Mark Klimek Blue Book Part 1

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1. In Abruptio Placenta, the placenta Separates, 15. Children at highest risk for seizure drugs, insecticides
____________ from the uterine wall prematurely activity after ingestion are those who
____________. have swallowed _____________ and
______________.
2. Abruptio Placenta usually occurs in Multigravida, 35
(prima/multi) gravida over the age (HTN, trauma, 16. Can impaired skin integrity ever be Yes, when lye or
of ____________. cocaine) an appropriate nursing diagnosis caustic agents have
when poisoning has occurred? been ingested
3. How is the bleeding of Abruptio Usually painful;
Placenta different from that in bleeding is more 17. What is the causative organism of P. acnes
Placenta Previa? voluminous in acne? (propionibacterium
placenta previa acnes)
4. If you are the nurse starting the IV 18 (in preparation to 18. What structures are involved in acne The sebaceous
on the client with Abruptia give blood if vulgaris? glands
Placenta, what guage needle should necessary) 19. Name 3 drugs given for acne? Vitamin A,
you use?
Antibiotics, Retinoids
5. How often should you measure the Q5-15 minutes for 20. Dietary indiscretions and False
VS, vaginal bleeding, fetal HR bleeding, maternal VS
uncleanliness are causes of acne?
during Abruptio Placenta? and continuous fetal
monitoring 21. What are the 3 causative factors in Hereditary,
acne vulgaris? Bacterial, Hormonal
Deliver baby at 22. Uncleanliness is a cause of acne? False
earliest sign of fetal
23. What is the most common retinoid Accutane
distress
given to people with acne?
6. How is an infant delivered when Usually C-section
24. Accutane is an analog of which Vitamin A
Abruptio Placenta is present?
vitamin?
7. Is there a higher or lower incidence Higher
25. What is the most common side effect Inflammation of the
of fetal death with Abruptio
of accutane? And what is most lips; Causes birth
Placenta compared to Placenta
important in health teaching in defects
Previa?
adminstration?
8. In what trimester does Abruptio Third
26. What is the antibiotic most Tetracycline
Placenta most commonly occur?
commonly given to clients with
9. At what age are accidental 2 years old acne?
poisonings most common?
27. How long will it take for the person 4 to 6 weeks
10. If a child swallows a potentially Call for medical help to see results when acne is being
poisonous substance, what should treated?
be done first?
28. Does stress make acne worse? yes
11. Should vomiting be induced after No- not for gas or any
29. How often should the client with Twice a day
ingestion of gasoline? other petroleum
acne wash his face each day?
products
30. What instructions do you give to a Take it on an empty
12. When taking a child to the ER after the suspected poison
client taking tetracycline? stomach and avoid
accidental poisoning has occurred
the sunlight
what must accompany the child to
(photosensitivity)
the ER?
31. What are comedones? Blackheads and
13. An elderly client is a (high/low) risk high - due to poor
white heads
for accidental poisoning? What eyesight, high
about a school age child? 32. What virus causes AIDS? HIV - Human
immunodeficiency
14. What types of chemicals cause Lye, caustic cleaners
virus
burns to oral mucosa when
ingested? 33. The AIDS virus invades helper T-lymphocytes (or
____________. CD4 cells)
34. AIDS is transmissible through blood 45. PI's (Protease Most potent of antiviral meds
what four routes? sexual contact inhibitors) Inhibit cell protein synthesis that
breast feeding interferes with viral replication. Does not
across placenta in utero cure but slows progression of AIDS.
Prolongs life, used prophylactically and
35. HIV is present in all body Yes, but it is not transmitted
used in AIDS to decrease viral load and
fluids? by all, only blood, semen
opportunistic infections.
and breast milk
46. What do NRTI's They prevent viral replication.
36. Name the 5 risk groups for Homosexual/bisexual men
and PI's do?
AIDS IV drug users
Hemophiliacs 47. What does the A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as
Heterosexual partners of physician hope possible (usually can delay onset for 10-15
infected people to achieve with years)
Newborn children of NRTI's and PI's
infected women for HIV?
37. What is the first test for HIV ELISA 48. What is the AZT (zidovudine)
antibodies? most common
NRTI used?
38. What test confirms the ELISA? Western Blot
49. What is the The number of pills that must be taken in
39. Which test is the best CD4 count
most 24 hours can be overwhelming. The
indicator of the PROGRESS of
challenging frequency also makes it hard to
HIV disease?
aspect of remember-an alarm wristwatch is used.
40. A CD4 count of under 500 combination of
__________ is associated with drug therapy for
the onset of AIDS-related HIV disease?
symptoms.
50. Clients with Lose weight
41. A CD4 count of under _______ is 200 AIDS (gain/lose)
associated with the onset of weight?
OPPORTUNISTIC INFECTIONS.
51. The typical Pneumocystic carinii
42. Give 6 symptoms of HIV anorexia pneumonia of
disease. fatigue AIDS is caused
weakness by ___________
diarrhea ____________.
night sweats
52. What type of Candida
fever
oral/esophageal
43. Which 2 classes of drugs are NRTI's (Nucleoside Reverse infections do
given in combination for HIV Transcriptease Inhibitors) AIDS patients
sero-positivity? and PI's (Protease get?
Inhibitors)
53. What is the #1 Kaposi's sarcoma
cancer that AIDS
They prevent viral
patients get?
replication.
54. Kaposi's skin
44. NRTI (nucleoside reverse An antiviral drug used
sarcoma is a
transcriptease inhibitors) against HIV
cancer of the
___________.
Is incorporated into the
DNA of the virus and stops 55. T/F: AIDS True
the building process patients get
Results in incomplete DNA lymphomas?
that cannot create a new 56. What lab Decreased RBC's, WBC's and platelets
virus
findings are
Often used in combination
present in AIDS?
with other drugs
57. If the AIDS patient HAS Protective (reverse) Isolation 75. What are the Hematuria
leukopenia they will be on urinalysis findings on Proteinuria +3 to +4
_____________ ________________. AGN? Specific Gravity Up
58. Define Leukopenia Decrease in WBC, indicated 76. How long after strep 2 to 3 weeks after initial infection
viral infection infection does AGN
develop?
59. Without leukopenia the Standard precautions or
AIDS patient will be on blood and body fluid 77. How do you assess Daily weight
____________ precautions. precautions fluid excess in the
child with AGN?
60. When the AIDS patient has a Bleeding precautions; No
low platelet count, what is IM's, no rectal temperatures, 78. What organism Group A beta hemolytic strep
indicated? other bleeding precautions causes acute
glomerular
61. Does AIDS require a single Yes - if WBC counts are low
nephritis?
room?
79. What happens to the It becomes clogged with antigen-
62. When do you need a gown If you are going to get
kidney in AGN? antibody complexes which then
with AIDS? contaminated with secretions
cause inflammation and loss of
63. When do you need a mask Not usually unless they have function.
with AIDS? an infection caused by an
80. How often are vital Q4 hours with blood pressure
AIREBORNE bug
sign measurements
64. When do you need goggles Suctioning taken in AGN?
with AIDS? Central line start
81. Will the client have Hypertension, because of fluid
Arterial procedures
hypo or hyper retention
65. If an AIDS patient's blood 1:10 solution of bleach and tension with AGN?
contaminates a counter top, water Why?
with what do you clean?
82. What are the first Puffiness of face
66. Are all articles used by AIDS no - only those contaminated signs of AGN? Dark urine
patients double-bagged? with secretions
83. What are the three Early adulthood
67. Can AIDS patients leave the Yes, unless WBC's are very adult stages of Middle adulthood
floor? low development called? Late adulthood
68. Is dietary protein limited in Not usually, however if there 84. What is the age range 19 - 35
AGN? is severe azotemia then it for early adulthood?
may be restricted
85. What is the age range 35 - 64
69. Define azotemia? Nitrogenous wastes in the for middle
blood (increased creatinine, adulthood?
BUN)
86. What is the age range 64 - death
70. What is the best indicator of The serum creatinine for late adulthood?
renal function?
87. What is the Intimacy vs. Isolation
71. Do people recover from Yes, the vast majority of all developmental task
AGN? clients recover completely for EARLY
from it. adulthood?
72. How can AGN be prevented? By having all sore throats 88. What is the Generativity vs. Stagnation
cultured for strep and developmental task
treating any strep infections. for middle
73. What is the most important Bedrest - they can walk if adulthood?
intervention in treating hematuria, edema and 89. Intimacy vs. Erikson's stage in which individuals
AGN? hypertension are gone. Isolation form deeply personal relationships,
74. What is the most common Moderate Na+ restriction. marry, begin families
dietary restriction for AGN?
Fluid restriction is #2 if
edema is severe.
90. Generativity vs. Erikson's stage of social 102. To prevent post-op elevated
Stagnation development in which middle-aged swelling, the stump
people begin to devote themselves should be __________ for
more to fulfilling one's potential and 12 to 24 hours.
doing public service 103. How long should the 12-24 hours
91. What is the Ego Integrity vs. Despair stump be elevated to
developmental task prevent post op
for LATER adulthood? swelling?
92. Ego Integrity vs. (Erikson) People in LATE adulthood 104. How often should a Daily
Despair either achieve a sense of integrity of stump be washed?
the self by accepting the lives they 105. When a stump is distally (far from the center),
have lived or yield to despair that
wrapped, the bandage proximally (neareast to the point)
their lives cannot be relived
should be tightest
93. "Time is too short to Despair _____________ and
start another life, loosest _____________.
though I wish I 106. If after a right BKA, the phantom limb sensation (which is
could," is an example
client c/o pain in his normal)
of ___________.
right toe, he is
94. "If I had to do it over Ego Integrity experiencing
again, I'd live my life _____________.
just about the same," The result of the positive resolution 107. When will phantom In a few months
is an example of of the final life crisis.
limb sensation
__________ __________. Viewed as the key to harmonious
subside?
personality development; the
individual views their whole life with 108. Is it acceptable for the Yes, this is one way to toughen a
satisfaction and contentment. patient to push the stump so it will not breakdown
stump against a wall? due to the wear of the prosthetic
95. What does AKA Above the knee amputation
leg; hitting it with pillows is another
mean?
good method.
96. What does BKA Below the knee amputation 109. An aneurysm is an widening (it is also weakening)
mean?
abnormal
97. If the patient had an Prone (to prevent flexion _______________ of the
AKA they should lie contracture) wall of a(n) artery.
____________ several 110. What artery is widened the aorta
times per day.
in a thoracic
98. The #1 contracture flexion, hip aneurysm?
problem in AKA is 111. An aneurysm can infection, syphillis
____________ of the
result from an
_____________
_____________ and from
99. What will prevent Lying prone several times a day ____________.
hip flexion 112. The most common A pulsating mass above the
contracture after
symptom of umbilicus
AKA?
abdominal aneurysm
100. What is the #1 Flexion of the knee is:
contracture problem 113. Which aneurysm is the abdominal is most often
after BKA?
most likely to have no "silent"
101. How do you prevent Remind the patient to straighten symptoms?
flexion contracture their knee constantly while standing 114. Which vital signs are The pulse and blood pressure
of the knee after
most important to
BKA?
measure in clients
with aneurysm?
115. An aneurysm will most affect
which of the following, the
blood pressure or the pulse?
116. What activity order is the
client with an aneurysm
supposed to have?
117. If the client with aneurysm is
physically unstable, should
you encourage turning,
coughing and deep breathing?
118. What class of drugs is the client
with an aneurysm most likely
to be on?
119. What is the BIG danger with
aneurysms of any type?
120. If an aneurysm is ruptured how
would you know it?
121. If an aneurysm ruptures what
is the #1 priority?
122. Is there anything that can be
done for the client with a
ruptured aneurysm before
they get to the operating
room?
123. The post op thoracic aneurysm
is most likely to have which
type of tube?
124. The post op abdominal
aneurysm repair client is most
likely to have which type of
tube?
125. If you care for a client who is
post-op for a repair of a
femoral popliteal resection
what assessment must you
make every hour for the first 24
hours?
