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MBE - 2009 : Test Booklet

Series - 13
(Read the instructions carefully before starting to answer the questions)
Time : 2 hours Max. Marks : 180

1. Fill up the following information by pen/ball point pen: Roll Number:

Name of Candidate: _______________________________________________________________

Name of Centre:___________________________________________________________________

Signature of Candidate:_____________________________________________________________

Signature of Invigilator:______________________________________________________________

2. The answer sheet is placed inside the test Booklet. Without breaking the seal of the Test
Booklet, take the Answer Sheet out. Don't break upon the seal until you are asked to do so.
The serial number appearing on the Answer Sheet should be the same as the serial number
appearing on the Test Booklet.

3. Fill up the information required on the Answer Sheet. Before filling information on the Answer Sheet,
read the instructions given thereon carefully.

4. Ensure that there are 22 pages and 180 questions in the Test Booklet with for responses (A), (B),
(C), (D) for each question. Of them only one is correct.

5. Each question carries 1 mark. There will be negative marking to the extent of 0.25 for each wrong
answer.

6. Use only HB pencil for writing your response in the appropriate box in the Answer Sheet.

7. Rough work is to be done only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.

8. If you want to change your answer, you have to erase neatly and completely the earlier
filling and then fill the new box. You must ensure that no visible mark is left after you have
erased on earlier marking, otherwise the response will be treated as incorrect and shall
be evaluated accordingly.

9. You are not allowed to carry or use any electronic devices such as Mobile Phones, Calculators,
Calculator-Watch, Slide Rule, Mathematical Tables, etc. in the exam hall.

10. Make sure that you do not possess any pages (Blank or Printed) or any unauthorized material. If
such material is found in your possession during the examination, you will be disqualified for
admission.

11. If you are fond copying/helping others, you will be disqualified for admission

12. At the end of the examination hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator.
13. Do not leave the examination hall until you have recorded your attendance and are asked to do so.

.. 1 ..
Directions for Questions 1 to 4: Read the passage below and select the correct answer.

Walls and wall building have played a very important role in Chinese culture. These people, from the dim
mists of prehistory have been wall-conscious; from the Neolithic period - when ramparts of pounded earth
were used - to the Communist Revolution, walls were an essential part of any village. Not only towns and
villages; the houses and the temples within them were somehow walled, and the houses also had no
windows overlooking the street, thus giving the feeling of wandering around a huge maze. The name for
"city" in Chinese (ch'eng) means wall, and over these walled cities, villages, houses and temples presides
the god of walls and mounts, whose duties were, and still are, to protect and be responsible for the welfare
of the inhabitants. Thus a great and extremely laborious task such as constructing a wall, which was
supposed to run throughout the country, must not have seemed such an absurdity.

However, it is indeed a common mistake to perceive the Great Wall as a single architectural structure, and
it would also be erroneous to assume that it was built during a single dynasty. For the building of the wall
spanned the various dynasties, and each of these dynasties somehow contributed to the refurbishing and
the construction of a wall, whose foundations had been laid many centuries ago. It was during the fourth
and third century B.C. that each warring state started building walls to protect their kingdoms, both against
one another and against the northern nomads. Especially three of these states: the Ch'in, the Chao and
the Yen, corresponding respectively to the modern provinces of Shensi, Shanzi and Hopei, over and above
building walls that surrounded their kingdoms, also laid the foundations on which Ch'in Shih Huang Di
would build his first continuous Great Wall.

The role that the Great Wall played in the growth of Chinese economy was an important one. Throughout
the centuries many settlements were established along the new border. The garrison troops were instructed
to reclaim wasteland and to plant crops on it, roads and canals were built, to mention just a few of the
works carried out. All these undertakings greatly helped to increase the country's trade and cultural exchanges
with many remote areas and also with the southern, central and western parts of Asia - the formation of the
Silk Route. Builders, garrisons, artisans, farmers and peasants left behind a trail of objects, including
inscribed tablets, household articles, and written work, which have become extremely valuable archaeological
evidence to the study of defence institutions of the Great Wall and the everyday life of these people who
lived and died along the wall.

1. Chinese cities resembled a maze


(A) Because they were walled.
(B) Because the houses has no external windows.
(C) Because the name for cities means 'wall'.
(D) Because walls have always been important there.

2 Constructing a wall that ran the length of the country


(A) Honoured the god of walls and mounts.
(B) Was an absurdly laborious task.
(C) May have made sense within Chinese culture.
(D) Made the country look like a huge maze.

3. The Great Wall of China


(A) Was built in a single dynasty.
(B) Was refurbished in the fourth and third centuries BC.
(C) Used existing foundations.
(D) Was built by the Ch'in, the Chao and the Yen.

.. 2 ..
4. Crops were planted
(A) On wasteland. (B) To reclaim wasteland.
(C) On reclaimed wasteland. (D) Along the canals.

