transmission capacity without overhead.
A. 64 B. 144
C. 128 D. 192
39. In ISDN, the _____ is a 16 kbps or 64 kbps digital channel used to carry
signaling information.
A. D-channel B. A-channel
C. B-channel D. C-channel
41. Calculate the blocking probability for a group of 4 trunks that offers 10 Erlangs
of traffic and a trunk efficiency of 2.6%.
A. 0.8966 B. 0.966
C. 0.98966 D. 0.866
43. Determine the actual traffic carried by a group of trunks with an offered traffic
of 10 Erlangs and 0.64666 blocking probability.
A. 3.533 Erlang B. 0.7193 Erlang
C. 8.134 Erlang D. 12.444 Erlang
44. A particular exchange has been dimensioned to handle 1000 calls during the
busy hour. On a certain day during the BH 1100 calls are offered. What is the
resulting grade of service?
A. 1 B. 10
C. 0.01 D. 0.1
46. The PRI in ISDN consist of 23 or 30B-for user data and a single _____ kbps D-
channel for signaling.
A. 16 B. 32
C. 64 D. 48
47. How long does it take to dial 1234560 in sec using pulse dialing?
A. 1.5 sec B. 3.4 sec
C. 4.8 sec D. 6.1 sec
50. What is the mean holding time if the traffic carried is 4.56 Erlang. The number
of calls received is 200 in a given EBHC?
A. 273.6 sec B. 41.04 sec
C. 14.08 sec D. 82.08 sec
51. The 23 B+D Channel used in North American and Japan uses total transmission
capacity of _____ Mbps with overhead.
A. 2.048 B. 1.920
C. 1.536 D. 1.544
52. A group of trunks offered 10 Erlangs of traffic, and 0.002 GoS. Calculate the
trunk efficiency assuming 20 trunks.
A. 49.9% B. 89.9%
C. 29.9% D. 69.9%
55. If there are 3000 calls arriving per hour to a trunk circuits with an average
calling time of 1.76 minutes, calculate the traffic intensity.
A. 48 Erlangs B. 88 Erlangs
C. 68 Erlangs D. 78 Erlangs
56. Traffic _____ is the sum of the holding times of the traffic carried by a pool of
resources over a given period of time.
A. capacity B. volume
C. transit D. intensity
59. The BRI in ISDN consist of _____ B-channel (S) and D-channel.
A. 1 B. 23
C. 2 D. 30
60. A data transmission facility is encapsulating 4096 bytes of data to form a single
packet. Assuming the system is using T1 line, how many packets are
transmitted per second ignoring overhead?
A. 57.12 packets B. 47.12 packets
C. 67.12 packets D. 77.12 packets
61. A switch could support a maximum of 9800 seizures during the busy hour.
Calculate the number of block calls during the BH if the GoS is 0.245%.
A. 48 calls will be block B. 12 calls will be block
C. 24 calls will be block D. 96 calls will be block
62. On a particular traffic relation, the calling rate is 825. If the traffic intensity is
990 CCS during the BH, what is the average call duration?
A. 2 minutes B. 12 minutes
C. 6 minutes D. 8 minutes
63. A telephone signal takes 2 ms to reach its destination. Calculate the VNL
required for an acceptable amount of echo.
A. 0.2 dB B. 0.8 dB
C. 0.6 dB D. 0.4 dB
64. The ff. information was recorded in a 5 trunk network from 9:00-10: am
Trunk 1 48 minutes
2 56 min and 28 sec
3 18 min
4 25 min and 24 sec
5 42 min
Find the traffic carried by the network in Erlang.
A. 18.29 Erlang B. 3.16 Erlang
C. 0.781 Erlang D. 5.82 Erlang
65. In ISDN, the _____ is a 64 kbps digital channel that can carry a user data or
digitized voice.
A. A-channel B. C-channel
C. B-channel D. D-channel
67. Out of the total capacity required by the BRI _____ kbps is used for overhead.
A. 48 B. 144
C. 64 D. 16
68. Find the maximum length of the subscriber loop with the ff. specs.
Allowable loss of 6dB using a #24 cable and resistance limit of 1200 ohms
a. 7.19 kft B. 13.73 kft
c. 14.63 kft D. 11.76 kft
71. ____ is the type of telephone switch having vertical and horizontal paths, and
electromagnetically operated means for interconnecting any one of the vertical
paths with any of the horizontal paths
A. cross bar B. step by step
C. strowger D. Hybrid
73. Which of the following devices increases the battery voltage on a loop and
extends its signaling range?
A. VF repeater B. VF amplifier
C. Loop extender D. BORSCHT
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-149
75. The 23 B+D Channel used in North American and Japan uses total transmission
capacity of ____ Mbps with overhead
A. 1.536 B. 1.544
C. 2.048 D. 1.920
77. A (an) ___ call attempt is one that cannot be further advanced towards its
destination due to an equipment shortage or failure in the network.
A. lost B. abandoned
C. barred D. terminated
79. ____ is a telephone service which enable to user to dial directly telephones
outside the users local area without the aid of the operator
A. ISDN B. DDD
C. DID D. Bypass
80. The point between the network termination equipment and the terminal
equipment is known as the _____ reference point.
A. R B. U
C. L D. S
82. Terminal equipment which are ISDN compatible are generally referred to as
A. TE1 B. IBP
C. Smart terminals D. Dumb terminals
85. The time period which all channels are sampled once is called
A. slot B. domain
C. cycle D. frame
86. ____ is a voice operated device that inserts a high loss in the opposite direction
of transmission of the talking party.
A. hybrid B. 2 wire circuit
C. VNL D. Echo suppressor
87. _____ is a signal returned to the talker after making one or more round trips
between the talker and the listener
A. singing B. jitter
C. echo D. crosstalk
88. The BRI in ISDN consist of ____ B-channel (S) and D-channel.
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
89. An even faster class of ISDN interface standards presently being developed is
called
A. narrowband ISDN B. broadband ISDN
C. ATM D. Frame relay
90. Current ISDN standards requires ____ twisted pairs for the PRI transmission
A. 3 B. 6
C. 1 D. 2
91. Traffic ____ is the sum of the holding times of the traffic carried by a pool of
resources over a given period of time
A. volume B. transit
C. intensity D. capacity
95. In ISDN, the ___ is a 64 kbps digital channel that can carry a user data or
digitized voice
A. A-channel B. C-channel
C. B-channel D. D-channel
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-151
96. ISDN is defined as the network that provides an end to end ___ to support a
wide range of services including non-voice services
A. transparency B. switching
C. connectivity D. interfacing
97. The international body which issues recommendations for standards relating to
telecommunications is the
A. IEEE B. ETSI
C. CCIR D. CCITT
98. The multiplexer and demultiplexer are kept in step with one another by a (an)
A. clock B. header
C. sync pulse D. sequencer
101. The standard word size in a PCM audio system is ___ bits
A. 16 B. 8
C. 32 D. 64
105. The ISDN network equipment which are installed in the customer premises is
called the ___ equipment
A. terminal B. DTE
C. Adapter D. Server
109. For every button pressed on the touch tone telephone, how many signals are
transmitted to the CO?
A. Two VHF signals
B. Two audio frequency tones
C. One VHF signal and one audio frequency tone
D. Three audible tones
110. The physical connection between the telephone set at the switching
equipment is called the
A. trunk line B. link
C. subscriber loop D. leased line
111. The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring in the same
facility but not the same time
A. FDM B. TDM
C. WDM D. CDM
112. The BRI requires ___ kbps of digital transmission capacity without overhead
A. 64 B. 144
C. 128 D. 192
114. The PRI in ISDN consist of 23 or 30B-for user data and a single ___ kbps
D-channel for signaling
A. 16 B. 23
C. 32 D. 64
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-153
115. What is the traffic model about block calls cleared condition specified
blocking probability?
A. Erlang B B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D D. Poisson
117. ______ is the operation of the switch selector in searching terminals until an-
idle one is found
A. hunting B. insulation effective
C. elective D. loop
123. _______ is a trunk between two central offices in the same switching center
complex.
A. intraoffice B. foreign exchange
C. intertoll D. ileline
125. Which the following is commonly used in wire for subscribers loop design?
A. AWG #18 B. AWG #30
C. AWG #33 D. AWG #19
127. _______ is the uninterrupted of 60 minutes for which the average intensity
of traffic is at the maximum
A. maximum access time B. busy hour
C. maximum occupancy D. peak traffic
128. _______ is the probability of the call being blocked during the busy hour
because of insufficient equipment or trunks
A. contention B. grade of service
C. Poisson distribution D. Lockout
129. Presently, this is the standard frequency bandwidth for voice transmission
A. 300 to 3400 Hz B. 0 to 4000 Hz
C. 100 to 3400 Hz D. 300 to 3000 Hz
137. The corresponding frequency for the digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is
A. 770 and 1477 Hz B. 852 and 1209 Hz
C. 852 and 1336 Hz D. 770 and 1336 Hz
139. The standard audio sampling rate in a PCM telephone system is ____ kHz
A. 2 B. 4
C. 8 D. 16
140. When human voice and music are transmitted, the type of communications
employed is known as
A. radio telegraphy B. radio telephony
C. audio frequency D. wired radio
141. When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel
A. echo B. party line
C. crosstalk D. cross link
142. The circuit connecting a subscriber station with the line terminating
equipment in a central office is called
A. local loop B. tie line
C. trunk D. subscriber drop
144. In an ISDN network, the _____ blank provides only OSI layer functions
including the electrical and physical termination of the network on the customer
premises
A. NT2 B. TE1
C. NT1 D. TE2
146. The 1948 theorem which is the basis for understanding the relationship of
channel capacity, bandwidth, signal-to-noise ratio is known as
A. Reeve's Law B. Shannon's Law
C. Nyquist Law D. Hartley Law
147. What appears to be the practical limit for analog modems over the standard
telephone network?
A. 19.2 kbps B. 24 kbps
C. 33 kbps D. 28.8 kbps
150. What is the source of limitation on the bandwidth of the public switched
network?
A. local loop B. subscriber line
C. telset D. the core network
153. The correct order of fax call phases is which of the following?
A. call setup, pre-image handshake, line testing sequence, image
transmission
B. call setup, line testing sequence, pre-image handshake, image
transmission
C. line testing sequence, call setup, pre-image handshake, image
transmission
D. pre-image handshake, line testing sequence, call setup, image
transmission
154. A gigahertz-based coax line is capable of delivering how many times more
bandwidth than copper?
A. 2 B. 50
C. 1,000 D. 10,000
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-157
160. Which telephone line impairment is a change in signal amplitude for a short
time duration?
A. white noise B. interference
C. harmonic distortion D. gain hit
167. What is the purpose of using alternate mark inversion and return to zero
encoding of data?
A. faster digital data transmission
B. assist in clock recovery
C. more efficient transmission of analog data
D. reduced susceptibility to noise
168. How many channels are used to make up a group level channel in frequency
division multiplexing?
A. 600 B. 60
C. 300 D. 12
169. ISDN is
A. a transport type protocol that uses the plain old telephone system
B. a data link protocol that uses HDLC as a basis
C. an integrated syntax network
D. digital interface system
174. What TELCO parameter limits the type of modem that can be used with a
given data rate?
A. bandwidth B. attenuation
C. line impedance D. noise
175. Which of these is NOT a currently used method of multiplexing data channels
onto a single transmission medium?
A. time division multiplexing
B. code division multiplexing
C. wave division multiplexing
D. encrypted division multiplexing
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-159
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1843 Scottish physicist Alexander Bain patented the first facsimile device.
The device generated electrical impulses by passing a metal rod over a
page that contained raised metal letters.
A. .SCANNING MECHANISM.
ELECTRONIC SCANNING
The document is floodlit and the
entire image is optically focused
on a photosensitive surface or
photocell array. Scanning is
controlled electronically and the
source and sensor remain fixed in
position.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-161
B. .FACSIMILE RECEIVER.
1. Synchronization
It is necessary for the receiver scanner and the transmitter scanner to
run at exactly the same speed. If the receiver runs at slightly faster
speed than the transmitter, then each scan line will overlap into the
following scan line and delay its start, causing the image to skew
diagonally to the right.
2. Phasing
If the receiver and transmitter are in synchronism, but the receiver
starts a new line either too early or too late, the image will wrap
around.
C. .INDEX OF COOPERATION.
The width to height ratio of the document reproduced at the receiver must
be the same as that of the originating document if distortion is to be
avoided. The IOC is a number derived from width-to-height ratio for
proper image reproduction.
1. IEEE Standard
In terms of width-to- W
IOC ( IEEE ) = n x
height ratio L
2. CCITT Standard
CCITT developed a slightly different definition of IOC, which is directly
applicable to DRUM scanners.
D
IOC IOC ( CCITT ) =
P
Drum
W = D
Circumference
1
Scan Density S=
P
IOC ( IEEE )
IOC ( CCITT ) =
where:
IOC = index of cooperation
S = scan density or resolution in lines mm
W = widthof the source document or scan stroke length in mm
L = document length in mm
n = total number of lines in document height
D = drum diameter in mm
P = scanning pitch in mm line
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 3-163
Sample Problem:
Calculate the index of cooperation for a facsimile machine with a drum
diameter of 70.4 mm and the scanning pitch of 0.2 mm per scan.
Solution:
For CCITT Standard: For IEEE Standard:
IOC(CCITT ) =
D IOC(IEEE) = IOC(CCITT ) x
P = 352 x
70.4
= = 352 = 1106
0.2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the drum diameter in mm and scan density of a fax transmission
with an IOC (IEEE) equal to 900 received by a drum scanner that uses 8-in
wide paper.
Solution:
For the drum diameter: For the scan density:
W 8 in IOC(IEEE) 900
D= = S= =
W 8 in
2.54 cm 10 mm lines 1 in 1 cm
= 2.546 in x x = 112.5 x x
1 in 1cm in 2.54 cm 10 mm
= 64.67 mm lines
= 4.42
mm
Sample Problem:
Find the IEEE and CCITT IOC for a facsimile drum scanner with an FCC
specification of 18.85 in for line length and 96 lines/in scan density.
Solution:
For IEEE Standard: For CCITT Standard:
IOC(IEEE) = S xW IOC(IEEE)
IOC(CCITT ) =
lines
= 96 x18.85 in
in 1809.6
= = 576
= 1809.6
R PX
Output frequency f=
2
n
Transmission time td =
R PX
Sample Problem:
A certain drum scanner has a pitch of 0.26 mm/line and a diameter of 68.4
mm. The drum rotates at 120 rpm and scans a total of 1075 lines for a
standard document page. Find the # of pixel in a scan line, the scan and
pixel rate, output frequency of the transmission channel and the length of
time required transmitting a page.
Solution:
For the number of pixel in a scan line; For the pixel rate;
D 68.4 RPX = NPX x R S = 826.5 x 2
NPX = =
P 0.26
pixels
pixels = 1653
= 826.5 sec
line
Group Standards
Use analog transmission by FM where
WHITE is 1300 Hz and BLACK is 2100 Hz.
North American equipment uses 1500 Hz for
Group 1 WHITE and 2300 Hz for BLACK.
G1 Or GI
The scanning resolution is 96 lines/inch
Parameter Standards
Frequency 300 Hz
Index of
576
Cooperation
1500 Hz for Black
Modulation
2300 Hz for White
Alternating black and white modulated
Start Signal
at a rate of 300 Hz for a period of 5s.
25 second transmission (95% of each
Phasing Signal
line in BLACK, then 5% of WHITE)
Alternating black and white interrupted
Stop Signal at a rate of 450 Hz for 5 s, then black
transmission for a period of 10 s.
Scan Spot Size 0.26 mm x 0.0104 mm
I H
1. Calculate the pixel rate of a drum scanner that rotates at 120 rpm if the pixel
scan density is 826.5 pixels/line.
A. 1653 pixels/sec B. 3615 pixels/sec
C. 5163 pixels/sec D. 6351 pixels/sec
2. Determine the document transmission time of a 1075 scan lines if the line scan
rate is 2 lines/sec
A. 6.98 minutes B. 9.68 minutes
C. 98.6 minutes D. 8.96 minutes
4. Calculate the drum diameter in mm and scan density of a fax transmission with
an IOC (IEEE) equal to 1024 received by a drum scanner that uses 8-in wide
paper.
A. 64.88 mm, 182 lines/in B. 46.88 mm, 182 lines/in
C. 46.88 mm, 128 lines/in D. 64.88 mm, 128 lines/in
5. Find the IEEE and CCITT IOC for a facsimile drum scanner with an FCC
specification of 14 in for line length and 115 lines/in scan density.
A. 1610, 521.5 B. 1610, 512.5
C. 1160, 512.5 D. 1160, 521.5
Section 14
Pulse Modulation
Section 15
Digital
Communications
Section 16
Data Communications
Computer
Communications
A. .PULSE MODULATION.
Designation: (L3E/P3E)
Designation: (M3E/P3F)
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-3
Vm
t
PULSE CODE MODULATION
1. Band Limiting
The anti-alias or bandpass filter limits the frequency of the input
analog signal to the standard voice frequency band of 0 to 4 kHz. The
purpose is to eliminate any unwanted signal that will result to aliasing
or fold-over distortion at the receiver.
2. Sampling
The act of periodically holding a value (sample) of the continually
changing analog input signals.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-5
3 Types of Sampling
i. Ideal Sampling
3. Quantization
The process of assigning discrete level to a time-varying quantity in
multiples of some fixed unit, at a specified instant or specified
repetition rate.
4. Encoding
The process of converting the quantized discrete-signal (PAM samples)
to parallel PCM codes.
where :
fs 2fm
fm = highest modulating frequency
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-7
Solution:
fs 30 kHz
fs = 2fm fm = = = 15 kHz
2 2
D. .PCM PARAMETERS.
where:
M=2 n M = # of levels, symbols or code words
n = # of PCM bits used (sign bit excluded)
= # of bits per sample
where :
BWPCM = fb = nfs fs = sampling rate in Hz
fb = bit rate in bps
In dB
DR dB = 20 logDR
Solution:
DR dB = 20 log(2n 1) n = 7 (sign bit excluded)
= 20 log(27 1) = 42.076 dB
Vm a x
R e so lu tio n =
2n
Solution:
Vmax 2.55
Resolution = = = 0.0199 0.02 V
2n 27
1 100
SF = %SF =
2n 2n
Sample Problem:
An audio signal with a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and is converted to PCM signal by
sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and by using a uniform quantizer with a scale
factor of 1.5625% and a Vmax of 3V. Determine the number of levels and the
resolution of this quantizer.
Solution:
100
% SF = ;M = 2 n
2n 3
Resolution = = 46 .875 mV
100 64
M = = 64 levels
1 . 5625
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-9
6. Coding Efficiency ()
where :
min
= x100% min = Min # of bits (including the sign bit)
max
max = Actual # of bits (including the sign bit)
Vmin Resolution
Qe = Qe =
2 2
a. In unitless
S 3 2 S 3 2n
= M (2 )
N 2 N 2
b. In dB
S Most
N = 6.02n + 1.76 Used
dB
Sample Problem:
Determine the signal-to-noise ratio in dB, if an audio signal with a bandwidth
of 3.2 kHz is converted to PCM signal by sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and
with a data rate of 64 kbps.
Solution:
fb
fb = n x fs n =
64 kbps
fs S
=
N 2
2( )
3 2n
=
2
2 {
3 (2 x8)
}
= 98,304
n = = 8 bits
8 kHz
S S
= 10 log = 10 log(98,304)
N dB N
= 49.925 dB
Alternate solution: (directly in dB)
S
= 6.02n + 1.76 dB = 6.02(8) + 1.76 dB = 49.92 dB
N dB
a. In unitless
b. In dB
S S
= 6.02n + N = 6.02n + 4.76
N dB dB
Sample Problem:
An audio signal with a passband of 3,200 Hz is converted to PCM signal by
sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and by using a uniform quantizer with 64
steps. Determine the peak SQNR if the probability of error is 10-6.
Solution:
S 3M2 3 x 642
= = = 12,089.87
N 1 + 4(M2 + 1)Pe 1 + 4(642 + 1)106
S S
= 10 log = 10 log(12,089.87) = 40.82 dB
N
dB N
PCM was invented by Alec Reeves and the only digitally encoded
modulation technique that is used for digital transmission.
a. In unitless
b. In dB
S S
= 6.02n + N = 6.02n
N dB dB
Sample Problem:
An audio signal with a passband of 3,200 Hz is converted to PCM signal by
sampling at 8 kilosamples/sec and by using a uniform quantizer with 64
steps. Determine the number of PCM bits needed and the average SQNR if
the probability of error is 10-6.
Solution:
ln 64
M = 2n = 64 n = = 6 bits
ln 2
S M2 642
= = = 4,029.95
N 1 + 4(M2 + 1)Pe 1 + 4(642 + 1)106
S S
= 10 log = 10 log(4,029.95) = 36.05 dB
N
dB N
S
= 6.02n = 6.02(6 ) = 36.12 dB
N dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-13
E. .CODING METHOD.
a. Level-at-a-time coding
This type of coding compares the PAM signal to a ramp waveform
while a binary counter is being advanced at a uniform rate. When the
ramp waveform equals or exceeds the PAM sample, the counter
contains the PCM code.
b. Digit-at-a-time coding
This type of coding determines each digit of the PCM code
sequentially. Digit-at-a-time coding is analogous to a balance where
known reference weights are used to determine an unknown weight.
c. Word-at-a-time coding
Word-at-a-time coders are flash encoders and are more complex;
however, they are more suitable for high-speed applications.
F. .COMPANDING.
1. Analog Companding
Analog compression was implemented in the PCM transmitter prior to
the sample-and-hold circuit. While analog expansion was implemented
with diodes that were placed just after the receiver low-pass filter.
i. -Law Companding
in
out = Vmax ln 1 + ln (1 + )
Vmax
Sample Problem:
What proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced if a positive
input signal is applied to a -law compressor with its voltage three-fourth
the maximum value?
Solution:
in
out = Vo(max) ln1 + ln(1 + )
V
in(max)
in 1
out = Vmax A in (1 + ln A) 0
Vmax Vmax A
1 in
out = Vmax 1 + ln A in (1 + ln A ) 1
Vmax A Vmax
2. Digital Companding
With digital companding, the compression was perform after the input
sample has been converted to a linear PCM code and expansion at the
receive end prior to PCM decoding.
Trade-off of DM
i. Slope overload
Occurs when the input signal changes rapidly and has a large
slope (rate of signal amplitude change per unit time) than the DAC
can maintain.
ADM is a delta modulation system where the step size of the DAC is
automatically varied depending on the amplitude characteristics of the
analog input signal.
I H
1. An analog-to-digital converter has an accuracy of 98%. What is the possible
range of values it will determine when the analog signal value is 4 V?
A. 3.92-4.08 V B. 2.92-5.08 V
C. 1.92-3.08 V D. 2.92-3.08 V
5. Calculate the dynamic range for an ADC that accept a signal that ranges from 0
to 3 V and convert it to digital format with a quantization error of less than 1
mV.
A. 49.5 dB B. 69.5 dB
C. 79.5 dB D. 59.5 dB
10. Two clocks operate nominally at 1 MHz and are initially identical, but one clock
differs from the other by 0.01% over time. After how many bits do the clocks
differ by a full bit period?
A. 10,000 bits B. 100,000 bits
C. 1,000 bits D. 100 bits
12. What is companded output voltage of a compander circuit when the input is 0.5
V, for Vmax=1 V and =100?
A. 0.95 V B. 0.25 V
C. 0.85 V D. 0.15 V
13. Calculate the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM systems using 12-bit
quantizing.
A. 84 dB B. 74 dB
C. 94 dB D. 64 dB
14. Determine the dynamic range for a 10-bit sign-magnitude PCM code.
ECE Board Exam Nov. 2002
A. 74 dB B. 64 dB
C. 44 dB D. 54 dB
20. Calculate the number of levels used in compact disc (CD) audio system.
A. 65,536 B. 16,384
C. 4096 D. 32,768
22. 16-bit quantizing of linear PCM signal result to a dynamic range of _____.
A. 83.45 dB B. 88.2 dB
C. 91.73 dB D. 98.08 dB
23. What is the minimum data rate needed to transmit audio signal with a sampling
rate of 40 kHz and 14 bits per sample?
A. 560 kbps B. 760 kbps
C. 480 kbps D. 280 kbps
26. Calculate the raw data rate of CDs before error correction if the coding is linear
PCM using 44.1 kHz sampling frequency, 16 bits per sample and two stereo
channels.
A. 0.705 Mbps B. 2.81 Mbps
C. 1.41 Mbps D. 2.049 Mbps
27. Suppose an input signal to a -law compressor has a positive voltage and an
amplitude 25% of the maximum possible. Calculate the output voltage as a
percentage of the maximum input.
A. 91.8% B. 75.2%
C. 78.5% D. 83.1%
31. Calculate the number of quantization levels and bit rate if a composite video
signal with a baseband frequency of 4 MHz is transmitted by linear PCM, using
8-bits per sample and a sampling frequency of 10 MHz?
A. 128, 40 Mbps B. 256, 40 Mbps
C. 256, 80 Mbps D. 128, 80 Mbps
32. Two digital clocks differ by 0.3%. After 5 s this is equal to how many bit
difference if the clock and bit rate is 100 kHz?
A. 1667 bits B. 1278 bits
C. 834 bits D. 239 bits
A. .INFORMATION THEORY.
1. Information Measure
The information sent from a digital source when the ith message is
transmitter is given by
1 where :
Ii = logb = logb Pi
Pi Pi = probability of the ith message
N
H= PI
i=0
i i
3. Relative Entropy
The ratio of the entropy of a source to the maximum value the entropy
could take for the same source symbol.
H Hmax = logb N
HR =
Hmax N = total number of symbols
4. Redundancy
r = 1 HR
5. Rate of Information
N
H
R =
T
T = tP
i =1
i i
Sample Problem:
A telephone touch-tone keypad has the digits 0 to 9, plus the * and # keys.
Assume the probability of sending * or # is 0.005 and the probability of
sending 0 to 9 is 0.099 each. If the keys are pressed at a rate of 2 keys/s,
compute the entropy and data rate for this source.
Solution:
1 1
I0 = I1 = I2 = " I9 = log2 I = I# = log2
0.099 0.005
= 3.34 bits = 7.64 bits
m
H= PI
i
i i = P0I0 + P1I1 + P2I2 " P#I#
H bits keys
R = = H x r = 3.38 x2
T key sec
= 6.76 bps
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-21
Sample Problem:
From the given table
Time required
Probability of
Symbol to transmit
Occurrence P(xi)
the symbol xi
x1 0.21 10 s
x2 0.14 15 s
x3 0.09 20 s
x4 0.11 30 s
x5 0.15 25 s
x6 0.18 15 s
x7 0.12 25 s
Solution:
A. Entropy (H)
m
1 1 1
H= PI
i
i i = 0.21 log2 + 0.14 log2
0.21
+ 0.09 log2
0.14
0.09
1 1 1
+ 0.11 log2 + 0.15 log2 + 0.18 log2
0.11 0.15 0.18
1 bits
+ 0.12 log2 = 2.76
0 .12 symbol
B. Relative entropy (HR)
Hmax = log2 N max entropy
bits
= log2 7 = 2.81
symbol
H 2.76
HR = = = 0.98
Hmax 2.81
C. Rate of information
7
T = P t
i=1
x x = 0.21(10) + 0.14(15) + 0.09(20) + 0.11(30)
H 2.76 bits
R = = = 147 kbps
T 18.75 sec
6. Other parameters
Parameter Equation
L min
Coding Efficiency = x 100 %
L
Coding Redundancy =1
1
In the equation Ii = logb
Pi
If b = 2; the unit of information is bits
Sample Problem:
Calculate the coding efficiency in representing the 26 letters of the alphabet
using a binary and decimal system.
Solution:
4.7
A = log2 26 = 4.7 bits 5 bits must be used = x 100% = 94%
5
1.415
A = log10 26 = 1.415 dits 2 dits must be used = x 100% = 71%
2
This proves the fact that binary coding is more efficient than decimal coding.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-23
D. .CHANNEL CLASSIFICATIONS.
1. Lossless Channels
A channel described by a channel matrix with only one non-zero
element in each column.
2. Deterministic Channel
Describe by a channel matrix with only one non-zero element on each
row.
3. Noiseless Channel
A channel which is both lossless and deterministic.
E. .CHANNEL CAPACITY.
C = log 2 N
C 2 = log 2 M
C 3 = log 2 M = log 2 N
1 s
C4 = log 2 1 +
2 N
Note: The units of the previous equation are on per sample basis. Since there are
2BW (Nyquist Sampling Theorem) samples per unit time, the capacity per unit
time can be written as
C = 2BWC 4
S
C = 2BWC 4 = BW log2 1 +
N
6. Shannon-Hartley Theorem
where:
C = channel capacity in bps
N = is the number of input symbols
M = is the number of output symbols
BW = channel bandwidth in Hz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-25
Solution:
From deterministic channel capacity;
C = 2BW log2 M M = 2 for binary signaling
C 10,000
BW = = = 5 kHz
2 2
Solution:
S C
C = BW log2 1 + BW =
N S
log2 1 +
N
20,000
BW = = 2615.54 Hz
log2 (1 + 200 )
Solution:
S 200
C = BW log2 1 + = 2 x 103 log2 1 + = 8.779 kbps
N 10
Sample Problem:
Consider a digital source that converts an analog signal to digital form. If an
input analog signal is sampled at 1.25x the Nyquist rate and each sample is
quantized into one of 256 equally likely levels.
a. What is the information rate of this source?
b. Calculate the min bit error rate of this source if transmitted over an
AWGN channel with a BW=10 kHz and 20 dB S/N ratio.
c. Find the S/N in dB require for error free transmission if the BW=10
kHz
d. Find the BW required for error free transmission if the S/N is 20 dB
Solution:
a. Information rate
bits
H = log2 256 = 8 ; Nyquist Rate = 2fm(max) = 2(4kHz) = 8 kHz
sample
kilosample s
Actual Rate = 1.25 x R NYQUIST = 1.25(8kHz) = 10 kHz = 10
sec
bits 3 samples
Information Rate = H x R actual = 8 10 x 10 = 80 kbps
sample sec
b. Minimum BER
Channel limitation due to noise :
S
C = BW log2 1 + = 10 kHz log2 (1 + 100 ) = 66 .88 kbps
N
BER = R info C = 80 kbps 66 .88 kbps = 13 .12 kbps
It cannot be transmitted without errors
This means to provide an error free transmission the bandwidth must be at least 12.02
kHz or the S/N ratio must be greater than 24.1 dB.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-27
1. Types of Signaling
i. Unipolar signaling
Binary 1 is represented by a high level and binary 0 by a zero
level.