126. What causes angina pectoris?
127. Describe the pain of angina
pectoris
The pulse --many times 128. What drug treates angina Nitroglycerine
the aneurysm will pectoris?
rupture and much blood 129. How do you tell if a client has The pain of the two is
will be lost before the
angina or an MI? similar, the way to tell the
blood pressure starts to
difference is if nitro and
change.
rest relieve the pain.
Bedrest. DO NOT get Angina = nitro and rest
these people up. relieve the pain
MI = nitro and rest DO
NOT relieve the pain
No, BEDREST until the
client is stable! 130. How many nitroglycerine 3 tablets
tablets can you take before
you call the doctor?
Antihypertensives 131. How many minutes should 5 minutes - take 1 nitro
lapse between the nitro pills tab every 5 minutes 3
you take? times, if no relief, call MD
Rupture, leads to shock 132. By what route do you take Sublingual
and death nitro?
All signs of shock 133. What is the action of nitro? Dilates coronary arteries
to increase blood supply
Decreased LOC (O2 supply) and reduces
(restlessness) preload.
Tachycardia 134. What are the top 2 side effects hypotension and
Hypotension
of nitro? headache
Get them to the operating 135. What precaution must the wear gloves, nurse may
room ASAP
nurse take when get a dose of the med
Yes, if available you can administering topical nitro
get them into ANTISHOCK paste?
TROUSERS but not if this 136. Everyone with angina needs False
causes a delay in getting
bypass surgery. (T/F)
them to the operating
room 137. Anorexics are usually __________ females, 25
under the age of _____.
Chest tube, because the
chest was opened 138. The diagnosis of anorexia 15 (pt weighs less than
nervosa is made when there is 85% of normal body
a weight loss of _______% or weight)
NG tube for
more of body weight.
decompression of bowel
Hospitalize if 30% weight
loss
139. A major mental/emotional Altered body image
check the distal extremity
nursing diagnosis seen in
(far from center)
anorexia nervosa is ___________.
color
temperature 140. The pulse rate of anorexics is Bradycardic
pain tachycardic or bradycardic?
pulse 141. List the most common amenorrhea
also MUST document gynecologic symptom of
Decreased blood supply anorexia nervosa?
to myocardium, resulting 142. What is found over the body of lanugo (soft downy hair)
in ischemia and pain the client with anorexia
Crushing substernal nervosa?
chest pain that may
radiate
143. What is the top priority in the care Intake of enough 160. A newborn receives No movement (limp)
of the client with anorexia nervosa? food to keep them a score of 0 on
alive, have them muscle tone when
gain weight there is__________
144. The best goal to evaluate the An adequate 161. To score the Cry
progress of the client with anorexia WEIGHT GAIN maximum of 2
nervosa? points on
nueromuscular
145. What is the apgar scale? Quick objective way
reflex irritability
to evaluate the vital
the infant must
functions of the
______________.
newborn
162. If the neonate Grimaces
146. When is APGAR scoring performed At 1 minute and
____________, they
on infants? again at 5 minutes
will score a 1 on
after the birth
neuromuscular
147. Name the 5 criteria that are Cardiac status irritability.
recorded on an apgar scale Respiratory effort
163. To receive a 0 on No response
Muscle tone
reflex
Neuromuscular
(neuromuscluar)
irritability
irritability the
Color
neonate must
148. The total apgar score can range 0 to 10 exhibit _______
from
164. To score a Totally pink
149. The maximum score an infant can 2 maximum score of 2
receive on any one of the criteria on color the child
is... must be ____________.
150. A 10 on the apgar means the baby is in terrific health 165. If the child's _______ Extremities are blue (cyanotic), Pink
151. A 0 on the APGAR is ________ Bad, the baby is are ______ and the
(bad/good). stillborn trunk -face
abdomen are
152. On heart rate or cardiac status, a 2 100
________, the child
means that the HR is above _______
scores 1 on color
BPM.
166. To get a 0 on color Totally blue, pale
153. On the HR criteria an infant scores a greater, less than
the infant is
"1" if their HR is _________ than 0 and
____________ 100 167. Acrocyanosis Temporary cyanotic condition, usually
in newborns resulting in a bluish
154. In order to score a 0 on HR the Zero
color around the lips, hands and
infant must have a rate of _________.
fingernails, feet and toenails. May last
155. A high score of 2 is given for Cries vigorously for a few hours and disappear with
respiratory effort if the warming.
newborn_____________.
168. Apendicitis is an inflammation, obstruction
156. An infant is given a score of 1 if their Slow or irregular _________ of the
respirations are _______ or ________. appendix due to
157. An infant is given a score of 0 for They do not breathe __________.
respiratory effort if __________. 169. Apendicitis occurs 15 to 35
158. In order to get a score of 2 on Move spontaneously most in what age
muscle tone the infant (actively) group?
must_________________. 170. What is the most Peritonitis
159. To get a score of 1 on the APGAR for Flexion common
muscle tone the newborn must complication of
place their extremities in appendicitis?
_______________. 171. Peritonitis Inflammation of the peritoneum
172. What is the first sign of RUQ pain 191. When the body does not receive protein, fat
appendicitis? enough carbs it burns ___________
and _____________.
173. What follows the RUQ abdominal N/V
pain of appendicitis? 192. The most concentrated source of Fats
energy for the body is ___________.
174. Where does the pain of RLQ
appendicitis finally end up? 193. Fats provide ___________ Kcalories 9
per 1 gram.
175. What is the name of the RLQ McBurney's Point
abdominal pain where 194. Fats carry vitamins A,D,E,K
appendicitis pain finally 195. The nutrient needed most for Protein (2nd best is
localizes?
growth and repair of tissues is Vitamin C)
176. What is present when rebound Peritoneal _____________.
tenderness is present? inflammation 196. Proteins provide __________ 4
177. What is the highest that the temp 102 F Kcalories per 1 gram.
will be in appendicitis? 197. Vitamins and minerals provide Fale- they are
178. What blood count is elevated in WBC energy for the body. (T/F) necessary for a body's
appendicitis? chemical reactions.
179. What is the name for an elevated Leukocytosis 198. Water is present in ALL body True (even bone)
WBC? tissues. (T/F)
180. What is the only treatment surgery - 199. Water accounts for ________ to 50 to 60%
recommended for appendicitis? appendectomy ___________% of an adult's total
weight?
181. Before the client with suspected Pain meds, enemas,
appendicitis sees the physician laxatives and food! 200. Name the four basic food groups Milk & Cheese
what should be avoided? NPO Meat & Legumes
Veggies & Fruits
182. To lessen the pain, place the Fowlers (a sitting
Bread & Cereal
client with appendicitis in position) (also use post
___________ position. op) 201. Water acounts for __________ to 70 to 75%
_________% of an infant's total
183. Never apply __________ to the area Heat (it causes
weight.
of the appendix. rupture)
202. An individual is overweight if they 10
184. After appendectomy, document Bowel sounds
are ________% above the ideal
in the nurses notes the return of (peristalsis)
weight.
__________
203. An individual is obese if they 20
185. Name the five/six essential carbs
weigh ________% above the ideal
nutrients fats
weight.
proteins
vitamins 204. What solution and material are Plain water
minerals used to cleanse the eyes of an Cotton balls
water infant? Washcloths
186. The major source of energy for carbs 205. Can you use cotton swabs to clean No, this is dangerous
the body is the eyes, nares or ears of an infant?
187. carbs provide ____________ 4 206. Can you use the same cotton No, it would cross
Kcalories per 1 gram ball/washcloth edge for both contaminate.
eyes?
188. Sucruse is a sugar found in fruits, veggies
____________ and _____________. 207. Should you cover an unhealed No fold the diaper
umbilical site with the diaper? down.
189. What is glycogen? It is a stored formed of
glucose/energy 208. What temperature is appropriate 100 to 105
manufactured by the for the water used to bathe an
liver infant?
190. Lactose is a sugar found in ? Milk
209. What is the #1 purpose of
a tepid sponge bath?
210. How should the
temperature of the water
be tested if no
thermometer is available?
211. With which body part do
you begin when bathing
an infant?
212. When cleansing an infant's
eye, cleanse from outer to
inner canthus?
213. Should you retract the
foreskin of a 5 week old
male, uncircumcised
infant to cleanse the area?
214. When sponge-bathing
with tepid water the
correct temp is
_____________.
215. How long does it take for
the umbilical stump to
fall off?
216. The primary reason why
an infant is draped during
the bath is to provide
privacy. (T/F)
217. You may use friction to
remove vernix caseosa
from an infant's skin. (T/F)
218. What solution is
commonly used for care
of umbilical cord?
219. What cranial nerve is
affected in Bell's Palsy?
220. What is the #1 symptom
of Bell's Palsy?
221. Complete recovery from
the paralysis of Bell's Palsy
should occur in _______ to
______ months.
222. In addition to the facial
paralysis, the sense of
______ is also affected in
Bell's Palsy.
223. Will the patient with Bell's
Palsy be able to close their
eye on the affected side?
Lower body temperature 224. Give three eye interventions for Dark glasses
during fever the client with Bell's Palsy. Artificial tears
Cover eye at night
Dropping water on inside
surface of your forearm. 225. As the prostate enlarges it Urethra, rentention
compresses the ___________ and
causes urinary ________.
Eyes always 226. At what age does BPH occur? Men over 50 years of
age.
227. What does BPH stand for? Benign Prostatic
No, inner to outer Hypertrophy
228. In BPH, the man has Increased
(increased/decreased) frequency
No, not until foreskin retracts of urination.
naturally and without 229. In BPH the force of the urinary decreased
resistance- then it should be
stream is (increased/decreased).
retracted, cleansed and
replaced. 230. The man with BPH has a _________- forked
stream of urine.
98.6 F
231. The man with BPH has hesitancy. Difficulty starting to
What does this mean? void.
232. Will the man with BPH have Nocturia and maybe
7 to 14 days enuresis, nocturia or hematuria? hematuria, NOT
enuresis
233. Enuresis inability to control the
False, the primary purpose of flow of urine and
draping is to prevent chilling. involuntary urination
234. What is the best way to screen Digital rectal exam
men for BPH?
False, it causes 235. Should fluids be forced or Forced
damage/bruising. restricted in BPH?
236. What does TURP stand for? Transurethral
70% alcohol to promote drying resection of the
(trend is toward soap and prostate
water)
237. The most radical prostate surgery Perineal
#7, facial nerve is the ____________ prostatectomy.
238. What type of diet is used in BPH? Acid Ash
One sided (unilateral) facial
239. Acid Ash diet Decrease pH (makes
paralysis
urine acid)
4 to 6 chz, eggs, meat, fish,
oysters, poultry
bread, cereal, whole
grains, pastries
taste cranberries, prunes,
plums, tomatoes, peas,
corn, legumes.
240. What is the primary purpose of a To keep the catheter
No 3 way continuous bladder clear of clots and to
irrigation (CBI) after TURP? drain urine
241. What solution is used for Normal saline (0.9
continuous bladder irrigation? NaCl)
242. How fast do you run the CBI?
243. What drug is use to treat
bladder spasm?
244. Should you take a rectal temp
after prostatectomy? Give
stool softeners?
245. You should call the MD after
TURP when you see _________
thick ________, _____________
clots, and ____________ urine
drainage on the dressing.
246. If you see an increase in blood
content of urine coming out of
the catheter, you would first
___________.
247. If you see clots in the tubing
you would first ____________.
248. What exercises should the post
prostectomy patient do upon
discharge? Why?
249. Will the post prostectomy
patient be impotent?
250. How often should the drainage
bag be emptied?
251. What is the most common
problem due to
catheterization?
252. What is the most common
organism to cause UTI with
catheterization?
253. What is the most common
route for organisms to enter
the bladder when a
catheterization is used?
254. Name foods that make acid
urine
255. What is important about the
level of the urinary drainage
bag?
256. How is the catheter taped in a
male client?
257. How is the catheter taped in a
female client?
At whatever rate it takes
to keep the urine flowing
and free of clots
B&O suppositories
No rectal temperatures,
yes stool softeners
Bright thick blood,
persistent clots, persistent
urine on dressing (don't
call MD for transitory clots
and urine on dressing.)
Pull carefully on the
catheter to apply local
pressure on the prostate
with the Foley balloon.
Increase the flow-rate.