5. Which word does not have similar meaning to OUTCOME


(A) affect (B) Result (C) Upshot (D) Effect

6. Which word doe not have a similar meaning to RECLCITRANT


(A) Obstinate (B) Pessimistic (C) Intractable (D) Disobedient

7. The word most similar in meaning to EXPEDITE is


(A) beckon (B) exterminate (C) disrespect (D) facilitate

8. Which word is nearly opposite in meaning to TIMOROUS


(A) brave (B) ambiguous (C) perceptive (D) comprehensive

9. The word nearly opposite in meaning to ARROGATE is


(A) commandeer (B) seize (C) defeat (D) surrender

10. The word most opposite in meaning to TAWDRY is


(A) prosperous (B) clean (C) privileged (D) tasteful

11. The word SAVANT means


(A) a slow leisurely strolling walk
(B) the act of denouncing or condemning something
(C) Of questionable taste or morality, disreputable, indecent
(D) A very learned person

12. Which word is most nearly opposite in meaning to DELETERIOUS


(A) harmless (B) shameful (C) delaying (D) time consuming

14. NULLIFY is to INVALID as


(A) gratify : possible (B) mollify : model (C) exemplify : happy (D) rectify : right

14. COTE is to PIGEON as


(A) aviary : bee (B) eyrie : eagle (C) shoal : fish (D) apiary : bird

Directions for Questions 15 to 18: Each sentence is followed by four alternatives. Pick out the correct
alternative, which has the same meaning as the original sentence.

15. As soon as he saw me he sprang to his feet.


No Sonner …………
(A) had seen me than he sprang to his feet (B) did he see me than he sprang to his feet
(C) he saw me he sprang to his feet (D) did he see me then he sprang, to his feet

16. Actions speak louder than words.


Words ……
(A) speak less loud then actions (B) speak as loud as actions
(C) do not speak as loud as actions (D) are spoken louder than actions

.. 3 ..
17. This old man is too weak to walk
This old man …………
(A) is so weak that he cannot walk (B) is weak enough to walk
(C) is enough weak to walk (D) is such weak that he cannot walk

18. He is the richest man of this place


He is richer ……..
(A) than any man of this place (B) than any other man of this place
(C) than no man of this place (D) than of the men of this place

Directions for Questions 19 to 22: In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/
phrase in italics in the sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase
in italics and mark it in the answer sheet.

19. He is easily deceived by a man with an only tongue.


(A) sweet words (B) clever words (C) angry words (D) flattering words

20. The boss brought matters to a head by forcing him to work more.
(A) created an atmosphere of confrontation (B) created a lot of unhappiness
(C) brought matters to a decisive point (D) made him unhappy

21. The boy turned a deaf ear to the pleadings of all his well-wishers.
(A) listened carefully (B) was deadly opposed
(C) posed indifference (D) did not pay attention

22. It will be wise on your part to let the bygones be bygones.


(A) Revive the past (B) Ignore the past (C) Resist the past (D) Recollect the past

Directions for Questions 23 to 26: In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each
group one word is misspelt. Find the misspelt word.

23. (A) VARITY (B) VARIOUS (C) VIRAL (D) VARNISH

24. (A) COMMITTEE (B) CONFRENCE (C) CONSUFION (D) CONTROL

25. (A) MATTRESS (B) MATERIAL (C) MATHEMATICS (D) MATRIMONY

26. (A) OCEAN (B) OCCASION (C) OBVIOUS (D) OCUPATION

Directions for Questions 27 to 30: Each question below has two blanks. There are four pairs of words
below the sentence. Each pair is numbered. Choose the pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same order to complete the sentence meaningful.

27. The bandit ……….. the traveler of his wallet of gold and ……….. him grievously.
(A) robbed, wounded (B) snatched, hurt (C) stole, injured (D) demanded, beat

28. Despite their strong resentment, the tribals …………… the new laws as long as the government
officials did not …………. Them too strenuously.
(A) amended, follow (B) welcomed, observe (C) opposed, hurt (D) tolerated, enforce

.. 4 ..
29. Although the leader's life was both ……….. and painful, it was not without ……….. for he had
accomplished many of his goals.
(A) happy, frustration (B) thrilling, danger
(C) arduous, satisfaction (D) purposeful, ambition

30. I shall …….. him if he ……….. to me for his misconduct.


(A) Punish, abuses (B) Forgive, apologizes (C) Pardon, forg ves (D) Obey, commands

31. The UNCOP meet on climate change in December 2008 was held in:
(A) Kyoto (B) Bali (C) Tokyo (D) Poznan

32. Which company recently acquired Fem Care Pharma Ltd.


(A) Dabur India Ltd. (B) Godrej Group (C) Sun Pharma (D) Marico Ltd.

33. "Death Bonds" are associated with which of the following?


(A) Terrorism (B) Military Service (C) Insurance (D) Police

34. A fall in the value of the Indian rupee against the euro helps:
(A) Indian exporters; (B) European tourists (C) European importers (D) All of the above

35. Which of the following recently suspended work at its Sahaganj plant leaving 1100 workers uncertain
about their jobs?
(A) MRF (B) Dunlop (C) Apollo (D) CEAT

36. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?


(A) Nepal (B) Maldives (C) Thailand (D) Sri Lanka

37. Which of the following countries does not accept the Shengen Visa?
(A) the Netherlands (B) Switzerland (C) Germany (D) None of the above

38. Taj chain of Hotels is owned by


(A) Oberoi Group (B) ITC
(C) Indian Hotels Company (D) Asian Hotels

39. Green Building"


(A) contain a lot of plants (B) are painted green
(C) have plants and birds (D) are energy efficient

40. The Nobel Prize in Economics for 2008 was awareded to:
(A) Paul Grossman (B) John Nash (C) Paul Krugman (D) Paul Volcker

41. Identify the odd one:


(A) Spice Jet (B) Go Air (C) Indigo (D) Indian

42. Social infrastructure does not include:


(A) Communication (B) Health (C) Housing (D) Education

43. NAMA stands for:


(A) National Agricultural Marketing Association (B) Non-Agriculture Market Access
(C) National Ayurvedic Medicine Association (D) None of the above

