Instructions :

Total Number of Questions: 200

Physics: 40 Objectives and 20 Assertions and Reasoning,
Chemistry: 40 Objectives and 20 Assertions and Reasoning,
Botany: 20 Objectives and 10- Assertions and Reasoning.
Zoology: 20 Objectives and 10- Assertions and Reasoning
General Knowledge: 20 Objectives.
For Each Correct Answer + 1 mark.
For Each Incorrect Answer - 1/3 mark.
Total marks = 1 x 200 = 200 marks Duration: 3 Hour's
Zero marks, if not attempted.
The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet only.
______________________________________________________________________________

PHYSICS
1. A train is moving due east and a car is moving due north with equal speeds. A passenger in the train
finds that the car is moving towards
1) North east 2) North west 3) South west 4) South-east
2. A bus moves over a straight level road with a constant acceleration a. A boy in the bus drops a ball out
side. The acceleration of the ball w.r.t the bus and the earth are respectively
1) a g ,g
2 2
2) g , a g
2 2
3) a, g 4) g , a
3. The acceleration of a projectile relative to another projectile is
1) g 2) g 3) 2g 4) 0
1
4. A man is going east with a velocity of 5 ms . It is vertically raining downwards with a velocity of
4 ms 1 . At what angle should he hold the umbrella to the vertical so as to protect him self from the
rain?
5
1 15
1) tan in anti-clockwise direction 2) tan in clock wise direction

4
4
1 4 1 4
3) tan north of east 4) tan east of north
5 5
5. Rain drops are falling down ward vertically at 4kmph. For a person moving forward at 3kmph feels the
rain falling at
1) 7kmph 2) 1kmph 3) 5 kmph 4) 25 kmph
6. A man can row a boat in still water with a velocity of 8kmph. Water is flowing in a river with a velocity
of 4 kmph. At what angle should he row the boat so as to reach the exact opposite point
1) 1500 to flow of water 2) 1200 to flow of water
3) 300 to flow of water 4) 900 to flow of water
7. A person can swim in still water at 5m/s. He moves in a river of velocity 3m/s, first down the stream and
next same distance up the stream. The ratio of time taken are
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1

0
8. If a body is thrown with a speed of 19.6m/s making an angle of 30 with the horizontal, then the time of
flight is
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 2 3s 4) 5s
1
9. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 ms , the range of the missile is
g 10m / s 2

1) 50m 2) 60m 3) 20m 4) 40m

10. If the time of flight of a projectile is doubled, what happens to the maximum height attained?
 1) Halved 2) remains unchanged
3) Doubled 4) become four times
1
11. A stone is thrown horizontally with velocity g ms from the top pf a tower of height g metre. The

velocity with which it hits the ground is in ms
1

1) g 2) 2g 3) 3g 4) 4g
12. A person crossing a road with a certain velocity due north, sees a car moving towards east. The relative
velocity of the car w.r.t the person is 2 times that of the velocity of the person. The angle made by the
velocity of car with the east is
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
13. When it is raining vertically down, to a man walking on road the velocity of rain appears to be 1.5 times
his velocity. To protect himself from rain he should hold the umbrella at an angle to vertical. Then
tan
2 5 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 2 3 2
14. A man can swim in still water at a speed of 6 kmph an d he has to cross the river and reach just
opposite point on the other bank. If the river is flowing at a speed of 3 kmph, and the width of the river
is 2km, the time taken to cross the river is ( in hours)
2 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
27 27 3 45
15. A person can swim at 1350 to current of river, to meet target on reaching opposite point. The ratio of
persons velocity to river water velocity is
1) 3 :1 2) 2 :1 3) 1: 2 4) 1: 3
16. A grass hopper can jump a maximum horizontal distance of 0.3m. if it spends negligible time on the