Perineal exercises, start
and stop stream of urine,
because dribbling is a
common but temporary
problem post op
If TURP, no impotence, if
perineal prostatectomy,
yes impotence
Every 8 hours
UTI
E. coli
Up through the inside of
the catheter in the days
following catheterization.
Cranberry juice
Apple juice
(avoid citrus juices- they
make alkaline urine)
Never have the bag at a
higher level than the
bladder.
To the lateral thigh or
abdomen
To the upper thigh
258. What urinary pH prevents UTI?
259. Should the drainage bag ever
touch the floor?
260. Is it ok to routinely irrigate
indwelling catheters?
261. What agents are best for
catheter care?
262. What is the most effective way
to decrease UTI with catheters?
263. Give some signs of infection in a
foley catheter.
264. Is urinary incontinence an
indication for catheterization?
265. Give three appropriate
indications for bladder
catheterization?
266. What are the top 2 diagnoses
for a client with a catheter?
Which is #1?
267. What is systole?
268. What is diastole?
269. Accurate blood pressure is
obtained by using a cuff that
has width of __________ of the
arm.
270. Which artery is most
commonly used to measure
blood pressure?
271. Can the thigh EVER be used to
obtain a blood pressure?
272. When pressure is auscultated
the first sound heard is the
____________ measurement.
273. The change in the character of
the sounds is known as the
________
274. The cessation of sounds is
known as the _________
275. When 2 values are given in a
blood pressure the first is the
__________measurement.
Acidity, low pH
No
No
Soap and water
Keep the drainage
system closed, do not
disconnect junction of
tubing
Cloudy urine
Foul smelling urine
Hematuria
No
Urinary retention
To check for residual
To monitor hourly output
#1- Potential for infection;
Potential impairment of
urethral tissue integrity
The MAXIMAL force of
blood on artery walls.
The LOWEST force of
blood on artery walls
Two-thirds
Brachial
Yes, but this is rare.
Systolic
First diastolic sound
Second diastolic sound
Systolic
276. When 2 values are given in a blood Cessation of sounds 295. What should the nurse do with Keep it open with saline
pressue, the bottom number the IV line if transfusion
stands for the change in sounds or reaction is suspected?
cessation of sounds? 296. If a transufsion reaction is Urine and blood
277. What is the normal adult blood 120/80 suspected, what two samples
pressure? are collected and sent to the
lab?
278. Abnormally high blood pressure is Hypertension
called____________. 297. If a unit of blood is infused Warmed
through a central line it must
279. What is the pulse pressure? The difference
be__________.
between the systolic
and the diastolic blood 298. Which of the following are signs Low back pain
pressure. of transfusion reaction? Wheezing
Bradycardia Fever
280. If you deflate a cuff TOO SLOWLY, High, venous
Fever Hives `
the reading will be too high or congestion makes the
Hives
low? Why? arterial pressure
Wheezing
higher (increases
Increased Blood Pressure
resistance)
Low Back Pain
281. If you use too narrow of a cuff the High
299. What are three types of Hemolytic
reading will be too high or low?
transufsion reactions that can Febrile
282. Vasoconstriction will ___________ Increase occur? Allergic
blood pressure.
300. What would you do first if you Stop the blood and start
283. Vasodilation will ____________ Decrease suspected transfusion reaction? the saline
blood pressure.
301. What are the signs and shivering
284. Shock will ___________ blood Decrease symptoms of a hemolytic headache
pressure. transfusion reaction? low back pain
285. Increased intracranial pressure Increase or Widen increased pulse and
will _________ the pulse pressure. respirations
decreasing BP
286. If my blood pressure is 190/110, 80 mmHg
oliguria
what is my pulse pressure?
hematuria
287. What blood test must be done Type and cross match
302. What are the signs and Low back pain
before a transfusion?
symtpoms of a febrile Shaking HA
288. What does a type and cross match Whether the client's transfusion reaction? Increasing temperature
indicate? blood and donor Confusion
blood are compatible. Hemoptysis
289. What should the nurse measure Vital signs 303. What are the signs of symptoms Hives- uticaria,
before starting a transfusion? of an allergic reaction to a wheezing, pruritus, joint
290. With what solution should blood 0.9 normal saline transfusion? pain, (arthralgia)
be transfused? 304. Give three reasons for a blood Restore blood volume
291. How many nurses are requried to 2 nurses transfusion secondary to
check the blood? hemorrhage
Maintain hemoglobin in
292. What happens when blood is The cells clump anemia
administered with Dextrose IVs? together and don't Replace specific blood
flow well components
293. If a transfusion reaction occurs Stop the blood flow 305. What does blood-typing mean? Check for surface
what should the nurse do first? and start running the antigen on the red
saline blood cell
294. How long can a unit of blood be Less than 1/2 hour 306. When does typing and cross Whenever a client is to
on the unit before it must be matchng need to be done? get a blood product. It is
started? only good for 24 hours.
307. What does blood cross
matching mean?
308. When are hemolytic
transfusion reactions likely
to occur?
309. When is a febrile reaction
likely to occur?
310. What test indentifies Rh
factor?
311. What is the difference
between whole blood and
packed cells?
312. What would you do if the
client had an increasing
temperature and was to get
blood?
313. How long should it take for
one unit of blood to infuse?
314. How long should you stay
with the patient after
beginning a transfusion?
315. What blood type is the
universal recipient?
316. What blood type is the
universal donor?
317. What is the rotuine for vital
sign measurement with a
transfusion?
318. What IV solution is hung
with a blood transfusion?
319. What gauge needle is used
with a blood transfusion?
320. What other things are
appropriate after a blood
transfusion reaction?
321. Can blood be given
immediately after removal
from refrigeration?
322. With what solution and
when should a breast feeding
mother cleanse the areola?
Mixing a little of the client's
blood with the donor blood
and looking for
agglutination.
In the first 10 to 15 minutes
Within 30 minutes of
beginning the transfusion
Coombs test detects
antibodies to Rh
Packed cells don't have
nearly as much plasma or
volume as whole blood does
Call the MD because blood
is often held with an
elevated temperature
From one hour to three
hours
At least 15 to 30 minutes
AB
O milk lower in?
Once before administration
Q15 x 2 after administration
is begun
Q1 x1 after transfusion has
stopped
0.9 normal saline (No
glucose)
Large gauge, 18 gauge
Call MD
Get a blood sample
Get urine sample
Monitor vitals
Send blood to lab
No it has to be warmed first
for only about 20 to 30
minutes.
Plain water, before and
after each feeding
323. For a woman who doesnt
have retracted nipples, is
towel drying or air drying
better?
324. The goal is for the infant to
breast feed for __________
minutes per side.
325. How does the mother break
the suction of the breast
feeding infant?
326. When should the breast
feeding infant be burped?
327. Assuming no mastitis, on
which side should the
breastfeeding begin?
328. How long can breast milk be
refrigeratored?
329. How long can breast milk be
frozen?
330. In what type of container
should breast milk be stored?
331. Can you microwave frozen
breast milk in order to
warm/thaw it?
332. Which two nutrients is breast
333. What should you tell a breast
feeding mother about her
milk supply whern she goes
home from the hospital?
334. Can a woman on oral
contraceptives breastfed?
335. What is another name for
Buerger's disease?
336. Which extremities are
affected by Buerger's Disease?
337. Which sex does Buerger's
Disease affect the most often?
Air drying of the nipples is
best
20
She inserts her little finger
into the side of the infant's
mouth
After feeding from each
breast
Begin nursing on the side
that the baby finished on
the last feeding
24 hours
6 months
Sealed plastic bags
Never
Fluoride and iron
Milk should come in
postpartum day 3.
Breastrfeed every 2-3
hours to establish good milk
supply.
Should not use OCP during
the first 6 weeks after birth
because the hormones may
decrease milk supply.
Estrogen is not
recommended.
Non-hormonal methods
are recommended.
Remember breastfeeding is
an unreliable
contraceptive.
Thromboangiitis obliterans
Lower only
Males
338. The group with the highest Smokers 357. Name the 3 phases of burn Shock
incidence of Buerger's disease is Diuretic
__________. Recovery
339. Upon walking, the patient with Intermittent 358. Fluid moves from the___________ Bloodstream, interstitial
Buerger's experiences _______ Claudication to the _______ in the SHOCK space
_________. phase.
340. What is intermittent Pain in calf upon 359. The shock phase lasts for the 24 to 48 hours
claudication? walking first ________ to ________ hours
after a burn.
341. A first degree burn is pale or red? Red
360. During the shock phase of Increased because of all
342. A first degree burn has vesicles. False
burn management, is the cells damaged- the K+
(T/F)
potassium increased or is released from damaged
343. A second-degree burn is pale or Red decreased? Why? cells.
red?
361. What acid-base disorder is seen Metabolic Acidosis
344. A second-degree burn is dull or Shiny in the shock phase of a burn?
shiny?
362. What is the #1 therapy in the Fluid
345. A second-degree burn has vesicles? True shock phase of a burn? replacement/resuscitation
(T/F)
363. What is the simple formula for 3cc X Kg X % burned per
346. A Second degree-burn is wet or Wet calculating fluid replacement day
dry? needs in the first 24 hours?
347. A third-degree burn is white or White 364. If the MD orders 2,800 cc of Half (or 1,400 cc)
red? fluid in the first 24 hours after a
348. A third-degree burn is wet or dry? Dry burn, one-_____ of it must be
infused in the first 8 hours.
349. A third degre burn is hard or soft? Hard
365. What blood value will dictate The hematocrit
350. Of first, second and third degree Third degree burns,
IV flow rate?
burns which has less pain? Why? nerve damage has
occured 366. How will you know the patient The urine output will
has entered the fluid INCREASE.
351. For what purpose do you use the To estimate the
mobilization or diuretic
rule of nines? percentage of body
phase?
surface burned; is
NOT used for 367. How long does the fluid 2 to 5 days
children. mobilization or diuretic phase
of a burn last?
352. In the rule of nines, the head and 9%, 9%
neck receive _______: each arm 368. In the diuretic phase, K+ levels Fall- remember diuresis
receives_______. fall or rise? always causes
hypokalemia
353. In the rule of nines, the front 18%, 18%, 18%, 1%
trunk gets_____, the posterior 369. If the nurse accidentally runs Pulmonary edema
trunk gets_____, each leg gets ______ the IVs at the shock phase rate
and the genitalia gets________. during the diuretic phase the
patient will experience?
354. What is the only IM given to a burn Tetanus toxoid- if they
patient? had a previous 370. The burn patient will be on Hourly, weight
immunization _______urine output and daily
Tetanus antitoxin- if __________.
they have never been 371. Sulfamyon cream__________. Burns
immunized before (or
372. Silver nitrate cream___________ Stains, skin
immune globulin)
the ________.
355. In the emergent phase do you Yes, with anything
373. Pain medications should be 30 minutes, wound care
cover burns? (in the field) clean and dry.
administered _______ before
356. Should you remove adhered No ________ care.
clothing on a burn patient?
374. When using silver nitrate, Wet 388. Which cells are low in Platelets
the dressings must be thrombocytopenia?
kept __________. 389. What drug should NOT be given to the ASA (aspirin)
375. What is Curlings ulcer? It is a stress GI ulcer, you get patient with chemotherapeutic
Why is it a problem in these with any severe physical thrombocytopenia?
burn patients? What drug stress. Tagamet, Zantac, Pepcid 390. When should the nurse WITHHOLD IM Only when their
prevents it? (any H2 receptor antagonist),
injections in the client on PLATELET count
Protonix Prilosec
chemotherapy? is down.
376. Neoplasm refers to benign True 391. What are the 3 objective Petechiae
and malignant tumors.
symptoms/signs of thrombocytopenia? Epistaxis
(T/F)
Hint: P.E.E. Ecchymosis
377. Which type of tumor is Undifferentiated is worse to 392. What is epitaxis? Nose bleeds
more malignant? have (highly differentiated is
Differentiated or better to have) 393. What is ecchymosis? Bruising
undifferentiated? 394. What is petechiae? Small dot like
378. When cancer spreads to a Metastasis pinpoint
distant site it is called? hemorrhages on
the skin.
379. The cause of cancer is False
known. (T/F) 395. What blood cell is low in leukopenia? White blood cells