.. 5 ..
44. The World's biggest green house gas emitter is:
(A) China (B) India (C) USA (D) Switzerland

45. Bio-diesel is obtained from


(A) Jute (B) Jatropa (C) Jatpura (D) None of the above

46. Which one of the following is the odd one out?


(A) Samsung (B) Sony (C) Philips (D) ABB

47. The company that was not bailed out by the US Government in recent Financial Crisis:
(A) Bear Stern (B) Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac
(C) Lehman Brothers (D) AIG

48. Indian owner's equity stake in Ranbaxy has been acquired by


(A) Kyowa Hakko Kogyo (B) Dainippon Sumitomo
(C) Daichii Sankyo (D) Shionogi

49. Which FII has the largest value of portfolio investment in India?
(A) Citigroup (B) Deutshe Group (C) HSBC Global (D) Morgan Stanley

50. The sensex consists of


(A) 30 Stocks (B) 25 Stocks (C) 50 Stocks (D) 100 Stocks

51. A depository is
(A) An electronic Transfer through dematerialization
(B) A fixed deposit in a bank
(C) A transfer of physical securities
(D) Surveillance on price manipulation

52. The Unit Trust of India


(A) Is a public sector bank (B) Is a mutual fund
(C) Is a financial institutions (D) Is a private trust company

53. Universal Banks in India are


(A) Development Financial Institutions
(B) NO-bank Institutions
(C) Financial multi product Institutions
(D) Commercial Banks with foreign financial services

54. Securitization is a service provided for the following:


(A) Initial public offering (IPO) of companies
(B) Service for making a sick company viable
(C) Financial service for small companies
(D) It is a creation of a pool of assets that are sold through a stock exchange

55. Name one of the states given below where the Tehri Dam project is located
(A) Uttrakhand (B) Haryana (C) Rajasthan (D) Maharashtra

.. 6 ..
56. Which of the following companies has a rural marketing network called "e chaupal"?
(A) Procter and Gamble (B) Dabur
(C) Hindustan Unilever (D) ITC

57. The author who won the Booker Prize in 2008 is


(A) Arvind Adiga (B) Dalman Rushdie (C) Amitah Ghosh (D) Anita Desai

58. The number of states in India are


(A) 27 (B) 25 (C) 28 (D) 23

59. The first Indian company listed for trading on New York Stock Exchange is:
(A) Reliance (B) State Bank (C) ICICI Bank (D) Tata Consultancy

60. Which of the following organizations/agencies has asked all the banks in India to form customer
service panels at branch levels?
(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Supreme Court of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(D) Indian Bank’s Association

61. Which of the following when drawn in a rectangular co-ordinate plane represents a function?
(A) Circle (B) triangle (C) rectangle (D) None of the above

(y1/ 2 × y1/ 3 )
62. =?
y1/ 3

1 1
(A) y1/ 6 (B) (C) (D) None of the above
y1/ 2 y6

∫ (x + x + 1)dx = ?
3
63.

x4 x2 x4 x2 x4 x2
(A) + +x (B) + +x+c (C) + +c (D) None of the above
4 2 4 2 4 2

64. The number of inches ‘N’ that human hair will grow is directly proportional to the time ‘T’ in months.
If hair grows 6 inches in 12 months, which of the following best represents this trend?
1
(A) N = T (B) N = mT (C) N ∝ T N= T
2

65. The square root of x4 + 4x3 + 10x2 + 12x + 9 is


(A) x2 + x + 3 (B) 2x2 + 2x + 3 (C) 2x2 + 3x + 2 (D) x2 + 2x + 3

66. If 0.01% of the babies born in a particular year in Delhi have blue eyes, how many would you have to
screen to find 10 such babies?
(A) 10,000 (B) 100,000 (C) 1000 (D) 1

.. 7 ..
67. 11, 2!, 6, 24, 5!, ?
7!
(A) 720 (B) 6! (C) (D) All of the above
7

68. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest for an amount of Rs. 1000 at
the rate of 4% per annum for 2 yeas is:
(A) 3.20 (B) 1.42 (C) 2 (D) 1.60

69. A drum of 20 liters is filled with milk. A milkman has only two measuring vessels of 3 liters and 5
liters without any calibrations. He has to measure exactly 4 liters of milk without using another
vessel. If the milk, transferred from one vessel to another vessel is counted as one operation, then
the minimum number of operations required to measure 4 liters is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 7

70. Let a be a rational number and b be an irrational numbers, then


(A) both a + b and ab are necessarily irrational
(B) both a + b and ab are necessarily rational
(C) a + b is necessarily irrational but ab can either be rational or irrational
(D) ab is necessarily irrational but a + b can be either be rational or irrational.