ground, its horizontal component of velocity is g 10 m / s
2

3 3 1 2
1) m/s 2) m/s 3) m/s 4) m/s
2 2 2 3
0
17. A person throws a bottle into a dustbin at the same height as he is 2m away at an angle of 45 . The
velocity of thrown is
1) g 2) g 3) 2g 4) 2g
18. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of 720kmph at an altitude of
980m. Time taken by the bomb to hit the ground is
1) 1s 2) 7.2s 3) 14.14s 4) 0.15s
19. A boat takes 2 hours to travel 8 km and back in still water lake. With water velocity of 4 kmph, the time
taken for going upstream of 8km and coming back is
1) 160 minutes 2) 80 minutes 3) 320 minutes 4) 180 minutes
20. A particle is fired with velocity u making angle with the hozionatl. What is the change in velocity
when it is at the highest point?
1) u cos 2) u 3) u sin 4) u cos u
21. A particle is projected with a velocity v such that its range on the horizontal plane is twice the greatest
height attained by it, The range of the projectile is( when it is acceleration due to gravity is g).
4v 2 4g v2 4v 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
5g 5v 2 g 5g
22. If a body is projected with an angle to the horizontal then
1) Its velocity always perpendicular to its acceleration
2) Its velocity becomes zero at its maximum height
3) Its velocity makes zero angle with the horizontal at its maximum height
 4) The body just before hitting the ground, the direction of velocity coincides with the acceleration.
x x2
23. The parabolic path of a projectile is represented by y in MKS units: its angle of projection
3 60
is g 10 ms
2

1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900

24. The average velocity of a freely falling body is numerically equal to half of the acceleration due to
gravity. The velocity of the body as it reaches the ground is
g g
1) g 2) 3) 4) 2g
2 2
25. Two bodies of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a tower. If air resistance is
proportional to the mass of the body, then
1) The heavier body reaches the ground earlier
2) The lighter body reaches the ground earlier
3) Both the bodies reach the ground simultaneously
4) Cannot be decided
26. A lift is coming from 8th floor and is just about to reach 4th floor. Taking ground floor as origin and
positive direction upwards for all quantities ,which one of the following is correct?
1) x 0, v 0, a 0 2) x 0, v 0, a 0
3) x 0, v 0, a 0 4) x 0, v 0, a 0
27. Choose the correct statement
1) The area of displacement time graph gives velocity
2) The slope of velocity time graph gives acceleration
3) The slope of displacement time graph gives acceleration
4) The area of velocity time graph gives average velcoity
28. Velocity time graph of a body thrown vertically up is
1) A straight line 2) a parabola
3) A hyperbola 4) circle
29. The displacement time graph of two bodies A and B are OP and OQ respectively. If
POX is 600 and QOX is 450 , the ratio of the velocity of A to that of B is

1) 3: 2 2) 3 :1 3) 1: 3 4) 3 : 1
30. The displacement- time graph of a moving particle is shown in fig. The instantaneous velocity of the
particle is negative at the point

1) D 2) F 3) C 4) E
31. A body falling from rest has a velocity v after it falls through a distance h. The distance it has fall
down further, for its velocity to become double, is .times h
1) 5 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
32. Two bodies begin to fall freely from the same height. The second one begins to fall s after the first.
The time after which the 1st body begins to fall, the distance between the bodies equals to l is
 l g 2 g
1) 2) 3) 4)
g 2 l lg l 2
33. A ball released from a height h touches the ground in t s. after t/2 s since dropping, the height of the
body from the ground
h h 3h 3h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 4 2
34. A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach the ground in 5s. It is stopped momentarily
after 3 s and then it is again released. The total time taken by the stone to reach the ground will be
1) 6s 2) 6.5s 3) 7s 4) 7.5s
1
35. A freely falling body takes t second to travel first th distance. Then, time of descent is
x
t x 1
1) 2) t x 3) 4)
x t t x
36. A body is thrown vertically upward from a point A 125m above the ground. It goes up to a maximum
height if 250 m above the ground and passes through A on its downward journey. The velocity of the

body when it is at a height of 70m above the ground is g 10 m / s
2

1) 20 m/s 2) 50 m/s 3) 60 m/s 4) 80 m/s
37. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50m without friction. When parachute opens, it decelerates at
2 m / s 2 . He reaches the ground with a speed of 3 m / s. At what height, did he bail out?
1) 91m 2) 182m 3) 293m 4) 111m
38. An object is projected up the inclined at the angle shown in the figure with an initial velocity of
30 ms 1 . The distance x up the incline at which the object lands is (nearly).