3. Biphase
i. Biphase-Level (Manchester)
1 = Transition from High to Low in middle of interval
0 = Transition from Low to High in middle of interval
ii. Biphase-Mark
Always a transition at beginning of interval
1 = Transition in middle of interval
0 = No transition in middle of interval
iii. Biphase-Space
Always a transition at beginning of interval
1 = No transition in middle of interval
0 = Transition in middle of interval
4. Differential Manchester
1 = No transition in middle of interval
0 = Transition at beginning of interval
So many names
Polar NRZ is also called NRZ-L.
Bipolar NRZ is called NRZ-M.
Negative Logic Bipolar NRZ is called NRZ-S.
Bipolar RZ is also called BPRZ, RZ-AMI, BPRZ-AMI, AMI or simply
bipolar.
Manchester NRZ is also called Manchester code, or Biphase-L, for
biphase with normal logic level.
Biphase-M is used for encoding SMPTE time-code data for
recording on videotapes.
fb
NRZ 2
2
POLAR RZ fb 1
Manchester fb 1
fb
BIPOLAR AMI 2
2
Loading ECE SUPERBook
4-30 DIGITAL communications
One data element per one One data element per two
signal element signal element
where :
# of data element
n=
fb = n x fB # of signal element
fb = bit rate in bps
fB = Baud rate in Baud
Sample Problem:
A signal is carrying data in which 4 data element is encoded as one signal
element. If the bit rate is 100 kbps, what is the average value of the baud
rate?
Solution:
fb 100 kbps
fB = = = 25 kBaud
n 4
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-31
I. .DIGITAL MODULATION.
DIGITAL MODULATION
i. Bandwidth Consideration
BW = 2 (fb + f )
fb where :
fm fs = f = n x
2 n = positive odd integer
Sample Problem:
Calculate the frequency shift (deviation) between mark and space for GSM
cellular radio system that uses Gaussian MSK (GMSK) with a transmission
rate of 270.833 kbps.
Solution:
GMSK is a special case of FSK where n=1
270.833 kbps
fm fs = = 135.4165 kHz
2
Binary Output
Input Phase
Logic 0 180 fN = fb
Logic 1 0
Sample Problem:
Determine the minimum Nyquist bandwidth and the Baud rate for a BPSK
modulator with a carrier frequency of 70 MHz and an input bit rate of 10
Mbps.
Solution:
Nyquist BW Baud Rate
fN = fb = 10 MHz fB = 10 MBaud
M-ary Encoding
M-ary is a term derived from the word binary. M is simply a digit that
represents the number of conditions or combinations possible for a given
number of binary variables.
N M
1 2
N = log 2 M 2 4
3 8
4 16
5 32
where :
N = # of bits per symbol
M = # of output conditions or symbols possible w/ N bits
Sample Problem:
How many bits are needed to address 256 different level combinations?.
Solution:
log10 256
N = log2M = log2 256 = = 8 bits
log10 2
Sample Problem:
Calculate the minimum double-sided Nyquist BW and the Baud for a QPSK
modulator with an input data rate equal to 40 Mbps and a carrier frequency
of 110 MHz.
Solution:
Nyquist BW (QPSK) Baud R ate
fb 40 Mbps fb 40 Mbps
fN = = Baud = =
2 2 2 2
= 20 MHz = 20 MBaud
Sample Problem:
Calculate the minimum double-sided Nyquist BW and the Baud for a 8-PSK
modulator with an input data rate equal to 25 Mbps and a carrier frequency
of 45 MHz.
Solution:
Nyquist BW (8 - PSK) Baud Rate
f 25 Mbps fb 25 Mbps
fN = b = fB = =
3 3 3 3
= 8.33 MHz = 8.33 MBaud
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-39
VCcos t VCcos t
0100 0011 0100 0011
0101 0010 0101 0010
0110 0001 0110 0001
0111
- 0000 0111
- 0000
VCsin VCsin t VCsin VCsin t
t t
1000 1111 1000 1111
0 0 0 0 11.25 1 0 0 0 191.25
0 0 0 1 33.75 1 0 0 1 213.75
0 0 1 0 56.25 1 0 1 0 236.25
0 0 1 1 78.75 1 0 1 1 258.75
0 1 0 0 101.25 1 1 0 0 281.25
0 1 0 1 123.75 1 1 0 1 303.75
0 1 1 0 146.25 1 1 1 0 326.25
0 1 1 1 168.75 1 1 1 1 348.75
fb
fN =
3
In terms of Channel C
capacity & Bandwidth
=
BW
In terms of Signal to S
= log 1 +
Noise ratio N
In terms of Bit Rate fb f
and Nyquist BW = = b
(Baud Rate) fB BW
Sample Problem:
Determine the bandwidth efficiency for the following modulation scheme
a. BPSK, fb=15 Mbps
b. QPSK, fb=20 Mbps
c. 8-PSK, fb=28 Mbps
d. 8-QAM, fb=30 Mbps
e. 16-PSK, fb=40 Mbps
f. 16-QAM, fb=42 Mbps
Solution:
a. BPSK b. QPSK
f 15 Mbps bps fb 2(20 Mbps) bps
= b = =1 = = =2
BW 15MHz Hz BW 20MHz Hz
c. 8PSK d. 8QAM
f 3(28 Mbps) bps fb 3(30 Mbps) bps
= b = =3 = = =3
BW 28MHz Hz BW 30MHz Hz
e. 16PSK f.16QAM
f 4(40 Mbps) bps fb 4(42 Mbps) bps
= b = =4 = = =4
BW 40MHz Hz BW 42MHz Hz
where :
Eb = Energy per bit in J
bps
N 0 = Noise density in W
Hz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the probability of error for a non-coherent FSK system if the
carrier power is 10-13 W, bit rate of 30 kbps, BW of 60 kHz and noise power
of 10-14 W.
Solution:
Po 1013 W attoJoules N 10 14 W Watt
Eb = = = 3.3 NO = = = 166.67 x 10-21
fb 30 kbps bit BW 60 kHz Hz
E 3.3 x 10 18
b 0.5
N 166.67 x 10 21
Pe = 0.5e O = 0.5e = 2.51 x 105
This probability of error means that 25 bits will be expected to be corrupted (in error) for
every 1 million bits transmitted.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-43
L. .ERROR DETECTIONS.
1. Redundancy
Redundancy involves transmitting each character twice. If the same
character is not received twice in succession, a transmission error has
occurred.
2. Echoplex
Echoplex involves the receiving device echoing the received data back
to the transmitting device. The transmitting operator can view the
data, as received and echoed, making corrections as appropriate.
3. Exact-count encoding
The number of 1s in each character is the same and therefore a simple
count of number of 1s received in each character can determine if a
transmission error has occurred.
4. Parity Checking
Parity checking is by far the most commonly used method for error
detection and correction, as it is used in asynchronous devices such as
PCs. Parity involves the transmitting terminals appending one or more
parity bits to the data set in order to create odd parity or even parity.
Name Used In
CRC-16 Bisync
M. .ERROR CORRECTIONS.
1. Symbol substitution
With symbol substitution, if a character is received in error, rather
than revert to a high level of error correction or display the incorrect
character.
2. Retransmission (ARQ)
Retransmission, as the name implies, is resending a message when it
is received in error and the receive terminal automatically calls for
retransmission of the entire message.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-45
Hamming Distance
The number of bit position in which two codeword differs is called
Hamming distance.
Solution:
Number of Hamming bits
2n m + n + 1
For n = 6
26 = 64 ; m + n + 1 = 128 + 6 + 1 ; 64 < 135
For n = 7
27 = 128 ; m + n + 1 = 128 + 7 + 1;128 < 136
For n = 8
28 = 256 ; m + n + 1 = 128 + 8 + 1 ;256 > 138 (satisfied)
Sample Problem:
Calculate the Hamming distance to detect and correct 3 single-bit errors that
occurred during transmission. Also compute for the number of Hamming
bits for a 23 bit data string.
Solution:
Required Hamming distance for error detection
Hd = d + 1 = 3 + 1
=4
Required Hamming distance for error correction
Hd = 2d + 1 = (2 x 3 ) + 1
=7
Number of Hamming bits
2n m + n + 1
For n = 4
24 = 16 ; m + n + 1 = 23 + 4 + 1 ; 16 < 28
For n = 5
25 = 32 ; m + n + 1 = 23 + 5 + 1 ; 32 > 29
n=5
Hamming codes can only correct single bit errors. However there is a
trick that can be used to permit Hamming codes to correct burst
errors.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-47
I H
1. If a symbol is selected from a group of 200 xs and 50 ys. Find the probability
if a) any of the x is transmitted b) any of the y is transmitted.
A. P(x)=0.7, P(y)=0.3 B. P(x)=0.8, P(y)=0.2
C. P(x)=0.3, P(y)=0.7 D. P(x)=0.2, P(y)=0.8
2. A TV picture frame contains 211,000 elements and each element may take on 8
possible equiprobable brightness levels. Find the info content of each element
and for the whole frame.
A. 7 bits/element, 833 kbits/frame
B. 6 bits/element, 433 kbits/frame
C. 5 bits/element, 333 kbits/frame
D. 3 bits/element, 633 kbits/frame
3. Calculate the maximum data rate without error for a telephone system with a
bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and a signal-to-noise ratio if 30 dB, also compute the
number of corrupted bits per second if 64 level encoding will be used.
A. 31.895 kbps, 3.2 kbits will be corrupted per second
B. 38.4 kbps, 6.505 kbits will be corrupted per second
C. 31.895 kbps, 6.505 kbits will be corrupted per second
D. 38.4 kbps, 3.2 kbits will be corrupted per second
4. Calculate the Baud and the bit rate for a 64-level modulator that transmit
symbols 12,000 times per second
A. 12 kBaud, 72 kbps B. 12 kBaud, 62 kbps
C. 6 kBaud, 64 kbps D. 6 kBaud, 72 kbps
5. Determine the channel data rate for the North American digital cellular system
that transmit 24.3 kBaud using DQPSK.
A. 72.9 kbps B. 97.2 kbps
C. 12.15 kbps D. 48.6 kbps
6. For a BPSK modulation with a carrier frequency of 80 MHz and an input bit rate
of 10 Mbps, determine the minimum Nyquist BW. NOV 2002
A. 1 MHz B. 5 MHz
C. 10 MHz D. 2.5 MHz
8. Calculate the spectral efficiency of an Audio FSK (FSK) that transmits 1200
kbps using an FM signal modulated by tones of 1200 Hz and 2200 Hz, with a 5
kHz frequency deviation.
A. 1.37 bps/Hz B. 12.45 bps/Hz
C. 0.083 bps/Hz D. 8.3 bps/Hz
9. A telephone modem uses QAM modulation with four possible phase angles and
2 amplitude levels. Calculate the maximum data rate that could be sent using
this modem in a voice telephone channel. (assume 3.2 kHz bandwidth)
A. 51.2 kbps B. 19.2 kbps
C. 25.6 kbps D. 12.8 kbps
10. 5 Hamming bits are required for a data block containing ____ bits.
A. 26 B. 31
C. 21 D. 28
11. Calculate the expected number of error bits for a digital transmission that has
an error probability of 10-6 and is 109 bits long.
A. 100 bits B. 1000 bits
C. 10 bits D. 1 bits
12. 7 error bits out of 5.7 million total bits is equal to ____ error probability.
A. 6.81 x 10-6 B. 9.56 x 10-6
-6
C. 4.74 x 10 D. 1.23 x 10-6
13. Determine the number of bits required and the coding efficiency in encoding a
system of 50 equiprobable events with a binary code.
A. 4 bits, 74 % B. 6 bits, 94 %
C. 5 bits, 84 % D. 2 bits, 87.8 %
14. What is the channel capacity for a signal power of 200 W, noise power of 10 W
and a bandwidth of 2 kHz of a digital system? April 2003
A. 8.779 kbps B. 9.128 kbps
C. 4.751 kbps D. 6.143 kbps
15. Calculate the coding efficiency and redundancy of a discrete system with 105
equiprobable symbols.
A. 93.9%, 6.1% B. 98.9%, 1.1%
C. 95.9%, 4.1% D. 97.9%, 2.1%
16. 5.54 nats of information is equal to how many bits and Hartley respectively
A. 4 bits, 4.4 Hartley B. 6 bits, 1.4 Hartley
C. 2 bits, 2 Hartley D. 8 bits, 2.4 Hartley
18. A unipolar NRZ line code is converted to a multiple level signal for transmission
over a channel. The number of possible values in the multilevel signal is 32,
and the signal consists of rectangular pulses that have a pulse width of
0.3472ms. What is the equivalent bit rate for the multilevel signal?
A. 28.8 kbps B. 56 kbps
C. 7.2 kbps D. 14.4 kbps
19. For quarternary phase shift keying (QPSK) modulation, data with a carrier
frequency of 70 MHz, and an input bit rate of 10 Mbps, determine the minimum
Nyquist BW. ECE Board Nov 2002
A. 1 MHz B. 5 MHz
C. 10 MHz D. 2.5 MHz
21. Calculate the approximate bit rate of a communication system with a minimum
Nyquist bandwidth of 5 kHz and using Manchester encoding technique.
A. 5 kbps B. 20 kbps
C. 10 kbps D. 2.5 kbps
22. How many bits are needed to address 256 different level combinations?
A. 5 bits B. 8 bits
C. 6 bits D. 7 bits
23. An asynchronous communications system uses ASCII at 9600 bps with eight
bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express the data rate in
words per minute. (Assume a word has 5 characters or letters and one space)
April 2003
A. 96 wpm B. 960 wpm
C. 9600 wpm D. 96000 wpm
24. Calculate the phase separation of two adjacent bits constellation in a 16 PSK
system?
A. 11.25 B. 5.625
C. 22.5 D. 45
25. 45 maximum phase shift of two adjacent bits combination is possible in ____
system.
A. BPSK B. QPSK
C. 16 PSK D. 8-PSK
26. 300 Baud is equivalent to what effective bit rate if bits are represented by a
single voltage that can have one of 16 distinct values?
A. 4.8kbps B. 1.2 kbps
C. 9.6 kbps D. 2.4 kbps
27. A BER tester sends bits at 2000 Baud for 10s. There are a total of 50 errors.
What is the BER?
A. 2.5x10-3 B. 25x10-3
C. 12.5x10-3 D. 21.5x10-3
28. Using 200 bit/frame at 200 Baud and 10 s of transmission time, what is the
percentage of error-free frames when there are 500 errors spread evenly
through the 10-s period?
A. 50% (1 every 2 frames are corrupted)
B. 0% (all frames are corrupted)
C. 25% (1 every 4l frames are corrupted)
D. 10% (1 every 10 frames are corrupted)
29. Consider a system that sends data in frames of 100 bits, including preamble,
message, and CRC bits, and each frame takes 0.5 s. Calculate the BER,
percentage of frames with error when 1000 frames are sent.
A. 25x10-3, 25% B. 2.5x10-3, 25%
C. 2.5x10-3, 50% D. 2.5x10-3, 50%
30. What are the percentage error-free frames when there are 500 errors that
occurs at the average rate of 100 errors/sec for the first 5 sec?
A. 40% (1st 4 frames has errors, while the next 6 has none)
B. 20% (1st 2 frames has errors, while the next 8 has none)
C. 50% (1st 5 frames has errors, while the next 5 has none)
D. 80% (1st 8 frames has errors, while the next 2 has none)
31. Calculate the number of Hamming bits required for a 16-bit data string
A. 5 B. 3
C. 4 D. 2
32. What is the information content for binary 0 in a certain binary transmission
system if the probability of binary 1 being transmitted is 0.6
A. 1.32 binits B. 3.2 binits
C. 2.13 binits D. 13.2 binits
33. Calculate the Hamming distance to detect and correct 2 single-bit errors that
occurred during transmission.
A. 4, 7 B. 5, 7
C. 3, 5 D. 2, 4
34. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
A. noisy B. noiseless
C. bandpass D. low-pass
36. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
A. amplitude and frequency B. amplitude and phase angle
C. frequency and phase angle D. I-bits and Q-bits
37. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
A. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK B. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK
C. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK D. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-51
39. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A. bandwidth-period B. frequency-amplitude
C. bandwidth-delay D. delay-amplitude
41. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its
own wire.
A. Parallel B. Asynchronous serial
C. Synchronous serial D. A and B
42. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.
A. Block B. Line
C. NRZ D. Manchester
43. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8
phase angles and 2 amplitude levels?
A. 8 B. 32
C. 16 D. 10
45. Which encoding technique attempts to solve the loss of synchronization due to
long strings of 0s?
A. NRZ B. BnZS
C. AMI D. Manchester
46. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit
BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the
efficiency of the communication system.
A. 80% B. 67.5%
C. 85.12% D. 97.0%
48. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop
bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
A. 33.3% B. 83.4%
C. 66.7% D. 16.67%
49. One factor in the accuracy of a reconstructed PCM signal is the _______.
A. Number of bits used for quantization
B. Signal bandwidth
C. Carrier frequency
D. Baud rate
51. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?
A. 64 B. 32
C. 56 D. 6
55. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the
highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to
the Nyquist theorem?
A. 500 samples/s B. 1000 samples/s
C. 200 samples/s D. 1200 samples/s
65. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal
directly to the channel.
A. low-pass B. bandpass
C. low rate D. high rate
67. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes
(8 bits), what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each
bit in a frame is 1 msec long?
A. 5 seconds B. 0.1 second
C. 10 seconds D. 1 second
68. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the
lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A. frequency B. period
C. bandwidth D. amplitude
69. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical
maximum bit rate.
A. noisy B. noiseless
C. bandpass D. low-pass
74. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per
second with 16 possible states per symbol.
A. 500 B. 4000
C. 250 D. 16000
78. An 8-PSK system has an incoming data stream at 2400 bps. What is the
symbol rate of the transmitter?
A. 2400 sps B. 600 sps
C. 800 sps D. 1200 sps
79. How many different symbols are available from an 8-PSK transmitter?
A. 3 B. 4
C. 8 D. 16
80. How many bits are needed to address all the different symbols available in a
64-QAM transmitter?
A. 4 B. 5
C. 32 D. 64
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-55
A. .STANDARDS ORGANIZATIONS.
B. .NETWORK STANDARDS .
C. .DATA TRANSMISSION.
1. Serial Transmission
Bits are transmitted one after another. This type of transmission is
often called serial-by-bit.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-57
2. Parallel Transmission
Bits are transmitted all at once. This type of transmission is called
parallel-by-bit or serial-by-character.
1. Morse Code
Morse code is one of the first character code developed. Morse code
was design with telegraph operator in mind. The character use the
most frequently needs the fewest dots and dashes for transmission.
2. Baudot Code
Baudot code addressed the shortcomings of Morse code by using 5 bits
to represent information subsequently known as International
Telegraph Alphabet (ITA) #2.
F. .TRANSMISSION METHODS.
1. Asynchronous
Asynchronous or character-framed transmission is a start-stop method
of transmission in which each computer value (letter, number, or
control character) is preceded by a start bit, succeeded by a stop bit,
which advises the receiving terminal that the transmission of that set
of information is ended.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-59
2. Synchronous
Synchronous or message-framed transmission is used for high-speed
data communications applications where a relatively large set of data
is framed or blocked, with one or more synchronization bits or bit
patterns being used to synchronize the receiving terminal on the rate
of transmission.
3. Isochronous
Isochronous (Isoc) data is synchronous data transmitted without a
clocking source. Bits are sent continuously, with no start-stop bits for
timing. Rather, timing is recovered from transitions in the data
stream, with a whole number of bit-length intervals between
characters.
4. Pleisiochronous
Pleisiochronous communications involves careful synchronization of
transmission systems of varying levels of bandwidth through the use
of highly accurate clocking devices. The preferred approach involves a
master clocking source such as a cesium clock.
Isochronous comes from the Greek word isochronos, meaning all bits
are of equal importance and are anticipated to occur at regular
intervals of time.
G. .SYNCHRONIZATION.
1. Serial Interface
i. RS 232-C
RS 232-C (EIA Recommended Standard) defines exactly how ones
and zeroes are to be electronically transmitted, including voltage
levels needed as well as the other electronic signals necessary for
computer communication.
ii. RS 449
The RS-449 interface uses a 37-pin connector that provides more
functions, faster data transmission, and greater distance
capabilities but never embraced by the industry.
iii. RS-530
The RS-530 interface standard is intended to operate at data rates
from 20 kbps to 2 Mbps using the same 25-pin DB-25 connector
used by the RS-232.
V.24 is known in the U.S. as RS 232, which defines only the functional
characteristic of the interface while its electrical characteristic is
defined in V.28 standards.
2. Parallel Interface
i. Centronics Parallel Interface
The Centronics parallel interface became the de facto standard and,
today, is the most common interface used for interfacing personal
computers to printers and other peripheral devices.
I. .DATA FORMAT.
1. Header
A communications header precedes the data to be transmitted,
establishing the fact that the transmission link exists both physically
and logically. It also provides for synchronization between the devices
and the link, and enables the receiving device to route the data
correctly.
2. Text
The text portion of the data set is the information to be
communicated. It may contain a fixed or a variable amount of
information organized into packets, blocks, frames, or cells.
3. Trailer
The trailer, tail or trace portion of the data set contains information
relative to the analysis of the message, including message tracking
and diagnostics. Trailing the text, the trailer information may contain
the originating ID, the data block number, and total number of blocks
being transmitted, and identification of system processing points
involved in the transmission.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-63
J. .NETWORK PROTOCOLS.
Protocol
Protocol is a set of rules governing the orderly exchange of data within the
network.
K. .NETWORK ARCHITECTURE.
i. Physical Layer
The lowest layer of the OSI Reference Model is the physical layer.
This layer is responsible for the mechanical, electrical, functional,
and procedural mechanism required for the transmission of data.
Ex. RS-232C
Unit of information: BITS
The physical layer is responsible for movements of individual bits from one
hop (node) to the next.
The data link layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to
the next.
The network layer is responsible for the delivery of individual packets from
the source host to the destination host.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-65
The transport layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one
process to another.
v. Session Layer
The session layer represents the first of three upper layers of the
OSI model. This layer is responsible for establishing and
terminating data streams between network nodes.
iv. Terminal Node - The terminal node is concerned with the input and
output information through terminal devices.
Loading ECE SUPERBook
4-66 DATA COMMUNICATIONS
3. DECNETs DNA
A DECNET is just a collection of computer (nodes) whose functions
include running user programs, performing packet switching or both.
The architecture of DECNET is called Digital Network Architecture
L. .DATA SWITCHING.
1. Circuit Switching
In the classic sense, circuit switching provides continuous and
exclusive access between physical circuits for the duration of the
conversation.
2. Packet Switching
First deployed in 1971, packet switching involves the transmission of
data in packets of fixed length across a shared network. Each packet is
individually addressed, in order that the packet switches can route
each packet over the most appropriate and available circuit.
5. Photonic Switching
Still in development, photonic switching are yet another dimension in
the evolution of switch technology. Capable of supporting circuit-
packet- frame- and cell switching, photonic switches will eliminate the
requirement for optoelectric conversion when connected to a fiber
optic transmission system.
1. LANs defined
A LAN is a form of local (limited-distance), shared packet network for
computer communications. LANs interconnect computers and
peripherals over a common medium in order that users might share
access to host computers, databases, files, applications, and
peripherals.
Controlled Access
Access
Advantages Disadvantages
Method
Polling Guaranteed access Inefficient use of network
Fast in low traffic Slow in high traffic
Contention No access guarantee
Inexpensive
No priority mechanism
i. Coaxial Cable
UTP
10Base5
10Base2
10BaseT
100-Base T LAN
100-Base F LAN
The initial version, 802.15.1, was adapted from the Bluetooth specification
and is fully compatible with Bluetooth 1.1.
N. .NETWORK TOPOLOGY.
1. Bus
Bus topologies are multipoint electrical circuits, which can be
implemented using coax, UTP, or STP. Bus networks employ a
decentralized method of media access control known as CSMA (Carrier
Sense Multiple Access) that allows the attached devices to make
independent decisions relative to media access and initiation of
transmission.
2. Star
Star network consist of a central node, hub, or switch, to which all
other devices are attached directly, generally via UTP or STP.
3. Ring
Rings generally are coax or fiber (FDDI) in nature, operating at raw
transmission rates of 4, 16, 20 or 100+ Mbps. Information travels
around the ring in only one direction, with each attached station or
node serving as a repeater. Token-Passing Ring, IBM Token Ring, and
FDDI all are based on ring topologies.
O. .NETWORKING DEVICES.
1. Bridges
Bridges are relatively simple devices that are used to connect LANs of
the same architecture (Ethernet-to-Ethernet). Bridges operate at the
bottom two layers of the OSI model, providing Physical Layer and Data
Link Layer connectivity.
3. Routers
Routers are highly intelligent devices that support connectivity
between both like and disparate LANs.
4. Gateways
Gateways are at the top of the LAN food chain. Gateway routers
perform all of the functions of bridges and routers, including protocol
conversion at all seven layers of the OSI Reference Model.
P. .INTERNETWORKING.
1. Network Domains
The Internet is divided logically into domains. Under the terms of IPv4
(Internet Protocol version 4), these are identified as a 32-bit portion of
the total address. Addresses follow a standard convention, which is
similar to user@organization.domain
3. Home Page
Home Page is multimedia informational document that may contain
graphics, animated graphics, video clips, and audio clips, as well as
text.
5. Telnet
Telnet is designed to enable client to access a remote computer as
though the client were a terminal directly connected to the remote
computer
Tabulated below are the most common port numbers of different TCP/IP
family applications.
R. .TCP/IP ENCAPSULATION.
S. .IP ADDRESSING.
1. IP address
A 32 bit number that identify Internet hosts. These numbers are place
in the IP packet header and are used to route packets to their
destination.
i. Prefix-based addressing
A basic concept of IP addressing is that initial prefixes of the IP
address can be used for generalized routing decision. For
example, the 1st 16 bits of an address might identify a company
and the remaining bits identify a particular host on that network.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-83
2. Types of IP address
i. Class A
ii. Class B
iii. Class C
iv. Class D
v. CLASS E
1. E-mail
E-mail clearly is the most popular application. More than one billion
e-mail messages of over one trillion bytes (1TB) transverse the
Internet each month. It is estimated that over 400 million people used
e-mail by the year 2004.
2. File Transfer
File transfer is accomplished through the File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
Through any of over 8,000 FTP servers, any of the thousands of Net
servers and their resident file resources be accessed and transferred in
ASCII or binary code from the server to the users computer
4. Library Catalogs
Library catalogs for over 300 libraries are available through the
Internet. Such catalogs include the U.S. Library of Congress, the
Research Libraries Information Network and many major colleges and
universities.
5. Realtime Applications
Realtime applications include collaborative design and development,
interactive role-playing, interactive remote education, chat lines
(realtime BBSs), voice and video conferencing, network games,
gambling, and radio and video broadcasting (cybercasts).
6. Online Banking
Online banking has received a good deal of interest as a result of the
failed acquisition talks between Microsoft and Intuit. While security
issues abound, there is little doubt that this application has great
promise.
U. .MODEM STANDARDS.
1. Bell Modems
TX No. of Modulatio
Standard Baud Rate Bit Rate
Mode Wire n
Bell 103 FDX 300 baud 300 bps 2-wire FSK
Bell 202 HDX 1200 baud 1200 bps 2-wire FSK
Bell 212 FDX 600 baud 1200 bps 2-wire 4-PSK
Bell 201 HDX/FDX 1200 baud 2400 bps 2/4wire 4-PSK
Bell 208 FDX 1600 baud 4800 bps 4-wire 8-PSK
Bell 209 FDX 2400 baud 9600 bps 4-wire 16-QAM
2. ITU-T Modems
TX Baud No. of
Standard Bit Rate Modulation
Mode Rate Wire
1200 to 4-DPSK/16-
V.22 bis FDX 600 baud 2-wire
2400 bps QAM
V.32 FDX 2400 baud 9600 bps 2-wire 32-QAM (trellis)
I H
1. When conversing with an individual whose primary language is different from
yours, you many need to repeat your words and speak slower. Repeating your
words can be compared to _____ and the need to speak slowly can be
compared to the _____ functions of the transport layer.
A. Flow Control and Reliability
B. Flow Control and Transport
C. Reliability and Flow Control
D. Transport and Acknowledgement
2. When you mail an unregistered package through the standard mail system you
make an assumption that the person to which it is addressed receives it. This is
analogous to which protocol?
A. IPX B. IP
C. TCP D. UDP
3. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between
two end systems where routing occurs?
A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer D. Transport Layer
4. A file transfer protocol that works over phone lines and is known for its high
accuracy and slower speed?
A. Veronica B. HTTP
C. Kerberos D. Kermit
6. A text and graphics formatting software that uses a coding to indicate how a
received part of a document should be presented by a viewing application such
as an internet web browser?
A. HTML B. SMTP
C. WWW D. FTP
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-87
8. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network communication
between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the establishment,
maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and
recovery, and information flow control?
A. Network Layer B. Transport Layer
C. Data Link Layer D. Physical Layer
9. Which of the following best describes the function of the presentation layer?
A. Responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes
B. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems
C. Concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax.
D. Manages data exchange between layer entities
11. Which of the following UTP cables types is rated for 100 Mbps transmission?
A. CAT 3 B. CAT 4
C. CAT 2 D. CAT 5
14. Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary
digits as space/mark line conditions and voltage levels?