15

71. Let r1, r2, ... be non negative integers. If ∑ rr


i=1
r .. then the minimum number of r ’s that will be zero
i i+1 i+ 2
i

is
(A) 6 (B) 5
15

(C) 7 (D) ∑ rr
i=1
r ..will never be zero
i i+1 i+ 2

72. The area of a rectangle is 255 m2. if the length is decreased by 1 m and the breadth is increased by
1 m it becomes a square. The perimeter of the square is
(A) 45 m (B) 50 m (C) 60 m (D) 64 M

73. How much pur alcohol should be added to 400 ml of a 15% solution to make its strength 32%?
(A) 50 ml (B) 75 ml (C) 100 ml (D) 150 ml

74. Two qualities of rice, one at a rate of Rs. 12.50 per kg and the other at the rate of the Rs. 14 per kg
are mixed together in the ratio 4:5. The price is then sold at the rate of Rs. 16 per kg. The profit
percent is
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 10% (D) 15%

75. A square is drawn by joining the mid-points of the sides of the square. A third square is drawn inside
the second square in the same way and this process continues indefinitely. The ratio of the area of
the first square and the sum of areas of all squares is
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:10 (D) Cannot be determined

76. ‘A’ buys a pen of Rs. 4 and sell it for Rs. 5. He calculates his profit first as a percentage of the buying
price and then as the percentage of the selling price. The difference between these two is
(A) 20% (B) 10% (C) 5% (D) 15%

.. 8 ..
77. x, y, z are three sums of money such that y is the simple interest on x and z is the simple interest
on y for the same time and rate. Then the relation between x, y and z is
(A) y2 = zx (B) x2 = yz (C) xyz = 1 (D) z2 = xy

78. A clock gains 2 minutes per day and another loses 3 minutes per day. Both the clocks are started
on a correct time on 1st January 2008. They will again both show the correct time for an instant on
a day in
(A) January (B) February (C) June (D) October

Directions for questions 79 to 81: At Sulabh Prakashan every book goes through 3 stages: typing,
composing and binding. There are 16 typists, 10 composers, and 15 binders. A typist can type 8 books in
each hour, a composer can compose 12 books in each hour and a binder can bind 12 books in each hour.
All of the people at Sulabh Prakashan work for 10 hours a day and each person is trained
to do only one job.

79. How many books can be prepared each day?


(A) 1500 (B) 1200 (C) 1440 (D) 1380

80. If the company has hired 12 more people who can do any of the three jobs then maximum how many
books can be prepared?
(A) 1500 (B) 1680 (C) 1800 (D) more than 2000

81. If the company wanted to reduce the number of employees by 3, then from which category must it
reduce the number of employees without reducing the amount of production of books?
(A) it should reduce two binders and 1 typist
(B) it should reduce 3 binders only
(C) it should reduce 1 typist, 1 binder and 1 composer
(D) both (A) and (B) are possible

82. a man driving at a speed of 45 km/hr reaches his office in 2 hours. If he starts half an hour late, then
in order to reach his office on time he should ride with a speed of (maximum speed limit of his city
is 60 km/hr)
(A) 50 km hr
(B) 55.66 km/hr
(C) 60 km/ hr
(D) if he keeps within the speed limit he cannot reach office on time

Directions for questions 83 to 86: In South Campus Delhi University there are total 170 students and
they use car, bike and bus for transportation. The ratio of students using all 3 modes of transportation to
students using at least two vehicles is 2:9. The ratio of students using only one vehicle to students at least
two vehicles is 8:9. Number of students using car only exceeds number of students using bike only by 14.
Number of students using bus only exceeds number of students using bike only by 12. Number of students
using bus, bike and car is 90, 93 and 97 respectively.

83. Number of students using all three vehicles is


(A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) none of these

84. Number of students using no more than one vehicle is


(A) 76 (B) 80 (C) 60 (D) cannot be determined

.. 9 ..
85. The number of students who are using both car and bike but not bus is
(A) 23 (B) 40 (C) 36 (D) data insufficient

86. Number of students using exactly two vehicles is


(A) 38 (B) 55 (C) 70 (D) none of these

The remainder when ((a − 1) + 1) is divided by a is


2 +1
87.
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) a – 1 (D) none of these

88. If x > 0. xy = 1, then the minimum value of x + y is


(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 2 (D) 1

89. The sum of all the real roots of the equation |x – 2|2 + |x – 2| – 2 = 0 is
(A) 4 (B) –1 (C) 3 (D) none of these

90. The number of real roots of the equation (x – a)2 + (x – b)2 + (x – c)2 = 0, where a, b and c are all
distinct, is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 0

91. The value of (0.25)log2 3−log2 −5 is

3 5 25
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D)
5 3 9

92. The values of x that satisfy the equation log3(2x + 1) – 2log3(x – 3) = 2 is


20 10
(A) 4, (B) 2, (C) 0, 4 (D) 0, 1
9 9

1
93. If f(x) = , x ≠ 0, f n (x) = f(f n−1(X)) and f 25 (x) = 25 , then the value of f(x) is
x
1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) 25 (D)
5 25

94. Let f(x) be a function such that f’(x) = x – 1) (x + 2) (x – 3). Consider the intervals
(i) x < –2
(ii) –2 < x < 1
(iii) 1 < x < 3
(iv) x > 3
Then f(x) increases in the interval(s)
(A) (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (ii)

d  2 
2
x

95.  ∫ t dt  =
dx  0 
(A) 2x5 (B) x4 (C) x2 (D) 0

.. 10 ..
96. The points where the tangent to the curve 2x3 – x2 is parallel to the x axis is/are
(A) 0 (B) 0 and 1/3 (C) 0 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

97. Which one of the following is correct about the given graph of f(x):

-2

-1

-4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4
-1

-2

(A) |xy| = 1 (B) |x|y = 1 (C) x|y| = 1 (D) |x|y = –1

98. In order for a function to possess both a maximum value and a minimum value in an interval, which
of the following is the minimum condition for sufficiency?
(A) The function has a slope zero in the interval
(B) The function is continuous within the interval
(C) The function possesses a limit for each point within the interval
(D) The function is differentiable at each point in the interval