1) 600 m 2) 104m 3) 60m 4) 208m

39. In figure shown below, the time taken by the projectile to reach from A to B is t then, the distance AB is
equal to

ut 3ut
1) 2) 3) 3ut 4) 2ut
3 2
40. The splash of sound was heard 5.35s after dropping a stone into a well 122.5m deep. Velocity of sound
in air is
1) 350 cm/s 2) 350 m/s 3) 392cm/s 4) 0 cm/s
41. A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity ' u ' . It crosses a point in its journey at a height
h twice. Just after 1 and 7 seconds . The value of u in g ms 2

1) 50 2) 40 3) 30 4) 20
42. A freely falling body travels of total distance in 5th second
1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 25% 4) 36%
In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion1) is given flowed by a
corresponding statement of reason(R) just below it. Of the following statements,
choose the correct answer:
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
43. Assertion: Two bodies thrown with same speed from the same point at the same instants but at
different angles never collide in air.
Reason: x and y co-ordinates of the two projectiles always differ.
44. Assertion : In projectile motion, the angle between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration at the
highest point is 1800
Reason: At the highest point, velocity of projectile will be vertically upward.
45. Assertion: If a bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally with constant velocity then
the bomb appears to move along a vertical straight line for the pilot of the plane.
Reason: Horizontal component component of velocity of the bomb remains constant and same as the
velocity of the plane during the motion under gravity.
46. Assertion: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is proportional to square of velocity.
Reason: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is equal to maximum height attained by
projectile.
47. Assertion: The path followed by one projectile as observed by another projectile is a straight line.
Reason: The relative velocity between two projectile at a given place does not change with time.
48. Assertion: When a body is dropped or thrown horizontally from the same height, it would reach the
ground at the same time.
Reason: Horizontal velocity has no effect on the vertical direction.
49. Assertion : when range of a projectile is maximum, its angle of projection may be 450 or 1350
Reason: whether is 45 or 135 , value of range remains the same, only the sign changes.
0 0

50. Assertion: The horizontal displacement of a projectile varies linearly with time.
Reason: A projectile has uniform motion along horizontal direction and accelerated motion along
vertical direction.
51. Assertion: The time taken by a bomb to reach the ground from a horizontally moving aeroplane
depends on height of the aeroplane only.
Reason: The bomb behaves like a freely falling body.
52. Assertion: The path of a body moving under gravity is a parabola or a straight line depending on the
velocity of projection.
Reason: Gravitational force on the body is always towards the earth.
53. Assertion: A metal ball and a plastic ball of same size dropped from the same height in vaccum
simultaneously reach the ground in the same time.
Reason: In vacuum all the bodies dropped from same height take same time to reach the ground.
54. Assertion: For a horizontal projectile and a freely falling body from same height, the time of flight is
same but velocities on reaching the ground are different.
Reason: For both the horizontal projectile and freely falling body initial velocities in vertical
direction are zero but they posses different initial horizontal velocities.
55. Assertion: A ball projected vertically up from a uniformly moving topless car falls in the car when
air resistance is neglected
Reason: vertically projected body reaches the same point of projection.
56. Assertion: A body, whatever its motion is always at rest in a frame of reference which is fixed to the
body itself.
Reason: The relative velocity of a body with respect to itself is zero.
57. Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.
Reason: The displacement is the longest distance between initial and final position.
58. Assertion: The relative velocity between any two bodies moving in opposite direction is equal to sum
of the velocities of two bodies.
Reason: Sometimes relative velocity between two bodies is equal to difference in velocities of the
two bodies.
59. Assertion: Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same speed. They will
pass through their point of projection in the downward direction with the same speed.
Reason: The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection are
independent of the mass of the ball.
60. Assertion: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is proportional to square of velocity.
Reason: The maximum horizontal range of projectile is equal to maximum height attained by
projectile.
CHEMISTRY
2
61. An atom has electronic configuration 1s 2s2 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2 . To which group does it belong?
1) fifth 2) fifteenth 3) second 4) third.
62. Which pair of atomic numbers represents sblock elements ?
1) 7, 15 2) 6, 12 3) 9, 17 4) 3, 12.
63. The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53, 85 are all
1) Light metals 2) Heavy metals 3) Halogens 4) Noble gases.
2 2 6 2 6 10 1
64. A metal M with electronic configuration M : 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s is
1) sblock element 2) dblock element 3) pblock element 4) none of these.
65. The correct order of radii is
1) N < Be < B 2) F < O2 < N3 3) Na < Li < K4) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+.
66. Which of the following ion has the smallest radius ?
1) Cl 2) S2 3) K+ 4) Ca2+.
67. The ionic radius of Cr is minimum in which of the following compounds ?
1) K2CrO4 2) CrF3 3) CrO2 4) CrCl3.
68. Which electronic configuration of an element has abnormally high difference between second and third
ionization energy ?
1) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 ,3s1 2) 1s2 ,2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p1 3) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 ,3s2 3p2 4) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 ,3s2 .
69. Select the correct order of second ionization energy in the following :
1) F > O > N > C 2) O > F > N > C 3) O > N > F > C 4) C > N > O > F.
70. Which of the following ion/atom is paramagnetic ?
1) Sc 3 2) Mn 7 3) V 5 4) Fe 3
+
71. Na ion is iso-electronic with :
1) Li+ 2) Mg2+ 3) Ca2+ 4) Ba2+.
72. Which of the following statements does not form part of Bohrs model of the hydrogen atom?
1) Energy of the electron in the orbit is quantized
2) The electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus has the lowest energy
3) Electrons revolve in different orbit nucleus
4) The position and velocity of the electron in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously.
73. When an electron drops from a higher energy level to a low energy level, then :
1) energy is absorbed 2) energy is emitted
3) atomic number increases 4) atomic number decreases.
74. According to Bohrs theory, the angular momentum for an electron of 5th orbit is :
1) 5h/ 2) 2.5h/ 3) 5/h 4) 25h/.
75. Which of the following electron transitions in hydrogen atom will require largest amount of energy?
1) from n = 1 to n = 2 2) from n = 2 to n = 3
3) from n = to n = 1 4) from n = 3 to n = 5.
76. The maximum number of electrons on a principal shell are :
1) n2 2) n 3) 2n2 4) 3n2.
77. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression :
1) 4l + 2 2) 4l 2 3) 2l + 1 4) 2n2.
78. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible?
1) 2p6 2)3s1 3) 2d5 4) 4f12.
79. Any p-orbital can accommodate up to :
1) 4 electrons 2) 2 electrons with parallel spins
3) 6 electrons 4) 2 electrons with opposite spins.
80. The quantum number/s needed to describe an electron fully in an atom is/are :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
81. The frequency of the radiation having wave number 10 m is : 1