A. V.1 B. V.2
C. V.4 D. V.5
15. The SMTP uses _____ protocol to deliver network management information.
A. OSPF B. UDP
C. TCP D. RIP
17. What functions are the data link layer concerned with?
A. Physical addressing, network topology, and media access.
B. Synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on
procedures for error recovery and control of data integrity.
C. Manages data exchange between presentation layer entities
D. Provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination
of virtual circuits, transport fault detection, recovery, and information flow
control.
19. Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for identifying communications
partners?
A. Application B. Network
C. Presentation D. Session
22. Which of these hardware devices can be used to boost broadband signal
strength on a cable run?
A. Multiplexer B. Amplifier
C. Repeater D. TDR
23. In a peer to peer network, which of the following may acts as both a client and
a server?
A. A dedicated server B. A peer computer
C. A dedicated workstation D. A standalone computer
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-89
24. What type of protocol is used in the selective calling system for Bells System?
A. Synchronous Data Protocol B. Asynchronous Link Protocol
C. Asynchronous Data Protocol D. Synchronous Link Protocol
26. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A. Secondary B. Multipoint
C. Point-to-point D. Primary
28. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which
allows diverse systems to communicate.
A. ISO B. ETSI
C. IEEE D. ANSI
29. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of
universally compatible networking protocols.
A. ANSI B. ISO
C. IEEE D. OSI
30. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.
A. user B. network
C. session D. remote
31. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers.
A. user B. network
C. session D. remote
34. The physical layer is concerned with the transmission of _______ over the
physical medium.
A. Bits B. Protocols
C. Packets D. Frames
35. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.
A. Application B. Transport
C. Physical D. Data link
36. As the data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
_______.
A. Rearranged B. Modified
C. Subtracted D. Added
38. In a network with 25 computers, which topology would require the most
extensive cabling?
A. Bus B. Star
C. Mesh D. Ring
40. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
A. Sink B. Protocol
C. Medium D. Signal
41. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in
the communications field?
A. IEEE B. FCC
C. ISO D. ITU-T
43. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of
the _______ of a network.
A. Security B. Feasibility
C. Reliability D. Performance
51. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and
standardize new technologies.
A. Regulatory agencies B. Forums
C. Standards organizations D. ITU
52. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and
electronic signaling specifications?
A. ITU-T B. ISO
C. EIA D. ANSI
53. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a
dedicated link.
A. point-to-point B. multipoint
C. internet D. ethernet
59. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer
4 is read by B's _______ layer.
A. Data link B. Network
C. Session D. Transport
60. Which layer functions as a liaison between user support layers and network
support layers?
A. Transport layer B. Application layer
C. Physical layer D. Network layer
64. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
A. Network B. Physical
C. Transport D. Data link
66. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to
be organized.
A. Kennelly-Heaviside B. ANSI
C. ISO D. OSI
68. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers,
headers are _______.
A. rearranged B. modified
C. removed D. added
69. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the
header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A. transport B. physical
C. presentation D. session
70. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________
layer.
A. transport B. session
C. application D. presentation
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-93
72. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the
_______ address must be consulted.
A. port B. physical
C. IP D. TCP
74. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the
next.
A. physical B. data link
C. network D. transport
75. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer
that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver.
A. physical B. data link
C. network D. transport
76. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one
process to another.
A. physical B. data link
C. network D. transport
80. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a
node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A. logical B. port
C. physical D. hole
81. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network
interface card (NIC).
A. 32-bit B. 6-byte
C. 64-bit D. 32-byte
82. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
_______.
A. Rearranged B. Modified
C. Subtracted D. Added
83. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
A. Application B. Transport
C. Physical D. Data link
84. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.
A. Data link B. Network
C. Session D. Transport
86. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in
which they are presented.
A. Syntax B. Semantics
C. Timing D. Flowchart
87. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is
to be taken based on that interpretation.
A. Syntax B. Semantics
C. Timing D. Flowchart
88. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast
it can be sent.
A. Syntax B. Semantics
C. Timing D. Flowchart
89. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream
over a physical medium.
A. network B. transport
C. data link D. physical
91. Bit synchronization is a topic associated with which of the following layers?
A. Session B. Transport
C. Data Link D. Physical
95. A method that senses the cable prior to transmission, detects collision, and
initiates retransmission is ______.
A. Contention B. Polling
C. CSMA/CD D. Flow control
97. The layer that establishes and maintains the link for transmitting data frames is
___.
A. Session B. Network
C. Data Link-MAC D. Data Link-LLC
98. A message that indicates the reception of a frame is called a(n) ______.
A. Handshake B. Datagram
C. Reply D. Acknowledgement
99. A method that relies upon transmitting and receiving devices to maintain their
own internal clock is_______.
A. synchronous B. bisynchronous
C. Isochronous D. asynchronous
100. The switching technique that connects the sender and the receiver by a
single path for the duration of a conversation called _______.
A. Virtual pocket switching B. Datagram packet switching
C. Circuit switching D. Message switching
102. When several small computers provide the necessary processing task , the
model is called _______.
A. Central computing B. Distributive processing
C. Centralized processing D. Distributed computing
103. When two or more computers accomplish the same processing task, the
model is called _______.
A. Collaborative computing B. Distributed processing
C. Central processing D. Multitasking
105. All networks require the following three elements: network services, a
transmission media, and _____.
A. Wires and connectors B. Communications software
C. Protocols D. Network operating systems
107. A network, which places restrictions upon a station that may make requests
or service the network, is called _____.
A. Server-centric B. User-server
C. Peer-to-peer D. Restricted network
109. The networking device that extends the maximum distance of a network by
connecting separate network segments is called a ______.
A. Modem B. Codec
C. Router D. Bridge
111. A device that combines two or more signals on a single transmission medium
is called a _____.
A. Multiplexer B. Bridge
C. Router D. Codec
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-97
112. The device that connects two or more logically separate networks is a _____.
A. Brouter B. Router
C. Bridge D. Repeater
113. The device that prepares electric pulse signals for transmission on WAN
transmission media is called _____.
A. Modem B. CSU/DSU
C. Codec D. Bridge
114. Which recommendation specifies how messages are stored and forwarded
between disparate devices on a computer internetwork?
A. RS-232 B. X.500
C. X.400 D. ASN.1
117. Which IEEE standard was created to satisfy the LAN needs of industrial
automation?
A. IEEE 802.4 B. IEEE 802.5
C. IEEE 802.6 D. IEEE 802.7
120. What is the maximum number of nodes per segment on a 10BaseT network?
A. 3 B. 1
C. 5 D. 1024
123. In ATM networks all information is formatted into fixed-length cells consisting
of _____ bytes.
A. 48 B. 53
C. 64 D. 144
125. _______ is the transmission of computer files from a single site to many
sites around the country or around the world.
A. File delivery B. FTP
C. Store-and-forward D. SMTP
126. ________ applications involve storing or saving a large file and forwarding or
delivering that file to the intended audience for use at a later time or date.
A. Hold-and-Forward B. Real-time
C. Store-and-forward D. Satellite-based
127. The ______ standard was developed to help minimize congestion when
streaming bandwidth-intensive content over local-area networks (LANs) to the
desktop.
A. Application B. IP multicast
C. Satellite D. LAN
129. Analog signals can be ________ by combining them with a carrier frequency.
A. transported B. carried
C. mixed D. multiplexed
131. Which feature expanded the maximum span of an Ethernet beyond 3 km?
A. Cat-5 unshielded twisted pairs
B. bridge ports supporting full-duplex transmission
C. 100-megabit (fast-Ethernet) transmission
D. high-power lasers
132. The combination of VDSL and _____ delivers the Internet services of today in
an architecture that is capable of supporting tomorrow's applications.
A. ATM B. X.25
C. Frame Relay D. IP
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 4-99
134. How many Hamming bits are inserted into a 100 bit message?
A. 6 B. 7
C. 8 D. 100
135. To correct a character with a bad parity bit, the receiver will
A. invert the parity bit
B. ignore the bad character
C. request that the bad character (and possibly, the rest of the message) be
retransmitted
D. invert the bit that is bad
137. At which OSI level is a standard description of a modem and its specifications
found?
A. physical B. application
C. data link D. network
138. In which OSI model level would be found specifications for virtual routing
throughout a network?
A. application B. network
C. datalink D. session
139. Which of the following encoding types uses the first half of the bit time to
hold the complement of the data and the second half to provide for a clock
transition?
A. non-return to zero mark inverted (NRZ-AMI)
B. Bipolar AMI
C. Manchester
D. return to zero mark inverted (RZ-AMI)
144. A business housed entirely in a single building would use a ______ type
network to interconnect its computers and terminals.
A. MAN B. LAN
C. WAN D. WMAN
145. Which data link protocol is the basis for the Ethernet data link protocol?
A. POP3 B. BISYNC
C. HDLC D. SDLC
149. Which term refers to the process of converting a frame or packet into ATM
cells?
A. reassembly B. adaption
C. segmentation D. mapping
150. Which of these responsibilities does NOT apply to the ATM cell (data link)
level?
A. flow control B. cell multiplexing
C. segmentation and reassembly D. header generation
154. How many consecutive HDLC frames can be sent without an acknowledgment
or response?
A. 128 B. 7
C. 56 D. 1544
155. Which type of infrared connection is used for workstations that are relatively
close to each other?
A. direct connection B. line of sight
C. room roaming D. frequency hopping
158. Which of the following error methods is used for error correction?
A. Checksum B. LRC
C. Parity D. CRC
159. How many bit errors within a single transmission can be corrected by using
the Hamming code for error correction?
A. 2 B. 1 per character
C. 1 D. as many errors as are present
161. Which OSI level is the TCP part of TCP/IP closely related to?
A. presentation B. transport
C. application D. network
166. What is the unit designation for the area managed by a single cellular phone
central office?
A. spot beam B. cluster
C. cell D. sector
170. Which of these is NOT a problem with using symmetric private key
cryptography?
A. brute force attack can be used to uncover key
B. transporting key between users
C. decrypting long messages takes too much time
D. loss or theft of key nullifies security
Section 18
Radio-wave
Propagation
Section 19
Microwave
Engineering
Section 20
Satellite
Communications
Section 21
Cellular
Communication
System
Wireless
Communications
A. .ANTENNA RECIPROCITY.
B. .ANTENNA FUNDAMENTALS.
A complete antenna system consists of three parts:
D. .ANTENNA PARAMETERS.
1. Radiation Pattern
A polar diagram or graph representing
field strengths or power densities at
various angular positions relative to an
antenna.
2. Antenna Polarization
Polarization refers to the orientation of
the electric field vector in space.
i. Near Field
The term near field refers to the field pattern that is close to the
antenna.
A D2
FN = =
2 8
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-3
2D2
FF =
That region of the field of an antenna where the angular field distribution is
essentially independent of the distance from a specified point in the antenna
region.
4. Radiation Resistance
Radiation Resistance is a resistance that, if replaced the antenna,
would dissipate exactly the same amount of power the antenna
radiates.
Antenna Efficiency ()
Prad R rad
= x 100% = x 100%
Pin R rad + R loss
Sample Problem:
Calculate the efficiency of a dipole antenna that has a radiation resistance of
67 and a loss resistance of 5, measured at the feed point.
Solution:
R rad 67
= x 100 % = x 100 % = 93 .05 %
R rad + R loss 67 + 5
5. Antenna Gain
Directive Gain
The ratio of the power density radiated in a particular direction to
the power density radiated to the same point by a reference
antenna.
Pd(dir)
D=
Pd(iso)
Power Gain
The ratio between the amounts of energy propagated in these
directions compared to the energy that would be propagated if the
antenna were not directional is known as its gain.
G = Dx
Sample Problem:
Calculate the gain of a certain antenna relative to a dipole antenna with a
gain of 5.3 dB with respect to an isotropic radiator. Also compute for the
power gain if the antenna has an efficiency of 95%.
Solution:
D dBd = D dBi 2.14 dB G = Dx
= 5.3 2.14 3.16
= 0.95 x log 1( )
= 3.16 dBd 10
= 1.97 = 2.94 dB
G 2
AC =
4
2
Pr = Pd x A c Pr = Pt Gtx Grx
4
In dB
Sample Problem:
Calculate the captured power 10 km away from a half-wave dipole
transmitter with 10 W transmit power for the following antenna at 150 MHz;
a. Hertzian dipole
b. Half-wave dipole
Solution:
a. For Hertzian dipole (Elementary doublet)
Pt G tx 2 G rx 10 (1 . 64 ) 2 2 (1 . 5 )
Pr = 2
x = 2
x = 6.23 nW
4 d 4 4 (10 ,000 ) 4
b. For Half-wave dipole (Hertz antenna)
Pt G tx 2 G rx 10 (1 . 64 ) 2 2 (1 . 64 )
Pr = x = x = 6.81 nW
4 d2 4 4 (10 ,000 )2 4
Unitless Effective
Antenna Types
Gain Area
2
Isotropic 1
4
Elementary 1.52
1.5
Doublet or Loop 4
1.642
Half-Wave Dipole 1.64
4
1.152
Turnstile 1.15
4
Horn with mouth 10A
0.81A
area A 2
8. Front-to-Back Ratio
The ratio of the energy radiated in the principal direction compared to
the energy radiated in the opposite direction for a given antenna.
9. Antenna Beamwidth
The angular separation between the two half-power points on the
major lobe of an antennas plane radiation pattern.
2. Voltage-fed antenna
If energy is applied to the point of high voltage along the antenna
length, the antenna is voltage-fed.
3. Current-fed antenna
If energy is applied to the point of high circulating current along the
antenna length, the antenna is said to be current-fed.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-7
The ground screen and the counterpoise are used to reduce losses caused
by the ground in the immediate vicinity of the antenna.
1. Counterpoise
Counterpoise consists of a structure made of wire erected at short
distance above the ground and insulated from the ground.
The ground screen is buried below the surface of the earth. The
counterpoise is installed above the ground.
G. .ANTENNA LOADING.
3 General Types
H. .BASIC ANTENNAS.
1. Elementary Doublet
The elementary doublet is an electrically short dipole and is often
referred to simply as Hertzian dipole.
2. Half-Wave Dipole
The half-wave dipole is a resonant antenna, the total length of which
is nominally /2 at the carrier frequency.
If the dipole is not driven at the centre then the feed point resistance will be higher. If the
feed point is distance x from one end of a half wave (/2) dipole, the resistance will be
described by the following equation.
where:
75 R x = Radiation resistance in
Rx =
2 x = signal wavelength in m
sin
x = distance from one end of the dipole m
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-9
Sample Problem:
Calculate the radiation resistance of a half-wave dipole antenna if the
feedpoint is 0.25 m from one end at 300 MHz.
Solution:
75 75
Rx = = = 150
2 x 2 0 .2 5
sin sin
1
Sample Problem:
Calculate the radiation resistance of a half-wave dipole antenna 0.1 m from
one end at 300 MHz.
Solution:
75 75
Rx = = = 785 . 4
2 x 2 0 .1
sin
sin
1
Considering the
Antenna Types Exact Formula
End Effect (F=0.95)
Quarter-Wave Dipole 246F 234
L ft = L ft =
(Marconi or Long wire) fMHz fMHz
Half-Wave Dipole 492 F 468
L ft = L ft =
(Hertz antenna) fMHz fMHz
Solution:
492F 492(0.63)
L ft = = = 11.07 ft
f MHz 28
Solution:
246F 246(0.695)
L ft = = = 4.07 ft
f MHz 42
I. .ANTENNA ELEMENT.
1. Driven element
A driven element obtains its power directly from the transmitter or, as
a receiving antenna; it delivers the received energy directly to the
receiver.
2. Parasitic element
A parasitic element is located near the driven element from which it
gets its power. It is placed close enough to the driven element to
permit coupling.
Note:
If all of the elements in an array are driven, the array is referred to as a
Driven Array (sometimes as a connected array).
2. Yagi-Uda antenna
A Yagi antenna is a linear array consisting of a dipole and two or more
parasitic elements.
Sample Problem:
A Yagi-Uda antenna is designed to receive signals centered at 174 MHz.
Calculate the length of the driven element, reflector, and director.
Solution:
a. For the driven element
3 x 10 8
Length = = 0 .5 = 0 . 86 m
2 174 x 10 6
3. Turnstile antenna
4. Loop antenna
A closed-circuit antenna, that is, one in which a conductor is formed
into one or more turns so its end are close together.
Parameter Equation
Induced Voltage
max = Q
(Tuned Loop Antenna)
5. Helical antenna
A circularly polarized antenna that is wound into a helix.
These antennas tend to be inefficient radiators and are typically used for
mobile communications where reduced size is a critical factor.
These antennas are best suited for space communication, where the orientation
of the sender and receiver cannot be easily controlled, or where the polarization
of the signal may change.
N = # of turns, 3 to 20 turns
15NS(D)2
G= S = pitch or spacing
3
D = helix diameter
52
=
D NS
Sample Problem:
Calculate the gain and beamwidth of a helical antenna if the optimum
diameter is 80 mm, pitch of 62.5 mm, with eight turns and will operate at
1.2 GHz.
Solution:
15 NS ( D ) 2 15 ( 8 )( 0 . 0625 )( x 0 . 08 ) 2
G = 10 log = 10 log = 14 . 8 dB
3 0 . 25 3
52 52 ( 0 . 25 ) 0 . 25
= = = 36 . 6
D NS x 0 . 08 8 x 0 . 0625
K. .MULTI-ELEMENT ARRAYS.
i. Bidirectional array
A bidirectional array radiates in opposite directions along the line
of maximum radiation.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-15
i. Collinear array
The collinear array antenna usually uses two or more wire half-
wave dipoles mounted end-to-end. The pattern radiated by the
collinear array is similar to that produced by a single dipole. The
addition of two or more radiator, however, tends to intensify the
pattern.
L1 L 2 L 3 d1 d2 d3
= = = = = = = =
L2 L 3 L 4 d2 d3 d4
L
= 2 tan1 1
2d1
Parameter Equation
f
Aperture Number
D
Angular Aperture 2
Relation between f
Angular aperture and = 0.25 cot
Aperture number D 2
Beamwidth = 70
D
Beamwidth between
o = 2 = 140
nulls D
d2
Areaeffective(parabolic ) x 2
G= = 4 = D
2
Areaeffective(isotropic )
4
where:
= aperture or illumination efficiency
= 0.5 to 0.75 (0.55 typical)
D = mouth or face diameter in m
Sample Problem:
Calculate the directive gain and beamwidth between nulls for a paraboloidal
reflector antenna with a mouth diameter of 2.4m and the illumination
efficiency is 0.55 operating at 6 GHz.
Solution:
Directive Gain (D)
4 4 D 2 4 x 2 .4 2
D = xA eff = x = x 0 . 55
2
2 4 0 . 05 2 4
= 12 ,507
D dB 10 log D = 10 log 12 ,507 = 41 dB
Sample Problem:
To minimize interference, a 500-MHz dish needs to have a 1 beamdwith.
What diameter dish is required, in wavelength and meters?
Solution:
70 70 70 3 x 10 8
= D = = = 70 = 70 = 42 m
D 1 500 x 10 6
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-19
M. .HORN ANTENNA.
dE
dH
7.5dEdH
Gain G=
2
70
H-plane Beamwidth H =
dH
56
E-plane Beamwidth E =
dE
Sample Problem:
Calculate the gain, beamwidth in the E and H plane of a pyramidal horn
antenna that has an aperture of 60 mm in the E-plane, 80 mm in the H-
plane and operating at 6 GHz.
Solution:
7 . 5 dE dH
7 . 5 x 0 . 06 x 0 . 08
G = = = 14 . 4 11 . 58 dB
2 0 . 05 2
56 56 x 0 .05 70 70 x 0 .05
E = = = 46 .67 H = = = 43 .75
dE 0 .06 dH 0 .08
Gain 2.14 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency 10 Hz to 8 GHz
Limit (due to size)
Half-Power
80 x 360
Beamwidth
Gain 2 to 6 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
None
Limit
Half-Power
45 x 360
Beamwidth
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-21
Dependent on the
Gain
.Elevation Pattern. number of elements
Bandwidth Narrow
Frequency
10 MHz to 10 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
Related to gain
Beamwidth
Yagi-Uda antenna
Gain 5 to 15 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth 5% (1.05:1)
Frequency
50 MHz to 2 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
50 x 50
Beamwidth
Log-Periodic antenna
Frequency
3 MHz to 18 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
60 x 80
Beamwidth
Circular Loop
Gain -2 to 2 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
50 MHz to 1 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
80 x 360
eamwidth
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-23
Square Loop
Gain 1 to 3 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
50 MHz to 1 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
100 x 360
Beamwidth
Alford Loop
Gain -1 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
100 MHz to 2 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
80 x 360
Beamwidth
Gain 10 dB
Gain 0 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth 5% (1.05:1)
Frequency
100 MHz to 3 GHz
Limit
.Azimuth Pattern.
Circular (with an
Polarization ideal pitch-to-
diameter ratio)
Half-Power
60 x 360
Beamwidth
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-25
Horn antenna
Gain 5 to 20 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Half-Power
40 x 40
Beamwidth
Gain 5 to 10 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
2 to 18 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
40 x 40
Beamwidth
Discone antenna
.Elevation Pattern.
Gain 0 to 4 dB
Half-Power
20 to 80 x360
Beamwidth
Parabolic antenna
Gain 10 to 60 dB
V-antenna
Gain 2 to 7 dB
Bandwidth Broadband
Frequency
3 to 500 MHz
Limit
Linear (vertical
Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
60 x 60
Beamwidth
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-27
Rhombic antenna
Gain 3 dB
Bandwidth Broadband
Frequency
3 to 500 MHz
Limit
Linear (vertical
Polarization
as shown)
Half-Power
60 x 60
Beamwidth
Biconical antenna
Gain 0 to 4 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
500 MHz to 40 GHz
Limit
Half-Power
20 to 100 x360
Beamwidth
Bandwidth Narrow
Dependent upon feed Frequency
1 GHz to 40 GHz
emitter Limit
Polarization Feed dependent
Half-Power
40 x variable
Beamwidth
Gain -3 to 1 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Frequency
2 GHz to 18 GHz
Limit
.Azimuth Pattern.
Circular
Polarization (Direction depends
on polarization)
Half-Power
20 to 100 x360
Beamwidth
Gain 0 dB
.Elevation Pattern.
Bandwidth Narrow
Frequency
2 GHz to 40 GHz
Limit
Gain 6 dB
.Elevation and.
.Azimuth Pattern.
Bandwidth Narrow
Frequency
50 MHz to 18 GHz
Limit
Linear
Polarization
(vertical as shown)
Half-Power
80 x 80
Beamwidth
0.5 0.75
1.0 1.25
1.5 1.75
2.0 2.25
2.5 2.75
3.0
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-31
I H
1. What aperture number correspond to an angular aperture of 55
A. 0.35 B. 0.72
C. 0.66 D. 0.48
2. What are the theoretical element lengths and overall boom length for a three-
element Yagi designed for 220 MHz operation with element spacing of 0.18?
A. driver=0.682 m, director=0.648 m, reflector=0.716, boom=0.49 m
B. driver=0.648 m, director=0.682 m, reflector=0.49, boom=0.716 m
C. driver=0.716 m, director=0.49 m, reflector=0.648, boom=0.682 m
D. driver=0.49 m, director=0.648 m, reflector=0.682, boom=0.49 m
3. Calculate the antenna power gain for a beamwidth of 10 degrees. APRIL 2005
A. 20 dB B. 2.6 dB
C. 26 dB D. 2.0 dB
4. A helix antenna has its pitch halved while everything else remains unchanged.
What is the change in gain, in dB? In beamwidth? In axis length?
A. G=-3dB, =0.5x, L=0.5 B. G=3dB, =1.4x, L=1.5
C. G=-3dB, =1.4x, L=1.5 D. G=-3dB, =1.4x, L=0.5
5. Calculate the gain and beamwidth of a parabolic antenna that has a diameter of
3 m, and an efficiency of 60%.
A. 40 dB, 1.75 B. 45 dB, 4.91
C. 32 dB, 3.33 D. 38 dB, 6.12
6. In high frequency radio transmission, the lower the radio frequency the
_________of the antenna.
A. smaller the diameter B. shorter the length
C. bigger the diameter D. longer the length
9. Find the approximate width of a pyramidal horn antenna that will operate at
10,000 MHz intended to have a beamwidth of 10. April 2000
A. 14 cm B. 34 cm
C. 24 cm D. 44 cm
10. Calculate the approximate physical length for a half wave dipole operating on a
frequency of 7.25 MHz.
A. 13.66 ft B. 73.86 ft
C. 64.55 ft D. 33.81 ft
15. A TVRO installation for use with a C-band satellite (downlink frequency at 4
GHz), has a diameter of about 3.5 meters and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate
its beamwidth. NOV 2003
A. 5.05 B. 11.7
C. 1.5 D. 3.2
16. Electric circuit designed specifically to radiate the energy applied to it in the
form of electromagnetic waves, normally used to transmit and receive radio
waves.
A. Bandwidth B. Antenna
C. Wavelength D. Radiator
17. What is the reason why 5/8 whip vertical antenna is a advantage than quarter
wave vertical whip antenna?
A. Can handle high power signal B. Flexible
C. More gain D. Less than interference
18. Which of the following antenna where its beamwidth is determine by the
dimensions of its horn, lens or reflector?
A. Long wire antenna B. Aperture antenna
C. Whip antenna D. Aperiodic antenna
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-33
19. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater with 450 W
transmitting power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 6 dB duplexer loss, 7 dB
circulator loss, and feedline antenna gain of 25 dB? APRIL 2004
A. 3980 W B. 2839.31 W
C. 3141.98 W D. 1139.8 W
21. Where does the maximum current and minimum voltage values on a resonant
Hertz dipole exist?
A. Ends of the antenna B. Near the center of the antenna
C. Near the end of the antenna D. Center of the antenna
22. In a VHF mobile radio system, the base station transmits 100 W at 160 MHz
frequency using half-wave dipole antenna 20 meters above ground. Calculate
the field strength at a receiving antenna at a height of 4 meters and a distance
of 30 km. (Gain of antenna is 1.64) Nov 2004
A. 161.58 V/m B. 15.45 V/m
C. 41.78 V/m D. 34.13 V/m
25. A 400 feet antenna is to be operated at 6200 kHz. What is the wavelength at
this frequency? NOV 2004
A. 52.16 m B. 41.58 m
C. 48.39 m D. 33.56 m
26. Which of the following antenna feedline can easily be buried underground for a
distance without adverse effects?
A. Twisted pair B. Twin lead
C. Coaxial cable D. Waveguide
29. In order to fully utilize the _____ a quarter-wave vertical antenna should
require an excellent ground system.
A. troposcatter effect B. ground effect
C. mirror image principle D. reflected wave
31. One of the following is a type of radio antenna used in a transmission and
reception of microwave signals.
A. whip antenna B. horn antenna
C. l-type antenna D. Discone antenna
32. What is the phase separation of two antennas 3/8 wavelength apart? NOV
2004
A. 135 degrees B. 185 degrees
C. 165 degrees D. 195 degrees
34. What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the
total resistance of the system?
A. Antenna efficiency B. Beamwidth
C. Radiation conversion loss D. Effective radiated power
35. ______ is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized
signals simultaneously.
A. Light transducer B. Orthomode transducer
C. Optoisolator D. Crystal
36. What is the effective height of a broadcast antenna if the voltage induced in the
antenna is 2.7 volts and the measured field intensity received in the antenna
site is 27 mV/m? APRIL 2005
A. 29.7 meters B. 72.9 meters
C. 100 meters D. 127 meters
37. An antenna which is not resonant at a particular frequency and so can be used
over a wide band of frequencies is called
A. boresight B. aperiodic
C. top-loaded D. cassegrain
38. A helical antenna has the following dimensions: pitch is 1/3 wavelength,
diameter is wavelength and turns is 27. What is the gain in dB? NOV 2004
A. 10.34 dB B. 16.8 dB
C. 19.2 dB D. 13.5 dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-35
39. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam antenna?
A. wavelength B. wavelength
C. wavelength D. 1 wavelength
40. What is an antenna element that is not directly connected to the feed line, but
which affects the radiation pattern and feed-point impedance of the antenna?
A. Balun B. Driven element
C. Parasitic element D. Radiator
41. What is the purpose of the two yagi beam antenna on a VHF TV receiver?
A. For receiving low and high band stations
B. To increase selectively
C. To increase selectively on both hands
D. Used to receive VHF and UHF stations
42. A 500 kHz antenna radiates 500 W of power. The same antenna produces field
strength equal to 1.5 mV/m. If the power delivered by the antenna is increases
to 1kW, what would be the expected field intensity? NOV 2003
A. 1.66 mV/m B. 2.12 mV/m *
C. 8.45 mV/m D. 5.58 mV/m
44. Determine the approximate length of a simple whip quarter wave antenna at
UHF frequency of 450.25 MHz. April 2000
A. 3.47 ft B. 13.69 ft
C. 1.89 ft D. 0.55 ft
45. What is the electric field strength 10 km away in the direction of maximum
radiation from a half-wave dipole that is fed, by means of lossless, matched
line, by a 15 W transmitter?
A. 27.1 mV/m B. 271 mV/m
C. 0.271 mV/m D. 2.71 mV/m
46. Calculate the power density 25 km away from a 90% efficient half-wave dipole
if the transmit power is 125 W.
A. 23.5 nW B. 318.5 nW
C. 51.7 nW D. 931.35 nW
48. Calculate the operating frequency for a helical antenna that consists of 10 turns
with a spacing of 10 cm and a diameter of 12.7 cm.
A. 0.75 MHz B. 750 MHz
C. 7.5 MHz D. 75 MHz
49. A type of antenna that has physical length equivalent to one half wavelength of
the radio frequency being used.
A. Yagi B. Hertz
C. Rhombic D. Marconi
50. Calculate the gain, with respect to an isotropic antenna, of a half-wave dipole
with an efficiency of 90% that is placed one-quarter wavelength from a plane
reflector that reflects 100% of the signal striking it.