99. For a given function f, which of the following statements is true?


(A) If function f’(a) = 0 and function f”(a) > 0, then function f(a) is a relative maximum value.
(B) If function f’(a) = 0, then function f is stationary at x = a
(C) If function f”(a) > 0, then the graph of function f is concaved downwards at x = a
(D) If function f’(a) is not defined, then a is not in the domain of function
d  g(x 2 ) 
100. Suppose g is a differentiable function where g(1) = –2 and g’(1) = 5, find dx  x 2 
  x =1
(A) 14 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 6

101. Given function f defined by f(x) = 16 − x 2 , which of the following statements is not true?
(A) For all x in the domain of f, f(–x) = f(x)
(B) The maximum value of the function is 4.
(C) The range of the function is {x : 0 ≤ x ≤ 4}
(D) The domain of the function is {x : 0 ≤ x ≤ 4}
| x +2|
102. Lim is
x →2 x+2
(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) Nonexistent (D) 1

103. In order to ensure that the sum of two non-negative numbers is odd, a condition is proposed that at
least one of the numbers is odd. This condition is
(A) necessary (B) sufficient
(C) necessary and sufficient (D) neither necessary nor sufficient

.. 11 ..
104. Given the equation: x + 1 = 4 − x, the value(s) of x is
(A) 0 (B) –5 (C) 0 and –5 (D) neither 0 nor –5

105. The number 4.234343434 ... is


(A) an integer (B) an irrational number (C) a real number (D) a complex number

106. The value of x that satisfy the equation | 3x − 2 |≤ 5 are


7 7 7 7
(A) − ≤ x ≤1 (B) 1 ≤ x ≤ (C) x ≤ −1 and x ≥ (D) x ≤ − and x ≥ 1
3 3 3 3

107. What is the sum of the series 10 + 5 + 2.5 + 1.25 + ..


(A) 18.75 (B) 0 (C) 20 (D) 25

108. If a + b + c + d is a positive number, a minimum of x of the numbers a, b, c and d must be positive.


What is the value of x?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

109. For a matrix to be skew symmetric, its diagonal elements are


(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) all are not the same

110. Under which of the following operations does the determinant of a matrix remain unaltered?
(A) If a row is multiplied with a constant
(B) If two rows are interchanged
(C) If one row is replaced by the sum of itself and another row
(D) None of the above

111. The triangle with vertices A(–3, 2), B(0, –1) and C(–2, 5) is
(A) Isosceles (B) Obtuse angled (C) Right angled (D) Equilateral

112. What is the sum of all 3 digit numbers that leave a remainder of ‘2’ when divided by 3?
(A) 897 (B) 164850 (C) 164749 (D) 149700

x2 − 4
113. The ‘y’ intercept of the curve f(x) = is
x2 − 1
(A) 4 (B) ±2 (C) ±1 (D) 1

114. What is the coefficient of the term that contains a3 in the expansion of the expression (a + b)5?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 20

115. The derivative of the function y = ax with respect to x is


(A) ax (B) axloga x (C) axlogea (D) xax-1

.. 12 ..
1
1 xy
116. Given that p = and q = , then
x+y 1 1
+
x y
(A) p is greater than q
(B) q is greater than p
(C) p and q are equal
(D) relationship between p and q cannot be determined.

Question 117-118 refer to the following table:

EMPLOYMENT IN PUBLIC AND PRIVATE SECTION (IN'000)


1981 1991
Public Sector
I. Central Government 3195 3410
ii. State Governments 5676 7113
iii. Quasi-Government Central 2739 3564
iv. Quasi-Government 1837 2658
v. Local Bodies 2037 2313
Private Sector
I. Large 6600 6783
ii. Small 795 892
Total 22879 26733

117. On a pie-chart, for the year 1991, the are represent by large private sectors will be equivalent to an
angle measuring
(A) 20° (B) 90° (C) 25° (D) 75°

118. The percentage increase in employment by state governments from 1981-91 is


(A) 25.31% (B) 15.38% (C) 28.57% (D) 21.44%

Directions: For questions 119 to 120 refer to the data below: The following table gives cement demand
and supply in million tons for the year 1994 to 1999. Surplus is defined as excess of supply over demand,
deficit is defined is excess of demand over supply.

Year Demand Supply


2001 44.1 47.2
2002 47.2 47.8
2003 48.7 49.8
2004 49.4 50.1
2005 52.7 57.2
2006 58.2 57.9

119. The percentage increase in demand was the highest in


(A) 2001 (B) 2006 (C) 2005 (D) 2002

.. 13 ..
120. What was the average surplus for the period 2001 to 2006?
(A) 1.1 million tons (B) 1.3 million tons (C) 1.9 million tons (D) 2.1 million tons

121. A special lottery is to be held to select the student who will live in the only deluxe room in a
dormitory. There are 100 seniors, 150 juniors, and 200 sophomores who applied. Each senior’s
name is placed in the lottery 3 times, each junior’s name 2 times and each sophomore’s name 1
time. What is the probability that a senior’s name will be chosen?
1 2 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 7 9 8
3000
122. The projected sales volume of Product A is the function S(p) = + a, where S is the number of
2p
the Product A sold, in thousands, p is the price per product A, in $ and a is constant. If according
to the projections 100,000 product A are sold at $10 per price. How many of this product will be sold
at $20 per piece?
(A) 20,000 (B) 50,000 (C) 60,000 (D) 80,000

Directions: Based on the following data, answer questions 123 to 125: The following table shows the
data collected from 500 economists in India, UK and Germany concerning their opinions on whether the
economy would prove stable, would expand, or would enter a period of contraction in the near future.
However part of the information was lost, resulting in the partial contingency table seen below. Based on
the remaining data answer the following questions.