380. A person should have a 40 396. When the Absolute Neutrophil Count 500
yearly work up exam for ANC is below________ the person on
cancer detection over the chemotherapy will be placed on
age of __________. reverse isolation.

381. In general, cancer drugs GI 397. What is the #1 integumentary side Alopecia
have side effects in which Hematologic (blood) effect of chemotherapy?
three body systems? Integumentary 398. What is alopecia? Hair loss
382. What are the 3 most N/V 399. The hair loss due to chemotherapy is True
common Diarrhea usually temporary? (T/F)
chemotherapeutic GI side Stomatitis (oral sores)
400. Can scalp tourniquets prevent In some cases,
effects?
chemotherapy alopecia? yes
383. Clients receiving False
401. Can ice packs to the scalp prevent In some cases,
chemotherapy must be
chemotherapy alopecia? yes
NPO. (T/F)
402. CD ranks ________ among the leading Fourth
384. Is it permissible to give True
cause of maternal death.
lidocaine viscous ac
(before meals) if the 403. What is the #1 cause of CD of Rheumatic heart
patient has pregnancy? disease
chemotherapeutic 404. Pregnancy requires a __________ increase 30-50%
stomatosis? (T/F) in the cardiac output.
385. With what solution H2O2 - hydrogen peroxide 405. What is the #1 cause of maternal death Decompensation
should the client with in CD of pregnancy?
chemotherapeutic
stomatitis rinse pc (after
406. What is meant by decompensation? Failure of the
meals)? heart to
maintain
386. What lubricant can safely K-Y Jelly adequate
be applied to the cracked circulation.
lips of chemotherapy
stomatitis?
407. What will you see when you observe Distended neck
the neck of a client with CD of veins -JVD
387. Name the 3 hematologic Thrombocytopenia pregnancy?
side effects of Leukopenia
chemotherapy. Anemia
408. What will you hear when Murmurs 420. Second to rest, what is very important Weight control
you auscultate the heart of treatment for CD of pregnancy?
the client with CD of 421. How long must the woman with CD of At least one
pregnancy?
pregnancy be on bed rest after delivery? week
409. What will you hear when Crackles-rales 422. What nutrients should be supplied in Iron
you auscultate the lungs of
the diet of the pregnant woman with Folic acid
the client with CD of
CD?
pregnancy?
Prevent anemia
410. If the client with CD of Sudden onset of SOB (anemia always
pregnancy experiences (dyspnea). makes the heart
sudden heart failure what is work more)
the MOST common thing 423. What are the two most common SOB
you will see?
subjective complaints of the woman Palpitations
411. What is the #1 treatment of Rest who is decompensating during labor?
CD during pregnancy? 424. In addition to the things you assess for You must assess
412. What are the three most Diuretics in every woman during labor, what lungs sounds
common drugs given to Heparin additional assessment must you make frequently
women with CD in Digitalis for a woman with CD?
pregnancy? 425. How often must you assess the lung Every 30 to 10
413. Why are diuretics given to To promote diuresis which sounds during the first stage of labor? minutes
women with CD of will: During active labor? During transition
pregnancy? -lower circulating blood labor?
volume 426. In which position should a woman with Semi
-decrease preload
CD in labor be? recumbent,
-decrease the amount of
HOB up
blood the heart pumps.
427. The nurse should limit the client's Bear down
414. Why are anticoagulants To prevent thrombophlebitis
efforts to ________ ______ during labor
(heparin only) given to due to venous congestion,
when CD is present.
women with CD of usually in legs.
pregnancy? 428. What is the big danger to staff when Radiation
caring for a client with cesium implant? hazard
415. Why is digitalis given to To increase the strength of
women with CD of the heart and to decrease 429. What are the three principles to protect Distance
pregnancy? the rate, rest the heart while yourself from radiation hazard? Shielding
making it more efficient Time

416. Can a woman with CD of Yes, in fact they should be 430. Will the woman with a cesium implant Yes
pregnancy be given given analgesics, may get too have a foley?
analgesics during labor? anxious which is bad for the 431. From where should the nurse provide The head of the
patient care to the client with cesium implant? bed
417. Can morphine be given to a Yes, even though it 432. How can the woman with cesium Only from side
woman with CD during negatively affects the fetus, implant move in bed? to side
labor? remember morphine
433. What four symptoms in a patient with a Profuse vaginal
decreases preload and pain
cesium implant should be reported to discharge
which rests the heart.
the physician? Elevated temp
418. What is the most common Decreased sodium, Nausea
dietary modification for the decreased water (restriction) Vomiting
woman with CD who shows
signs of decompensation? (these indicate
419. Is a C-section mandatory for No infection and
delivery of a woman with perforation)
CD of pregnancy? 434. Should pregnant staff care for a client No
with a cesium implant?
435. Can the woman with a Yes, only 45 degrees 452. What is the #1 symptom of cast Nausea and vomiting
cesium implant have the HOB maximum syndrome? due to bowel
elevated? obstruction
436. From where should the nurse The entrance to the room 453. What is the #1 treatment of cast NPO and NG tube for
talk to the client? syndrome? decompression
437. Is bed rest necessary when a Yes, absolute bed rest 454. A dry cast is gray or white? White
woman has cesium implant 455. A dry cast is dull or shiny? Shiny
in place?
456. A dry cast is dull or resonant to Resonant
438. What type of diet is this Low residue (decrease
percussion?
woman with a cesium bowel motility )
implant on? 457. Traction is used to _______ and Reduce and immobilize,
_______ a fracture, relieve ________ muscle spasm;
439. No nurse should attend the 1/2 hour
_______ and prevent ________. deformities
client with a cesium implant
more than ____ per day. 458. Can skin traction be removed for Yes
skin care?
440. What would you do if the Pick it up with forceps only -
cesium implant came out? never touch with hand 459. Can the client be removed from No
even if you are wearing skeletal traction?
gloves. 460. Name 3 types of skin traction Bucks
441. Should the nurse provide No, risk of radiation hazard Bryants
perineal care for the client Pelvic
with a cesium implant? 461. Name 3 types of skeletal traction Cranial tongs
442. What part of your hand do The palm Thomas splints with
you use to handle a wet cast? Peason attachments
90 degrees to 90
443. Upon what do you support a Pillows (no plastic covers)
degrees
cast while it dries?
462. What type of traction is most Bucks
444. How long does it take a cast 24 hours
commonly used for hip fracture
to dry?
in adults?
445. Should you cover a wet cast? No 463. What type of traction is most Bryants
446. Should you use a heat lamp No heat lamp and hair commonly used for hip fractures
or hair dryer or fan to help dryer in children?
dry a cast? Yes fan 464. In what position should the bed Semi-fowlers with knee
447. What signs or symptoms Numbness be if the patient is in pelvic gatched
would you report if they were Tingling traction?
present after cast Burning 465. To insure that Bryant's traction Off the bed enough to
application? Pallor
is working the child's slip a hand between the
Unequal or absent pulses
hip/sacrum should be _________ sacrum and the bed.
Unequal coolness
466. What is the advantage of You can easily move the
448. If there is inflammation Hot
balanced counteraction? patient around in bed
under a cast, it will be
evident in a _______ spot. 467. Patients in Russell's traction are Thrombophlebitis
particularly prone to ____________.
449. To prevent irritation of the Petaled
skin near the edges of a cast 468. When a patient is in a Buck's Unaffected
the edges should be traction they may turn to the
____________. _________ side.