A. 12.46 dBi B. 4.8 dBi
C. 7.68 dBi D. 8.39 dBi
51. Due to the presence of parallel LC networks in the trap antenna, one of the
following is a disadvantage of using this kind of antenna.
A. Reduce power B. Radiate harmonics
C. Allow entry of interference D. Reduced beamwidth
53. What is the approximate length of a half-wave dipole antenna radiating at 6450
kHz? Nov 2000
A. 72.5 ft B. 136.6 ft
C. 13.73 ft D. 112.47 ft
54. What is the length of a simple quarter wave antenna using a VHF frequency of
150.55 MHz? April 2000
A. 5.82 ft B. 1.55 ft
C. 4.97 ft D. 3.52 ft
55. What happens to gain and beamwidth if the number of turns is doubled when
the pitch is halved?
A. 0.5x B. unchanged
C. 4x D. 2x
57. Calculate the distance from the apex of the 1st and 2nd dipole element of a log-
periodic antenna to cover the low VHF TV band, from 54-88 MHz. Use =30,
=0.7 and L1=1.5 m
A. 2.8 m, 4 m respectively B. 4 m, 2.8 m respectively
C. 4.8 m, 2 m respectively D. 2 m, 8 m respectively
58. When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type
of antenna must be used?
A. Dipole B. Hertzian antenna
C. Void antenna D. Dummy antenna
59. In consists of a number of dipoles of equal size, equally spaced along a straight
line with all dipoles fed in the same phase from the source.
A. Broadside array B. Log-periodic antenna
C. Yagi antenna D. End-fire array
60. A Yagi antenna has a gain of 10dBi and a front-to-back ratio of 15 dB. It is
located from a transmitter with an ERP of 100 kW at a frequency of 10 MHz.
The antenna is connected to a receiver via a matched feedline with a loss of 2
dB. Calculate the signal power supplied to the receiver if the antenna is pointed
directly away from the transmitting antenna.
A. 82.8 W B. 8.28 W
C. 828 W D. 0.828 W
61. Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional
antenna.
A. Major lobe radiation B. Back lobe radiation
C. Transmitted signal D. Side lobe radiation
63. A dish designed for operation at 150 MHz is operated at twice that frequency.
By what factors do gain and beamwidth change?
A. G=2x, =2.5 B. G=2x, =0.5
C. G=4x, =1.5 D. G=4x, =0.5
64. What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the
other and fed in phase?
A. 10 dB the gain of one antenna
B. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna
C. 3 dB over gain of one antenna
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna
65. What do you mean by the outward flow of an energy from any source in the
form radio waves.
A. Encoding B. Radiation
C. Emission D. Tracking
70. One of the following refers to the usage of a small loop antenna in radio
communications.
A. For mobile communications
B. For spread spectrum communications
C. For direction finding purposes
D. For satellite use
72. How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?
A. By shortening the vertical
B. By length the vertical
C. By installing a good ground radial system
D. By isolating the coax shield from ground
74. A parabolic dish has a diameter of 10. What is the gain, in dB? What is the
beamwidth? If the dish is built for operation at 200 MHz, what would be the
actual diameter
A. G=27.8 dB, =0.7, D=15 m B. G=27.8 dB, =7, D=1.5 m
C. G=27.8 dB, =7, D=15 m D. G=2.8 dB, =7, D=15 m
76. What property of an antenna which is a reason for its efficiency in receiving and
transmitting the intended electromagnetic energy and is physically identical to
its physical configuration?
A. Resonance B. Direction
C. Orientation D. Polarization
78. Known as the technique for adding a series inductor at or near the center of an
antenna element in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an antenna
A. Center loading B. Reflector
C. Loading coil D. Dipole
80. In a VHF mobile radio system, the base station transmits 100 W at 150 MHz,
and the antenna is 20 m above ground. The transmitting antenna is a half-
wave dipole. Calculate the field strength at a receiving antenna of height 2m at
a distance of 40 km.
A. 1.1 V/m B. 101 V/m
C. 0.11 V/m D. 11 V/m
81. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna
tower design?
A. 160 kph B. 180 kph
C. 200 kph D. 240 kph
83. One of the following is referred to as a way of increasing the electrical length of
an antenna.
A. By adding a capacitor in series B. By adding an inductor in parallel
C. By adding an inductor in series D. By adding a resistor in parallel
84. Find the power received by a Hertz antenna if the 150 MHz transmitter output
power is 50 kW. The transmitter is 100 km distant and also uses a Hertz
antenna.
A. 574.3 nW B. 340.6 nW
C. 810.9 nW D. 22.16 nW
85. Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal
to a transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 2 microvolt signal
under identical circumstances. Nov 1998
A. -5 dB B. -8 dB
C. -6 dB D. -3 dB
87. What is the front-to-back ratio for an antenna with a forward gain of +20 dB
and a backward gain of +15 dB?
A. -5 dB B. 0 dB
C. 5 dB D. 10 dB
89. What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a
transmitter through a transmission line?
A. Parasitic element B. Director element
C. Driven element D. Reflector element
90. In the propagation of radio signal through an aerial, at what angle does
magnetic field are positioned with reference to the direction of the propagation?
A. 180 B. 90
C. 0 D. 45
91. Determine the gain of a certain antenna that will produce an effective area 199
m2 at 30 MHz?
A. 38.47 dB B. 26.37 dB
C. 13.98 dB D. 71.16 dB
93. How do you compare the length of the reflector element of a parasitic beam
antenna with that of its driven element?
A. Reflector element is 15% shorter B. Reflector element is 2% shorter
C. Reflector element is half shorter D. Reflector element is 5% longer
94. What do you call the LC networks inserted in an antenna element to provide
multiband operation?
A. Loading coil B. Reflector
C. Traps D. Director
97. Which of the following type of radio communication antenna does not deliver an
omni-directional radiation pattern?
A. Whip B. Discone
C. Yagi D. vertical dipole
98. A helical antenna has 20 turns of diameter /4, pitch of /4. What are the gain
and beamwidth? If the frequency of operation is 250 MHz, what are the actual
dimensions of turn diameter, pitch, and length of the helix axis?
A. G=16.6 dB, =2.6, D=0.3 m. S=0.5 m, L=6 m
B. G=16.6 dB, =29.6, D=0.3 m. S=0.3 m, L=6 m
C. G=16.6 dB, =29.6, D=0.5 m. S=0.3 m, L=5 m
D. G=166 dB, =2.6, D=0.3 m. S=0.3 m, L=6 m
99. Two half-wave dipoles are separated by 50 km. They are aligned for optimum
reception. The transmitter feeds its antenna with 10 W at 144 MHz. Calculate
the received power.
A. 296 pW B. 38 pW
C. 26 pW D. 96 pW
101. A directional variation of the dipole with parasitic elements added with
functionality similar to adding a reflector and lenses (directors) to focus a
filament lightbulb
A. Loop antenna B. Patch antenna
C. Yagi-uda antenna D. Beverage antenna
DEFINITION. Power Density is the rate at which the energy passes through
a given surface area in free space.
A. .ELECTRO-MAGNETIC WAVES.
Quantities of interest:
The period, which is the time (T) in which one complete vibratory
cycle of events occurs,
The frequency of vibration (f), which is the number of cycles
taking place in one second, and
The wavelength, which is the distance the disturbance travels
during one period of vibration
2. Characteristic Impedance
i. Free-space
0
= = = 120 377
0
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-43
377 120
= =
r k
where:
r = relative permittivity
k = dielectric constant
Relation r = k
Sample Problem:
Find the characteristic impedance of polyethylene, which has a dielectric
constant of 2.3.
Solution:
120
= = 248 . 6
2 .3
where:
= 120
= magnetic field strength in A
m
1. Power Density
Rate at which the energy passes through a given surface area in free
space.
Ptx where:
Pd =
4 d2 d = distance from the source in m
2
d
Pd2 = Pd1 x 1
d2
Solution:
Ptx G tx
Pd = G tx = G = 0 .9 x 1 .64 = 1 .476
4 d2
125 x 1 .476
=
4 (25,000 )2
nW
= 23 .49
m2
Sample Problem:
At 20 km in free-space from a point source, the power density is 200W/m2.
What is the power density 25 km away from this source?
Solution:
2 2
d 20 W
Pd2 = Pd1 x 1
= 200 x 10 6 = 128
d2 25 m2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-45
In terms of Power Pd
density and impedance =
In terms of Power
Pd
density and Magnetic =
field Intensity
where:
4 htxhrx
= o 2 30Ptx Gtx
d o =
1m
Solution:
For Anisotropic antenna
30PtxGtx 30(100)(1.64) mV
= = =7
d 10 x 103 m m
Solution:
4 htxhrx c 30Ptx G tx V
= o 2 = = 1 .875 m , o = = 70 .143 m
, G tx = 1 .64
d f 1m
4 x 20 x 4
= 70 .143 2
1 .875 x (30,000 )
nV
= 41 .786 m
Sample Problem:
Calculate the power delivered to the receiver, assuming free-space
propagation for a transmitter that has a power output of 12W at a carrier
frequency of 0.28 GHz. It is connected by 10m of a transmission line having
a loss of 3dB/100m to an antenna with a gain of 12dBi. The receiving
antenna is 20 km away and has a gain of 8dBi. There is negligible loss in
the receiver feedline, but the receiver is mismatched; the antenna and line
are designed for a 50 impedance, but the receiver input is 75.
Solution:
Prx(dB ) = Ptx(dB ) + G tx(dB ) + G rx(dB ) (FSL dB + L tl + L mismatch )
Computing all the losses;
FSL = 92 .4 + 20 log( 0 .28 x 20) = 107 .36 dB;
3dB
L tl = xA = x 10 m = 0 .3 dB;
A 100 m
Z ZO
2
Lm = 10 log(1 2 ) = 10 log 1 L
ZL + Z O
75 50
2
= 10 log 1 = 0 .18 dB
75 + 50
Prx(dB ) = 10 .8 + 12 + 8 (107 .36 + 0 .3 + 0 .18) = 77 .04 dB
C. .POLARIZATION.
1. Linear
The electric field vectors are oriented in the same direction in space.
i. Vertical Polarization
The electric field progress in the direction of propagation in the
vertical plane.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-47
The vertical or y-component of electric field vector is not equal to zero while
the horizontal or x-component is equal to zero.
y 0, x = 0
x 0, y = 0
2. Circular
The electric field vector rotates in circular fashion as it progress in the
direction of propagation.
x = y = 0
3. Elliptical
A variation of circular polarization where the electric field rotates in
elliptical fashion in the direction of propagation.
The horizontal or x-component of electric field vector is not equal to the vertical or
y-component but 90 out-of-phase forcing the electric field to rotate in the
direction of propagation.
x y 0
4. Random
The electric field radiation has no definite pattern or orientation.
1. Attenuation
Reduction in power density w/ distance.
In terms of their
In terms of Power
relative distance from
Densities
the source
1 d2
= 10 log = 20 log
2 d1
2. Absorption
The reduction in the intensity of radiated energy within a medium
caused by converting some or all of the energy into another form.
Some of the energy of the electromagnetic waves is transferred to the atoms and
molecules of the atmosphere thereby causing some radio waves to be absorbed.
3. Interference
Phenomena that occurs when two radio waves that left one source and
traveled different path arrive at a point.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-49
1. Reflection
Phenomenon of wave motion, in which a wave is returned after
impinging on a surface. When wave energy traveling from one medium
encounters a different medium, part of the energy usually passes on
while part is reflected.
inc = ref
ii. Diffuse
The reflected signal are scattered in different direction after it
hits a rough surface.
Rayleigh Criterion
A wave impinging on a semi-rough surface satisfy the Rayleigh
criterion the reflected wave will be reflected as if the wave
phenomenon is specular reflection.
where:
cos inc >
8h h = irregularities height in m
2. Refraction
The change in direction that occurs when a wave of energy such as
light passes from one medium to another of a different density, for
example, from air to water.
3. Diffraction
Modulation or redistribution of energy w/in a wavefront when it passes
near the edge of an opaque object.
The bending or spreading out of waves as they pass around the edge of an
obstacle or through a narrow aperture.
Huygens Principles
States that every point on a given spherical wavefront can be
considered as a secondary point source of emw from w/c other
secondary wave (wavelets) are reradiated.
Va = x hr hr = receiver height in m
Sample Problem:
A 125-m antenna, transmitting at 1.5 MHz has an antenna current of 8A.
What field strength and voltage is received by a receiving antenna 40 km
away, with a height of 2 m?
Solution:
120 ht I 120 (125 )(8) mV
= = = 47 .12
d 200 (40 x 10 3 m) m
mV
Va = x hr = 47.12 x 2 m = 94.24 mV
m
Parameter In miles In km
Solution:
D= 2ht + 2hr = 2(600 ) + 2(240 ) = 56 .55 mi
a. D layer
The D layer ranges from about 30 to 55 miles. Ionization in
the D layer is low because it is the lowest region of the
ionosphere. This layer has the ability to refract signals of low
frequencies. High frequencies pass right through it and are
attenuated.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-53
b. E Region or E-layer
The E layer limits are from about 55 to 90 miles.
This layer is also known as the Kennelly- Heaviside layer,
because these two men were the first to propose its
existence.
The rate of ionic recombination in this layer is rather rapid
after sunset and the layer is almost gone by midnight.
This layer has the ability to refract signals as high as 20
megahertz.
c. F layer
The F layer exists from about 90 to 240 miles. During the
daylight hours, the F layer separates into two layers, the
F1 and F2 layers.
The ionization level in these layers is quite high and varies
widely during the day. The F layers are responsible for
high-frequency, long distance transmission.
1902 Oliver Heaviside discovered the existence of an ionized layer of air in the
upper atmosphere which was verified by Kennelly and was later known
as Kennelly- Heaviside.
a. Regular Variations
The regular variations that affect the extent of ionization in
the ionosphere can be divided into four main classes:
Daily
Daily variations in the ionosphere are a result of the 24-
hour rotation of the Earth about its axis.
Seasonal
Seasonal variations are the result of the Earth revolving
around the sun; the relative position of the sun moves
from one hemisphere to the other with changes in
seasons.
b. Irregular Variations
Irregular variations are irregular and unpredictable; they can
drastically affect communications capabilities without any
warning.
Sporadic E
Irregular cloud-like patches of unusually high ionization,
called sporadic E, often form at heights near the normal E
layer.
Ionospheric Storms
Scientists believe that ionospheric storms result from
particle radiation from the sun. Particles radiated from a
solar eruption have a slower velocity than ultraviolet light
waves produced by the eruption.
a. Index of Refraction
81N
n= 1 N = electron density per m3
f2
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-55
b. Critical frequency
Highest frequency at a given ionization density that will be
returned down to earth when beam vertically upward.
fc = 9 Nmax
Radio waves of frequencies lower than the critical frequency will also be
refracted back to Earth unless they are absorbed or have been refracted
from a lower layer.
fc
MUF = MUF = fc sec inc
cos inc
OWF = 85%MUF
Sample Problem:
The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. What is the OWF for a
transmitting station if the required angle of incidence for propagation to a
desired destination is 70?
Solution:
fc 11.6 MHz
MUF = fc sec = = = 33.92 MHz
cos cos 70
OWF = 0.85 x MUF = 28.83 MHz
G. .SCATTER PROPAGATION.
1. Ground-Scatter
The signals are reflected from the ionosphere obliquely to a ground
region, scattered from the ground, and propagated again by
ionospheric reflection to the receiver.
2. Tropospheric-Scatter
When a radio wave passing through the troposphere meets a
turbulence, it makes an abrupt change in velocity. This causes a small
amount of the energy to be scattered in a forward direction and
returned to Earth at distances beyond the horizon. This phenomenon
is repeated as the radio wave meets other turbulences in its path. The
total received signal is an accumulation of the energy received from
each of the turbulences.
This scattering mode of propagation enables vhf and uhf signals to be transmitted
far beyond the normal line-of-sight.
3. Ionospheric-Scatter
Same principles with Troposcatter, except that the scattering medium
is the E region of the ionosphere, with some help of the D and F
layers.
4. Meteor-Burst Scatter
A type of propagation of VHF and UHF waves utilizes the phenomenon
of scattering of a radio signal from the ionization trails caused by
meteors entering the earths atmosphere.
5. Auroral Scatter
Ionization associated with auroral disturbances gives radio reflections
at HF and VHF.
6. Equatorial F Scatter
Based from the fact that the ionosphere over the equatorial region is
higher, thicker, and denser than elsewhere because of its more
constant exposure to the solar radiation, the equatorial belt has high
nighttime MUF possibilities.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-57
I H
1. The dielectric strength of air is about 3 MV/m. What is the maximum power
density of an electromagnetic wave in air?
A. 0.45 GW/m2 B. 167 GW/m2
2
C. 884.4 GW/m D. 23.9 GW/m2
5. If a wave passes first through a dense medium and then through a less dense
medium, which of the following angle-of-refraction conditions exists?
A. The angle of refraction is greater than the angle of incidence
B. The wave will pass through in a straight line
C. The angle of refraction is equal to the angle of incidence
D. The angle of refraction is less than the angle of incidence
6. What is the distance to the radio horizon for an antenna that is 40 ft above the
top of a 4000 ft mountain peak?
A. 89.88 mi B. 32 mi
C. 72 mi D. 45.22 mi
10. After the radiation field leaves an antenna, what is the relationship between the
E and H fields with respect to (a) phase and (b) physical displacement in
space?
A. (a) Out of phase (b) 90 degrees
B. (a) Out of phase (b) 180 degrees
C. (a) In phase (b) 90 degrees
D. (a) In phase (b) 180 degrees
12. Electrically charged particles that affect the propagation of radio waves are
found in what atmospheric layer?
A. Ionosphere B. Stratosphere
C. Troposphere D. Chronosphere
13. Long range, surface-wave communications are best achieved when the signal is
transmitted over seawater with (a) what polarization at (b) what relative
frequency?
A. (a) Vertical (b) High B. (a) Horizontal (b) High
C. (a) Vertical (b) Low D. (a) Horizontal (b) Low
15. Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna that is 100 ft high and a
receiving antenna that is 50 ft high
A. 21.3 mi B. 33.2 mi
C. 24.14 mi D. 32 mi
16. A space wave (a) is primarily a result of refraction in what atmospheric layer
and (b) extends approximately what distance beyond the horizon?
A. (a) Troposphere (b) One-tenth farther
B. (a) Troposphere (b) One-third farther
C. (a) Ionosphere (b) One-third farther
D. (a) Ionosphere (b) One-tenth farther
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-59
17. The signal of a space wave is sometimes significantly reduced at the receiving
site because of which of the following interactions?
A. Ground-wave diffraction B. Ground-wave reflections
C. Space-wave refraction D. Space-wave reflections
18. For long-range communications in the HF band, which of the following types of
waves is most satisfactory?
A. Space wave B. Reflected ground wave
C. Sky wave D. Surface wave
19. Ionization in the atmosphere is produced chiefly by which of the following types
of radiation?
A. Alpha radiation B. Cosmic radiation
C. Infrared radiation D. Ultraviolet radiation
20. A 10-MHz wave entering the ionosphere at an angle greater than its critical
angle will pass through the ionosphere and be lost in space unless which of the
following actions is taken?
A. The ground wave is reinforced
B. The frequency of the wave is increased
C. The frequency of the wave is decreased
D. The ground wave is canceled
21. The polarity of a radio wave is determined by the orientation of (a) what
moving field with respect to (b) what reference?
A. (a) Electric (b) antenna B. (a) Magnetic (b) earth
C. (a) Electric (b) earth D. (a) Magnetic (b) antenna
23. Which of the following ionospheric variation causes densities to vary with the
position of the earth in its orbit around the sun?
A. Seasonal variation B. 11-year sunspot cycle
C. Daily variation D. 27-day sunspot cycle
25. The most consistent communications can be expected at which of the following
frequencies?
A. Critical frequency B. Maximum working frequency
C. Maximum usable frequency D. Optimum working frequency
26. If the optimum working frequency for a communications link is 4,250 kHz, what
is the approximate maximum usable frequency?
A. 5,500 kHz B. 5,000 kHz
C. 4,500 kHz D. 6,000 kHz
Loading ECE SUPERBook
5-60 Radio-wave propagation
27. Under certain conditions, such as ducting, line-of-sight radio waves often
propagate for distances far beyond their normal ranges because of which of the
following factors?
A. Ionospheric storms B. Temperature inversions
C. Low cloud masses D. Frequency fluctuations
28. The distance between the transmitter and the nearest point at which refracted
waves return to earth is referred to as the ______.
A. skip distance B. return distance
C. reception distance D. ground-wave distance
29. For a radio wave entering the atmosphere of the earth at a given angle, the
highest frequency at which refraction will occur is known by which of the
following terms?
A. Usable frequency B. Critical frequency
C. Maximum usable frequency D. Optimum working frequency
30. If the critical frequency is 10 MHz, what is the OWF at an angle if incidence of
60?
A. 17 MHz B. 19 MHz
C. 25 MHz D. 20 MHz
31. When ground-wave coverage is LESS than the distance between the
transmitter and the nearest point at which the refracted waves return to earth,
which of the following reception possibilities should you expect?
A. Strong ground wave B. A zone of silence
C. No sky-wave D. Weak ground wave
32. If the signal strength of an incoming signal is reduced for a prolonged period,
what type of fading is most likely involved?
A. Absorption B. Multipath
C. Selective D. Polarization
33. Radio waves that arrive at a receiving site along different paths can cause
signal fading if these waves have different
A. velocities B. amplitudes
C. phase relationships D. modulation percentages
35. The technique of reducing multipath fading by using several receiving antennas
at different locations is known as what type of diversity?
A. Space B. Receiver
C. Frequency D. Modulation
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-61
36. Which of the following ionospheric variation causes densities to vary with the
axial rotation of the sun?
A. Daily variation B. 11-year sunspot cycle
C. 27-day sunspot cycle D. Seasonal variation
37. The tropospheric scatter signal is often characterized by very rapid fading
caused by which of the following factors?
A. Extreme path lengths B. Turbulence in the atmosphere
C. Multipath propagation D. Angle of the transmitted beam
38. The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a
transmitting station if the required angle of incidence for propagation to a
desired destination is 70?
A. 3390 MHz B. 33.9 MHz
C. 339MHz D. 3.39 MHz
39. The greatest amount of absorption takes place in the ionosphere under which
of the following conditions?
A. When sky wave intensity is greatest
B. When the density of the ionized layer is greatest
C. When collision of particles is least
D. When precipitation is greatest
Band Frequency
Region
Designation (GHz)
L 1-2
Microwave Region
(30 cm to 8 mm)
S 2-4
C 4-8
X 8-12
Ku 12-18
K 18-27
Ka 27-40
U 40-60
Millimeter
Region
V 60-80
Wave
W 80-110
Mm 110-300
3. Types Of Path
i. Line of Sight
The straight path (LOS) between a transmitting and receiving
antenna unobstructed by the horizon.
4. The K-Curve
A numerical figure that considers the non-ideal condition of the
atmosphere resulting to atmospheric refraction that causes the ray
beam to be bent toward the earth or away from the earth.
k<1
k=
k>1
K-curve Conditions
i. Sub-standard condition
Under this condition, the microwave
beam is bent away from the earth, it
k <1 is as if we expanded the earth
curvature (bulge) or raised it up
toward the beam above its true
value.
ii. Standard condition
d1(mi)d2(mi) d1(km)d2(km)
eb(ft) = eb(m) =
1.5 12.75
Sample Problem:
Calculate the earth bulge 2 mi, 10 mi, 22 mi away from a transmitter for a
25 mi terrestrial microwave link.
Solution:
For 2 miles;
d1d2 2(25 2)
eb = = = 30.67 feet
1.5 1.5
For 10 miles;
d1d2 10(25 10)
eb = = = 100 feet
1.5 1.5
For 22 miles;
d1d2 22(25 22)
eb = = = 44 feet
1.5 1.5
d1(mi)d2(mi) d1(km)d2(km)
eb(ft) = eb(m) =
1.5k 12.75k
Sample Problem:
Calculate the effective height of a 100 ft obstruction situated 10 mi from the
receiving end of a 25 mi radio link for the following values of k;
a. 4/3 b. c. 5/2
Solution:
He = Hactual + Effective Earth Bulge
When k=4/3
10(25 10)
He = 100 + = 175 feet
4
1.5
3
When k=
10(25 10)
He = 100 + = 300 feet
1
1.5
2
When k=5/2
10(25 10)
He = 100 + = 140 feet
5
1.5
2
where:
ro NS = Surface refractivity
re(km) =
1 0.04665 e(0.005577NS ) ro = true earth radius
= 6370 km
where:
NS = N0 x e 0.1057hS N0 = Sea level refractivity
hs = height of potential site in km
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-67
Sample Problem:
Determine the surface refractivity for a potential microwave site 250 m
above sea level with a sea level refractivity of 312 and also calculate the
effective earth radius.
Solution:
For the surface refractivity
250
0.1057 x
NS = Noe 0.1057ht = 312 x e 1000 = 303.86
8. Antenna Height
d1(mi)d2(mi) d1(km)d2(km)
hTX(ft) = hTX(m) =
2 17
Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum range for a microwave link for which the antenna heights
are 100 and 60 ft.
Solution:
D = 2hT + 2hR = 2(100) + 2(60) = 25.1 mi
B. .FRESNEL CLEARANCE.
d1(mi)d2(mi) d1(km)d2(km)
F1(ft) = 72.1 F1(m) = 17.3
f(GHz)D(mi) f(GHz)D(km)
Sample Problem:
Solve for the total height extended in feet for an obstacle situated 27-mi
away fro a 35-mi microwave system assuming if the tree growth exists, add
40 ft for the trees and 10 ft for additional growth (use 6 GHz and 0.6F1).
Solution:
H = Earth Curvature + Fresnel Clearance + Vegetation
27(35 27) 27(35 27)
H= + 0.672.1 + 50
4 6 x 35
1.5 x
3
= 108 + 43.87ft + 50
202 ft
Fresnel divided the path into several zones based on the phase and
speed of the propagating waves.
As the length of the path increases, the size of the Fresnel Zone also
increases.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the 5th Fresnel zone radius to clear a 35 mi radio link operating at
12 GHz if the 1st Fresnel zone radius is 61.57 ft.
Solution:
Alternate Solution;
Fn = F1(ft) n = 61.57 5 = 137.67ft
Path Profile
A Path Profile is a graphical representation of the path traveled by the
radio waves between the two ends of a link. The path profile determines
the location and height of the antenna at each end of the link, and it
insures that the link is free of obstructions, such as hills, and not subject
to propagation losses from radio phenomena, such as multipath
reflections.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-71
1. Transmit Parameters
i. Transmitter Power
In dBW In dBm
P PT
PT(dBW) = 10 log T PT(dBm) = 10 log
1W 1mW
(dB)
L T (dB) = x total length + L M
length
2 2
D D
General Solution GT = GT = 6
Metric GT(dB) = 17.8 + 20 log fGHz + 20 logDm
system
In dB
English GT(dB) = 7.5 + 20 log fGHz + 20 logDft
system
a. In Watts
Ideal EIRP = PT x GT
PT x GT
Practical EIRP =
LT
b. In dB
2. Path Parameters
System In dB
Atmospheric Noise
3. Receive Parameters
In dB ( ) (
NPL (dB) = L TX(dB) + FSL dB + LRX(dB) GTX(dB) + GRX(dB) )
iv. Receive Signal Level (RSL)
In terms of
fade margin RSL (dBW) = FMdB + ITdB
and
Improvement RSL (dBm) = FMdB + ITdBm
threshold
v. Noise Threshold
kTB
N(dBm) = 10 log + NFdB
1mW
In dBm
N(dBm) = 174 + 10 logB + NFdB
System In dB
In dB IT(dBW) = NdBW + 10 dB
Rayleigh Table
where:
Surface
Description
Factor (a)
For very smooth terrain, over
4.0
water, desert
For average terrain with some
1.0
roughness
For mountainous, very rough,
0.25
or very dry terrain
Climate
Description
Factor (b)
0.5 For hot, humid coastal areas
For normal, interior
0.25
temperature
For mountainous or very dry
0.125
but not reflective terrain
Sample Problem:
An FM LOS microwave link operates at 6.15 GHz. The required receiver IF
bandwidth is 20 MHz. The transmitter output power is 30dBm. The receiver
front ends first active stage is a mixer with a noise figure of 9 dB. The path
length is 21 mi; the antennas at each end have a 35-dB gain and the
transmission line losses at each end are 3 dB. If the FM Improvement
threshold is used as the unfaded reference, what is the reliability of the radio
link?
Solution:
1. EIRP
EIRP = Pt(dBm) L tx(dB) + Gtx(dB)
= 30 dBm - 3 dB + 35 dB
= 62 dBm
2. FSL
FSL = 96.6 + 20log(fGHz xDmi )
= 96.6 + 20log(6.15x21)
= 138.82 dB
3. IRL
IRL dBm = EIRPdBm - FSL dB
= 62 dBm - 138.82 dB
= -76.82 dBm
4. RSL
RSL dBm = IRL dBm + Grx(dB) L rx(dB)
= 76.82 dBm + 35dB 3 dB
= 44.82 dBm
5. Noise Threshold
NdBm = 174 + 10log(BW) + NF
= 174 + 10log(20x106 ) + 9 dB
= 91.99 dBm
6. FMIT
FM ITdBm = NdBm + 10 dB
= 81.99 dBm
7. Carrier-to-Noise Ratio
C
= RSL dBm NdBm
N dB
= 44.82 dBm - (-91.99 dBm)
= 47.17 dB
8. Fade Margin
FMdB = RSL dBm FM ITdBm
= 44.82 dBm - (-81.99 dBm)
= 37.17 dB
9. Reliability (By interpolation)
Reliability = 99.982%
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-77
1. System Gain
The difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and
the minimum input power required by a receiver.
2. System Reliability
The percentage of time a system or link meets performance
requirements.