1) 10 s1 2) 3 107 s1 3) 3 1011 s1 4) 3 109 s1 .

82. The energy of a photon of radiation having wavelength 300 nm is :
1) 6.63 1029 J 2) 6.63 1019 3) 6.63 1028 J 4) 6.63 1017 J.
83. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) The frequency of radiation is inversely proportional to its wavelength
2) Energy of radiation increases with increase in frequency
3) Energy of radiation decreases with increase in wavelength
4) The frequency of radiation is directly proportional to its wavelength.
84. Line spectrum is characteristic of :
1) Molecules 2) atoms 3) radicals 4) none of these.
85. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planks quantum theory of radiation?
1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number multiple of quantum
2) Radiation is associated with energy
3) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in the form of small packets called
quanta
4) This magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency.
86. The ratio of 2nd, 4th and 6th orbit of hydrogen atom is :
1) 2: 4: 6 2) 1: 4: 9 3) 1: 4: 6 4) 1: 2: 3.
87. The energy difference between two electronic states is 43.56 kcal/mole. The frequency of light emitted
when the electron drops from higher orbit to lower orbit, is :[Plancks constant = 9.52 1014 kcal/mole]
1) 9.14 1014 cycle/sec 2) 45.7 1014 cycle/sec
3) 91.4 1014 cycle/sec 4) 4.57 1014 cycle/sec.
88. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen atom to absorb a photon but not to emit it?
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 3s 4) 4s.
89. With the increasing principal quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent energy levels in
hydrogen atom :
1) increases 2) decreases 3) is the same 4) none of these.
90. If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum would be :
1) zero 2) <h/(4) 3) >h/(4) 4) infinite.
91. If the ionization energy for hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then the ionization energy for He+ ion should be :
1) 13.6 eV 2) 6.8 eV 3) 54.4 eV 4) 72.2 eV.
92. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f-orbitals?
1) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +1/2 2) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s = 1/2
3) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +1/2 4) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = +1/2.
93. If the value of Azimuthal quantum number is 3, the possible values of magnetic quantum numbers would
be :
1) 0, 1, 2, 3 2) 0, 1, 2, 3 3) 0, 1, 2, 3 4) 1, 2, 3.
94. Correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is :
1) 5, 0, 0, 1/2 2) 5, 1, 0, 1/2 3) 5, 1, 1, 1/2 4) 6, 0, 0, 1/2.
95. Total number of m values for n = 4 are :
1) 8 2) 16 3) 12 4) 20.
96. An electron has a spin quantum number +1/2 and a magnetic quantum number 1. It cannot be present in
:
1) d - orbital 2) f - orbital 3) s - orbital 4) p - orbital.
97. A new electron enters the orbital when :
1) (n + l) is minimum 2) (n + l) is maximum
3) (n + m) is minimum 4) (n + m) is maximum.
98. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible for an electron in the ground state
of an atom with atomic number 19?
 1) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 2) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0
3) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1 4) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2.
99. As the speed of the electrons increases, the measured value of charge to mass ratio (in the relativistic
units) :
1) Increases 2) remains unchanged
3) Decreases 4) first increases and then decreases.
100. Which of the following ions is colourless?
1) V3+ (Z=23) 2) Cu+ (Z=29) 3) Mn3+ 4) Fe3+
101. Non transition element is
1) copper 2) cobalt 3) zinc 4) iron
102. Which of the following electronic configurations is that of a transition element?
1) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2 2) 1s22s22p63s23p63d24s2
3) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p2 4) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6
103. The ground state electronic configuration of chromium is
1) [Ar]3d54s1 2) [Ar]3d44s2 3) [Ar] 3d64s0 4) [Ar]4d55s1
104. Which of the following is not a property of transition elements?
1) Colour 2) Paramagnetism 3) Fixed valency 4) Catalytic
105. The first ionization energy of the elements of the first transition series (Ti to Cu)
1) Increases as the atomic number increases.
2) Decreases as the atomic number increases.
3) Does not show any change as the addition of electrons takes place in the inner (n-1) d-orbitals.
4) Increases from Ti to Mn and then decreases from Mn to Cu.
106. Which of the following shows the highest magnetic moment?
1) Fe3+ 2) Ni2+ 3) Cr3+ 4) Co3+
107. Transition elements
1) Are diamagnetic 2) show inert pair effect
3) Do not form alloys 4) show variable valency.
108. Inner transition elements are so named because
1) They have d-orbitals 2) they have f-orbitals
3) They are literally members of transition series within transition series.
4) None of these.
In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion1) is given flowed by a
corresponding s t a t e m e n t of reason(R) just below it . Of the following statements, choose
the correct answer:
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) IF both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false