450. What type of cast causes cast A body cast 469. Define cataract Opacity of the
syndrome? crystalline lens

451. What causes cast syndrome? Anxiety and stress leading 470. Is surgery done immediately No, they usually wait
to sympathoadrenal shut- upon diagnosis of cataract? until it interferes with
down of the bowel ADLs .
471. What three most Cloudiness 482. Should you use talcum powder No, it may cause
common visual Diplopia (double vision) with a post-operative cataract sneezing; also should
defects occur Photophobia (sensitivity to light) client? avoid pepper.
with cataract? 483. What are the three signs of Pain (moderate to
472. What are the two Laser, surgical removal. Surgery called increased intraocular pressure? severe)
common intraocular or extraocular lens Restlessness
treatments of extraction Increased pulse rate
cataract? 484. What is the major objective in To prevent pressure
473. What does the Cloudy, milky-white pupil caring for a client after surgical in or on the eyes
eye look like cataract removal?
when a client has 485. When the lens is to be extracted Mydriatics
cataracts?
for cataracts, what drugs are given Dilators
474. What will the A protective patch/shield on the preoperatively? Antibiotic drugs (gtts)
client be wearing operative eye for 24 hours, then a metal 486. What three drugs are given post- Stool softeners
after cataract shield (AT NIGHT only) for 3 weeks
operatively for surgical cataract Antiemetics
surgery?
removal? Analgesics (mild to
475. When the client If an introcular lens is implanted they moderate)
asks about the will NOT need glasses. If no lens is 487. Give five causes of catarcts? Injury
use of glassess or implanted, then contacts will be fitted
Congenital
contacts after for 3 months post-op, temporary thick
Exposure to heat
cataract surgery glasses given immediately but will get a
Heredity
what would you different prescription in 2 to 3 months
Age
say?
488. Celiac's disease is a __________ Malabsorption
476. What will be a Safety
disease
high priority
nursing diagnosis 489. The client with celiacs cannot Gluten
for a client post tolerate___________.
cataract surgery? 490. Gluten is a __________. Protein
477. Should the client No the patient should not ambulate 491. What does gluten do to the It destroys the lining
ambulate independently, depth perception is intestines of the client with of the intestine.
independently altered. celiac's disease?
after cataract
492. The stools of a client with celiac's Large
surgery?
disease are ______, ______ and _____- Greasy
478. What positions Lying face down. Also, do not lie on _____. Foul-smelling
are to be avoided operative side for a month.
493. Clients with celiac's disease do not Iron
after cataract
absorb what mineral?
surgery?
494. Clients with celiac's disease don't Fat soluble vitamins
479. What are the Severe pain
absorb fats; therefore they don't
post-operative Restlessness
absorb _____ ______ ______.
signs of
hemorrhage into 495. What are the four fat-soluble A,D,E,K
the eye? vitamins?

480. What movements Coughing 496. Malabsorption of which vitamin Vitamin K, remember
are to be avoided Sneezing leads to bleeding disorder? do not mix up
after cataract Bending at the waist potassium with
surgery? Straining at stool Vitamin K
Rubbing or touching eyes 497. What will the abdomen of clients Distended with flatus
Rapid head movements with celiac's disease look like?
481. What positions Do not lie on operative side; do not lie on 498. What is the #1 treatment of Gluten-free diet
are okay after back celiac's disease?
cataract surgery?
499. Veggies are allowed or not Allowed 517. A CVA is a __________ of the Destruction; blood flow and
allowed in diet of client brain cells due to oxygen
with Celiac's disease? decreased _____ _____ and
______.
500. Fruits are allowed or not Allowed
allowed? 518. Women have a Lower
(higher/lower) incidence
501. Grains of all kinds are False
of stroke than men?
prohibited. (T/F)
519. Name the three types of Embolus
502. What grains are allowed in Rice and corn
CVA Thrombus
a gluten-free diet?
Hemorrhage
503. What grains are not Wheat
520. Use of oral contraceptives True
allowed in a gluten-free Oats
increases the risk of CVA
diet? Rye
(T/F).
Alfalfa
Barley 521. Chronic abuse of alcohol False
increases risk of CVA. (T/F)
504. Are foods made with No
wheat, oat, or rye flour 522. Obesity increases risk of True
allowed? CVA (T/F)
505. Is milk allowed on a Yes 523. Smoking increases the True
gluten-free diet? risk of CVA. (T/F)
506. Are meats allowed on a Yes, but watch for breaded 524. Atrial fibrillation True, emboli particularly
gluten-free diet? meats and hot dogs/lunch increases the risk of CVA
meats- may have grain in (T/F)
them and are not allowed 525. What is a TIA? Transient Ischemic Attack
507. Are eggs allowed on a Yes Warning sign of impending
gluten-free diet? CVA (transient neurologic
deficits of any kind can last 30
508. Is commercial ice cream No, even though it is a milk
seconds to 24 hours)
allowed on a gluten-free product, commercial ice cream
diet? has GRAIN in it. 526. Do patients experiencing Yes
a CVA have a headache?
509. Are puddings allowed on a No, for the same reason ice
gluten-free diet? cream isn't. 527. The first sign of CVA is Change in LOC
usually a___________.
510. Which soups are not Creamed soups- these often
allowed on a gluten free have flour 528. The activity order in early Absolute Bed Rest
diet? management of CVA is
__________.
511. The #1 problem with Infection
central lines ___________ 529. The patient with a recent Restricted
CVA is most likely to have
512. How often should central QOD- every other day
fluids restricted or
line dressings be changed?
forced?
513. What type of dressing is Sterile occlusive
530. How far should the HOB 30 degrees
applied to a central line
be up after CVA?
insertion site?
531. Can the stroke victim be Yes
514. Can drugs be piggybacked No, use another lumen.
turned side-to-side?
into central --TPN?
532. How often should the CVA Every 2 hours
515. When changing central line Turn his head away from the
patient be turned or
tubing the patient should site, hold breath, and perform
repositioned?
be told to_________? the Valsalva maneuver
533. The CVA patient should be False, the patient should not be
516. If a central line is found Left side
turned onto his paralyzed on their paralyzed side for
accidentally open the
side no longer than 2 more than 20 minutes.
patient should be
hours. (T/F)
positioned on his ______
______.
534. ROM exercises should occur every 2 False-- every 4 hours 548. Aphasia is most Dominant
hours in CVA patients. (T/F) or 3 times a day is common if the stroke
enough occurred in the
(dominant/non-
535. To prevent urinary incontinence; False- remember
dominant)
the CVA patient should be incontinence will
hemisphere of the
catheterized. (T/F) never be allowed as a
brain.
reason for
catheterization 549. How do you tell It is the side that controls their
which side of the dominant hand, ie, a left handed
536. Which type of paralysis is typical of Hemiplegia
person's brain is person has a dominant right
CVA- paraplegia, hemiplegia or
dominant? hemisphere and conversely a right
quadriplegia?
hand person has a dominant left
537. What anatomical fact accounts for The motor- hemisphere
the left side of the body being pyramidal-tracts
550. For which type of Receptive
controlled by the right brain? cross over to the
aphasia are slow,
other side (decussate
short, simple
in the medulla)
directions most
538. If the patient has right hemiplegia, Right arm and right useful?
he cannot move his ____ ____ and leg, left
551. For which type Expressive
____ ____ and the stroke was on the
aphasia is careful
_________ side of the brain.
listening and needs
539. What is hemianopsia? Not being able to see anticipation most
one half of the field of useful?
vision.
552. The loss of the ability Apraxia
540. The client with hemianopsia Scan to perform
should be taught to ____________. purposeful, skilled
541. What is scanning? Moving the head acts, ie brushing
from side to side to teeth, is called
see the whole field of __________.
vision. 553. Cytoxan Hemorrhagic cystitis
542. If the client has right homonymous Right cyclophosphamide
hemaniopsia, the food on the ____ 554. Cisplatin Peripheral neuropathy,
side of the tray may be ignored. constipation, ototoxicity
543. After meals, the nurse must always Mouth (cheek), food 555. Bleomycin Pulmonary fibrosis
check _______ of the CVA client for
556. Adriamycin Cardiotoxicity
_________.
557. Vincristine Peripheral neuropathy (foot drop,
544. Should a CVA patient have all four Side rails yes.
numbness and tingling,
side rails up at all times? Should Restraints- no, unless
hoarseness, jaw pain)
they be restrained? they are a danger to
constipation (adynamic ileus due to
themselves or others
neurotoxicity)
545. When a patient does not Receptive
558. DTIC- dome Flu-like symptoms
understand INCOMING language he
is said to have ______ aphasia.
Chemo-therapeutic Agent Toxicities
546. When the CVA client understands Expressive
559. Methotrexate Toxic to just about every organ
your question but can't respond
except to heart, toxicity made worse
verbally correctly, he is said to
with aspirin
have ___________ aphasia.
560. The infant fears Separation from love object
547. What is global aphasia? Both receptive and
_________ most when
expressive
hospitalized.
561. The toddler fears _______ most Separation from family 580. Do plant foods contain No, not many
when hospitalized. any cholesterol?
562. The preschooler fears separation Mutilation- remember 581. What is otitis media? Chronic
as well as _________ when preschoolers have vivid infectious/inflammatory disease
hospitalized. imaginations...fantasy of the middle ear
563. The toddler and preschooler Something they did 582. Is otitis a disease of the Usually the child
will think that illness is caused wrong. adult or child?
by_____________. 583. What part of the ear is Middle ear
564. The school-aged hospitalized Age group involved in otitis media?
child is afraid of separation from 584. What are the 2 common Hearing loss
___________.
subjective signs of otitis Feeling of fullness in the ear
565. The school-aged child perceives External, she knows that media?
the cause of illness to to be illness is not a result of 585. What are the 2 common Hyperpyrexia (fever)
external or internal? bad behavior.
objective signs of otitis Drainage from ear
566. The adolescent who is Peers, independence media?
hospitalized fears separation 586. What commonly happens Perforation of the ear drum
from _________ and loss of
secondary to otitis
___________.
media?
567. Preschoolers may require True 587. Do all the children with No
physical restraint during painful
otitis media need tubes in
procedures. (T/F)
their ears?
568. Which age group engages in School-Age 588. What are the two most Systemic antibiotics
stalling tactics before painful
common medical Antibiotic ear drops
procedures most?
treatments for otitis
569. Which age groups are most School-age, adolescents media?
likely to physically resist the 589. What is the most severe Meningitis or mastoiditis
nurse during procedures?
complication of otitis
570. Toddlers may require physical True media?
restraint for painful procedures. 590. What is cholesteatoma? An epidemial cyst in the ear
(T/F)
highly associated with otitis
571. The meats that are highest in Organ meats media.
cholesterol are _________ meats. liver, heart, brains, 591. What are the restrictions No swimming, no showering, no
kidneys
to be followed when diving
572. The meats that are second Shell seafood- shrimp, tubes are in a child's ear?
highest in cholesterol are the crab, lobster 592. What is cleft lip? The lip is open to the nares
___________
593. What is cleft palate? The roof of the mouth is open
573. Egg white is (high/low) in Low
to the nasopharynx.
cholesterol?
594. Is it possible to have only Yes, you can have one or or the
574. Egg yolk is (high/low) in High
one: cleft lip or cleft other or both
cholesterol?
palate?
575. The three meats lowest in Chicken, pork, mutton 595. When will the cleft lip be Between 10 weeks and 6
cholesterol are _________,
repaired? months
_________ and __________.
596. When is cleft palate Between 1 and 5 years of age
576. Milk is (high/low) in cholesterol. Low
repaired?
577. Is cheese high in cholesterol? Only moderate, not 597. Why is cleft lip repaired Feeding is easier after repair
really that high
early? and appearance after repair is
578. Which oils are high in Animal oils more acceptable to parents.
cholesterol?
579. Is cholesterol a triglyceride? No
598. Describe the nipples Large-holed, soft nipples 614. What position is NEVER lie on their abdomen
on bottles used to contraindicated after cleft
feed babies with cleft lip repair?
lip? 615. What will be used to feed A dropper/syringe with
599. The infant with cleft Bubbling, burping the infant after cleft lip rubber tip to discourage
lip/palate needs more repair? sucking
frequent ___________. 616. What must the mother do Rinse the infant's/child's
600. Children with cleft An almost upright position after feeding the baby who mouth with water
lip/palate should be has had cleft lip/palate
fed in what position? repair?
601. What is the #1 Aspiration 617. What is a colostomy? A surgically created opening
complication of cleft of the colon out onto the
lip/palate? abdomen wall.
602. Children with cleft lip hearing 618. Name the 3 most common Cancer
and cleft palate have speech reasons for a colostomy. Diverticulitis
long-term problems teeth Ulcerative Colitis
_____, _____ and _____. 619. What is meant by the term A colostomy that is not
603. In how many surgeries Two surgeries "temporary colostomy"? intended to be permanent--
is cleft palate one at 12 to 18 months the bowel will be
repaired? the last at 4 to 5 years reconnected at a later date
and the client will defecate
604. Why is final repair of Earlier surgery would interfere
normally
the palate delayed with tooth development.
until 4 to 5 years? 620. What is meant by the term A procedure where the
"double barrel" colostomy? colon is cut and both ends
605. How are cleft lip and Surgical repair
are brought out onto the
cleft palate primarily
abdomen.
treated?
621. Colostomies performed for Permanent
606. Is the infant restrained No, just AFTER repair
cancer tend to be
BEFORE repair?
(temporary/permanent).
607. Should children with Yes, they can cry; may breast feed
622. Colostomies performed for Temporary
cleft palate BEFORE with simple cleft lip however palate
a gunshot are usually
surgery be allowed to interferes with feeding
(temporary/permanent)
cry? To breast-feed?
623. In a double-barrel Proximal
608. AFTER repair of cleft No, the infant should be held to
colostomy, from which
lip is infant allowed to PREVENT CRYING; the infant is not
stoma (barrel) will the stool
cry? To breast feed? allowed to breast-feed because
come out?
sucking is not good after lip repair.
624. A fresh new stoma is Red, large, noisy
609. After clep lip repair, A Logan bow
_________, __________ and
what device will the
__________.
baby wear?
625. When a client voices The noise will go away in a
610. What is the purpose of To prevent stress on the suture
embarrassment over the few days to a week.
a Logan Bow? line
noises that their colostomy
611. With what device will Elbow restraints makes on the first post-op
the infant be day, what would you say?
restrained?
626. What behavior on the part When they do their own
612. How do you care for Remove the gauze before feeding of the client is the BEST stoma care
an infant with a Logan and cleanse after feeding with indicator that they have
Bow? peroxide and saline. accepted their stoma?
613. Can cleft lip /palate Yes 627. By what day post-op should By the 3rd to 4th day, they
babies sleep on their the client begin to take care should be looking at it and
backs? of their own stoma? asking questions by day 2.
628. The MORE colon is removed the Liquid 638. What does right sided Right ventricle has
more _________ the stool. CHF mean? decompensated
629. What technique is used to remove Colostomy irrigation
Dependent Edema (legs and
feces and flatus from the bowel
sacrum)
through a colostomy?
Jugular venous distention
630. How many times per day will the Once Abdominal distention
client irrigate his colostomy? Hepatomegaly
631. Which solution is used to irrigate a Tap water Splenomegaly
colostomy? Anorexia and nausea
Weight gain
632. How warm should the irrigation Warmer than body
Nocturnal diuresis
solution be? temperature, ie, 99-
Swelling of the fingers and hands
100F
Increased BP
633. In what position should the client Sitting
639. What does left sided Left ventricle has
be when they irrigate their
CHF mean? decompensated
colostomy?
640. CHF can result from MI. True
634. Illeostomy liquid stool
(T/F)
odor mild
stool very damaging 641. When cardiac output Ventricle hypertrophy
to the skin fails, name three ways Dilate and heart rate will increase
continuous drainage the heart will try to
high risk for compensate.
fluid/electrolyte 642. What is meant by It means that the compensatory
imbalances "cardiac mechanisms - hypertrophy,
incontinent decompensation"? dilation, tachycardia are not
never irrigate working and the heart has failed.
635. Transverse Colostomy soft stool 643. Name the three groups Diuretics
typical stool odor of drugs used to treat Vasodilators
stool damages the CHF? Digitalis
skin
644. What is the activity Bed Rest
empties several times
order for clients with
per day
CHF?
may or may not be at
risk for 645. What special item do TED hose
fluid/electrolytes clients with CHF have to
imbalances wear to decrease venous
may irrigate stasis in the legs?
636. Descending Colostomy formed stool 646. How often should anti- Daily
typical stool odor embolism hose (TED) be
stool doesn't irrigate removed?
unless diarrhea 647. When during the day Before the client gets out of bed
predictable 2 to 3
should TED hose be
times per day
applied?
emptying
lowest risk for 648. Is it okay to use powder Yes
fluid/electrolyte with TED hose?
imbalances 649. Should you massage the Never
continent calves of the client with
do irrigate CHF?
637. CHF can be right-sided, left sided True- left sided 650. Before you give digitalis, Measure the apical pulse
or both-sided. (T/F) usually comes FIRST what action must you
take?
651. If the adult client's apical pulse is Do not give 666. Can you use alcohol on the No, it dries and cracks it
below 60, what should you do? digitalis earmold of a hearing aid?
For a child don't 667. The connecting tube of a A pipe cleaner
give for a pulse
hearing aid can be cleansed
under 70
with__________.
For an infant
don't give for a 668. What is the most common Corneal ulceration
pulse under 90 complication of malpositioned
lenses in the comatose or
652. What daily measurement best Daily weight
confused patient?
indicates the amount of fluid the
client is retaining? 669. 1 kg 1000 cc