Reliability
R = (1 Outage) x 100%
R s = R1 xR 2 xR 3 xR n
where:
Outage = is the amount of time that the
requirements will not be meet
R1 ,R2 Rn = individual reliability
Availability
MTBF
A= x 100%
MTBF + MTTR
Unavailability
MTTR
U= x 100% U = (1 A) x 100%
MTBF + MTTR
Sample Problem:
What fade margin is required for a microwave LOS link with a time availability
requirements of 99.997%?
Solution:
From Rayleigh table
Propagation Required Fade
Reliability (%) Margin (dB)
99.99 38
99.997 ?
99.999 48
By interpolation method;
FM 38 0.99997 0.9999
= FM = 45.77 dB
48 38 0.99999 0.99997
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-79
E. .DIVERSITY TECHNIQUE.
1. Frequency Diversity
Frequency diversity is simply modulating two different RF carrier
frequencies with same IF intelligence, then transmitting both RF
signals to a given destination.
2. Space Diversity
With space diversity, the output of a transmitter is fed to two or more
antennas that are physically separated by an appreciable number of
wavelengths.
where:
3 R e R e = fictitious earth radius in km
S=
L L = path length in km
= signal wavelength in m
3. Polarization Diversity
A single RF carrier is propagated with two different electromagnetic
polarizations.
I H
1. To provide a reliable 1 GHz cellular phone service in the ground floor dining
room of a 52-story (160 m) building in the center of a metropolis, a passive
link via coaxial cable was installed between the top of the building and the
dining room. Without the link, signals via multipath reflections were unreliable.
The top of the building antenna is a /2 dipole. The dining room antenna is a
/4 stub (probe) projecting down from the ceiling. The handheld cell phone
with /4 antenna projecting up has equivalent effective area. If the dining
room cellular phone is 10m from the ceiling antenna and the top of the building
antenna is 1.2-km LOS from the cell tower antenna, which has a gain of 10dB
and the cable loss is 2dB/100m. What is the total path loss in dB?
A. -154 dB B. -134 dB
C. -174 dB D. -114 dB
4. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
A. diversity B. low power
C. high-gain antennas D. repeater
6. Calculate the maximum range for a microwave link for which the antenna
heights are 100 and 60 ft.
A. 23.5 mi B. 44.5 mi
C. 25.1 mi D. 21.8 mi
7. What reliability is equal to an average outage time of 88.6 seconds per day?
A. 99.99% B. 96.97%
C. 90.91% D. 98.19%
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-81
14. For a system gain of 112 dB, a total NF of 6.5 dB, an input noise power of -104
dBm, and a minimum output S/N of the FM demodulator of 32 dB, determine
the minimum received carrier power and the minimum transmit power.
A. -55.2 dBm, 33.5 dBm B. 29.5 dBm, -82.5 dBm
C. -33.5 dBm, 55.2 dBm D. -82.5 dBm, 29.5 dBm
16. 90% reliability is equivalent to how many hours per year that a certain
microwave system will not meet the desired propagation requirements.
A. 876 hrs/yr B. 568 hrs/yr
C. 347 hrs/yr D. 239 hrs/yr
18. A microwave receiver receives 60 dBm of signal. The noise power is 100
dBm. What is the carrier-to-noise power ratio?
A. 160 dB B. 40 dB
C. -160 dB D. -40 dB
20. Consider a receiver with an FM IT of 114 dBW, a free space attenuation of 140
dB, an antenna gain of 20 dB each, and 2 dB transmission line losses. What
would the transmitter output have to provide a 114 dBW input level to the
receiver?
A. 3.5 W B. 0.1 W
C. 5.3 W D. 8.2 W
21. _____ fading is a partial isolation of the transmitting and receiving antennas
because of intrusion of the earths surface or atmospheric layers into the
propagation path.
A. voltage B. current
C. Rayleigh D. power
22. What Fade Margin is required for 99.95 % single hop propagation reliability?
A. 25 dB B. 33 dB
C. 18 dB D. 45 dB
24. Calculate the half-power beamdwidth of a parabolic reflector with a gain 44 dB.
A. 1 B. 23
C. 15 D. 21
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-83
25. Calculate the required clearance for an obstacle located 10 km from the
transmitting end of a 40-km line of sight radio link operating at frequency of 6
GHz.
A. 11.6 m B. 22.8 m
C. 5.5 m D. 8.14 m
26. A transmitter has a power output of 10W at a carrier frequency of 250 MHz. It
is connected by 10 m of a transmission line having a loss of 3 dB/100m to an
antenna with a gain of 6 dBi. The receiving antenna is 20 km away and has a
gain of 4 dBi. There is negligible loss in the receiver feedline, but the receiver
is mismatched; the antenna and line are designed for a 50- impedance, but
the receiver input is 75-. Calculate the power delivered to the receiver,
assuming free-space propagation.
A. 204 nW B. 2040 nW
C. 2.04 nW D. 20.4 nW
27. A 10 hops LOS microwave system has a system time availability equal to
99.85%. What would the per hop time availability be?
A. 99.85% B. 90.95%
C. 99.985% D. 97.85%
28. The use of redundant system to reduce the effects of multipath fading is
_____.
A. combining B. diversity
C. modulation D. multiplexing
31. What is the availability of a system where the MTBF is 40,000 and the MTTR is
10 hr?
A. 98.5% B. 99.975%
C. 99.918% D. 95.95%
32. The extra strength needed in order to assure that enough signal reaches the
receiving antenna and must be made available to compensate for fades;
computed as the difference between the received signal strength and the
threshold level
A. RSL B. Noise Figure
C. Threshold Level D. Fade Margin
33. A microwave path over which radio waves barely touches the obstruction is
called _____.
A. Grazing Path B. Obstructed Path
C. Line of Sight D. Crooked Path
34. Calculate the system propagation reliability given the following individual link
availability: Link 0-1 = 99.85% Link 1-2 = 99.99%
Link 2-3 = 99.9% Link 3-4= 99.95%
A. 99% B. 99.45%
C. 99.95% D. 99.845%
36. What fade margin is required for a microwave LOS link with a time availability
requirements of 99.997%?
A. 42.5 dB B. 45.77 dB
C. 43.5 dB D. 46 dB
39. Calculate the value of k-factor that will, as if effectively give an earth bulge of
200 ft for a 25 mi radio link system.
A. 1.33 B. 0.521
C. 0.75 D. 0.92
41. Determine the power delivered to the receiver in dBm of a transmitter located
40-km away with an output power of 2 W using a 20 dBi antenna, assuming
the receive antenna gain is 25 dBi at 6 GHz.
A. -37 dBm B. -153 dBm
C. -62 dBm D. -85 dBm
45. Calculate the thermal noise power in dBm, referred to the receiver input of a
microwave antenna/feedline system with a combined noise temperature of 182
K connected to a receiver with a NF of 2 dB and 20 MHz of bandwidth.
A. -80 dBm B. -120 dBm
C. -100 dBm D. -150 dBm
46. How far from the transmitter could a signal be received if the transmitting and
receiving antennas were 40m and 20m, respectively, above level terrain?
A. 44.5 km B. 87.6 km
C. 32.7 km D. 15.8 km
47. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be,
approximately, for a microwave beam?
A. 15 km B. 16 km
C. 12 km D. 8 km
49. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How
many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and
both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi?
A. -22.4 dBm B. 32.4 dBm
C. -42.4 dBm D. 42.4 dBm
50. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of
150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system
referenced to the receiver input.
A. 201 K B. 300 K
C. 178 K D. 290 K
HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVE
1957 Russia launched Sputnik I that becomes the 1st active satellite.
Sputnik I transmit telemetry information for 21 days.
1958 Explorer I was launched. The 1st American satellite, which also
transmits telemetry informations for nearly five months.
1958 NASA launched Score. Score was the 1st artificial satellite used for
relaying terrestrial communications that rebroadcast President
Eisenhowers 1958 Christmas message. (1ST communications satellite)
1962 AT&T launched Telstar I, the 1st satellite capable to transmit and
receive simultaneously but eventually destroyed by the new
discovered Van Allen radiation belts. (1st duplex satellite)
1965 Intelsat or Early Bird was launched and was the first commercial
telecommunications satellite which used 2 transponder, 25 MHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-87
1997 Aguila II, launched in China becomes the first Filipino satellite.
B. .KEPLERs LAW.
1. First Law
The orbit of a planet around the sun is an ellipse.
Sun
Aphelion
Perihelion
A1=A2 if t1=t2
The square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the mean
distance between the primary and the satellite.
Satellite
Astronomy
Communication
P2 2
=k = A xP 3
MD3
MD = mean distance
P = orbital period
A = constant
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-89
Solution: h
2 2
= AP 3= 42241 .0979 x 0.9972 3 = 42, 162 .21 km
hkm = R earth = 42, 162 .21 6378 = 35, 784 .21 km
Rearth
E
1. Polar Orbit
Satellite rotates in a path that takes it over the North and South poles
in an orbit perpendicular to the equatorial plane.
2. Equatorial Orbit
Satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the equator, usually in a
circular path.
3. Inclined Orbit
Virtually all orbit except those that travel directly above the equator or
directly over the North and South poles.
Operating
Typical Orbital
Orbit Frequency Availability
Height (mi) Period
(GHz)
LEO 100 - 300 1.0 2.5 1.5 hrs. 0.25 hrs.
6,000 to
MEO 1.22 1.66 612 hrs. 24 hrs.
12,000
19,000 to
GEO 2 - 18 24 hrs. 24 hrs.
25,000
E. .GEOSTATIONARY ORBIT.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-91
Parameter Value
19,322 nmi,
Altitude 22, 300 smi,
36,000 km
Period 23 hr, 56 min, 4.091 s
Orbit Inclination 0
1 R
= tan1
tan ( R + h ) sin
Azimuth Angle
The horizontal pointing angle of an earth station antenna generally
referred to true north.
tan
Az = cos 1
tan
2. Slant Distance
The Line-of-Sight (LOS) distance between an earth station antenna
and the satellite
( R + h)
2
d = R sin + R 2 cos2
Where:
= Angle of elevation in degrees
= cos 1 cos cos
= Latitude of Earth station antenna
= Difference in longitude between an Earth station antenna
and the sub-satellite point
h = Satellite HEIGHT in km
R = Earth's radius = 6378km
Az = Azimuth angle in degrees
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-93
Sample Problem:
Calculate the elevation angle, azimuth and slant range between the TVRO
site (38.8N latitude, 77W longitude) and Hughes Galaxy satellite that is in
a geo-stationary orbit at 134W longitude above the equator.
Solution:
Elevation Angle
1 R
= tan1
tan (R + h ) sin
= cos 1 [cos( ) cos( )]
= cos 1 [cos(38.8 ) cos(134 77 )]
= 64.9
1 6400 km
= tan1
tan(64 .9 ) (6400 + 36,000 ) sin(64 . 9 )
= 16.8
Azimuth Angle
tan 1 tan(38.8 )
Az = cos 1 = cos
tan tan(64.9 )
= 247 .9
Slant Distance
gR 2 T 2 (4 x 105 ) T 2 2
h= 3 R h= 3 R h = 21.64 T 3 R
4 2 4 2
4. Orbital Period
The period of time that it takes a satellite to rotate around the earth.
5. Orbital Velocity
The apparent velocity of a satellite as it rotates around the earth.
Alternate Solution
General Solution
km/s m/s
2 (h + R) 4 x 105 4 x 1011
= = =
T (h + R) (h + R)
Sample Problem:
Determine the orbital period and orbital velocity of a satellite located 15,000
km above the surface of the earth.
Solution:
Orbital Period
T = 2
(R + h)3 = 2
(6400 + 15,000 )3
gR 2 4 x 105
1 hr
= 31, 100 .72 sec x
3600 s
= 8 .64 hrs
Orbital Velocity
4 x 1011
=
(6400 + 15,000 )
= 4,323 .38 m
s
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-95
Slant distance d
Ptime = =
Speed of light c
Reminder
In some books propagation delay is the same as round-trip propagation time.
Sample Problem:
Calculate the propagation time, propagation delay, and FSL for a geo-
stationary satellite located directly above an earth station antenna with an
operating frequency of 12 GHz.
Solution:
Propaga tion time Propagation delay
d 36 ,000 km Pdelay = 2 x Ptime
Ptime = =
c 3 x 105 km = 2(120 ms )
s
= 120 ms = 240 ms
This means that your solution must be between these specified limits!
G. .SATELLITE FOOTPRINTS.
Footprint Summary
Spot Beam
10% of earths surface Domestic coverage
Zonal Beam
Hemispheric
20% of earths surface Regional coverage
Beam
42% of earths surface
Global Beam Earth coverage
(using 17 beamwidth)
1. Bit Energy
The amount of energy carried by a single bit of information.
Pt
Joule/bps Eb = P t xTb Eb =
fb
Solution:
dBW
Eb =Pt(dBW)10logfb = 10log(500) 10log(50x106 ) = 40
bps
2. Noise Density
Noise density is the noise power normalized or present in a 1-Hz
bandwidth.
N
Watts/Hz No = No = kTe
BW
Solution:
No = NdB 10logBW = 10log(0.02 80x10-12 ) - 10log(10x1 06 )
dBW
= -205.53
Hz
C C
unitless =
No kTe
C
dB = C dBW No(dBW)
No
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-99
1 1 1
= +
C C C
No S No UL No DL
Sample Problem:
For a satellite communication channel, the uplink C/No ratio is 80 dB/Hz. And
the downlink value is 90 dB/Hz. Calculate the overall C/No ratio in dB/Hz
Solution:
C 1 1
N = = = 90.9x106
o S 1 1 1 1
+ +
C C (108 )UL (109 )DL
N N
o UL o DL
= 10log(90.9 x106 ) = 79.586 dB/Hz
Solution:
For BPSK system fb = BWNyquist
Eb C BW 20 MHz
= + = 8.8 dB + 10log = 8.8 dB
N
o dB N dB fb dB 20 Mbps
i. Usual Approach
Expressed
General Solution
in
G A r + ALNA
unitless =
Te Te
G
dB = A r(dB) + ALNA(dB) Te(dBK )
Te
Expressed
General Solution
in
G A r + ALNA
unitless =
T Ta + Te
G
dB = A r(dB) + ALNA(dB) 10 log(Ta + Te )
Te
Sample Problem:
A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite
38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a
gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz.
Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
Solution:
EIRP = 10logPtx + Gtx(dB) = 50 dBi FSLdB = 92.4 + 20 log{12 x 38,000} = 205.6 dB
C G
= RSLdB NdB = EIRPdBW FSLdB + + 228.6 dB 10 log BW
N dB T dB
= 50 205.6 + 25 + 228.6 10 log(1 x 106 ) = 38 dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-101
Sample Problem:
Calculate the G/T of a receiving antenna with a gain of 38 dB and looks at
the sky with a noise temperature of 15 K if the loss between the antenna
and the LNA input, due to feedhorn, is 0.5 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 38 K.
Solution:
290(A 1) + Tsky 0.5
G = 38 dBi - 0.5 dB = 37.5 dBi Ta = A = log1
A 10
290(1.12 1) + 15
= = 50 K
1.12
G
= Ar(dB) + ALNA(dB) 10log(Ta + Te )
Te
= 37.5 + 0 - 10log(50 + 38) = 18.16 dB
Hybrid DS/FH
Combination of direct sequence and frequency hopping.
No. of satellites 66 10 48
Year
Country First Satellite
Launched
I H
1. It is often claimed that the KU-band (12 GHz) is better than the C-band (4
GHz) for TVRO reception because a parabolic antenna of a given diameter has
higher gain at the higher frequency. Though the gain is undoubtedly higher,
what is the difference in path loss to find out if there is really a net
improvement in the signal strength obtain for a given receiving antenna?
A. 10.542 dB B. 9.542 dB
C. 6.542 dB D. 8. 542 dB
2. Consider a bent pipe satellite system where the uplink C/NO= 105 dB and the
downlink C/NO= 95 dB. What is the system C/NO?
A. 94.586 dB B. 85.935 dB
C. 81.478 dB D. 98.153 dB
3. Calculate the required C/No for a digital satellite link if the desired Eb/No ratio is
9.6 dB and the bit rate is equal to that of T1 carrier.
A. 61.5 dB B. 51.5 dB
C. 71.5 dB D. 81.5 dB
4. A satellite receiver has a G/T ratio of -7 dB/K, and the receiver feeder loss are
1 dB. The earth station transmits an EIRP of 50 dBW, and the transmission
path loss amount to 205 dB. Calculate the C/No at the receiver.
A. 83.8 dB B. 65.6 dB
C. 38.5 dB D. 56.5 dB
6. A satellite is put into final geosynchronous orbit from its transfer orbit by firing
the _____?
A. Jet Thruster B. Orbit stabilizer
C. Apogee Kick Motor D. Booster Rocket
7. What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on
its orbit?
A. Satellite self power B. Atmospheric condition
C. Wind velocity D. Centripetal force
8. Calculate the Doppler frequency shift for a satellite with a relative velocity of
5000 km/s as receive by an earth station antenna operating at 6 GHz.
A. 5.5 GHz B. 3.5 GHz
C. 6.1 GHz D. 8.1 GHz
10. For the downlink of a digital satellite circuit, the transmission path loss is 207
dB and the G/T at the receiver is -5 dB/K. Calculate the satellite EIRP required
to maintain a transmission rate of 65 Mbps at a Eb/No of 9 dB.
A. 70.53 dB B. 66.38 dB
C. 88.25 dB D. 83.57 dB
11. Calculate the propagation delay for a satellite and an earth station if the angle
of elevation is 30.
A. 260 ms B. 75 ms
C. 130 ms D. 520 ms
12. Calculate the signal strength in dBm and the time it will take for a signal that
emanates from an interstellar space probe Voyager 1 with a transmit power 10
W, 45 dBi antenna gain to reach the earth when it passed the orbit of Pluto.
(Assume Plutos location equal to 3.7x109 miles when the probes passed by
and the Earth station antenna gain is 55 dBi operating at 1.8 GHz).
A. 1.13 hrs -83.1 dBm B. 5.53 hrs -83.1 dBm
C. 5.53 hrs -93.1 dBm D. 1.13 hrs -93.1 dBm
13. In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a
reply is heard?
A. 200 ms B. 900 ms
C. 600 ms D. 50 ms
14. Under a circular satellite orbit, how high is a certain satellite located above the
surface of the earth if the total satellite height is 9,869 miles?
A. 3,960 miles B. 6,000 miles
C. 4,984.50 miles D. 3,000 miles
17. Telephone communications takes place between two earth stations via a
satellite that is 38,000 km from each earth station. Suppose Tamyboy, at
station 1, asks a question and Jason, at station 2, answer immediately, as soon
as he hears the question. How much time elapses between the end of
Tamyboys question and the beginning of Jasons reply, as hear by Tamyboy?
A. 253.33 ms B. 87.88 ms
C. 158.45 ms D. 224.12 ms
18. A satellite receiving system has a figure of merit of -8dB/K. The satellite
antenna is a paraboloidal reflector type with an illumination efficiency of 70%
and a -3dB beamwidth of 18. Calculate the total noise temperature at the
receiver input.
A. 435.6 K B. 659.2 K
C. 345.6 K D. 235.6 K
19. Calculate the C/No at the earth receiving station, from a satellite transmitting
an EIRP of 49.5 dBW on a frequency of 12 GHz. The earth station antenna
angle of elevation is 7 and the receiving figure of merit is 40.7 dB
A. 11.2 dB B. 151.2 dB
C. 112.5 dB D. 100.3 dB
20. Determine the signal strength at the satellite if an earth station is transmitting
7 W of power using a parabolic antenna with a gain of 45 dBi, operating at 4
GHz, the path length is 40,000 km and the satellite receiver gain is 40 dBi.
A. -79 dBm B. -73 dBm
C. -70 dBm D. -77 dBm
21. Calculate the orbital velocity of a satellite located 500 km above the earths
surface.
A. 3.6 km/s B. 5.6 km/s
C. 7.6 km/s D. 9.6 km/s
22. Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite.
A. Hub B. Solar panel orientation
C. Spin D. Gravity forward motion balance
24. What is the equivalent noise temperature for a receiving installation that has a
G/T of 30 dB. If its antenna gain is 45 dB and the antenna noise temperature
is 22 K.
A. 9.62 K B. 29.62 K
C. 39.62 K D. 19.62 K
25. Find the noise temperature of an antenna on a satellite if it looks at the earth
(giving it a sky noise temperature of 290 K) and is coupled to the reference
plane by a waveguide with loss of 0.3 dB.
A. 290 K B. 310 K
C. 210 K D. 300 K
26. The IRL from a satellite is -155 dBW; the earth station receiving system has an
antenna gain of 47 dB, an antenna feed loss of 0.1 dB, a waveguide loss of 1.5
dB, a directional coupler insertion loss of 0.2 dB, and a bandpass filter loss of
0.3 dB; the system noise temperature is 117 K. What is the C/NO?
A. 93.51 dB B. 95.9 dB
C. 857.88 dB D. 97.82 dB
27. Sputnik 1 is the first active satellite which transmits _____ information.
A. data B. weather
C. telemetry D. celestial
29. Calculate the power density in W/m2 as received from a 10-W satellite source
that is 22,000 mi away from earth.
A. 8.77x10-16 W/m2 B. 3.33x10-16 W/m2
-16 2
C. 1.48x10 W/m D. 6.35x10-16 W/m2
30. In this type of satellite transponder, a single mixer converts all channels within
the 500-Mhz bandwidth simultaneously to their downlink frequency.
A. Broadband transponder B. Double-conversion
C. Channelized transponder D. Regenerative transponder
32. Calculate the average distance of the moon from the earth if the moon has an
orbital period of approximately 28 days.
A. 34x106 m B. 84x106 m
C. 384x106 m D. 38x106 m
35. Satellite bandwidths are typically ____ wide and are divided into ____
segments, each _____ wide.
A. 500-MHz, 12, 24-MHz B. 500-MHz, 36, 12-MHz
C. 500-MHz, 24, 70-MHz D. 500-MHz, 12, 36-MHz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-109
36. Calculate the orbital velocity of satellite located 10,000 km above the surface
of the earth.
A. 4,931.16 m/s B. 4,656.34 m/s
C. 4,578.9 m/s D. 4,456.56 m/s
37. The FDMA technique wherein voice band channels are assigned on as needed
basis.
A. CDMA B. DAMA
C. PAMA D. SSMA
38. Calculate the received signal strength at the satellite if the earth station uplink
transmitter operates at 6 GHz with a transmitter power of 10 kW and an
antenna gain of 50 dBi. The geostationary satellite receiver is using a parabolic
antenna with a gain of 40 dBi, the elevation angle to the satellite as viewed
from the earth station is 45.
A. -29.5 dBm B. -39.5 dBm
C. -59.5 dBm D. -49.5 dBm
39. A form of CDMA where a digital code is used to continually change the
frequency of the carrier.
A. Store and Forward B. SPADE
C. Spread Spectrum D. Frequency Hopping
40. The satellite frequency re-use method which sends different information signals
using vertical or horizontal electromagnetic polarization.
A. Dual polarization B. Spread spectrum
C. Multiple coverage areas D. Spatial polarization
41. The line that connects the apogee and the perigee.
A. line of apsides B. line of nodes
C. line of gee D. line of shoot
42. Calculate the EIRP in dBm of an earth terminal with an antenna with a gain of
30 dB, transmitter output of 200 W, and transmission line losses of 2.3 dB.
A. 20.5 dBm B. 36.67 dBm
C. 80.7 dBm D. 56.89 dBm
43. What is the isotropic receive level (IRL) at an earth terminal antenna where the
free -space loss to the associated satellite is 196.4 dB and other link losses are
2.6 dB? The satellite EIRP is + 34 dBW.
A. -163.4 dBW B. -110.6 dBW
C. -143.2 dBW D. -165 dBW
44. What is the receiving system noise temperature (Tsys) if the antenna noise
temperature is 300 K and the receiver noise temperature is 100 K?
A. 200 K B. 200 K
C. 316.22 K D. 400 K
46. Determine C/No at an earth terminal of a satellite downlink where the RSL is -
139 dBW and the system noise temperature is 400 K.
A. 34.4 dB B. 12.45 dB
C. 63.58 dB D. 56.3 dB
50. Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates
the uplink signal to recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate
the downlink transmitter?
A. Regenerative B. Baseband
C. Double conversion D. Broadband
54. One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the
receive antenna: A. mixer; B. low noise amplifier; C. power amplifier; and D.
local oscillator.
A. A B. B
C. C D. D
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-111
56. Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board
ship.
A. Mobile satellite station B. Ship earth station
C. Mobile satellite D. Ship station
58. How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude
measurements?
A. Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite
B. Designate south or North Pole as reference
C. Designate any reference point on the surface of the earth
D. Designate any reference point on the earth along the equator
59. A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of
the earth.
A. Zenith B. Azimuth
C. Perigee D. Apogee
61. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:
A. 3,578 km B. 35,780 km
C. 357,800 km D. depends on satellite velocity
62. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
A. apogee and perigee B. perigee and apogee
C. uplink and downlink D. downlink and uplink
63. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:
A. earth station B. downlink
C. footprint D. plate
66. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
A. 5 to 25 watts B. 50 to 250 watts
C. 500 to 2500 watts D. depends on its orbit
67. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
A. 101 watts B. 102 watts
C. 103 watts D. 104 watts
B. .ANALOG CELLULAR.
Analog cellular was the first approach in wireless telephony, given its
widespread implementation in the early years. Analog standards include
AMPS, N-AMPS, TACS and NMT.
NMT 450 - Operates in the 450 MHz range, which yields excellent
signal propagation.
NMT 900 - Operates in the 900 MHz range, and is appropriate for
more densely populated areas.
C. .DIGITAL CELLULAR.
Current digital standards include JDC, USDC, TDMA, CDMA, and GSM, with
GSM clearly being the dominant. Most digital standards, including GSM,
are based on TDMA and TDD.
1. Analog Cellular
Parameter AMPS NMT-450 TACS
GSM TDMA-FDMA
Detailsdetailsdetails
Year
System
Introduced
NMT 1981
AMPS 1983
ETACS (Europe) 1985
JTACS (Japan) 1988
GSM 1990
TDMA (IS-136) 1991
NAMPS 1992
NTACS 1993
CDMA (IS-95) 1993
2. Digital Cellular
D-AMPS
Parameter GSM CDMA DECT
(TDMA)
Uplink
824-849 890-915 824-849 1897-1913
Frequency (MHz)
Spectrum Downlink
869-894 935-960 869-849 1897-1913
(MHz)
Duplex Distance 45 MHz 45 MHz 45 MHz ---
24 slot
Number of channels 832 125 19-20
channels
/4 BPSK or
Modulation GMSK GFSK
DQPSK QPSK
Radius 32 km 32 km 13 mi 500 m
2.2 mW 3.7 mW 10 nW to
Mobile Output Power 250 mW
to 6 W to 20 W 1W
280.833 1.2288
Data Transmission 48.6 kbps 1.152 Mbps
kbps Mbps
1. Cell
A cell is the basic geographic unit of cellular system.
i. Macrocell
Cover a relatively large area. One (1) macrocell might support 12
channels and only 12 simultaneous conversations. In a 7-cell
reuse pattern (which is typical) with each cell covering a radius of
about 11 miles, no improvement is realized; only 12 conversations
can be supported.
ii. Microcell
Cover a smaller area. If a macrocell were divided into microcells,
in a 7-cell reuse pattern, a reuse factor of 128 is realized. The
same 12 channels could support 1,536 simultaneous
conversations.
iii. Picocell
Picocells are quite small, covering only a few blocks of an urban
area or, perhaps, a tunnel, walkway, or parking garage. In a 7-cell
reuse pattern, with each cell covering a radius of approximately
1/2 mile, the reuse factor climbs to 514. The same 12 channels
could theoretically support up to 6,168 simultaneous
conversations.
where:
A
N= A = total area to be covered
3.464r 2
r = cell radius
Solution:
rcell
A 2000
N= =
3.464r 2 3.464 x 22
= 145 cells
2. Cluster
Cluster is a group of cells. No channels are reused within a cluster.
3. Frequency Reuse
Frequency reuse is the process in which the same set of frequencies
can be allocated to more than one cell, provided the cells are at a
certain distance apart. When the same channel is to be reused in two
cells, the two cells are called co-channel cells. The distance D is the
separation of the two co-channel cells.
where:
R = nC C = number of cells in a cluster
n = number of full-duplex channels in a cell
where:
F = mR
m = number of clusters
Sample Problem:
Calculate the theoretical number of full duplex channels available in a cluster
and the total capacity for a cellular system where there are 20 clusters, each
consisting of 10 cells with 16 channels each cell.
Solution:
R = nC F = mR
channels cells channels
= 16 x10 = 20 clusters x160
cell cluster cluster
= 160 full - duplex channels = 3200 full - duplex
4. Cellular Interference
i. Co-channel interference
Two cells using the same set of frequencies are called co-channel
cells and the interference between them is called co-channel
interference.
d
Q = 3n Q=
r
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-123
where:
n = number of cells in a cluster
d = distance to the nearest co-channel cell
r = radius of cell
Sample Problem:
Determine the co-channel reuse ratio for a cluster with 25 cells.
Solution:
Q= 3n = 3 x 25 = 8.66
5. Handoff
Handoff occurs when the mobile telephone network automatically
transfers a call from radio channel to radio channel as mobile crosses
adjacent cells.
2 Types of Handover
Break Before Make hard handover
Make Before Break soft handover
Solution:
d d 10 km 3600 s
= t= = = 0.1hr x = 360 s
t 100 km 1 hr
hr
6. Antenna separation
The antenna separation for cellular systems is determined by the
formula
where:
h
= 11 h = antenna height
d
d = spacing between 2 antennas
3. Cell Site
The term cell site is used to refer to the physical location of radio
equipment that provides coverage within a cell. Cell sites includes
power sources, interface equipment, RF transmitter, receivers, and
antenna system
G. .ACCESSING TECHNIQUE.
H. .GSM NETWORK.
1. Broadcast Channels
i. Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)
Used to tell the mobile that this is the BCCH carrier and to enable
the mobile synchronize to the frequency being broadcast by the
BTS.