Economy
Economis Stabel (S) Expansion (E) Contraction (C) Total
India (I) 125 - 100 -
UK (U) - 35 - 110
Germany (G) 25 40 - 65
Total 200 - - -

123. If an economist is selected at random, what is the probability that he belongs to India or has opinion
that economy would be stable?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.4

124. If an economist is selected at random, what is the probability that he belongs to UK and has opinion
that economy would enter a period of contraction?
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.05 (C) 0.03 (D) 0.5

125. What is the conditional probability P(G|C)?


(A) 0.4 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.0

126. If y < 0 < x


Group A Group B
x+y x, y
(A) The quantity in group A is greater.
(B) The quantity in group B is greater
(C) The quantities are equal
(D) The relationship between the two groups can not be determined

.. 14 ..
127. Suppose your portfolio has these five annual returns 10%, –20%, 0%, –10% and 20%. If the portfolio
has no contributions or withdrawals during the five years, the return on the portfolio in five years is
that you would
(A) lose 1% of the value (B) lose 5% of the value
(C) gain 0% of the value (D) gain 1% of the value

Directions: Questions 128 and 129 are based on the following: The following table shows STD call
rates per call for three CDMA mobile operators in India.
Reliance Tata MTNL
Each call up to 100 calls Rs. 1.75 Rs. 2.00 Rs. 1.50
Each additional call after 100 calls up to 200 calls Rs. 1.00 Rs. 0.60 Rs. 0.70
Each additional call after 200 calls Rs. 0.75 Rs. 0.40 Rs. 0.50

128. A company makes 250 STD calls per months on an average. If the company uses Reliance in place
of Tata connection, how much more the company has to pay per month?
(A) Rs. 32.5 (B) Rs. 32.4 (C) Rs. 36.5 (D) Rs. 36.8

129. If the company X uses Tata connection for 260 calls per month and the company Y uses MTNL
connection for 280 calls per month. What percentage more per call the company X pays than the
company Y approximately?
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 20

2
130. If a man walks miles in 5 minutes, what is his average rate of walking in miles per hour?
5
1 4 1
(A) 4 (B) 4 (C) 4 (D) 5
2 5 5

131. What complex number is a multiplicative inverse of 1– i?


1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) − i (B) + i (C) − i (D) + i
2 2 2 2 4 4 4 4

132. Amber Chew invests Rs. 50000 in BHEL stocks each month. During the first three months he
bought BHEL shares at the price Rs. 200, Rs. 400 and Rs. 500. After three months what is the
average price paid by him for the shares?
(A) Rs. 315.78 (B) Rs. 366.67 (C) Rs. 312.87
(D) Rs. 366.66

Directions: Based on the following information, answer questions 133 to 135: In the Intel Company,
a unit of work is completed by Mona in 4 minutes, by Tina in 5 minutes , by Jill 6 minutes, by Sam in 10
minutes and by Hilary in 12 minutes.

133. What is the rate of completing the work in minutes?


(A) 6.25 (B) 6.15 (C) 6.12 (D) 6.00

134. What is the average number of units completed per minutes?


(A) 0.16 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.2

.. 15 ..
135. At this rate how many units will be completed by all the five workers in a six hour day?
(A) 188 units (B) 288 units (C) 388 units (D) 148 units

Directions: Question 136 and 137 are based on the following: A multinational manufacturing company
has plants in USA and China. The plant in USA produces is 40% of the total output with 10% defective rate
and the average cost of producing $12.50 per unit. The plant in China has 20% defective rate with average
cost of producing is $1075 per unit.

136. What is the percentage difference in the average cost of producing one unit in China as compared to
USA?
(A) 14% (B) 10% (C) 16% (D) 12%

137. If a single unit is found to be defective, what is the probability it has come from USA?
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.25

1 2
138. If the relation between a country’s import (I) and the income (x) is given by I = 6000 +
x , what is
12
the marginal propensity to import (MPI) (where MPI measures the increase in imports for every unit
increase in income)?
x3 x3 x x3
(A) 6000x + (B) (C) (D) 6000 +
36 36 6 12

139. The sum of four consecutive terms of an A.P. is 20 and sum of their squares is 120. Then terms are
(A) (2, 4, 6, 8) (B) (1, 5, 6, 8) (C) (2, 4, 5, 9) (D) None of these

140. If logX = 2log8 – log6 + log3, what is the value X?


(A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 16 (D) 36

Directions for questions 141 and 142: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow- A,
B, C, D, E, F and G are 6 members of a family. A is father of C but C is not his son. D is sibling of C. E is
D’s brother-in-law. F is G’s grandson G is D’s mother.

141. How many male members are there in the family?


(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) either (A) or (C)

142. D is
(A) F’s uncle (B) C’s sister (C) G’s grandchild (D) Either (A) or (B)

Directions for questions 143 and 144: Read the given questions and choose the correct alternative.