653. Should clients with CHF have a Foley Yes, on diuretics 670. 1 inch 2.5 cm
catheter? and fluid balance 671. 1 ml 1 cc
is important
672. 1 tsp 4 to 5 cc
654. What complication is common in Pulmonary
673. 1g 1000 mg
CHF? edema
674. 1L 1000 cc
655. When the client is taking diuretics, Potassium--K+
what mineral is the CHF client most 675. 1 oz 30 cc
likely to lose? 676. 1 kg 2.2 lbs
656. You should tell the client with CHF to Three 677. 1 tbs 15 cc
immediately report to his/her doctor
if he/she gains _____pounds in one
678. 1 tbs 3 tsp
week. 679. 1 gm 15 gr
657. Name the four most common toxic Anorexia 680. 1 gr 60 mg
effects of digitalis. N&V-- very
681. Cushings syndrome is __________ Oversecretion;
common
secretion of _______, _______ and glucocorticoids,
Yellow vision
_______ _______ by the _______ mineralocorticoids,
Arrythmia
_______. androgenic hormones;
658. Should hearing aids be removed Yes, but just adrenal gland
before going for surgery? before surgery
682. In Cushings the blood sugar is Increased
659. Hearing aids are more useful in Conductive (increased/decreased).
sensory or conductive hearing loss?
683. In Cushings the sodium level is Increased
660. Some women experience discomfort True (increased/decreased)
when wearing contact lenses during
684. In Cushings syndrome, the Moon
pregnancy or menstrual periods. (T/F)
client develops __________ face.
661. Should a client sleep with the hearing No, a client should
685. In Cushings syndrome, the Obese, thin
aide in place? not sleep with a
trunk is ________ and the
hearing aide in
extremities are _________.
place.
686. What is seen on the abdomen Striae--purple horizontal
662. What the two most common causes of Loose earmold
of the patient with Cushings? lines
whistling and squealing of a hearing Low battery
aid? 687. Men with Cushings Gynecomastia
develop______________.
663. What solution should be used to clean Soap and water
a hearing aid? 688. What is gynecomastia? Female-type breasts