4. Call Forwarding
This service gives the subscriber the ability to forward incoming calls
to another number of the called mobile unit is not reachable, if it is
busy, if there is no reply, or if call forwarding is allowed
unconditionally.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-131
5. Call Hold
This service enables the subscriber to interrupt an ongoing call and
then subsequently re-establish the call. The call hold service is only
applicable to normal telephony.
7. Call Waiting
This service enables the mobile subscribers to be notified of an
incoming call during a conversation. The subscriber can answer,
reject, or ignore the incoming call. Call waiting is applicable to all
GSM telecommunications services using circuit-switched connection.
8. Cell Broadcast
A variation of the short message service is the cell broadcast facility.
A message of maximum of 93 characters can be broadcast to all
mobile subscribers in a certain geographic area.
1. Blocking Probability
An where:
GOS = PB = n n! A = traffic in Erlang
Ax
x=0
x!
n = number of trunks/channels
Sample Problem:
Calculate the blocking probability for 5-channel cell with an offered traffic of
1.66 erlangs.
Solution:
1.665
P(B ) = 5! x100%
1.660 1.661 1.662 1.663 1.66 4 1.665
+ + + + +
0! 1! 2! 3! 4! 5!
= 2%
Sample Problem:
From the following data, determine the offered traffic of a cell.
Maximum calls per hour in one cell = 3000
Average calling time = 1.76 minutes
Blocking probability = 2%
Solution:
n 3000 1hr
A= xT = x 1.76minx = 88 Erlangs
t 1hr 60min
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-133
where:
A = NT N = # of subscribers
T = peak or average holding time
Sample Problem:
A particular cellular telephone system consisting of 120 cells and catering
20,000 subscribers is using a 12-cell repeating pattern. If each subscriber
on this network uses his/her phone on average 45 minutes per day, and also
on average 20 of those minutes are used during the peak hour, calculate the
peak and average traffic for one cell, assuming callers are evenly distributed
over the system.
Solution:
For the entire system:
20 min 1hr 1 day
Apeak = 20,000 x A ave = 20,000 x 45min x x
60 min 60 min 24 hr
= 6666.67 Erlang = 625 Erlang
Sample Problem:
Assuming the average duration of each call be 1.76 minutes and from Erlang
B tables for 2% blocking
# of channels Offered Traffic
600 587.2
666 ?
700 688.2
How many customers can be served with 666 voice channels if all the
channels are used in a single cell?
Solution:
A
By interpolation A = NT N =
T
666 600 653.86 E 60min
A 666 = x(688.2 587.2 ) + 587.2 N= x
700 600 1.76 min 1E
= 653.86 Erlangs = 22,291 calls
N. .3G GLOBALLY.
O. .MIGRATION TO 3G.
2. Data Evolution
5. 3G (IMT-2000) Architecture
Primary High mobility data High mobility data High mobility data
service and voice and voice and voice
Up to 384 kbps
Maximum data Up to 384 kbps (up
(phase one); Up to 307.2 kbps
rate to 2 Mbps indoor)
2 Mbps (phase two)
8. Comparison of 3G and 4G
Parameter 3G 4G
CT0 CT1/CT1+
Standard
Cordless Telephone 0 Cordless Telephone 1
2/48 (U.K.)
26/41 (France)
Mobile Frequency 30/39 (Australia) CT1: 914/960
Range (MHz) 31/40 (The Netherlands/Spain) CT1+: 885/932
Number of CT1: 40
10, 12, 15, 20 or 25
Channels CT1+: 80
Modulation FM FM
Digital Enhanced
Cordless Personal Handy
Cordless
Standard Telephone 2 Phone System
Telephone
(CT2) (PHS)
(DECT)
Mobile Frequency
864-868 MHz 1880-1900 MHz 1895-1918 MHz
Range
Multiple Access
TDMA/FDM TDMA/FDM TDMA/FDM
Method
Number of
40 10 300
Channels
Technology
Technology Date Rates Typical Range
Application
Wireless Personal
Bluetooth Area Network 0.723 Mbps 10 m
(WPAN)
Wireless Personal
802.15.4 Zigbee 0.250 Mbps 10 m to 100 m
Area Network (PAN)
Peak Data
Cellular Typical
Standard Rate Connection Modulation
Family Data Rate
(kbps)
9.6 kbps Circuit
CSD 9.6 kbps GMSK
14.4 kbps Switched
28.8 kbps Circuit
HS-CSD 28.8 kbps GMSK
43 kbps Switched
GSM
115 kbps Packet
GPRS 50 kbps GMSK
171 kbps Switched
384 kbps Packet
EDGE 115 kbps 8-PSK
513 kbps Switched
384 kbps Packet
FDD 144 kbps QPSK
2 Mbps Switched
UMTS
384 kbps Packet
TDD 144 kbps QPSK
2 Mbps Switched
Circuit
IS-95A 14.4 kbps 14.4 kbps QPSK
Switched
CDMAOne
64 kbps Packet
IS-95B 56 kbps QPSK
115 kbps Switched
144 kbps Packet
CDMA2000 IX 130 kbps QPSK
307 kbps Switched
Circuit
TDMA CSD 9.6 kbps 9.6 kbps DQ/4PSK
Switched
Packet
PDC i-mode 9.5 kbps 9.6 kbps DQ/4PSK
Switched
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-143
Q. .BLUETOOTH SPECIFICATIONS.
Bluetooth is a universal radio interface in the 2.4 GHz frequency band that
enables electronic devices to connect and communicate wirelessly via
short-range (10-100 m), ad-hoc networks.
Key Features:
Peak data rate : 1 Mbps
Low power : peak TX power < 20 dBm
Low cost : target is $5-10 per piece
Ability to simultaneously handle both voice and data
Line of sight not required
History:
Technical Features:
Range
Class Maximum Power
(Approximate)
Piconet
Connection Modes:
Hold Mode: The ACL link to the slave is put on hold. SCO links are
still supported. Frees capacity for inquiry, paging, participation in
another piconet.
Park Mode: The slave gives up its active member address. But
remains synchronized (beacon channel). Listens to broadcasts.
Most power efficient.
I H
1. The dimension of the chip-sized SIM card.
A. 15 x 20 mm B. 20 x 30 mm
C. 10 x 20 mm D. 15 x 25 mm
3. A transmission method that uses only one channel for transmitting and
receiving, separating them by different time slots. No guard band is used. This
increases spectral efficiency by eliminating the buffer band, but also increases
flexibility in asynchronous applications.
A. TDM B. TDD
C. FDM D. FDD
8. In wireless technology, _____ refers to transporting voice and data traffic from
a cell site to the switch
A. Backbone B. Backhaul
C. Routing D. Switching
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-147
10. A protocol designed for advanced wireless devices allowing the easy
transmission of data signals, particularly Internet content, to micro-browsers
built into the device's software
A. Bisync B. Wireless Application Protocol
C. TCP D. SMTP
13. The part of the wireless system's infrastructure that controls one or multiple
cell sites' radio signals, thus reducing the load on the switch
A. Home Location Register B. Visitor Location Register
C. Base station controller D. Base Transceiver Station
16. The code name for a new wireless technology being developed by Ericsson Inc.,
Intel Corp., Nokia Corp. and Toshiba
A. WiMax B. Zigbee
C. Bluetooth D. WiFi
18. Facility offered by a few handsets enabling calls to be made by using voice
commands rather than pressing the numbers. The memory can be programmed
to store and identify names spoken into the handset and call numbers
associated with them.
A. Automatic Dialing B. Abbreviated Dialing
C. Voice Calling D. Voice Recognition
19. Air interface standard, which will enable Third Generation mobile phones to
carry new mobile multimedia services.
A. WCDMA B. TDMA
C. UMTS D. TDD
Loading ECE SUPERBook
5-148 Cellular communication system
20. A framework from the ITU for third-generation (3G) wireless phone standards
throughout the world that deliver high-speed multimedia data as well as voice.
A. GSM 1900 B. TACS
C. IMT-2000 D. IS-136
23. A wireless phone programmed with stolen or duplicated electronic serial and
mobile identification numbers
A. RAID B. Backup
C. Clone D. Party line
24. An automobile travels at 60kph. Find the time between fades if the car uses a
PCS phone at 1900 MHz.
A. 4.7 ms B. 2.35 ms
C. 9.14 ms D. 1.12 ms
29. A cellular radio transmitter has a power output of 3-W at 800 MHz. It uses an
antenna with a gain of 12 dBi. The receiver is 5-km away, with an antenna
gain of 12 dBi. Calculate the received signal strength in dBm, ignoring any
losses in transmission lines.
A. -14.7 dBm B. -24.7 dBm
C. -45.7 dBm D. -84.7 dBm
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-149
30. A cell site has 57 voice channels. Assume a blocking probability of 2%. From
the Erlang B table, the offered load A=46.8 Erlangs. Assume the average
talking time per call is 100 sec; calculate the number of calls per busy hour and
the number of calls per radio.
A. 1658 calls/b-h, 92.5 calls/radio B. 1586 calls/b-h, 25.9 calls/radio
C. 1865 calls/b-h, 95.2 calls/radio D. 1685 calls/b-h, 29.5 calls/radio
34. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is
called the:
A. BSC B. MTSO
C. RF interface D. air interface
35. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
A. increase the number of cells B. decrease the number of cells
C. increase the ERP D. decrease the ERP
36. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is:
A. 800 MHz B. 900 MHz
C. 1.9 GHz D. 12 GHz
37. In CDMA:
A. all frequencies are used in all cells
B. each cell uses half the available frequencies
C. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
D. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
39. An improvement in signal gain can be obtained by raising the height of the
base station antenna. On the assumptions that the received radio signals is -
110 dBm and the height of the base station antenna is 100 ft, how much higher
must the base station antenna be raised to obtain an increase from -110 to -
100 dBm in the received signal?
A. 116 ft B. 216 ft
C. 416 ft D. 316 ft
41. A cellular system uses 12-cell repeating pattern. There are 120 cells in the
system and 20,000 subscribers. Each subscriber uses the phone on average 30
minutes per day, but on average 10 of those minutes are used during peak
hour. Calculate the average and peak traffic in erlangs for the whole system.
A. 416 E & 3333 E B. 41.6 E & 33.33 E
C. 4.16 E & 3.333 E D. 41.6 E & 3.333 E
42. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal
communication.
A. first-generation B. second-generation
C. third-generation D. fourth-generation
43. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base
station.
A. medium B. soft
C. hard D. make before break
44. From the following data, determine the average holding time of a cell.
Maximum calls per hour in one cell = 28000
Blocking probability = 2%
Offered traffic A = 821 erlangs.
A. 1.76 minutes B. 0.176 minutes
C. 176 minutes D. 17.6 minutes
45. Calculate the number of full duplex channels required in each cell for a cellular
system 12 clusters, 15 cells per cluster, and a total capacity of 3960 full duplex
channel.
A. 22 B. 88
C. 44 D. 11
48. Calculate the co-channel reuse ratio for a cluster when the distance to the
center of the nearest co-channel cell is 4 km and the cell radius is 1.2 km.
A. 1.33 B. 4.33
C. 3.33 D. 2.33
49. GSM is using a modulation technique which is a variant of FSK called GMSK
using a frequency deviation of _____.
A. 167.708 kHz B. 67.708 kHz
C. 16.708 kHz D. 617.708 kHz
54. The International Telecommunication Union's name for the new third
generation global standard for mobile telecommunications
A. UMTS B. IMT-2000
C. 3GPP D. HSDPA
56. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations
at the same time.
A. medium B. break before make
C. hard D. make before break
59. A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from the base as -100dBm. What
should the mobile transmitter power be set to?
A. 320 mW B. 43 mW
C. 250 mW D. 54 mW
60. Calculate the maximum and minimum hopping rate for the Bluetooth system.
A. 600 & 30 Hz B. 1600 & 320 Hz
C. 160 & 4320 Hz D. 100 & 20 Hz
61. The technical organs of the United Nations specialized agency for
telecommunications. They functions trough international committees of
telephone administration and private operating agencies.
A. CEPT B. ETSI
C. CCITT D. ANSI
63. Used to uniquely identify each location area in the GSM PLMN. When the
system receives an incoming call it knows in which location area it should page
the mobile and does not page the entire network.
A. CGI B. BSIC
C. IMSI D. LAI
66. Channel used for sending signal strength & bit error rate measurement of the
serving cell and signal strength of the BCCHs of the neighboring cells and used
for sending short text message to busy mobile.
A. SDCCH B. RACH
C. SACCH D. PCH
67. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A. FDMA B. TDMA
C. CDMA D. Both A and B
71. In the Bluetooth technology, the SIG is the core pioneer of this technology,
what does SIG mean?
A. Special Information Guide B. Super Intelligent Group
C. Super Interest Group D. Special Interest Group
73. When the signal from the mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what
action occurs?
A. the MSTO increases power level
B. the units is handed off to a closer cell
C. the cell site switches antennas
D. the call is terminated
82. The Bluetooth original core SIG is composed of these companies except ____.
A. Ericsson B. Sony
C. Nokia D. Toshiba
83. A cellular system is designed to operate reliably with traffic of 2000 E. If each
customer on average uses the phone for 3 minutes during the busiest hour,
how many customers can be accommodated, assuming an even distribution of
customers?
A. 30,000 B. 20,000
C. 40,000 D. 50,000
89. A vehicle travels through a cellular system at 100 kph. Approximately how
often will handoffs occur if the cell radius is 500 meters?
A. 36 s B. 4.8 s
C. 9.6 s D. 8.3 s
91. A handshaking procedure where the cell site sends a control message on the
forward voice channel confirming the channel.
A. CMAC B. SAT
C. SID D. ESN
95. The analog cellular standards which allows voice messages to travel through 30
kHz voice channels.
A. NAMPS B. DAMPS
C. AMPS D. NMT
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 5-155
98. Bluetooth is operating in an unlicensed ISM band, what does ISM stand for?
A. Industrial Scientific Medicine B. Infinite Scientific Mechanism
C. Integrated System Modulation D. Indefinite Social Market
99. Channel that enable the mobile synchronize to the frequency being broadcast
by the BTS.
A. FCCH B. RACH
C. PCH D. SCH
102. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A. TDMA B. CDMA
C. FDMA D. SSMA
108. The name Bluetooth was born from the 10th century king of ______.
A. Finland B. Sweden
C. Denmark D. France
109. What is the approximate range and power output of class I Bluetooth device?
A. 100 m, 20 dBm B. 10 m, 4 dBm
C. 10 cm, 0 dBm D. 100 mm, 5 dBm
110. What is the approximate range and power output of class II Bluetooth
device?
A. 100 m, 20 dBm B. 10 m, 4 dBm
C. 10 cm, 0 dBm D. 100 mm, 5 dBm
112. What is the approximate range and power output of class III Bluetooth
device?
A. 100 m, 20 dBm B. 10 m, 4 dBm
C. 10 cm, 0 dBm D. 100 mm, 5 dBm
114. In order to avoid interfering with other protocols which use the 2.45 GHz
band, the Bluetooth protocol divides the band into
A. 49 channels (each 1 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 1600 times
per second
B. 59 channels (each 5 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 1600 times
per second
C. 79 channels (each 1 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 1600 times
per second
D. 89 channels (each 10 MHz wide) and changes channels up to 600 times
per second
116. What makes the wireless channel more unpredictable than the wireline
channel?
A. Doppler spread B. Multipath
C. Shadow fading D. All of the above
118. Spread spectrum systems employ a form of diversity called _____, where the
signal is spread over a much larger bandwidth than is needed
A. Radio diversity B. Spatial diversity
C. Frequency diversity D. Bandwidth diversity
119. The use of equalizers adds to the complexity and costs of the ______
systems, because equalization requires significant amounts of signal-processing
power.
A. OFDM B. CDMA
C. TDMA D. FDMA
120. With ______, fast and accurate power-control loops must be used so that the
signal from one user does not drown out the signals from other users, and each
cell must be tightly synchronized.
A. CDMA B. TDMA
C. OFDM D. FDMA
121. How many conversations per channel can TDMA digital cellular carry at once?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 10
Section 23
RADAR
Fundamentals
RADAR RCS
Navigational
Aids
Section
Navigation Read it
till it
22 System Hertz!
B. .METHODS OF NAVIGATION.
iii. Reradiation
Signals striking the loop may also strike nearby metal objects,
inducing current in them that produce reradiated signals and also
pickup by the loop.
The VOR beacon transmits the fist radial in the direction magnetic
north of the station we call it the zero degrees radial.
The phase of the variable signal varies with the aircrafts position.
VOR Deviation
VOR magnetic bearing sine and cosine signals are combined with
selected course information. The difference between these two
parameters is the VOR deviation.
FOR ADF/RDF:
Relative Bearing = Pointer Position w.r.t. the fixed Lubberline (Aircraft
Heading)
Magnetic Bearing = Pointer position w.r.t. the North of the compass
card
FOR VOR:
Radial = Phase of Reference Signal Phase of Variable Signal
VOR Magnetic Bearing = Received Radial + 180
VOR Deviation = Selected Course VOR MB
VOR Summary
Parameter Description
Guidance information Omnidirectional bearing
Operating Frequency 108 to 118 (117.95) MHz
200 mi for high- flying aircraft
(Enroute VOR)
Service Area
25 mi for low-flying aircraft
(Terminal VOR)
RF output 25 to 200 W
No of channels 20 or 40
Spacing between adjacent
100 kHz
channels
Cardioid pattern rotates at a 30
Antenna pattern
Hz rate
Accuracy + 1.4, + 3 with site error
DME Summary
Parameter Description
Guidance information Slant distance and Time-to-Station
Operating Frequency 960 to 1215 MHz
1kW pulses of 3.5s duration, 30
Interrogator RF output
times per second
No of channels 126
Ground Transponder
100 aircraft simultaneously
interrogation capacity
Time Delay 50 s
63 MHz above or below the
Transponder reply
interrogating channel
Accuracy + 0.2 mi
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-7
While when the airplane position is on the right side of the on-
course path, the strength of the 150-Hz audio signal
predominates and localizer deviation indicators are deflected
to the left and a blue visual lamp indicator are on, indicating
that the runway centerline is to the left.
ILS Summary
Parameter Description
Guidance information Azimuth (horizontal or lateral)
RF power 25 W
1000 feet beyond the approach
Location
end of the runway.
40; where each is paired with one
No of channels
of 40 Glideslope channel
Spacing between adjacent
50 kHz
channel
Left-Hand Pattern Amplitude-modulated by 90 Hz
Right-Hand Pattern Amplitude-modulated by 150 Hz
Accuracy + 0.1
+ 35 from the centerline of the
Lateral threshold
runway
Glideslope Summary
PARAMETER DESCRIPTION
RF power 7W
Approach end of the runway and
Location
up to 500 ft to the side
40; where each is paired with one
No of channels
of 40 Localizer channel
Spacing between adjacent
50 kHz
channel
Pattern above the Glideslope Amplitude-modulated by 90 Hz
Accuracy + 0.1
Marker Beacons
Three marker beacon are strategically positioned at fixed
distance from the runway having the same carrier frequency
of 75-MHz.
If the airplane is 7.2-km away from the runway center line,
the pilot will hear a Morse-coded sound of 2 dashes/sec and
the Blue (Purple in other books) light indicator will turn on.
If the airplane is 1.05-km away from the runway center line,
the pilot will hear an alternating Morse-coded sound of dots
and dashes and the Amber (Orange in other books) light
indicator will turn on.
And finally, if the airplane is 75-m away from the runway
center line, the pilot will hear a continuous dots and the White
light indicator will turn on, an indication that the airplane is
very near the runway threshold.
Visual Aural
Modulating Typical
Marker (Light ) (Sound)
Frequency Location
Indicator Indicator
Blue
Outer 400 Hz 7200 m 2 dashes/sec
(Purple)
Alternating
Amber
Middle 1300 Hz 1050 m dots and
(Orange)
dashes
Continuous
Inner 3000 Hz 75 m White
dots
Category Description
Parameter Description
Operating Frequency 5000 to 5250 MHz
60 either side of the runway
Azimuth (lateral) scan
centerline
Elevation (vertical) scan 0 to 30
Scanning rate 50s/degree
No of channels 200
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-11
Parameter Description
IFF, Range, Bearing, and
Guidance information
Altitude information
Operating Frequency 1030 to 1090 MHz
1. Decca
This system has been developed in the United Kingdom starting 1939.
It is a continuous-wave hyperbolic system operating in the 70 to 130
kHz.
2. Omega
The Omega system (8-station only) is a worldwide VLF navigation
system used for marine and enroute air navigation. The system 8 CW
transmitting stations sequentially transmit long, but precisely timed,
pulses at four frequencies: 10.2 kHz, 11.3 kHz, 13.6 kHz, and 11.05
kHz.
3. Loran-C
Loran-C is a long-range hyperbolic radio navigation system that
possesses an inherent high degree of accuracy at ranges of 800 to
1000 nautical miles.
1. TRANSIT
Transit is a satellite navigation system consisting of four or more
satellites in approximately 600-nmi polar orbit.
GPS Services
a. Standard Positioning Service (SPS)
The SPS is a positioning and timing service that is available to all
GPS users on a continuous, worldwide basis with no direct charge.
SPS provides a horizontal position that is accurate to about 100
m.
GLONASS Services
a. Civil Service
The specified positioning accuracies are 100-m in the horizontal
plane and 150-m in the vertical plane. Civil velocity accuracy is
specified at 0.15 m/sec. The time dissemination capability is
within 5 msec of UTC.
b. Military Service
Military service yields accuracies comparable to the GPS PPS.
Lines of Latitude
The parallel lines of latitude
are horizontal, running from
east to west. The equator is
the imaginary line from which
latitude is measured; it is
equidistant from the poles,
dividing the globe into the
northern and southern
hemispheres.
Meridians of Longitude
Lines running from top to
bottom (north to south) on a
map, chart, or globe. A
longitude coordinate indicates
distance from the prime
meridian.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-15
The south magnetic pole is located just off of the coast of Wilkes
Land, Antarctica. It is 2550 km (1600 miles) from the geographic
South Pole.
I. .COMPASS ERRORS.
1. Variation
An error of the
compass indicated by
the angle between the
meridian of true north
and the meridian of
magnetic north.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-17
2. Deviation
An error of the
compass indicated by
the angle between the
meridian of magnetic
north and the meridian
of the compass north.
1. Course (Heading)
Course is the angular distance of a ships direction of movement on
the surface of the earth, measured clockwise from three reference
points of the earth true north, magnetic north and compass north
through the 360 system of the compass.
2. Bearing
Bearing is the angular distance of an object from an observer, or from
another object, measured clockwise from the same three points of
references true, magnetic and compass north through the 360
system of the compass, giving rise to the three bearings in one
direction.
i. Relative Bearing
Relative Bearing is the angular distance of an object measured
clockwise through 360 from the ships bow (intended line of
movement).
TB = H + RB
RB = TB H
H = TB RB
Sample Problem:
Find the compass course to steer in order to make a true course of 270.
Variation is 15 W and the deviation is 12 E.
Solution:
True course 270
Variation 15 W
Magnetic course 255
Deviation 12 E
Compass course 267
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-19
I H
1. What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation?
A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz D. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz
3. Choose the only correct statement about the effective range of a Very High
Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft
navigation.
A. Its reception range is based on both the aircraft's altitude and the
aircraft's line-of-sight to the VOR station
B. Its reception range is not a function of the aircraft's altitude
C. Its reception range is not a function of the aircraft's longitude and
latitude position in relation to the VOR station's position
D. Its reception range is greatly affected by atmospheric effects and
propagation anomalies
6. What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft
to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System
(ILS) approach to an airport?
A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz
9. The angular distance of any object measured clockwise from the ships
bow through 360 on the arc of the horizon.
A. Course bearing B. Four point bearing
C. Compass bearing D. Relative bearing
11. What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
used to indicate an aircraft's slant range distance to a selected ground-
based navigation station?
A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz
C. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
13. Choose the only correct statement about the glideslope beam system used
by aircraft to maintain the proper ascent angle to the surface of a runway
during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport.
A. Two antenna patterns are produced; one to the left of the runway's
centerline at an audio modulated tone of 90 Hz and one to the right of
the runway's centerline at an audio modulated tone of 150 Hz
B. Two antenna patterns are produced; one to the left of the runway's
centerline at an audio modulated tone of 150 Hz and one to the right
of the runway's centerline at an audio modulated tone of 90 Hz
C. Two antenna patterns are produced; one above the normal 2.5 degree
ascent angle to the runway's surface at an audio modulated tone of
150 Hz and one below the normal 2.5 degree ascent angle to the
runway's surface at an audio modulated tone of 90 Hz
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-21
D. Two antenna patterns are produced; one above the normal 2.5 degree
ascent angle to the runway's surface at an audio modulated tone of 90
Hz and one below the normal 2.5 degree ascent angle to the runway's
surface at an audio modulated tone of 150 Hz
15. An error of the compass indicated by the angle between the meridian of
magnetic north and the meridian of the compass north.
A. Variation B. Deviation
C. Magnetic directions D. Compass error
16. M.V. Princess Lorena is proceeding on course 060 C. Deviation for the
ships compass heading is 9 E Variation for the place is 19 W. What is
the true course?
A. 050 T B. 28 T
C. 5 T D. 10 T
18. What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate
an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach
to an airport's runway?
A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons' UHF frequencies are
unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous
frequency protected reception areas in the 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
range
B. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle
marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker
beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 MHz
C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon's carrier
frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-
modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner)
D. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle
marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker
beacon's carrier frequency is 400 kHz
20. A type of radar that provides the aircraft ID and altitude to the A TC
ground controller.
A. PSR B. SSR
C. LADAR D. IFF
24. At a certain location, the magnetic variation is 11o 16' W. The ships
compass has a deviation of 0.50oE. What must the compass leading be if
the ship wishes to steer due E?
A. 100o 46 B. 10146'
C. 99046' D. 102o46'
29. Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft's Automatic Direction
Finding (ADF) equipment.
A. An aircraft's ADF transmission exhibits primarily a line-of-sight range
to the ground-based target station and will not follow the curvature of
the earth
B. Only a single omnidirectional sense antenna is required to receive an
NDB transmission and process the signal to calculate the aircraft's
bearing to the selected ground station
C. All frequencies in the ADF's operating range except the commercial
standard broadcast stations (550 kHz to 1660 kHz) can be utilized as a
navigational Non Directional Beacon (NDB) signal
D. An aircraft's ADF antennas can receive transmissions that are over the
earth's horizon (sometimes several hundred miles away) since these
signals will follow the curvature of the earth
30. A ships gyrocompass is not working. Find the compass course of 327 T.
Variation is 7 E and deviation is 9 W.
A. 20 C B. 329 C
C. 320 C D. 30 C
31. What is the cause of quadrantal error when using an aircraft's Automatic
Direction Finding (ADF) equipment?
A. Quadrantal error is caused by the altitude of an aircraft in relation to
the curvature of the earth
B. Quadrantal error is caused by the geographic position of an aircraft in
relation to the North, South, East, or West quadrant of the earth
C. Quadrantal error is caused by the presence of the aircraft in the
electromagnetic field of the NDB transmission
D. Quadrantal error is caused when the aircraft's ADF transmission is not
attenuated sufficiently and is then received at an elevated power level
32. What is meant by the term, "night effect", when using an aircraft's
Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment?
A. Night effect refers to the fact that all Non Directional Beacon (NDB)
transmitters are turned-off at dusk and turned-on at dawn
B. Night effect refers to the fact that Non Directional Beacon (NDB)
transmissions can bounce-off the earth's ionosphere at night and be
received at almost any direction
C. Night effect refers to the fact that an aircraft's ADF transmissions will
be slowed at night due to the increased density of the earth's
atmosphere after sunset
D. Night effect refers to the fact that an aircraft's ADF antennas usually
collect dew moisture after sunset which decreases their effective
reception distance from an NDB transmitter
33. An aircraft has a magnetic heading of 150 degrees and a relative bearing
to a NDB station of 8O degrees. Determine the magnetic bearing of the
station in degrees.
A. 180o B. 210
C. 230o D. 120
36. What is the frequency range of the glideslope beam system used by
aircraft to maintain the proper ascent angle to the surface of a runway
during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport?
A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz B. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz D. 108.10 kHz to 117.95 kHz
37. Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used
by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing
System (ILS) approach to an airport.
A. If the ratio of the 90 Hz audio signal strength to the 150 Hz audio
signal strength of the antenna patterns is equal; the aircraft is on the
proper 2.5 degree approach glidepath
B. If the strength of the 90 Hz audio signal is greater than the strength of
the 150 Hz audio signal of the antenna patterns; the aircraft is to the
left of the centerline of the runway
C. If the strength of the 150 Hz audio signal is greater than the strength
of the 90 Hz audio signal of the antenna patterns; the aircraft is to the
left of the centerline of the runway
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-25
D. If the strength of the 150 Hz audio signal is greater than the strength
of the 90 Hz audio signal of the antenna patterns; the aircraft is above
the proper 2.5 degree approach glidepath
38. If the aircraft is flying off-path in the glide slope pattern, which modulation
signal is prevailing or has the higher strength?
A. 75 Hz B. 75 MHz
C. 150 Hz D. 90 Hz
40. The Angular distance of any terrestrial object from an observer, or from
another object measured clockwise from a reference north pointing
through 360 on the arc of the horizon.
A. Course B. Four point bearing
C. Relative bearing D. Bearing
41. What are the transmission and the reception frequencies of an aircraft's
mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon
System (ATCRBS)?
A. Transmit at 1090 MHz and receive at 1030 MHz
B. Transmit at 1030 kHz and receive at 1090 kHz
C. Transmit at 1090 kHz and receive at 1030 kHz
D. Transmit at 1030 MHz and receive at 1090 MHz
44. Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used
by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing
System (ILS) approach to an airport.
A. The localizer beam system operates within the assigned frequency
range of 108.10 GHz to 111.95 GHz
45. Is a device, which, when activated by electricity, aligns itself with the
geographic meridian and cause its needle to point to true north.