143. A weight of 13 kgs is to be broken into three parts such that using these all the weights from 1 to 13
can be measured. What can be the value of these three weights?
(A) 2, 3, 8 (B) 1, 3, 9 (C) 2, 5, 6 (D) 1, 4, 8

144. There are 27 balls identical in all aspects except one ball which is defecitve in weight. If a weighing
scale is provided with no weights, then in how many minimum weighing one can point out the
defective ball, considering all the possibilities?
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 4

.. 16 ..
Directions for questions 145 to 149: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:

A team is to be selected from 5 men A,B, C, D and E and six women L, M, N, O, P and Q where A , B and
N are lecturers. C, D, L, M and O are engineers and the rest are doctors. The team should be selected
subject to the following conditions.

(i) B cannot go with N or D


(ii) C and P have to be together
(iii) A, L and Q have to be together
(iv) D and L cannot be together
(v) E and M have to be together,
(vi) C cannot go with M

145. If the team consists of one lecturer, two engineers, three doctors and C does not go with P, the
members of the team are
(A) BELMPQ (B) ACELPQ (C) AELMPQ (D) ACEMPQ

146. If the team consists of one lecturer, three engineers and one male doctor, the members of the team
are
(A) ADLMQ (B) DEMNO (C) DELMN (D)ALMOQ

147. If the team consists of two male lecturers, two lady engineers and one doctor, the members of the
team are:
(A) ABLOQ (B) ABLMQ (C) ANLOQ (D) ABLOP

148. If the team consists of two lecturers, two engineers, two doctors and not more than three ladies, the
members of the team can be:
(A) ABELPQ (B) ABCLPQ (C) ABCLMQ (D) ABELNQ

149. If the team consists of one male lecturer, one male engineer, one lady engineer and two doctors, the
members of the team are:
(A) BCMEQ (B) ADLEQ (C) ACLPQ (D) BCMEP

Directions for questions 150 to 154: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:

A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y. Then it updates these values as X = XY and Y = Y + 1
in every step. The machine stops at X > = N

150. For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are performed before the machine stops?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
151. In question 150, what is the final value of X?
(A) 6 (B) 20 (C) 72 (D) 360

152. In question 150, what is the final value of Y?


(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 20

153. If the value of N is changed to 500, what should be the final value of X in question 150?
(A) 360 (B) 500 (C) 560 (D) 2160
154. If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum value of N such that final value of Y is 7?
(A) 300 (B) 360 (C) 720 (D) 860

.. 17 ..
Directions for questions 155 to 156: You are given a set of six statements. From these choose the
correct set of three sentences which make a logical sequence.

155. (A) All apes have hair (B) All gorillas have hair
(C) All apes are gorillas (D) All primates have hair
(E) All apes are primates (F) All gorillas are grey

(A) DBE (B) CAB (C) ABC (D) DEA

156. (A) All men in this college smoke (B) Some women in this college drink
(C) Some men in this college drink (D) Some men in this college smoke and drink
(E) All men in this college smoke and drink (F) Some women in this college smoke

(A) ABF (B) ACE (C) ACD (D) DCA

Directions for questions 157 to 158:


Yolanda: Gaining access to computers without authorization and manipulating the data and programs they
contain is comparable to joyriding in stolen cars; both involve breaking into private property and treating it
recklessly. Joyriding, however, is the more dangerous crime because it physically endangers people,
whereas only intellectual property is harmed in the case of computer crimes.

Arjun: I disagree! For example, unauthorized use of medical records systems in hospitals could damage
data systems on which human lives depend, and therefore computer crimes also cause physical harm to
people.

157. An issue in dispute between Yolanda and Arjun is


(A) whether joyriding physically endangers human lives
(B) whether the unauthorized manipulation of computer data involves damage to private property
(C) whether damage to physical property is more criminal than damage to intellectual property
(D) whether the unauthorized use of computers is as dangerous to people as is joyriding

158. The reasoning in Arjun’s response is flawed because he


(A) fails to maintain a distinction made in Yolanda’s argument
(B) denies Yolanda’s conclusion without providing evidence against it
(C) relies on the actuality of a phenomenon that he has only shown to be possible
(D) mistakes something that leads to his conclusion for something that is necessary for his conclusion

159. Manager: Our new computer network, the purpose of which is to increase productivity, can be
installed during the day, which would disrupt our employees’ work, or else at night, which would
entail much higher installation charges. Since saving money is important, we should have the
network installed during the day.
The manager’s argument assumes which one of the following:
(A) The monetary value of the network equipment would not exceed the cost of having the equipment
installed at night.
(B) The monetary values of any productivity lost during a daytime installation would be less than the
difference between daytime and nighttime installation costs.
(C) A daytime installation would be completed by no larger a crew and would take the crew no more
time than would a nighttime installation.
(D) Once the network has been installed, most of the company’s employees will be able to use it
immediately to increase their productivity.

.. 18 ..
160. Someone who gets sick from eating a meal will often develop a strong distaste for the one food in
the meal that had the most distinctive flavour, whether or not that food caused the sickness. This
phenomenon explains why children are especially likely to develop strong aversions to some foods.

Which one of the following, if true, provides the strongest support for the explanation?

(A) Children are more likely than adults to be given meals composed of foods lacking especially
distinctive flavours.
(B) Children are less likely than adults to see a connection between their health and the foods they
eat.
(C) Children tend to have more acute taste and to become sick more often than adults do.
(D) Children typically recover more slowly than adults do from sickness caused by food.

Directions for Questions 161 - 165:


A company employee generates a series of five-digit product codes in accordance with the following rules:
The codes use the digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, and no others.
Each digit occurs exactly once in any code.
The second digit has a value exactly twice that of the first digit.
The value of the third digit is less than the value of the fifth digit.