664. What solution is best to use if you Sterile saline 689. Women with Cushings Hirsutism
intend to remove a client's contact develop? Amenorrhea
lenses? 690. What is hirsuitism? Hair where you don't
665. Hearing aids make sounds more False, they only want it
distinct and clear. (T/F) amplify--make it 691. The Cushings syndrome patient Buffalo hump
louder, they do will have a _________ on their
not clarify upper back.
692. The patient with Cushings
Syndrome will have
(increased/decreased) blood
pressure.
693. The Cushings syndrome patient
will have ________ natremia,
_________kalemia and
_______glycemia.
694. Cushings clients will have
(increased/decreased) resistance
to infection.
695. Chronic _____________therapy
imitates Cushings.
696. Cushings Man aka Cush Man
697. Is CF hereditary?
698. What glands are affected in CF?
699. What is the appearance of the
stool in a client with CF?
remember the 4 Fs
700. What are the top 2 nursing
diagnoses for a client with CF?
701. What is the classic test for CF?
702. In which two systems/organs are
the most problems in CF?
703. How does the client evaluate the
activity of their pancreas?
704. What is the typical diet for CF
client?
705. The major problem in CF is
_______________.
Increased, remember 706. The most common Postural drainage
retaining water and intervention for the CF client
sodium with a diagnosis of decreased
airway clearance is
_________________.
Hyper; hypo; hyper
707. What vitamins need to be Fat soluble in water soluble
replaced in CF? form -- A,D,E,K
708. What do CF clients need to do Take NaCl tablets
Decreased (ingest) in hot weather?
709. The child with the diagnosis Meconium ileus-- bowel
of CF probably had a history obstruction due to the
Steroid of _________ ________ at birth. thickness of the stool.
710. Why is the child with CF They are enzymes which
moon face with infection receiving aid absorption of
buffalo hump on back pancreas/viokase/pancreatin? nutrients.
big trunk 711. When should the child with With meals, so it is in the
thin extremities
CF take his gut while the food is
loses potassium
pancreatin/viokase/pancreas? present, the whole
keeps glucose and salt
purpose is to increase
has striations on
absorption of ingested
abdomen and breasts
food.
Yes 712. Define Cystoscopy? Direct visualization of the
Exocrine glands urethra and bladder
through a cystoscope.
Fat
Frothy 713. What would you do if the Record it but no need to
Foul-smelling client had any one of the call the MD
Floating following after cystoscopy:
Steatorrhea bladder spasm, burning,
frequency?
Decreased airway
clearance Alteration in 714. What would you do if the Record it in the notes, no
nutrition or absorption client's urine was pink-tinged need to call the MD.
after cystoscopy?
Iontophoresis - sweat
test 715. Is the client NPO before No, not unless a child with
cystoscopy? a general anesthetic-- in
Lungs
fact with adults you should
Pancreas
encourage fluids.
Observe stools for
716. Are enemas required before No, but may be ordered.
steatorrhea
cystoscopy?
High calorie
717. Should you encourage fluids yes
High protein
after cystoscopy?
Modified fat
718. Is a signed informed consent Yes
Increased viscosity of
required for cystoscopy?
the secretions of
exocrine glands lead to 719. What vital sign changes are A fall in the blood pressure
obstruction. most ominous after and increase in the pulse--
cystoscopy? increasing hemorrhage
720. Is the client sedated for a It is done under LOCAL
cystoscopy? anesthesia. General
anesthesia may be used
for a child.
721. What drugs are Valium or demerol 724. Third Trimester Developmental Task: preparing
most commonly realistically for birth and
given before parenting (I am going to be a
cystoscopy? mother.)
722. First Trimester Developmental Task: Accepting fact of
Pregnant women fear possible
pregnancy (I am pregnant)
defects in the baby
Pregnant women fears labor and
leukorrhea (normal with vaginal
delivery - possible mutilation,
secretions)
pain, loss of control
nasal stuffiness
urinary frequency begins
SOB and dyspnea
fatigue
urinary frequency returns
epistaxis (nose bleeds)
insomnia
N/V
Braxton-Hicks contractions
breast changes (tenderness--
ankle edema (non-pitting)
pain,tingling,fullness)
leg cramps
ptyalism (perceived in salivation)
perineal pressure
gingivitis
725. Other Discomforts and Mood swings - common
723. Second Trimester Developmental Task: Accepting
Dangers in Pregnancy throughout pregnancy
growign fetus as distinct from self and
Ambivalence (mixed feelings
as a person to nurture (I am going to
regarding pregnancy, labor and
have a baby)
delivery, parenting, etc.)
Spider nevi appear on neck,
heartburn
thorax, face,arms - 2nd or 3rd
striae gravidarum
trimester
linea nigra
urinary frequency lessens 726. Danger Signs Severe headaches
pruritis Urinary tract infection (may lead
joint pain and joint mobility to infection of fetal membranes
pelvic pressure and premature labor)
pigmentation deepens (areola, vulva) Epigastric pain (signals impeding
palmar erythema convulsion [pre-eclamptic])
chloasma "mask of pregnancy" (begins Severe abdominal pain
after week 16 and until delivery) Seizures
supine hypotension Decreased fetal movements or
hemorrhoids absent fetal movements
backache (movements first felt around 16 to
varicose veins appear 20, any change of pattern or
round ligament pain abrupt cessation of fetal
caparl tunnel syndrome movement is ominous)
oily skin and acne Blurry vision (sign of pre-
constipation eclampsia)
palpitations Vaginal bleeding
headaches Persistent, severe vomiting (can
faintness lead to dehydration and
food cravings electrolyte imbalance)
pica (craving no-food items such as Edema of face or fingers (possible
starch, dirt, clay) hypertension, pre-eclampsia)
727. The goal of nursing Control, control
intervention in the care
of the violent client is
to prevent loss of
__________ or to restore
_________.
728. Use of alcohol and/or drugs
(decreases/increases) risk of
violent behavior.
729. Pacing can be a warning
sign of potential violence.
(T/F)
730. If the client is not yet out of
control, what is the #1
strategy to treat beginning
violence?
731. When a client is becoming
violent you should move in
close to them to provide a
sense of security. (T/F)
732. When approaching a violent
client the first thing you say
is....
733. After identifying yourself
what do you say to the
client next?
734. When the client is having an
overt violent outburst you
should NEVER be alone with
them. (T/F)
735. When you seek assistance to
deal with the violent client,
you should obtain_________
personnel.
736. Should you ever ask the
family or other patients to
help you physically
overcome a violent client?
737. When a client is overtly and
actively violent, they are
given a chance to calm
down themselves before
being subdued. (T/F)
738. To promote efficient and
safe accomplishment of
physically-controlling a
violent client it is extremely
important that...
739. When a client is losing
control it is very frightening
to them if the nurse
shows________.
740. The best staff approach to
control impulsive
outbreaks of violence is....
Increases
True, as in any other form of
increased motor activity
Decrease environmental
stimuli
False, allow them space or
else they can get worse
My name is ___________ and I
am a nurse.
What you are going to do
and ask if these are any
questions.
True
Trained
Never
True, once enough trained
personnel are present the
client is told that if they don't
control themselves they will
be controlled by us
Only one person talk during
the procedure
Fear
Setting limits and doing it
consistently
741. Purpose of defense Anxiety
mechanism is to reduce
__________.
742. When a person is Denial
consciously choosing to
disbelieve the truth, they
are using _________.
743. Defense mechanisms are False, in fact defense
always unhealthy. (T/F) mechanisms are often and most
always healthy because they
reduce anxiety.
744. When a patient hates Reaction formation -- you form
someone but then the opposite reaction, ie, you
expresses the opposite love a person and that makes
emotion, it is you anxious so you form the
called_____________. opposite reaction and you
ignore them
745. When an angry patient Projection
says "I am not mad, he
is..."; they are
using________.
746. When a person is Repression
unconsciously choosing
to disbelieve the truth,
they are using___________.
747. When the patient makes Rationalizing
an excuse about
something bad that
happened, they
are_______.
748. When a patient becomes Regression
demanding and self-
centered and attention-
seeking, the defense
mechanism used is
_________.
749. Defense mechanisms are True, they all involve self-
ways to lie to yourself. deception.
(T/F)
750. When a patient tells all Intellectualization
kinds of details about
very upsetting events but
acts very cool and calm,
they are using ___________.
751. When a patient expresses Displacement
their emotions toward
another object they are
using_________.
752. The defense mechanism Repression
most suspected of
causing psychosomatic
illness is ___________.
753. What is the most important Bedrest 771. Which are the first teeth to erupt? Lower central incisors
thing to do immediately when 772. When does infant's teeth first 4 to 6 months
retinal detachment is
erupt?
suspected?
773. What age can infant follow an 2 months
754. Define detached retina Separation of the retina
object with its head?
from the back of the eye--
the choroid 774. What age are children first afraid of 6 to 7 months
strangers?
755. What is the most common Hemorrhage
complication of retinal 775. What age does an infant walk 14 to 15 months
reattachment? alone?

756. What group of drugs are given Tranquilizers 776. What age does an infant have a 12 to 13 months
to people with retinal pincer grasp?
detachment? 777. What age can an infant roll over? 4 to 5 months
757. What is the most common A veil or curtain in the line 778. What age can an infant sit up 6 to 8 months
visual defect with retinal of sight unassisted?
detachment?
779. What age does an infant stand 12 to 13 months
758. Give three common causes of Trauma alone?
retinal detachment? Aging
780. What age does an infant crawl? 8 to 9 months
Cataract surgery
781. What age does an infant walk 10 to 11 months
759. Does the client always need No, lasers can be used, as
holding onto furniture?
surgery for retinal can freezing probes
detachment? 782. What visual experiences will Yellow/green halos
patients with digitalis toxicity around lights
760. Will the clients eyes be Both will be, also before
have?
bandaged after retinal surgery? surgery as well
783. The signs of lithium toxicity are Tremors, nausea and
761. Can the client return to work Not for 3 weeks-- and may
_______ (muscle symptom),______ vomiting
after retinal surgery? not be able to go back
_______ (abdominal symptom) and
active jobs 6 to 8 weeks
thirst.
after that
784. Lithium carbonate is given for Bipolar (manic-
762. What environmental change is Dimmed lighting
__________ disorder. depressive)
most appropriate for clients
after retinal reattachment? 785. When a patient is on lithium you Sodium
must watch for a decrease in
763. What are the two non-surgical Laser surgery (photo
_____________.
treatments done for retinal coagulation) Cryosurgery
detachment? (freezing) 786. Theophylline is a broncho-_________ Dilator, asthma
used to treat _________.
764. Give two odd visual sensations Flashes of light
that these clients with retinal Floaters 787. Digitalis toxicity exists when blood 2.0 ng/dl
detachment have. levels exceeds __________.
765. Name a surgical procedure Scleral buckling 788. The earliest sign of digitalis toxicity Nausea and vomiting
done for retinal detachment. is..... with headache

766. When does anterior fontanel 18 to 24 months 789. Is theophylline toxicity life- Yes
close? threatening?
767. Infant's birth-weight should Double 790. Lithium toxicity occurs when 2.0
________ in 6 months. blood levels are higher than _______
mEq/L.
768. Infants birthweight should Triple
________ in one year. 791. The signs of theophylline toxicity Nausea and vomiting
are _________ (GI), ________ (heart), (coffee ground
769. Infant's respiratory rate is 30 to 60
and ________ (muscle). emesis), tachycardia,
_________ to __________ breaths
tremors
per minute.
792. What is the therapeutic blood level 10 to 20
770. Infant's HR is _________ to 110-160
of theophylline?
__________ per minute
793. Digitalis is a cardiac ________,
used to _________ the
contraction of cardiac
muscle.
794. Theophylline toxicity exists
when the blood level is
above________.
795. Ectopic pregnancy is
implantation of a fertilized
ovum ________ the _________.
796. The most common site for
ectopic pregnancy is in the
_________ __________.
797. Have intrauterine devices to
prevent pregnancy ever been
linked to ectopic pregnancy?
798. What is the most common
sign of fallopian tube ectopic
pregnancy?
799. What is the most dangerous
side effect/complication of
fallopian ectopic pregnancy?
800. If the fallopian tube ruptures
due to ectopic pregnancy,
nursing care is the same as
that for___________.
801. The uterus feels _______ after
rupture of a fallopian ectopic
pregnancy?
802. The first sign that a fallopian
ectopic pregnancy had
ruptured is...
803. Ectopic pregnancy is
(usually/almost never)
carried to term.
804. The most common medical-
surgical treatment for
ectopic pregnancy
is___________.
805. Name the surgery performed
for an ectopic pregnancy.
806. What is ECT?
807. The client is (awake/under
local anesthesia/under
general anesthesia) during
ECT?
Glycoside, increase
20
Outside, uterus
Fallopian tube - 90%
Yes and so have pelvic
infections.
Unilateral pelvic pain
Rupture of the fallopian
tube
Shock and peritonitis
Boggy- tender, also
Sharp abdominal pain
Almost never
Surgical removal of fetus
and some surrounding
tissue
Exploratory laparotomy
The use of electrical shock
current delivered to the
brain to induce a seizure
that treats depression.
Under general anesthesia -
- must be artificially
ventilated
808. What conditions does ECT
treat?
809. Is an informed consent
necessary for ECT?
810. Name the three most
common complications
of ECT?
811. What class of drugs is
given with ECT?
812. What intellectual ability is
impaired after ECT?
813. How long will a client's
memory be impaired after
ECT?
814. Immediately after ECT,
how will the client
normally act?
815. In what position should
the client be immediately
after ECT?
816. What typical pre-
operative type of orders
will be ordered before
ECT?
817. The convulsion (seizure)
that the electrical current
produced is violent. (T/F)
818. What does an EEG
measure?
819. When are there activity
restrictions after an EEG?
820. Should the client wash his
hair before an EEG?
821. What would you tell a
client who says what if I
get shocked during my
EEG?
822. Does a client have to be
NPO before an EEG?
823. What instructions are
MOST important to give a
client during an EEG?
824. What should the client do
after an EEG?
825. Should sedatives be given
before an EEG?
Depression primarily
Yes
Aspiration of emesis (most
common) into the lung
Dislocations of joints
Fractures due to convulsion--
rare today
Muscle relaxant --
succinylcholine
Memory
2 to 3 weeks
Drowsy
Dull
Apathetic
On their side-- to prevent
aspiration
NPO after midnight
Remove dentures
Client to void before surgery
Side rails up
False, it used to be, but it isn't
any more with the use of
muscle relaxants
Measures electrical activity
generated by the brain
ONLY when sedatives are
used, and then it's only
necessary to keep side rails up.
Yes
That is impossible since the test
measures electrical activity
coming FROM him, never to
him.
No, they should never be NPO,
it could cause hypoglycemia
and alter the EEG results.
Try not to move
Wash their hair
Only if ordered as a pre-test
medication.
826. How much sleep should the At least 4 to 5 hours-- 844. In emphysema, the appetite________ Decreases,
client get the night before an unless it is a sleep the weight ______ and the anterior- decreases,
EEG? deprivation EEG post diameter of the chest________. increases
827. Do you need a signed informed No 845. What is the increase in anterior- Barrel chest
consent for an EEG? posterior diameter of emphysema
called?
828. Should caffeine be limited Yes. It should be
before an EEG? eliminated for 24 hours 846. The person with emphysema have Grunting, pursed,
before the test. ________, _______lips and (slow/rapid) rapid
breathing.
829. What will excessively fatty stool Large, pale, foul smelling,
be like? greasy 847. What dietary prescription is most Frequent small
appropriate for the client with meals to prevent
830. What are the large, pale, foul Steatorrhea
emphysema? tiring
smelling, greasy stools called?
848. What fluid order should the 3 liters of fluid per
831. Name the three types of Roundworm
emphysema client have? day (this is an
parasites abnormally found in Tapeworm
increase)
stool. Pinworm
849. The client with emphysema is Cyanotic
832. What does occult blood in the Bleeding somewhere in
(ruddy/pale/cyanotic).
feces mean? the GI tract
850. Hyperthyroid (High metabolism) Graves Disease
833. Are fats a normal constituent of Yes but it should be WNL
feces? 851. High growth hormone in a child Gigantism
(give another name)
834. A decrease in urobilin in stool Clay-colored
results in stool that is______ 852. Over secretion of mineralcorticoids Conn's disease
________. only (give another name)
835. Name two things for which Occult blood, fat, ova 853. Low growth hormone (give another Pituitary dwarfism
stool specimens are tested. and parasites name)
836. Is blood a normal constituent of No 854. High growth hormone in an adult. Acromegaly
feces? 855. Under-secretion of adrenal cortex Addison's disease
837. What is melena? A black, tarry stool 856. Hypothyroidism in an adult. Myxedema
indicating a GI bleed
857. Over secretion of adrenal cortex Cushing's
838. What position is best for clients Semi-fowlers or higher
syndrome
with emphysema under normal
circumstances? 858. Over secretion of adrenal medulla Pheochromocytoma