A. PPI B. Gyrocompass
C. Compass north D. Magnetic compass
47. Courses and bearings reckoned from a certain reference north point.
A. Deviation B. Directions
C. Variation D. Compass bearing
48. The sum or difference of variation and deviation indicated by the angle
between the meridians of true north and compass north.
A. Compass error B. Variation error
C. Magnetic error D. Deviation error
49. The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency
modulated reference phase signal of a Very High Frequency
Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are
synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at:
A. 180 degrees South, true bearing position of the VOR station
B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing position of the VOR station
C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing position of the VOR station
D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position of the VOR station
50. Find the compass course to steer in order to follow the course 250 T if
variation is 15W and deviation is 7 W.
A. 257 C B. 22 C
C. 272 C D. 275 C
52. Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar
system to determine the position of a plane during its approach?
A. DME B. ODR
C. GCA D. Sonar
55. Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega
transmit?
A. UHF B. VLF
C. VHF D. HF
56. Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the
vehicle towards the point
A. ILS B. ILS reference point
C. Homing D. Heading
59. Refers to the vertical deviation of an airplane upon takeoff from the horizontal
plane of the runway
A. Distance of airplane from the runway
B. A horizontal deviation of an airplane from its optimum path of descent
along the axis of the runway
C. Angle of landing base from horizontal plane it the runway
D. Foremast
66. What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
A. Converter B. Modulator
C. Inverter D. Impeller
67. How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal
terms of its bandwidth?
A. Equally affirmative to both narrow and wide bandwidth
B. More affirmative at wider bandwidth
C. More affirmative at narrow bandwidth
D. Dependent on receiver bandwidth
68. Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
A. Frequency shift B. Pulse radar
C. Amplitude modulation D. Frequency modulation
69. Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave
signals to reach the receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment
A. Cycle time B. Station delay
C. Echo delay D. Time delay
1. Range
The line from the radar set directly to the object is referred to as the
line of sight (LOS). The length of this line is called range.
2. Elevation Angle
The angle between the horizontal plane and the LOS is the elevation
angle.
1. RADAR Range
ct
In any units R=
2
t (s)
In nautical miles R (nmi) =
12.36
In yards R = 164 t
where:
t = time elapsed
c = speed of light
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-31
Sample Problem:
Calculate the range of a steady target that produced an echo and is received
by the radar equipment once every 385s.
Solution:
ct 162,000(385 x 10 6 )
R = = = 31.185 mi
2 2
Alternate solution
385
R(nmi) = = 31.15 nmi
12.36
The Navy uses nautical miles to calculate distances; 186,000 statute miles is
approximately 162,000 nautical miles.
While the distance of the statute mile is approximately 5,280 feet, the
distance for a nautical mile is approximately 6,080 feet.
2. Minimum Range
cPW
In any units R min =
2
PW(s)
In nautical miles R min =
12.36
PW = pulse width
R T = Recovery Time
Sample Problem:
Calculate the minimum range in yards for a radar system that transmit
pulses for 38 s and a recovery time of 0.1 s.
Solution:
c(PW + tr ) 186,000 (38 s + 0.1 s)
Rmin = =
2 2
smi 5280 ft yard
= 3.54 x x 6,230.4 yards
s smi 3 ft
Alternate Solution
R min = 164(38 + 0.1) = 6,248.4 yards
c x PRT
In any units R max =
2
PRT(s)
In nautical miles R max =
12.36
where:
PRT = Pulse Repetition Time or Period
1
PRT =
PRF
Sample Problem:
Calculate the maximum unambiguous range for radar facilities with a PRF of
1000 pulses per second.
Solution:
c x PRT 1 1
Rmax = PRT = = = 1x10 3 s
2 PRF 1000
=
162,000
2
(
x 1x10 3 s )
= 81 nmi
Pt 2 Gt2 (RCS)
R max = 4
(4 )3 Pr(min)
Sample Problem:
A radar facility operates at 10 GHz with a peak pulse power of 450 kW, and
40dBi antenna gain. If the target RCS is 20 m2 and the minimum receivable
power is 1 pW, determine the maximum range.
Solution:
Pt 2Gt2 (RCS) (450 x 103 )(0.03)2(104 )2(20)
R max = 4 = 4 = 142.14 km
3
(4) Pr(min) (4)3(1 x 1012 )
4 A 2 D2 wh2
2 4
P D 4 (RCS)
R max(km) = 48 4 2t
BW(F 1)
Sample Problem:
Calculate the peak transmitted pulse power of a low power, short-range
radar with an overall NF of 5 dB, 500 kHz IF bandwidth, 10 GHz operating
frequency, 1.2 m antenna diameter if the target is a sphere with a radius of
2.5 m located 12 km away.
Solution:
P D 4 (RCS )
R max( km ) = 48 4 2t
BW (F 1)
4 4
R max( km ) PtD 4 (RCS ) 12 1
= 2
= =
48 BW (F 1) 48 256
2BW (F 1) (0 .03 )2 (500 x 10 3 )(3 .16 1)
pt = 4
= = 0 .373 W
256 D (RCS ) 2
4 (2 .5)
256 (1 .2)
4
A oTPtT A oB
Interrogation link R max(int) =
2N(FB 1)
A oBPtB A oT
Reply link R max(rep) =
2N(FT 1)
Sample Problem:
To communicate from earth to Voyager 2, ground station used 100-kW
transmitters, 70-m antenna operating at 8 GHz frequency, 1.5 noise factor
and 5-kHz bandwidth. The dish antenna on Voyager 2 has a 3.66-m
diameter, 13 dB noise figure, and the actual transmitted power is just 22 W.
Determine the interrogation link range of the Earth tracking stations. Also
compute for the reply link range of Voyager 2 beacon and maximum active
tracking range of the system.
Solution:
Capture area for the earth tracking station;
0.65DT 2 0.65(70)2
A oT = kA T = = = 2,501 .5 m2
4 4
Capture area for the Voyager 2 beacon;
0.65DB2 0.65(3.66)2
A oB = kAB = = = 6.84 m2
4 4
Noise Power;
{ }
N = kTB = (1.38 x 10-23 )(290)(5 x 103 ) = 20.01 x 10 18 W
Noise Fact or of the Voyager 2 beacon;
FB = 101.3 = 20
Interrogat or link tracking range;
Since the Voyager 2 reply link (5.24 billion km) is lesser than the earth station tracking
range (56.7 billion km), the MAXIMUM ACTIVE TRACKING RANGE IS 5.24 billion km.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-37
Pave
Average & Peak Power DC =
Ppk
where:
Ppk = Peak Power in, W
PW = Pulse Width
PRF = Pulse Repetition Frequency or Rate(PRR),Hz
Sample Problem:
Calculate the duty cycle and pulse width of a pulse magnetron with an
average power of 1.2 kW and a peak power of 18.5 kW if one pulse is
generated every 10 ms.
Solution:
1 .2
DC = x 100% = 6.5%
18.5
PW
DC = PW = DC x PRT = 0.065 x (10 ms) = 0.65 ms
PRT
Pt G t 2 2
Pr = x RCS
(4 )3 R 4
Sample Problem:
A radar transmitter has a power of 20 kW and operates at a frequency of 10
GHz. Its signal reflects from a rectangular target 25 km away with a
dimension of 3.5x3.5-m. The gain of the antenna is 30 dBi. Calculate the
received signal power.
Solution:
Pt 2Gt2 (20 x 103 )(0.03)2(1000)2 4(3.5 x 3.5)2
Pr = x RCS = x = 48.65 nW
(4)3R 4 (4)3(25,000)4 0.032
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-39
where:
d (nm i) = 1.25 h t d = RADAR antenna horizon, nmi
h T = Antenna height, ft
Sample Problem:
What is the service range of a radar antenna mounted 85 ft above the
platform of a battleship if the platform is 25 ft above sea level.
Solution:
d(nmi) = 1.25 ht = 1.25 (85 + 25) = 13.1 nmi
Sample Problem:
Calculate the number of pulses for each degree of azimuth for a radar
antenna that rotates at 20 rpm with a PRF of 200 pulses/s.
Solution:
Hits Pulses per revolution 60s
= Re volution = = 3s
Scan 360 20 rpm
No. of pulses 200 pulses 600 pulses
= x3s =
revolution s revolution
Hits 600
= = 1.67 pulses / deg
Scan 360
1. Range Resolution
Range resolution is the ability of a radar system to distinguish
between two or more targets on the same bearing but at different
ranges.
2. Bearing Resolution
Bearing, or azimuth, resolution is the ability of a radar system to
separate objects at the same range but at different bearings.
1. Atmospheric Refraction
The path followed by electromagnetic energy in the atmosphere,
whether direct or reflected, usually is slightly curved; and the speed is
affected by temperature, atmospheric pressure, and the amount of
water vapor present in the atmosphere, which all affect the refractive
index.
2. Ducting
The temperature and moisture content of the atmosphere normally
decrease uniformly with an increase in altitude. However, under
certain conditions the temperature may first increase with height and
then begin to decrease. Such a situation is called a temperature
inversion that produces atmospheric ducts.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-41
1. Synchronizer (Timer)
The synchronizer ensures that all circuits connected with the radar
system operate in a definite timed relationship.
2. Transmitter
The transmitter generates powerful pulses of electromagnetic energy
at precise intervals.
3. Duplexer
A duplexer is essentially an electronic switch that permits a radar
system to use a single antenna to both transmit and receive.
4. Antenna System
The antenna system routes the pulse from the transmitter, radiates it
in a directional beam, picks up the returning echo, and passes it to the
receiver with a minimum of loss.
5. Receiver
The receiver accepts the weak echo signals from the antenna system,
amplifies them, detects the pulse envelope, amplifies the pulses, and
then routes them to the indicator.
6. Indicator
The indicator uses the received signals routed from the radar receiver
to produce a visual indication of target information.
1. Mechanical Scanning
The most common type of mechanical scanning is the rotation of the
antenna through 360 degrees to obtain azimuth coverage.
i. Conical Scan
A conical scan can be generated by nutation of the waveguide. In
this process the axis of the waveguide itself is moved through a
small conical pattern.
2. Electronic Scanning
Electronic scanning can accomplish lobe motion more rapidly than, and
without the inherent maintenance disadvantages of, the mechanical
systems.
D. .DOPPLER EFFECT.
The top sign apply if the source and/or object are moving toward each other
and the bottom sign apply if they move away from each other.
Sample Problem:
An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren
emitting a sound with a frequency of 400 Hz. What frequency is heard
(a) by someone standing still when the ambulance approaches?
(b) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it approaches the ambulance?
(c) by a passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as
it moves away from the ambulance? 75 mi/h = 33.5 m/s, 55 mi/h =
24.6 m/s.
Solution:
(a) 345 m s , s = 33.5 m s, o = 0 (observer is not moving)
+ o 345 + 0
fo = fs = 400 = 443 Hz
s 345 33.5
c r
fo = fs
c r
fo = Observed frequency in Hz
c = Speed of light
= 3 x 10 8 m / s
r = Velocity of source relative to observer in m/s
fs = Source frequency in Hz
fo = observed frequency in Hz
2 r
fo = r = relative velocity in m/s
= RADAR signal wavelength in m
Sample Problem:
Find the Doppler shift caused by a vehicle moving toward a radar at 60 mph,
if the radar operates at 10 GHz.
Solution:
mi 1.609 km 1000 m 1 hr
260 x x
2r h 1 mi 1 km 3600 s
fo = = = 1.78 kHz
0.03
n = any integer
n PRF n
b = = PRF = pulse repetition rate in Hz
2 2 PRT
PRT = pulse repetition time in s
Sample Problem:
Calculate the 3rd blindspeed for an MTI RADAR that operates at 6 GHz, with
a pulse repetition rate of 1000 Hz.
Solution:
nPRF 3(0.05)1000
b = = = 75 m s 270 kph
2 2
Track Airborne
(2.6) Telemetering K
(2.7) Countermeasures L
(2.8) Meteorological M
(2.9) Sound in air N
(2.10) Radar P
(2.11) Sonar and underwater sound Q
(2.12) Radio R
(2.13) Special types, magnetic, etc., or combinations of types S
(2.14) Telephone (wire) T
(2.15) Visual and visible light V
(2.16) Armament (peculiar to armament, not otherwise covered) W
(2.17) Facsimile or television X
(2.18) Data processing Y
(3.1) Bombing B
(3.2) Communications (receiving and transmitting Telegraphy (manual)
C
(3.3) Direction finder reconnaissance and/or surveillance D
(3.4) Ejection and/or release E
(3.5) Fire control, or search- light directing G
(3.6) Recording and/or reproducing (graphic meteorological and
sound) H
(3.7) Computing K
(3.8) Maintenance and/or test assemblies (including tools) M
(3.9) Navigational aids (including altimeters, beacons, compasses,
racons, depth sounding, approach and landing) N
(3.10) Special, or combination of purposes Q
(3.11) Receiving, passive detecting R
(3.12) Detecting and/or range and bearing, search S
(3.13) Transmitting T
(3.14) Automatic flight or remote control W
(3.15) Identification and recognition X
(3.16) Surveillance (search detect, and multiple target tracking) and
control (both fire control and air control) Y
(3.17) Facsimile or television Z
Sample Problem:
AN/FPS-35 is categories as what type of radar?
A. Airborne Countermeasure Radar
B. Ship Bombing Radar
C. Fixed Search Radar
D. Ship Navigation Radar
Solution:
1. Search RADAR
SEARCH RADAR is designed to continuously scan a volume of space to
provide initial detection of all targets. Search radar is almost always
used to detect and determine the position of new targets for later use
by TRACK RADAR.
a. Surface-Search Radar
A surface-search radar system has two primary functions:
The detection and determination of accurate ranges and
bearings of surface objects and low-flying aircraft and
The maintenance of a 360- degree search pattern for all
objects within line-of-sight distance from the radar antenna.
b. Air-Search Radar
Air-search radar systems initially detect and determine the
position, course, and speed of air targets in a relatively large area.
The maximum range of air-search radar can exceed 300 miles,
and the bearing coverage is a complete 360-degree circle
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-47
2. Track RADAR
Track radar provides continuous range, bearing, and elevation data on
one or more targets.
b. Airborne RADAR
Airborne radar is designed especially to meet the strict space and
weight limitations that are necessary for all airborne equipment.
Even so, airborne radar sets develop the same peak power as
shipboard and shore-based sets.
1. A scope
The A-scope display presents only the range to the target and the
relative strength of the echo. Such a display is normally used in
weapons control radar systems. The bearing and elevation angles are
presented as dial or digital readouts that correspond to the actual
physical position of the antenna.
I H
1. Calculate the PW, and duty cycle of a radar with a peak power of 20 kW, PRR of
900 Hz, and the average power is 18 W.
A. 10 s, 0.9% B. 100 s, 9%
C. 0.1 s, 0.09% D. 1 s, 0.09%
2. What is the received power for a radar with a 1-kW transmit power, 80 dBi of
antenna gain, for the 1-m rectangular plate at 1 GHz at a range of 1,000 km?
A. 6350 nW B. 0.635 nW
C. 63.5 nW D. 635 nW
3. Calculate the peak power of certain radar with an average power of 20 kW,
pulse width of 20 s and a PRF of 103 pulses/s
A. 1 mW B. 1 MW
C. 1 GW D. 1 kW
7. A deep space RADAR facility is operating at 2.5 GHz with a peak pulse power of
25 MW, 64 m antenna diameter, 1.1 noise factor. If the receiver BW is only 5
kHz and the target cross section is 1m2, calculate the maximum range.
A. 700,000 meters B. 132,700 meters
C. 132,700,000 meters D. 132,000 meters
8. A small airplane can fool a radar system into thinking it is much bigger by
adding a radar reflector that increases the RCS. How large a flat plate should a
jet fighter (RCS=6) add to its side so that it looks like a large jet (RCS=40) at
1 GHz?
A. 0.7x0.7 m B. 5.7x5.7 m
C. 4.7x4.7 m D. 2.7x2.7 m
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 6-49
9. An L-band radar operating at 1.25 GHz uses a peak pulse power of 3 MW, and
must have a range of 100 nmi for objects whose RCS is 1 m2. If the minimum
receivable power of the receiver is 200 fW, what is the smallest diameter the
antenna reflector could have, assuming it to be a full paraboloid with k=0.65?
A. 4.92 m B. 3.84 m
C. 2.56 m D. 1.42 m
10. A Doppler radar at 15 GHz has a return signal with a frequency of 50 kHz
higher than the transmitted signal. What is the component of the target
velocity along a line joining the radar and the target assuming that the radar
installation is stationary.
a. 347 m/s B. 839 m/s
c. 125 m/s D. 500 m/s
11. What is the distance in nmi to a target if it takes 123 s for a radar pulse to
travel from the radar antenna to the target, back to the antenna, and be
displayed on the PPI scope?
A. 100 mi B. 0.1 mi
C. 10 mi D. 1000 mi
12. Calculate (a) the maximum unambiguous range, (b) duty cycle, (c) average
power for a radar transmitter with a peak pulse power of 400 kW, PRF of 1500
Hz, and a PW of 0.8 s.
A. 10 km, 0.12%, 48 W B. 100 km, 0.2%, 48 W
C. 10 km, 0.2%, 40 W D. 100 km, 0.12%, 480 W
13. An 8-GHz police radar measures a Doppler frequency of 1788 Hz, from a car
approaching the stationary police station vehicle, in an 80 kph speed limit zone.
By how many kph the car is overspeeding?
A. 160 kph B. 40 kph
C. 80 kph D. 120 kph
14. Calculate the lowest blindspeed of an MTI radar that operates at 10 GHz with a
PRF of 3000 Hz.
A. 162 kph B. 365 kph
C. 812 kph D. 55 kph
16. A radar transmitter uses a magnetron to generate pulses with a power level of
1 MW. The pulses have a duration of 2s and the pulse repetition period 2 ms.
If the magnetron has an efficiency of 60%, calculate the average power
dissipated in the magnetron
A. 8320 W B. 3590 W
C. 670 W D. 1729 W
17. A radar has a pulse duration of 50 s and a pulse repetition time of 5 ms.
Calculate the maximum and minimum useful range
A. 812 km, 8.12 km B. 750 km, 7.5 km
C. 578 km, 57.8 km D. 136 km, 13.6 km
18. What is the minimum receivable power for a radar with a noise figure of 12 dB
and 2.5 MHz operating bandwidth?
A. 1.59 x 10-13 W B. 1.59 x 10-10 W
C. 1.59 x 10-12 W D. 1.59 x 10-11 W
20. Calculate the duty cycle if the pulse width is 20 s a PRR of 500 pulses per
second.
A. 0.1% B. 10%
C. 0.01% D. 1%
21. 32.8 mi is the maximum unambiguous range for a radar system with a PRT
equal to _____s.
A. 400 B. 800
C. 200 D. 100
22. Calculate the minimum receivable signal in RADAR receiver which has an IF
bandwidth of 1.5 MHz and a 9-dB noise figure.
A. 183.5 fW B. 41.7 fW
C. 0.269 fW D. 238.4 fW
23. What is the Doppler shift for a 500-MHz signal when the target is moving 45
toward the radar at 250 m/s.
A. 849 Hz B. 589 Hz
C. 123 Hz D. 234 Hz
24. What is the Doppler shift when the police radar unit operating at 2 GHz is
aimed at a car traveling at 20 m/s at a curved part of the road where there is a
30 angle of return in the road?
A. 965 Hz B. 96.5 Hz
C. 23.1 Hz D. 231 Hz
Section 24
Laws & Ethics
Section 25
Basic Signals &
System
Miscellaneous
Topics
LAW STRUCTURE
I. .LAWS.
A. Telecoms
1. Republic Acts
A. Telecoms
B. Broadcast
V. .IMPORTANT TERMINOLOGIES.
1. Telecommunications
Any process which enables a telecommunications entity to relay and
receive voice, data, electronic messages, written or printed matter,
fixed or moving pictures, words, music or visible or audible signals or
any control signals of any design and for any purpose by wire, radio or
other electromagnetic, spectral, optical or technological means.
3. Broadcasting
An undertaking the object of which is to transmit over-the-air
commercial radio or television messages for reception of a broad
audience in a geographic area.
4. Franchise
A privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,
authorizing that entity to engage in a certain type of
telecommunications service.
6. Inter-exchange carrier
An entity, sometimes referred to as carrier's carrier or national
backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate
facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to
engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance
services.
7. International carrier
An entity primarily engaged in the business of providing transmission
and switching of any telecommunications service between the
Philippines and any other point of the world to which it has an existing
correspondent or prospective interconnection agreements.
11. Interconnection
The linkage, by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
existing telecommunications carriers or operators with one another for
the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or
operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carriers or
operators.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 7-7
TWELFTH CONGRESS
Begun and held in Metro Manila, on Monday, the twenty-eight day of July, two
thousand three.
ARTICLE I
GENERAL PROVISIONS
(a) The scope and nature of practice of the Electronics Engineer shall
embrace and consist of any work or activity relating to the
application of engineering sciences and/or principles to the
investigation, analysis, synthesis, planning, design, specification,
ARTICLE II
PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF
ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
SEC. 7. Powers and Functions of the Board. - The Board is vested with the
authority to:
(p) Formulate, prescribe and adopt such rules and regulations for
electronics installations in industrial plants, commercial
establishments and other buildings or structures covered by the
National Building Code of the Philippines, in coordination with the
Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH), other
concerned agencies, representatives of industry and the
Accredited Professional Organization;
(r) Hear and decide violations of this Act, its implementing rules and
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical
Standards of Practice for the profession, and for this purpose,
issue subpoena ad testificandum and/or subpoena duces tecum to
secure attendance of witnesses and the production of documents
in connection with the charges presented to and/or any
investigation pending before the Board;
(v) Discharge such other powers and functions as the Board and the
Commission may deem necessary for the practice of the
profession and the upgrading, enhancement, development and
growth of the Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer and Electronics Technician professions in the Philippines.
Except those in administrative cases, all resolutions embodying
rules and regulations and other policies and measures issued
and/or promulgated by the Board shall be subject to the review
and approval by the Commission.
(a) Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least five (5)
consecutive years prior to his/her appointment;
(f) Must not have any pecuniary interest, directly or indirectly, in any
school, academy, college, university or institution conferring an
academic degree and/or certification/accreditation necessary for
admission to the practice of Electronics Engineering and/or
Electronics Technician or where review classes in preparation for
the licensure examination are being offered or conducted nor shall
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 7-15
SEC. 9. Term of Office. - The members of the Board shall hold office for a term
of three (3) years from date of appointment or until their successors shall have
been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.
Any vacancy occurring within the term of a member shall be filled for the
unexpired portion of the term only: Provided, That the member appointed to
serve the unexpired term may be re-appointed more than once for as long as
his/her continuous tenure shall not exceed six (6) years. Each member of the
Board shall take the proper oath prior to the assumption of office.
SEC. 10. Compensation and Allowances of the Board. - The Chairman and
members of the Board shall receive compensation and allowances comparable
to that being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory
boards under the Commission as provided for in the General Appropriations
Act.
SEC. 11. Removal of Board Members. - The President of the Philippines, upon
recommendation of the Commission, may suspend or remove any member of
the Board for neglect of duty, incompetence, manipulation or rigging of the
licensure examination results, disclosure of secret information or the
examination questions prior to the conduct of the said examination, or
tampering of the grades therein, for unprofessional or unethical conduct, or for
any final judgment or conviction of any criminal offense by the Courts, after
having given the member concerned an opportunity to be heard and/or to
defend himself/herself in a proper administrative investigation.
SEC. 12. Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services. -All
records of the Board, including applications for examination, administrative
cases involving Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and
Electronics Technicians shall be kept by the Commission.
The Commission shall designate the Secretary of the Board and shall
provide the secretariat and other support services to implement the provisions
of this Act.
ARTICLE III
EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
(b) He/She is of good moral character and had not been convicted by
a court of law of a criminal offense involving moral turpitude;
SEC. 17. Release of the Results of Examination. - The Board and the
Commission shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers and shall
release the examination results within fifteen (15) days after the said
examination.
SEC. 22. Professional Oath. - All successful examinees and all those who have
qualified for registration without examination shall be required to take a
professional oath before any member of the Board or any person authorized by
the Commission before he/she can be registered and issued a Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, and as a prerequisite to
practicing as a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician.
(b) Where the conditions of the scope and funding for the work or
project are such that it stipulates the temporary employment of a
foreign professional;
(6) The Special Permit herein granted shall be valid only for a
period of not more than six (6) months and renewable every
six (6) months thereafter subject to the discretion of the
Board and the approval of the Commission: Provided, That
said permit shall cease to be valid if the foreigner terminates
his/her employment in the work or project for which said
permit was originally granted and thereafter engages in an
occupation that requires another Special Permit or registration
under this Act.
ARTICLE IV
PRACTICE OF PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING, ELECTRONICS
ENGINEERING AND ELECTRONICS TECHNICIAN
SEC. 30. Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards of Practice. - The
Board shall adopt a Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of
Practice for Electronics Engineers and Technicians, which shall be promulgated
by the Accredited Professional Organization.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 7-23
ARTICLE V
SUNDRY PROVISIONS
ARTICLE VI
PENAL PROVISION AND ASSISTANCE OF
LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES
SEC. 35. Penal Provision. - The following shall be punished by a fine of not less
than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000.00) nor more than One million
pesos (P1,000,000.00), or by imprisonment of not less than six (6) months nor
more than six (6) years, or both, in the discretion of the court:
(a) Any person who shall give any false or fraudulent statement to the
Board to obtain a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional
Identification Card as Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics
Engineer or Electronics Technician;
(b) Any person who shall present or use as his/her own a Certificate
of Registration, Professional Identification Card, membership
identification card in the Accredited Professional Organization
and/or seal issued to another and any person who allows the use
of his/her Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification
Card, membership card in the Accredited Professional Organization
and/or seal;
(f) Any Professional Electronics Engineer who shall sign his/her name,
affix his/her seal, or use any other method of signature on plans,
technical descriptions or other documents prepared by or under
the supervision of another Professional Electronics Engineer,
unless the same is prepared in such manner as to clearly indicate
the part of such work actually performed by the former;
(i) Any person who shall violate any provision of this Act or any rules,
regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical
Standards of Practice promulgated under this Act.
Board and/or the Commission, shall render such assistance as it may require,
cooperate and coordinate with it in carrying out, enforcing or implementing
this Act, the codes, policies, measures, programs or activities of the Board
and/or the Commission that it may undertake pursuant to the provisions of
this Act.
ARTICLE VII
TRANSITORY PROVISIONS
SEC. 37. Transitory Provision - Upon effectivity of this Act, the incumbent
Board of Electronics and Communications Engineering shall complete all
pending/unfinished works within a six (6)-month period, after which it shall
cease to exist. The President of the Philippines shall before then appoint the
Chairman and members of the first Board of Electronics Engineering in
accordance with Sections 6 and 8 herein, who shall formulate and thereafter
promulgate the rules and regulations for the implementation of this Act.
SEC. 38. Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this
Law is Passed. - Electronics and Communications Engineers holding a valid
Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card at the time of
effectivity of this Act shall be automatically registered and recognized as
Electronics Engineers and shall be issued a new Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Card as Electronics Engineers with the same license
number as their original Electronics and Communications Engineer Certificate
of Registration, subject to the payment of prescribed fees and other
requirements of the Board and/or Commission.
ARTICLE VIII
FINAL PROVISION
SEC. 39. Implementing Rules and Regulations. - Subject to the approval of the
Commission, the Board, in coordination with the accredited professional
organization, shall adopt and promulgate such rules, regulations, resolutions,
the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice for
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians to carry out the provisions of this Act, which shall be published in
the Official Gazette or a newspaper of general circulation and shall be effective
fifteen (15) days after publication therein.
SEC. 41. Separability Clause. - If any provisions of this Act or any portion
hereof is declared unconstitutional by any competent court, the other
provisions hereof shall not be affected thereby.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 7-27
SEC. 42. Repealing Clause. - Republic Act No. 5734 is hereby repealed. All
other laws, executive orders, rules and regulations or parts thereof in conflict
with the provisions of this Act are hereby repealed or amended accordingly.
SEC. 43. Effectivity. - This Act shall take effect fifteen (15) days following its
full publication in the Official Gazette or any newspaper of general circulation.
Approved.
This act which is a consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill
No. 2683 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate
on February 2, 2004.
GLORIA MACAPAGAL-ARROYO
President of the Philippines
A. Fundamental Principles
Engineers uphold and advance the integrity, honor, and dignity of the
engineering profession by:
Using their knowledge and skill for the enhancement of human welfare
Being honest and impartial, and servicing with fidelity to the public,
their employers, and clients
Striving to increase the competence and prestige of the engineering
profession
Supporting the professional and technical societies of their disciplines
B. Fundamental Canons
1. The engineer shall hold paramount safeguarding life, health and
property and promoting the public welfare in the performance of their
professional duties.
The engineer shall recognize that the lives, safety, health, welfare
of the general public are dependent upon engineering judgments,
decisions and practices incorporated into structures, machines,
products, processes and devices.
The engineer shall approve and seal only those design documents
which in his considered opinion do not endanger the life, health,
property and the public welfare in conformity with accepted
engineering standards.
The engineer shall not permit the use of his own, firms or
associates name in business ventures with any person or firm
which upon investigation he believes is engaging in fraudulent or
dishonest business or professional practices.
4. The engineer shall act in the professional matters for each employer or
client as faithful agent or trustee, avoiding conflicts or interest.
The engineer shall not offer, give, solicit, or receive, either directly
or indirectly, any commission, gift or other valuable consideration
in order to secure work.
A. Foreword
Honestly, Justice, and Courtesy form a moral philosophy which, associated
with mutual interest among men, constitutes the foundation of ethics. The
engineer should recognize such a standard, not in passive observance, but
as dynamic principles guiding his conduct and way of life. It is duty to
practice his profession according to this Code of Ethics and Conduct.