109. ASSERTION : Electron possesses wave nature as is confirmed by the diffraction pattern obtained
hc
E
for electron beam and its energy is given by
REASON: Without disturbing the velocity of electron it is not possible to determine the position of
electron.
110. ASSERTION : Spectral line would not be seen for 3px 3pz transition
REASON: All p orbitals are degenerate
111. ASSERTION: Energy is emitted when the electron jumps from inner to outer orbit and is absorbed
when it moves from outer to an inner orbit.
REASON: The emission or absorption of energy in the form of radiation can only occur when an
electron jumps from one stationary orbit to another.
112. ASSERTION : The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5, 4s1
REASON: Cr is the exception of Aufbau principle.
113. ASSERTION: The 19th electron in potassium atom enters 4s-orbital and not 3d orbital.
REASON: The energy of orbital can be compared with the help of (n + l) rules.
114. ASSERTION : Fe3+ ion has more number of stable than Fe2+ ion in ground state
REASON: Fe2+ in has more no. of unpaired electrons than Fe3+
115. ASSERTION: Radial probability distribution graph of an electron in 4d subshell consist of one
radial node.
REASON: d-subshell of any shell contains radial nodes.
116. ASSERTION: Quantization of energy principle is used to explain the hydrogen spectrum.
REASON: On increasing the distance from the nucleus the distance between successive shells
increases.
117. ASSERTION: The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529 .
REASON: Radius for each circular orbit (rn) = 0.529 (n2 / Z), where n = 1, 2, 3 and Z = atomic
number.
118. ASSERTION: Spin quantum number can have the value +1/2 or 1/2.
REASON: (+) sign here signifies the wave function.
1 1 1
R H Z2 2 2
n1 n 2
119. ASSERTION: can be used to determine the wavelength of an electron in an
orbit.
h
REASON: Wavelength associated with an electron is given by = 2mKE
120. ASSERTION: Bohrs atomic model is applicable to Be3+ ion.
REASON: Bohrs atomic model is valid for one electron system only..