161. If the last digit of an acceptable product code is 1, it must be true that the
(A) first digit is 2 (B) second digit is 0 (C) third digit is 3 (D) fourth digit is 4

162. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code?
(A) The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 2
(B) The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 3
(C) The digit 2 appears in some position before the digit 3
(D) The digit 3 appears in some position before the digit 0

163. If the third digit of an acceptable product code is not 0, which one of the following must be true?
(A) The second digit of the product code is 2 (B) The third digit of the product code is 3
(C) The fourth digit of the product code is 0 (D) The fifth digit of the product code is 3

164. Any of the following pairs could be the third and fourth digits, respectively, of an acceptable product
code, EXCEPT:
(A) 0, 1 (B) 0, 3 (C) 1, 0 (D) 3, 4

165. Which of the following must be true about any acceptable product code?
(A) There is exactly one digit between the digit 0 and the digit 1.
(B) There is exactly one digit between the digit 1 and the digit 2.
(C) There are at most two digits between the digit 1 and the digit 3.
(D) There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 4.

.. 19 ..
166. Economist: Every strives to increase its productivity, for this increases profits for the owners and the
likelihood that the business will survive. But not all efforts to increase productivity are beneficial to
the business as a whole. Often, attempts to increase productivity decrease the number of employees,
which clearly harms the dismissed employees as well as the sense of security of the retained
employees.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the economist’s
argument?

(A) If an action taken to secure the survival of a business fails to enhance the welfare of the business’s
employees, that action cannot be good for the business as a whole.
(B) Some measures taken by a business to increase productivity fail to be beneficial to the business
as a whole.
(C) Only if the employees of a business are also its owners will the interests of the employees and
owners coincide, enabling measures that will be beneficial to the business as a whole.
(D) There is no business that does not make efforts to increase its productivity.

167. A century in certain ways is like a life, and as the end of a century approaches people behave
toward that century much as someone who is nearing the end of life does toward that life. So just as
people in their last years spend much time looking back on the events of their life, people at a
century’s end________.

Which of the following most logically completes the argument?

(A) reminisce about their own lives


(B) fear that their own lives are about to end
(C) focus on what the next century will bring
(D) become very interested in the history of the century just ending

168. Ethicist: On average, animals raised on grain be fed sixteen pounds of grain to produce one pound
of meat. A pound of meat is more nutritious for human than a pound of grain, but sixteen pounds of
grain could feed many more people than could a pound of meat. With grain yields leveling off, large
areas of farmland going out production each year, and the population rapidly expanding, we must
accept the fact that consumption of meat will soon be morally unacceptable.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the ethicist’s argument?

(A) Even though it has been established that a vegetarian diet can be healthy, many people prefer to
eat meat and are willing to pay for it.
(B) Often, cattle or sheep can be raised to maturity on grass from pastureland that is unsuitable for
any other kind of farming.
(C) If a grain diet is supplemented with protein derived from non-animal sources, it can have nutritional
value equivalent to that of a diet containing meat.
(D) Although prime farmland near metropolitan area is being lost rapidly to suburban development,
we could reverse this trend by choosing to live in areas that are already urban.

.. 20 ..
169. Sociologist : Romantics who claim that people are not born evil but may be the evil by the imperfect
institutions that they form cannot be right, for they misunderstand the causal relationship between
people and their institutions. After all, institutions are merely collections of people.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most help to justify the sociologist’s argument?

(A) People acting together in institutions can do more good or evil than can people acting individually.
(B) Institutions formed by people are inevitably imperfect.
(C) People should not be overly optimistic in their view of individual human beings.
(D) The whole does not determine the properties of the things that compose it.

170. In the following series one term is wrong:


9, 19, 37, 75, 149, 297. Find the wrong term:
(A) 75 (B) 37 (C) 297 (D) 149

Directions for Questions 171 to 172: Find the missing number

171.
6 8 9
5 94 4 18 100 8 7 ? 8
14 2 5

(A) 196 (B) 125 (C) 101 (D) 107

172. 6 4
7
4 7 2 5
5 8

168 ?
514

2 9 1 8 3 7
13 10 5

(A) 861 (B) 135 (C) 145 (D) 261

173. The number of parallelograms in the figure are

(A) 33 (B) 36 (C) 30 (D) 39

174. The product of the ages of Sheela and here three children is 29315. The difference in the ages of her
eldest child and the youngest child is
(A) 8 years (B) 6 years (C) 4 years (D) Data insufficient

.. 21 ..
Directions for Questions 175 to 179: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square
table such that there are two on each side and they are facing the centre.
I. D sits in between A and G
II. E sits two places to the left of A
III. F who is H’s neighbour, sits opposite to A
IV. B sits two places to the left of F.

175. Who sits opposite to D?


(A) H (B) B (C) C (D) G

176. Who sits two places to the left of G?


(A) D (B) B (C) H (D) A

177. Between which two persons does A sit?


(A) B and D (B) C and D (C) C and F (D) H and E

178. Which of the following is a neighbour of A?


(A) G (B) E (C) D (D) B

179. Who sits exactly opposite to C?


(A) G (B) D (C) B (D) C

180. A + B means A is the father of B


A – B means A is the wife of B
A × B means A is the brother of B
A ÷ B means A is the daughter of B
A – C + B means

(A) B is the daughter of A (B) A is the mother of B


(C) A is the sister of B (D) Both (A) and (B)

.. 22 ..

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