1. Each and every engineer shall recognize and respect the supreme
authority of the state as expressed through its laws and implemented
by its agencies.
2. He shall recognize that the well-being of the public and the interests of
the state are above the well being and interest of any individual.
3. In the interest of justice, he shall aid the state, if and when the
technology is needed for the prevention and/or prosecution of unjust,
criminal, or unlawful acts.
4. In the interest of good government, he shall in every way possible
extend cooperation to the state in the accomplishment of its goals and
objectives.
5. In the interest of social efficiency, he shall extend assistance,
guidance, and training to all subordinates under his jurisdiction in
order to increase their skill and ability, knowledge, and experience for
the purpose of eventually increasing their responsibilities.
6. In the interest of the national economy and well-being, he shall always
strive in the execution of his work for optimum efficiency, economy,
and safety.
7. In the interest of national security, the state shall be given primary
consideration in all his inventions and/or devices in electronics and
communications useful for national security and defense.
8. In the event of any national emergency, he shall offer his technology,
skill, ability, and experience to the services of the state, even if it will
involve personal sacrifices.
I H
1. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and
calling frequency for radio telephony for station of the maritime mobile service
when using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 and 174 MHz?
A. 168. 5 MHz B. 165.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz D. 156.8 MHz
2. This is a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or
an entire floor of a building.
A. Floor terminal distribution area B. Floor distribution terminal
C. Riser terminal D. Raceway terminal
3. Referred to as the device which diverts high transient voltage to the ground
and away from the equipment thus protected.
A. Arrester B. Alarm
C. Anchor D. Alpeth
6. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two
story residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE
building code?
A. Not required B. Five lines
C. Three lines D. Two lines
7. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila is
A. 10 kW B. 5 kW
C. 15 kW D. 20 kW
10. Which of the following penalty is provide under the existing telecommunication
law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to
provide local exchange un-served and under-served areas within three years
from grant of authority?
A. Given two years to comply
B. Given one year to comply
C. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedules
D. Cancellation of its authority
11. A law that specifically requires the services of a duly registered Electronics and
Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction,
operation and maintenance of radio stations.
A. Act. 3846 B. Dept. Order 88
C. D.O. 1000 D. R.A. 5734
12. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before
a Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?
A. Radio station license B. Franchise
C. Business permit D. SEC document
13. Who issues an authority to install, operate, and maintain a cable television
system or render a television service with a specified area in the country?
A. National Telecommunications Communication
B. Congress of the Philippines
C. Board of communications
D. Department or Transportation and Communications
18. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the
orbit/spectrum resources?
A. Efficient use and equitable access
B. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation
C. Equal distribution
D. Depending on national sovereignty
20. An order signed by former President F. Ramos last March 1998 providing the
policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the
Philippines.
A. E.O. 3846 B. E.O. 467
C. E.O. 456 D. E.O. 59
21. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
A. ITU-T B. ITU-D
C. ITU-R D. RAG
22. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and
safety system.
A. Provision of Morse code
B. Provision of radio personnel
C. Provision of radiotelegraph operator
D. Provision of facsimile
24. One of the following is not a major components required on board ship under
the global maritime distress and safety system.
A. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
B. Shore base facilities
C. Radio personnel onboard
D. On board radio facilities
26. Referred to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of
allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach
the subscriber of the other carrier or operator.
A. Outside plant sharing B. Interconnection
C. Toll patching D. Gateway
27. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable
television system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional
Authority or Certificate previously granted by the Commission.
A. New entrant has more financial support
B. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with term and condition of the
authorization
C. Current service is grossly inadequate
D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
29. Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days B. 30 days
C. 60 days D. 15 days
30. The basic law providing for the regulation of radio station, communication in
the Philippines and other purposes.
A. Act. No. 3846 B. D.O. No. 5
C. D.O. No. 11 D. D.O. No. 88
31. Which one is not the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine
Electronic Codes?
A. Shielding
B. Grounding and bonding
C. Undergrounding
D. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
32. Designated year for the full implementation of the Global Maritime Distress and
Safely System.
A. 1999 B. 1992
C. 1996 D. 1998
33. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the
floor structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?
A. Insert B. Slot
C. Sleeve D. Raceway
37. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU
report?
A. WRC B. Council
C. TDAB D. WTSC
39. An act which was passed by Congress providing for the installation, operation
and maintenance of a public telephone in each and every municipality in the
country.
A. R.A. No. 7925 B. R.A. No. 6849
C. R.A. No. 3846 D. R.A. No. 3396
40. Under NTC Memorandum Circular, what is the fine of any person, corporation
or entity who will illegally purchase, sale, lease and/or retail of mobile phone
acquired from (per unit/violation) any illegal source.
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 15,000.00 D. PHP 35,000.00
41. Under NTC Memorandum Circular, what is the fine of any person, corporation
or entity who will purchase, sale, lease and/or retail of mobile phones without
NTC type (per unit/violation) approval/type acceptance labels/stickers.
A. PHP 500.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 5,000.00 D. PHP 50,000.00
42. Under NTC Memorandum order what is the fine of any person, corporation or
entity that will illegally import mobile phone, parts and accessories thereof (per
unit).
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 7,500.00 D. PHP 75,000.00
43. According to NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 the following are the fees and charges for
each repair shop for Filing Fee, Permit Fee, and Inspection Fee respectively.
A. PHP 180, PHP 1200.00/year, PHP 720.00/year
B. PHP 720, PHP 180.00/year, PHP 1200.00/year
C. PHP 720, PHP 1200.00/year, PHP 180.00/year
D. PHP 1200, PHP 180.00/year, PHP 720.00/year
44. Under the administrative sanction of NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 what is the fine for
an MPSC (Mobile Phone Service Center) operating without valid NTC Permit.
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 7,500.00 D. PHP 75,000.00
45. Under the administrative sanction of NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 what is the fine for
an unauthorized servicing of 5 mobile phones?
A. PHP 5,000.00 B. PHP 25,000.00
C. PHP 7,500.00 D. PHP 75,000.00
46. As per NTC M.C. 07-08-2004 an MPSC (Mobile Phone Service Center) shall
properly identify its business and location by posting conspicuously at the
entrance of its premises a signboard of at least ______ dimension which shall
indicate clearly its business name, the type of services it offers, its full business
address and the MPSC permit number.
A. 50cm x 150cm B. 100cm x 50cm
C. 50cm x 100cm D. 150cm x 100cm
47. Under section 1 of the proposed NTC memorandum circular on the rules and
regulation on the allocation and assignment of 3G radio frequency band, what
is the radio frequency band allocated for Band A and B to be used by 3G
networks
A. Band A : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band B : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
B. Band A : 2010 2025MHz,
Band B : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
C. Band A : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz,
Band B : 1885 1900MHz/1965 1980MHz
D. Band A : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band B : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz
48. Under section 1 of the proposed NTC memorandum circular on the rules and
regulation on the allocation and assignment of 3G radio frequency band, what
is the radio frequency band allocated for Band C and D to be used by 3G
networks
A. Band C : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band D : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
B. Band C : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz,
Band D : 1885 1900MHz/1965 1980MHz
C. Band C : 2010 2025MHz,
Band D : 1935 1950MHz/2125 2140MHz
D. Band C : 1920 1935MHz/2110 2125MHz,
Band D : 1950 1965MHz/2140 2155MHz
49. Under section 7 of the proposed NTC memorandum circular on the rules and
regulation on the allocation and assignment of 3G radio frequency band, what
is the SUF (spectrum user fee) for the allocated 3G radio frequency band.
A. PHP 100T for each band B. PHP 10M for each band
C. PHP 100M for each band D. PHP 10B for each band
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 7-41
50. Under article VI entitled Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement
Agencies of the new ECE law, a fine of not less than ______ nor more than
______, or by imprisonment of not less than six (6) months nor more than six
(6) years, or both, in the discretion of the court shall be imposed to those who
will violate all those listed under section 35 of RA 9292.
A. PHP 10,000, PHP100,000 B. PHP 10,000, PHP 1,000,000
C. PHP 100,000, PHP 1,000,000 D. PHP 1,000,000, PHP 5,000,000
DEFINITION. Input signal: Exist independently of the system and its not
affected by the system.
A. .CLASSIFICATION OF SIGNALS.
1. In terms of Source/s
Scalar Signal
A signal generated by a single source.
Vector Signal
A signal generated by a multiple source sources, often called
multi-channel signal.
R(x, y, t)
( x, y, t ) = G(x, y, t)
B(x, y, t)
One-dimensional 1-D
A 1-D signal is a function of a single independent variable.
Two-dimensional 2-D
A 2-D signal is a function of a two independent variable.
Multi-dimensional M-D
A M-D signal is a function of more than one independent variable.
The black and white video signal can be considered an example of a 3-D
signal where the three independent variables are two spatial variables and
time.
Deterministic signal
A signal that can be uniquely determined by a well defined process
such as mathematical expression or rule is called deterministic
signal.
Random signal
A signal that is generated in random fashion and cannot be
predicted ahead of time is called random signal.
4. Time-dependent signals
Continuous-time signals
A continuous-time signal is defined at every instant of time.
Discrete-time signals
A discrete-time signal is defined at discrete instant of time, and
hence, it is a sequence of numbers.
Right-sided Sequence
Has zero-valued samples for n>N2, x[n]=0
i. Conjugate Symmetric
A sequence is said to be conjugate-symmetric if x[n]=x*[-n]
5. Other Classification
i. Summable Sequence
A sequence x[n] is said to be absolutely summable if
x[n] = x[n] <
n =
x[n] 2
x[n] = <
n =
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 7-45
N
1
2 2
E x[n] P lim
N x[n]
n = N 2N + 1 n= N
C. .BASIC SEQUENCE.
1, for n = 0
[n] =
0, for n 0
1, for n 0
[n] =
0, for n < 0
[n] = [k]
k =
[n] = [n] [n 1]
3. Ramp Sequence
It is denoted by r [n] and is defined by
n, for n 0
r[n] =
0, for n < 0
4. Sinusoidal Sequence
x[n] = A cos(0 + )
5. Exponential Sequence
where :
n
x[n] = A A = A e j
= e j( + j0 )
1. Modulation
The product of two sequence x[n] and h[n] of length N yields a
sequence of y[n], also of length N, as given by
2. Addition
The addition of two sequences x[n] and h[n] of length N yields a
sequence of y[n], also of length N, as given by
3. Scalar Multiplication
The multiplication of a sequence x[n] by a scalar A result in a
sequence y[n] of length N, as given by
y[n] = A x[n]
In the case of analog signals, this operation, is usually called amplification if the
magnitude of the multiplying constant, called gain, is greater than 1.
If the magnitude of the multiplying constant is greater less than 1, the operation is
called attenuation.
4. Delay Operation
The delay of a sequence x[n] of infinite length by a positive integer M
results in a sequence y[n] of infinite length given by
y[n] = x[n M]
5. Time-Reversal Operation
A time-reversal operation generates an output y[n], also of length N
but reverse in time, as given by
y[n] = x[n]
E. .CLASSIFICATION OF SYSTEM.
Input Signal
Exist independently of the system and are not affected by the system.
Output Signal
Bears information generated by the system, often in response to input
signals.
Basic Classification:
1. Linearity
System for which the superposition principle applies is called linear
system.
2. Time-Invariant
A system that responds to a delayed input signal with a
correspondingly delayed output signal is called time-invariant system.
3. Static or Memoryless
A system is said to be static system if its output at any instant n
depends only on the input sample at the same time.
5. Causality
A system is said to be causal (non-anticipative) if the output of the
system at any time n depends only on the present and past input but
does not depend on future inputs.
6. Stability
A system is said to be stable if and only if, for every bounded input,
the output is also bounded.
7. Passivity
A discrete-time system is said to be passive if, for every finite energy
input sequence x[n], the output sequence y[n] has, at most, the same
energy.
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 8-1
The data and instructions presented here are subject to changes depending upon PRC
discretion.
1. Notice of Admission
2. Application Stub
3. PRC Official Receipt
4. Two or more pencils (No.2)
5. Ballpens with BLACK INK ONLY
6. One (1) piece Metered-Stamp Window Envelope
7. One (1) piece Long Brown Envelope
8. One (1) piece Long Transparent (non-colored) Plastic Envelope (to
keep above items).
1. Report to the Test Center before 6:30 a.m. on the first day of
examination to verify your room and seat numbers.
2. Late examinees will not be admitted.
3. Attend to your personal needs before the start of examination in every
subject. No examinee will be allowed to go out of the examination
room while the examination is in progress.
4. Always put your answer sheet on top of the armchair while taking the
examination.
5. Stop answering the test questions at the end of the time allotted for
the subject. Arrange your test papers as follows:
(a) Notice of Admission
(b) Answer Sheet
(c) Test Questionnaire
6. Do not leave the room until.
(a) your answer sheet and test question set are received by the room
watchers
(b) you have signed, indicated the time and set (A or B) on the
Examinees Record of Attendance, and
(c) the lower portion of your Notice of Admission (Certification on the
Receipt of Test Papers) is signed by the Room Watchers and
returned to you.
SHARP
EL-233S EL-376S EL-509D EL-520VA EL-556G
EL-240S EL-378S EL-509G EL-531GH EL-771C
EL-242M EL-501V EL509R EL-531RH EL-2125
EL-250S EL-501V (BK) EL-509V EL-531VH EL-6053
EL-310A EL-506 EL-510R EL-531VH (BK) EL-6750
EL-310A-GR EL-506R EL-520G EL-531VH (BL) EL-6810
EL-327S EL-506V EL-520V EL-546L EL-6850
EL-331A EL-506V (BK) EL-520V (BK) EL-546VA
OTHER BRANDS
CEBAR CD402 KARCE-833 PORPO YH-105 TAKSUN TS-217
DAL 506X KARCE KC 250 PORPO YH-106 TAKSUN TS-128B
LIFELONG KARCE 539 TIME BIRD SJC-122
TL 30XS TEXAS TI 30 TAKSUN TS-128
Calculators whose brand and identifying mark do not appear in the list above
provided shall be prohibited in the examinations.
49. C. Telegraphy;
four-frequency duplex
51. C. Myriametric
Note: The answers to even-numbered 53. B. Telephony; amplitude-
questions are intentionally withheld but modulated pulses
will be personally discuss by the author to 55. D. Radio waves
ECE reviewees during review, refresher 57. A. 0.3 to 3 Hz
and coaching program for the reason that 59. A. Longitudinal
the author is anticipating ECE school 61. B. XXX
teachers and co-reviewers will use some 63. C. Out
of the question as a safe and quick exam 65. C. Frequency
references since the answers are withheld 67. A. -3dB bandwidth
and encourage readers to test their 69. B. Telephony; SSBRC
knowledge in the field of communications 71. D. Infrared rays
engineering. 73. B. Telephony; pulse
phase or
position-modulated
75. D. One-millionth of a
meter
77. A. Telephony; SSBSC
SECTION 1 79. D. Absolute bandwidth
Basic Principles of 81. D. Multiplexing
Communications Engineering 83. A. Telephony; pulse-
width modulated
1. D. 24, 120 85. C. 3 to 30 GHz
3. D. Quality 87. D. Telephony; SSBFC
5. A. Red, blue, and green 89. C. Narrowband
7. A. Wideband 91. A. SOS
9. B. ARPANET 93. C. Break
11. C. Andrei Marie Ampere 95. B. Necessary Bandwidth
13. B. Gigametric 97. A. Michael Faraday
15. D. 500 nm 99. B. 300 to 3000 GHz
17. A. 2.2% 101. D. time
19. A. 20 103. B. 19th century
21. C. 74.82% 105. B. Distortion
23. B. Facsimile 107. D. 0.7 to 100 m
25. B. 60 109. D. All of the above
27. D. atmospheric 111. C. Attenuated
interference 113. D. distance a signal or bit
29. B. antenna has traveled
31. B. a transmitter, a 115. A. low-pass
receiver, and a channel 117. D. EHF
33. A. 2f 119. B. single-frequency;
35. D. Multiplexing composite
37. C. Telephony or 121. C. 12.4 peV to 124 peV
telegraphy with ISB 123. C. Noise
39. C. greater at low 125. B. 7000
frequencies 127. A. time; frequency
41. D. its amplitude, 129. A. Ham radio
frequency, and phase 131. B. bandpass
angle 133. C. Modulation
43. D. purple noise 135. B. frequency
45. C. Heinrich Hertz 137. B. Phase
47. C. Guglielmo Marconi 139. B. Full duplex
color imbalance
21. B. Pincushion
23. B. 2.23 m
Section 6 25. A. saturation
Acoustics Fundamentals 27. C. 67.25-MHz carrier
frequency and 69.25-
1. D. 20 MHz upper side
3. C. 1.6 mW/ m2 frequency
5. D. 89.1 dB 29. B. much higher
7. D. the period is 0.5 s 31. A. flicker, 60-Hz vertical,
9. B. halving the wavelength 30-Hz
11. A. twice as loud 33. C. 1.51 in
13. B. Flanking transmission 35. C. 400
15. D. Sound intensity 37. D. pit depth
17. A. 245 Hz 39. D. symmetric envelope of
19. A. 10 dB amplitude variations
21. C. 75 dB 41. A. 0.45
23. B. 256 to 2048 Hz 43. C. the brightness of the
25. B. 71 dB color
27. C. Phonoscope 45. A. no color
29. C. 6 dB 47. B. footcandles
31. D. 115.56 dBSPL
49. C. monoscope
33. A. 35.3
51. C. 3.579545 MHz
35. C. 137.7 lux
53. B. Gamma
37. B. 3 dB
55. B. 0.920455 MHz
39. D.
41. A. 140 dB
57. D. yellow, cyan, magenta
43. C. 97.8 W/m2 59. B. decoding
45. D. 111.6 dBPWL, 61. A. 8 and 16
56.53 dBSPL 63. C. I
47. B. 107. 55 dB 65. C. 426 picture elements
49. B. dP/dA 67. C. 30
51. A. Pitch 69. C. 4.5 MHz
53. D. 2.2 71. C. tint
55. A. dolby 73. C. Aquadag
75. C. Convergence
77. B. 3.38 and 3.78 MHz
79. B. the vertical scanning
Section 7 frequency is doubled
Television Fundamentals from 30 to 60 Hz
81. B. 31,500 for the vertical
1. C. 74.1 IRE units scanning frequency
3. B. 420 pixels 83. C. 426
5. A. 307 lines 85. B. Colorplexer
7. B. exact interlacing 87. C. zero
9. A. 55.24 MHz 89. B. 960 s
11. A. P=45.75 MHz, 91. C. 41%
S=41.25 MHz 93. B. electrostatic
13. D. B-Y 95. D. 347
15. B. 8% 97. B. 4 MHz
17. A. 151,761 pixels 99. C. IRE units
19. B. a weak picture, a long 101. D. 45.6%
warm up time, and
Loading ECE SUPERBook
9-6 Answers to odd-numbered questions
103. A. blue
105. A. 3x
107. B. 8%, 15.7%, 77.6%
109. B. Magnetic Section 10
111. D. 12.9 MHz Transmission Lines and
113. D. blacker than black Waveguides
115. B. vestigial sideband AM
117. A. Static 1. B. 82.9 , 195.4
119. A. 2 3. D. 151 W
121. A. contrast 5. B. 168 m
123. D. FM 7. C. 2.15
125. D. Fixed 9. D. 112
127. D. low beam current 11. C. 417 ns, 5 V
129. D. 15,750 Hz 13. A. 43.1 W
131. D. 2.2 15. D. 9.1 W
133. B. centering 17. B. 40 - j30
135. D. white 19. A. 225 nH/m
137. B. G-Y 21. A. increases
139. A. Trace part, retrace 23. C. 0.00521 dB/m
25. D. 0.0493 dB/m
27. D. dividing it by Z0
29. B. the dielectric constant
Section 8 31. B. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
AM, FM, and TV Broadcasting 33. A. -1,
Standards 35. B. 6V
37. D. 75-5
39. D. 50-76
1. D. Loose connections in
the oscillator, 41. C. the skin effect
amplifier, or antenna 43. B. one
circuits 45. C. 0.693
3. B. 80 kW 47. D. all of the above
5. C. 525 lines 49. B. 54.38
7. D. 525 lines 51. A. 0.569 /m
53. A. 0.296 rad/m
9. C. MOPA
55. D. would not reflect at all
11. A. class C
57. C. 6.4 pF
13. B. 5
59. B. 570
15. A. TVRO
61. C. 9.08 cm
17. B. FM 63. B. 1, 1
19. B. Television 65. C. 14.3 GHz
21. B. MF 67. B. 72.4
23. B. 1.3 MHz 69. A. 1.6x108 m/s,
25. C. Surface loam soil 5.51x108 m/s
27. D. 30 to 53 kHz 71. C. 0.448 m, 0.136 m
29. A. Vestigial sideband 73. A. 24.5 nH
75. D. Tuned circuits
77. B. 50 j0
79. A. A capacitive impedance
81. B. 1.60:1 (min),
2.50:1 (max)
83. D. 0 j
85. A. Noise figure increases
by 10 dB
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 9-7
coating 21. A. 1 dB
113. D. Reduces mechanical 23. B. prevent oscillation
strength 25. D. occurs when the central
115. D. Single mode and office capacity is
multimode exceeded
117. C. Single mode 27. D. 90 volts, 20 Hz AC
119. B. Core diameter and NA 29. C. 0.045
121. A. attenuation 31. B. 414.9 CCS
123. B. dB/km 33. C. 26 gauge every 3000 ft
125. B. -23 dBm with 66 mH inductors
127. C. embedded; optical signals; 35. A. Public Switched
multiplexing Telephone Network
129. B. Dense wavelength division 37. C. 1225
multiplexing; fiber-optic 39. A. D-channel
131. D. SONET 41. C. 0.98966
133. A. in 1994, as part of the first 43. A. 3.533 Erlang
Fast Ethernet standards 45. B. reduce the attenuation
135. C. scalability of voice signals
137. D. 90000 47. D. 6.1 sec
139. A. copper wire, coaxial cable, 49. C. occupancy
fiber, and wireless 51. D. 1.544
141. C. plesiochronous 53. B. 19 gauge every 6000 ft
143. C. 51.84 Mbps with 88 mH inductors
145. C. 8 55. B. 88 Erlangs
147. C. ISDN networks 57. D. 44.008 Mbps
149. D. the time distortion of an 59. C. 2
optical signal that results 61. C. 24 calls will be block
from the time of flight 63. B. 0.8 dB
differences of different 65. C. B-channel
components of that signal 67. A. 48
151. C. Dispersion 69. D. 36 CCS
153. C. light; silica 71. B. cross bar
155. D. spatial multiplexing 73. C. Loop extender
157. A. the reduction of signal 75. B. 1.544
strength over the length of 77. A. lost
the light-carrying medium 79. B. DDD
159. C. Fabric 81. C. Terminal adapter
83. B. MOSFET
85. D. frame
87. C. echo
Section 12
89. B. broadband ISDN
Telephone Networks and System
91. C. intensity
93. D. DTMF
1. A. 82.13 Erlangs, 0.43%
3. D. 20 mA to 80 mA 95. C. B-channel
5. A. 770 Hz, 1336 Hz 97. D. CCITT
7. C. 162 s 99. D. PABX
9. B. 0.029 in 101. B. 8
11. B. 200 ohms 103. B. a wave which has been
13. C. 90 dBrn reflected or otherwise
15. B. 65 dBrnC TLP returned with sufficient
17. D. 56 kbps magnitude and delay for it
19. C. 300 call-minute, 5 call- to perceptible in some
hour manner as a wave distinct
Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO 9-9
Section 15 Section 16
Digital Communications Data Communications
Section 20 Section 21
Satellite Communications Cellular Communications System
1. B. 9.542 dB 1. D. 15 x 25 mm
3. C. 71.5 dB 3. B. TDD
5. A. 49 dB 5. D. AMPS
7. D. Centripetal force 7. A. Adaptive power control
9. D. 77.96 dB 9. C. 2 to 8 nodes
11. A. 260 ms 11. B. IMT-MC
13. C. 600 ms 13. C. Base station controller
15. A. 22,300 miles 15. C. Blocked calls
17. A. 253.33 ms 17. C. 3G
19. C. 112.5 dB 19. A. WCDMA
21. C. 7.6 km/s 21. C. 270.833 kbps
23. D. 24 satellites 23. C. Clone
25. A. 290 K 25. B. 73
27. C. telemetry 27. D. SIM
29. D. 6.35x10-16 W/m2 29. C. -45.7 dBm
31. D. Gravitational pull of 31. B. 10 cm to 10 meters
the earth and centripetal 33. B. less than 600 mW
force of the revolving 35. A. increase the number of
satellite cells
33. A. Telemetry, Tracking, 37. A. all frequencies are used
and Control in all cells
35. D. 500-MHz, 12, 36-MHz 39. B. 216 ft
37. B. DAMA 41. A. 416 E & 3333 E
39. D. Frequency Hopping 43. C. hard
41. A. line of apsides 45. A. 1.76 minutes
43. D. -165 dBW 47. D. 3GPP
45. B. -208.6 dBW 49. B. 67.708 kHz
47. D. Equipped with two 51. D. 95 MHz
mixers 53. A. 1 meter
49. A. Footprint 55. B. IS-95
51. D. 5 57. A. 666
53. D. 195.7 dB 59. C. 250 mW
55. C. High directional 61. C. CCITT
antenna 63. D. LAI
57. D. Frequency re-use 65. C. 300
technique 67. D. Both A and B
59. C. Perigee 69. A. 2.4 GHz
61. B. 35,780 km 71. D. Special Interest Group
63. C. footprint 73. B. the units is handed off
65. A. azimuth and elevation to a closer cell
67. C. 103 watts 75. D. 1981
69. C. orbital adjustments 77. D. Qualcomm
71. A. low-noise amplifier 79. D. 7
73. A. television receive only 81. D. 25 MHz
75. D. Osumi, Alouette 1 83. C. 40,000
85. A. from the base to the
mobile
87. A. IMT-TC
89. A. 36 s
91. B. SAT
46. C. 50cm x 10
47. A. Band A : 1920 1935MHz/
2110 2125MHz,
Band B : 1935 1950MHz/
2125 2140MHz
48. B. Band C : 1950 1965MHz/
2140 2155MHz,
Band D : 1885 1900MHz/
1965 1980MHz
49. C. PHP 100M for each band
50. C. PHP 100,000,
PHP 1,000,000
MEMORY ENHANCEMENT
& EXAMINATION TIPS
Each person will have his or her own set of ways of remembering any one
thing. Each person will also find it easier to remember something difficult
by using a different combination of strategies. Some people are
outstanding at remembering things they hear aloud - so it makes sense for
them to say out loud what they need to remember. Other people find they
remember what they read if they sing it to themselves. Others remember
things by associating them with places or people. This may feel unusual -
but use what works for you. For complex and important things, you
increase you chances of remembering them if you:
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10-2 M EM ORY ENHANCEM ENT and EXAM INATION TIPS
A. Paying attention
Take an active role in learning.
Memorization is sometimes needed but is not enough.
Review information and quiz yourself for true understanding.
B. Constructivism
Constructivism deals with correlating new information with old
information.
Thus, one constructs new understanding by fitting new
information with prior understanding or experiences.
Rather than memorizing random facts, try to relate them to prior
knowledge.
Think about new information and draw comparisons to other
things you know.
Think about similar information learned earlier.
Draw analogies between old information and new information.
This allows you to see the big picture and not get swamped with
new information.
We can improve the conditions for learning by being aware of some of the
ways the brain works. Although we do not need to know a great deal about
the brain, understanding some basics can help us to make the most of our
minds. Some of the optimal conditions for learning are common sense and
good for our general health. For example, the brain works well when:
it is rested - sleep affects our performance
it is hydrated-drinking water helps the electrical connections of the
brain
it is unstressed- when it is stressed, it can focus only on 'escape', not
on such matters as reading journals and writing assignments
it enjoys itself-it is important to look for any angle that can stimulate
our interest in what we are learning
it has seen something several times -little and often works better than
trying to understand something in one sitting
V. .READING TIPS.
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10-4 M EM ORY ENHANCEM ENT and EXAM INATION TIPS
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10-6 M EM ORY ENHANCEM ENT and EXAM INATION TIPS
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SUPERBook
Major References:
1. R. Blake, Electronic Communication Systems, 2nd ed., Delmar,
Singapore, 2002
2. A. Carlson, Communications System, McGraw-Hill, 1975
3. L. W. Couch, Digital and Analog Communication System, 6th ed.,
Prentice Hall, Upper Saddle River, 2001
4. R.L. Freeman, Telecommunication Transmission Handbook, 3rd ed.,
Wiley & Sons, Canada, 1991
5. R.L. Freeman, Fundamentals of Telecommunications, 3rd ed., Wiley &
Sons, Canada, 1999
6. L.E. Frenzel, Communications Electronics, 2nd ed., McGraw-Hill,
Singapore, 1994
7. B. Grob, Basic Television and Video Systems, 5th ed., McGraw Hill,
Singapore, 1984
8. W.H. Hayt, Jr., Engineering Electromagnetics, 5th ed., McGraw-Hill,
New York, 1988
9. W.C.Y. Lee, Mobile Communications Engineering, 2nd ed., McGraw Hill,
New York, 1997
10. G. Kennedy, Electronic Communications System, 3rd ed., McGraw-Hill,
New York, 1984
11. L.E. Kinsler, A.R. Frey, Fundamentals of Acoustics, 3rd ed., Wiley &
Sons, Canada, 1982
12. J. Kraus, D. Fleisch, Electromagnetics with Applications, McGraw Hill,
New York, 1999
13. G.M. Miller, Modern Electronic Communication, 4th ed., Prentice Hall,
New Jersey, 1992
14. S.K. Mitra, Digital Signal Processing, A Computer-Based Approach
McGraw Hill, Singapore, 1998
15. J.C. Palais, Fiber Optic Communications, 3rd ed., Prentice Hall, New
Jersey, 1992
16. E. Pasahow, Electronics Pocket Reference, 3rd ed., McGraw-Hill,
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