BOTANY
121. Root hairs are present in/on
1) Region of elongation 2) Region of maturation
3) Region of meristematic activity 4) Root cap
122. Supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of the sugarcane stem are called
1) Prop roots 2) stilt roots 3) Pneumatophores 4) Fusiform roots
123. Stems are modified into flattened structures, which carryout photosynthesis in
1) Euphorbia 2) Opuntia 3) Bougainvillea 4) Colocasia
124. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
1) Roots are positively geotropic 2) Roots are positively phototropic
3) Roots are always negatively phototropic 4) Roots are negative geotropic
125. Which causes potato spindle tuber disease
1) Viroids 2) Prions 3) Bacteriophage 4) Virions

126. Identify the following plant

 1) Selaginella 2) Fern 3) Salvinia 4) Equisetum

127. Study the following lists

List-I List II
A) Ectocarpus I) Diplontic life cycle
B) Fucus II) Diplobiontic life cycle
C) Volvax III) Haplo diplontic life cycle
IV) Diplo haplontic life cycle
V) Haplontic life cycle
The correct match is
1) A B C 2) A B C
I III V II IV III
3) A B C 4) A B C
V I II III I V
128. Sex organs are multicellular, jacketed and sessile in
1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes 3) Algae 4) Fungi
129. Diploid secondary nucleus is formed from
1) Synergids 2) Antipodals 3) Polar nuclei 4) Egg cell
130. One of the following is not seen in gymnosperms
1) Secondary growth in stem and roots 2) Two kinds of spores
3) Formation of fruits
4) Development of pollen grains takes place within the microsporangia
131. Choose the wrong combination in the female gametrophyte of gymnosperms
1) Triple Fusion Endosperm
2) Gametophytes Independent free living existence
3) Megasporangium Nucellus 4) Ovule Integumented
132. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Viruses are inert crystalline structures outside a living cell.
Statement 2: Viroids posses a distinct protein coat
1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
133. Which of the following statements regarding viruses are correct?
i) These are cellular, infectious, nucleoprotein particles.
ii) They can be grown in culture medium
iii) Genetic material is either DNA or RNA, but never both
iv) They can be crystallised
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
134. Viroids differ from viruses in being
1) naked DNA molecules 2) naked RNA molecules of high molecular weight
3) proteinaceous particles 4) naked RNA molecules of low molecular weight
135. Which of the following kingdoms do viruses belong ?
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) None of these
136. Study the given figure of structure of TMV (Tobacco Mosaic that correctly identifies the labellings
A and B.
 A B
1) ssDNA Capsomeres
2) dsDNA Capsomeres
3) ssRNA Capsomeres
4) ds RNA Tail fibres
137. Bud associated with the underground stem of potato is
1) Axillary 2) Apical 3) Adventitious 4) Internodal
138. Photosynthetic part of Lichens is
1) Mycelium 2) Mycorrhizae 3) Mycobiont 4) Phycobiont
139. The total number of tail fibres in each baceriophage are
1) 4 2) 8 3) 6 4) 10
140. Mannitol and floridean starch found in ------ & ------ respectively
1) Porphyra & Laminaria 2) Laminaria & Porphyra
3) Polysiphonia & Fucus 4) Dictyota & Chlorella
141. Find the algae in the sequential order on the basis of unicellular, colonial, filamentous form
respectively is
1) Ulothrix - Chlamydomonas Volvox 2) Chlamydomonas - Volvox - Ultothrix
3) Chlamydomonas - Ulothrix Volvox 4) Ulothrix - volvox - Chlamydomonas
142. Select the false statement among the following
1) About 70 species of marine algae are used as food.
2) Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageen from brown algae.
3) Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
4) Chlorella and spirulina are rich in proteins
143. Gemmae in Marchantia are
(1) Colourless, unicellular sexual organs
(2) Green, unicellular asexual bunds taking part in vegetative reproduction
(3) Green, filamentous, vegetative buds
(4) Green, multicellular, asexual buds developing in small receptacles
144. Identify the incorrect combination
(1) Liverwort - Marchantia
(2) Angiosperms - Only hetero spores
(3) Mosses - Polytrichum
(4)Pteridophytes - Only homospores
145. Common character among Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
1) Dominant gametophyte 2) Dominant sporophyte
3) Parasitic sporophyte 4) Seed formatiomn

146. Find out the incorrect match

1) Photosynthetic stem Euphorbia 2) Reproductive stem Ginger
3) Protective stem Grape vine 4) Climbing stem Cucumber
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are wrong
147. Assertion: Endosperm in cycas is haploid in nature.
Reason: Cycas roots show symbiotic association with fungi.
148. Assertion: viruses which infect animals generally possess ssRNA only.
Reason: Virus is a facultative intracellular parasite.
149. Assertion: Artificial system of classification was proposed by Bentham and Hooker.
Reason: In artificial system of classification organisms are classified based on natural affinities.
150. Assertion: In pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees.
Reason: The stems are unbranched in Pinus.
 ZOOLOGY
151. Which of the following features are common in locusta, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn?
1) Cephalothorax and tracheae 2) Three pairs of legs and segmented body
3) Chintinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae 4) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton
152. Common characteristics of cockroach, housefly and mosquito are
1) Compound and simple eyes 2) one pair of wings and halters
3) Three pairs of legs and one pair of antennae 4) two pairs of legs and two compound eyes
153. Which of the following is not a correct pair?
1) Tornaria Arthopoda 2) Planula- Coelenterata
3) Trochophore- Annelida 4) Bipinnaria-Echinodermata
154. Phylum mollusca can be distinguished from other invertebrates by the presence of
1) A mantle and gills 2) shell and segmented body
3) A mantle and non segmented body 4) bilateral symmetry and exoskeleton
155. The open circulatory system is found in
1) Earthworm 2) cockroach
3) Snail 4) Both 2 and 3
156. Which of the following is characteristic of the phylum echinodermata?
1) Metameric, enterocoelic, pentamerous 2) Triploblastic, coelomate, pentamerous
3) Diploblastic, enterocoelic, pentamerous 4) Freshwater,eucoelomate, radially symmetrical
157. Echinoderms are heartless, brainless, headless yet from evolutionary point of view, they have been
placed on the top of the invertebrate phyla because of
1) Power of reproduction 2) power of regeneration
3) Presence of enterocoel 4) exclusively marine habitat
158. Balanoglossus belongs to the group
1) Annelida 2) Hemichordata
3) Platyhelminthes 4) Cephalochordata
159. Which of the following statement is true?
1) All chordates are vertebrates 2) All vertebrates are chordates
3) Non-chordates have a vertebral column 4) Invertebrates possess a tubular nerve cord
160. Which of the following passageways is part of cloaca of vertebrates?
1) Rectum 2) Urinary tract
3) Reproductive tract 4) All of these
161. Which of the following statement is/are not true?
1) In Urochorddata, notochord is present only in larval tail
2) In Cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to tail region
3) Branchiostoma belongs to Hemichordata
4) Only one class of living members, class cyclostomata represents the super class Agnatha
1) Only 3 2) 1 and 4 3) 1,2 and 4 4) 3,4 and 1
162. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises jawless fishes?
1) Lamprey and eels 2) mackerals and Rohu
3) Guppies and hag fishes 4) Lampreys and hag fishes
163. The body of rohu fish is covered by
1) Cycloid scale/ Placoid 2) Placoid scale/ ctenoid
3) Cycloid only 4) Placoid only
164. Which of the following represents the correct combination without exception?
Characteristics Class
a) Mammary gland : Hair on body : pinnae ; Mammalia
Two pairs of limbs
b) Mouth ventral; gills without operculum; Chondrichthyes
skin with placoid scales; persistent
notochord
c) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent; Cyclostomata
integument without scales; paired
appendages
d) Body covered with feathers; skin moist Aves
 and glandular; forelimbs form wings ;
lungs and air sacs

165. Which of the following is the smallest taxonomic group of animals having a cranium, vertebral
column, ventral heart, pulmonary respiration and two pairs of limbs?
1) Tetrapoda 2) Chordata 3) Vertebrata 4) Gnathostomata
166. Common Indian bull frog is
1) Rana tigrina 2) rana esculenta
3) Rana silvatica 4) Rana cyanophyctis
167. The figure below show four chordate characteristics. Identify them correctly

1) (A) Post anal tail, (B) Gill slits, (C) Notochord, (D) Nerve cord
2) (A) Gill slits, (B) Post anal tail, (C) Nerve cord (D) Notochord
3) (A) Nerve cord (B) Notochord (C) Gill slits, (D) Post anal tail,
4) (A) post anal tail, (B) Gill slits, (C) Nerve cord (D) Notochord
168. Which of the following features is not common between newt and Hemidactylus?
1) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail
2) Head with pair of eyes and tympanic membrane
3) Trunk has 2 pairs of limb for locomotion
4) Heart is 3-chambered
169. Which of the following is uricotelic?
1) Mammals 2) Birds and lizards
3) Amphibians and fishes 4) Crocodiles and fish
170. Which of the following statement is true for epithelia?
1) They may be derived for any of the embryonic germ layers.
2) The are incapapable of performing absorptive functions
3) They demonstrate weak adhesion between cells
4) The lack apical specilizations
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are wrong
171. Assertion: simple Epitehlium is composed of single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body
cavities ducts and tubes.
Reason: The cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
172. Assertion : The human body is composed of billions of cells to perform various functions.
Reason : The squamous epithelium made of a single thick layer of flattened cells with irregular
boundaries.
173. Assertion : The characteristics feature of aves are the presence of feathers and most of the can fly
except flightless birds.
Reason : The birds are heterotehrmic animals.
174. Assertion: In birds hindlimbs are modified into wings.
Reason : These limbs are helpful for flying.
175. Assertion : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason : Cyclostoma belongs to vertebrates.
176. Assertion : In chondrichthyes fertilization is internal.
Reason : In male fishes pelvic fins bear claspers
177. Assertion : In osteichthyes, air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy.
 Reason : In bony fishes avoid sinking in the water.
178. Assertion : In amphibia, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracks open into a common
chamber called cloaca which open into the exterior.
Reason :In amphibian respiration is by gills lungs and through the skin.
179. Assertion : Hemichordata development is indirect.
Reason : It contain larval stage.

180. Assertion : The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water vascular system
which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration.
Reason : Fertilization is usually external development is direct.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
181. The international Indian Film Academy Awards Best debut(Male) is given to:
1) Tiger Shroff 2) Kriti Sanon
3) Sajid Nadiadwala 4) Kanika Kapoor
182. The worlds first facial recognition ATM has been unveiled by
1) Japan 2) Russia 3) China 4) France
183. Who is the director of film and television institute of India
1) Pankaj 2) Prasanna kumar
3) Prashanth patharabe 4) Ajay matur
184. National commodity and derivatives exchange LTD has launched a mobile
app named
1) Whatsapp 2) Hike 3) IMO 4) NCDEX
185. The worlds first malaria vaccine is
1) Mosquirix 2) Malariae 3) Vivi 4)MMR
186. Government of Srilanka linked a MOU with search engine giant Google to
launch the. In the country.
1) Google chrome project 2) Google loan project
3) Mozilla project 4) UC project
187. This is the worlds largest potato producer, accounting for nearly a quarter of
global production
1) Europe 2) Kazakhstan 3) China 4) USA
188. Which airport has worlds fastest WiFi service at a speed of 41.45 Mbps
1) Russia 2) India 3) Tanzania 4) Bangkok
189. Which country has announced a ban on earphones while driving a vehicle and
riding a cycle
1) France 2) Germany 3) Saudi arabia 4) Africa
190. How much percent of new sold cars in Brazil use ethanol as fuel, which is
produced from sugarcane
1) 80% 2) 92% 3) 62% 4) 98%
191. Ecologists have discovered a new species of fish called in Thunga
river
1) Sushi 2) Flash 3) Shadow 4) Pethia striata
192. .. announced that its no dancing law will be lifted in 2016 where no
clubbers will be free to dance all night after the past 67 years
1) China 2) Japan 3) Russia 4) Mexico
193. Which country has 9 million more women than men
1) Russia 2) Thailand 3) Japan 4) Europe
194. Who won womens doubles of Canada open badminton tournament 2015
1) Hrishikesh 2) Nelson piquet 3) Sathnam singh 4) Gutta-ponappa
195. .. became first developed nation to default on IMF debt
1) India 2) Japan 3) Greece 4) Europe
196. International day of yoga is celebrated on
1) June 20 2) June 21 3) June 25 4) June 8th
197. Who won the inaugural FIA (Formula E Championship) title
 1) Hrishikesh 2) Nelson piquet 3) Sathnam singh 4) Gutta-ponappa
198. .. approved scheme for promotion of national agricultural market
1) CFO 2) UGC 3) CCEA 4) AMRUT
199. Who is the nobel prize winner in chemistry
1) M.N. Buch 2) Irwin rose 3) Nek chand 4) James horner
200. Who is the first women president of Mauritius
1) Meena hemachandra 2) Jyothi Prasad
3) Ameenah Gurid-fakim 4) Anuj mathu