839. What flow rates of O2 are Low flow -- <2.5 L/min; 859. Hypothyroid in a child Cretinism
appropriate for the client with never exceed 2.5L in 860. Oversecretion of ACTH Cushing's disease
emphysema? COPD
861. What is endometriosis? Growth of
840. If a client with emphysema has a Sitting upright with arms endometrial tissue
severe dyspneic episode what folded on the overbed outside of uterus
position is best? table
862. Endometriosis most commonly 25 to 40
841. What will you observe on the Clubbing of the occurs in women between ages of
hands of the client with fingernail beds ______ and ________.
emphysema?
863. After menopause, endometriosis Decreases
842. In emphysema, the alveoli are Over-enlarged, under- (decreases/increases).
over-_____ and under-______. ventilated so that air is
864. What is the MOST common side Dysmenorrhea
trapped in alveoli
effect of endometriosis? (painful
843. The development of Smoking menstruation)
emphysema is most associated
865. What is the major complication of Infertility
with a history of ___________.
endometriosis?
866. What diagnostic procedure confirms Laparoscopy
the diagnosis of endometriosis?
867. What class of drugs is used to Androgens 884. What is recommended All children two months and over
conservatively treat for the prevention of should receive an H. influenza B
endometriosis? epiglottitis? vaccine.
868. Which androgen drug is most Danazol 885. Autonomy vs Shame Toddler
commonly used to treat and Doubt
endometriosis? 886. Industry vs Inferiority School Age
869. Women with endometriosis Pads only 887. 18 to 25 years Young Adult
should be counseled to use
(tampons/pads) during 888. Says "no" Toddler
menstruation? 889. Encourage creativity School Age
870. Will client die of Not life-threatening and collecting things
endometriosis? What would 890. Give choices Toddler
you say?
891. Centers on having basic Infancy
871. What advice is best for Do not postpone needs met
women with endometriosis pregnancy, may not be
892. 18 months to 3 years Toddler
who want to have children? able to have children
893. 3 to 6 years Pre-schooler
872. What is the #1 danger of Airway obstruction
epiglottitis? 894. 12 to 20 years Adolescent
873. Epiglottitis most commonly 1 to 8 years 895. Initiative vs Guilt Pre-schooler
occurs in children from age 896. 6 to 12 years School age
________ to ______.
897. Trust vs Mistrust Infancy
874. What organism causes Hemophilus influenza B
epiglottitis?
898. Peer group important Adolescent

875. What level of fever is present Over 102 degrees

899. Encourage fantasy Pre-schooler
in epiglottitis? 900. Identity vs Role Adolescent
876. What symptoms are classic Muffled voice confrontation
epiglottitis? Drooling 901. Intimacy vs Isolation Young adult
Stridor
902. Birth to 18 months Infancy
877. Will a child with epiglottitis No, there will be a lack of
903. Define EGD Insertion of a fiber optic scope to
cough? spontaneous cough.
visualize the esophagus, stomach
878. How will the child with Leaned forward with and duodenum
epiglottitis breathe? flaring nostrils
904. What can be done Remove polyps
879. If a child is suspected of No, never put any during an EGD besides Take specimens
having epiglottitis, should instrument in the child's visualization? Coagulate bleeding vessels
you put a tongue depressor in mouth unless you are
905. Can EGD be done on an No
their mouth to look? prepared to do an
uncooperative client?
immediate intubation.
906. Does client need to have Yes, until sedative effects of
880. Would you do a throat No, never put anything in
side rails up after EGD? valium have worn off
culture for a child with their mouth.
epiglottitis? 907. Can an EGD be done on Yes
clients with GI
881. If epiglottitis is suspected, To take the child to the ER
bleeding?
what should the parents be as soon as possible.
told? 908. Is the client sedated Yes, with valium (diazepam) or
before EGD? another sedative
882. What drug is used to fight Penicillin, ampicillin
epiglottitis? 909. What pre-test activities Remove dentures and
must be performed eyeglasses
883. Children with epiglottitis Restlessness
before the EGD? Sign consent
often need a tracheotomy. Increased HR
NPO after midnight
What behavior would Retractions
indicate the need for a
tracheotomy?
910. When can an EGD client
begin to eat after the test?
911. Is an EGD a fasting
procedure?
912. What drug is given to
anesthetize the pharynx?
913. What are the
complications of EGD?
914. What two discomforts are
common during an EGD?
915. What is the most
dangerous complication
of EGD?
916. What is the most common
complaint after an EGD?
917. Carbonic Anhydrase
Inhibitors
When gagg reflex returns
(knocked out with xylocaine)
Yes, after midnight
Xylocaine (a local anesthetic)
Perforation of gut
Aspiration secondary to
emesis Respiratory arrest (due
to valium)
Vomiting
Gagging
Secondary respiratory arrest
(valium)
Sore throat
Treat glaucoma
Decreases aqueous humor
production
Diuresis
925. What do mydriatics do for Dilate the pupil (My
the eye? "D"riatic "D" for dilate)
926. What do miotics do for the Constrict the pupil
eye?
927. Name one mydriatic Neo synephrine or
Atropine
928. What do anticholinergics do Dilate the pupil
for the eye? Cycloplegia
Paralyzes accommodation
929. What is cycloplegia? Paralysis of the iris/pupil
930. Which two of these classes of Mydriatics
drugs cause tachycardia? Anticholinergics
(sympathetic effects)
931. What is the most common To cause cycloplegia
use for anticholinergics in Dilation
the eye? Allowing eye exam
932. How should eye ointments Placed on the lower inner
be given? eye lid, then have client
close eyes
933. Name two anticholinergics Cyclogel, atropine
used in the eye.

Diamox is an example 934. Name one carbonic Diamox

anhydrase inhibitor
918. Anticholinergic Dilates pupils
Causes photophobia 935. How should the eye drops be Place drops into the lower
Used preoperatively for given? conjunctival sac
cataract removal 936. How is the flow of eye From inner canthus to
Don't use in glaucoma irrigational fluid directed? outer canthus
937. Name two miotics Pilocarpine, Timpotic (or
Atropine is an example
any drug ending in -lol)
919. Miotic Constricts pupil; Timoptic
938. Define nuclear family A family of parents and
their offspring
Pilocarpine are examples
939. When does a nuclear family When aunts or uncles or
920. Mydriatic Tachycardia
become an extended family? grandparents live with the
Photophobia
family
Dilates pupil
Do not use in glaucoma 940. In America, the family is the True
basic unit of society. (T/F)
Neo-synephrine is an example 941. Give the 2 major roles of the To protect and socialize
921. What do carbonic Decrease production of family in society
anhydrase inhibitors do to aqueous humor and thus 942. What percentage of North 50%
the eye? decrease intraocular pressure. American families are single-
922. Name the most common Diuresis parent?
side effect of carbonic 943. 90% of single-parent families Female
anhydrase inhibitors? are headed by a ___________.
923. Which two groups of these Mydriatics
drugs cause photophobia? Anticholinergics
924. Which of these classes of Miotics
drugs causes contact
dermatitis?
944. In what step of the nursing process Assessment phase 965. What precautions should the No intercourse while
does the nurse ask the family about person with herpes take in vesicles are evident
their beliefs on illness? regard to sexual intercourse?
945. What is the first thing a nurse must Nurse must first 966. When is C-section delivery If the vesicles are
do to help families in crisis? examine her own indicated if the mother is present, then C-section
values infected with herpes? is indicated
946. Increasing dietary fiber lowers the Cancer, colon 967. How long will it take for the 2 to 4 weeks
risk of ___________ of the __________. vesicles to heal?
947. Foods lose some or all of their fiber Processed, cooked, 968. Glaucoma is an eye disorder in Increased, anterior
when they are ___________. peeled, refined which there is ____________
___________,____________ or__________. intraocular pressure in the
___________ chamber.
948. Whole grains and grain products High
are (high/low) in fiber. 969. The increase in pressure is due to Aqueous
an imbalance in the formation
949. Fruits are (high/low) in fiber. High
and drainage of __________ humor
950. Veggies are (high/low) in fiber. High from the anterior chamber.
951. Milk and milk products are Low 970. Glaucoma affects (one/both) Both (it is a bilateral
(high/low) in fiber. eyes, usually. disease)
952. Meats are (high/low) in fiber. Low 971. The most common visual field Central vision (loss of
953. Nuts, seeds, and legumes are Low defect in glaucoma is loss of peripheral vision--also
(high/low) in fiber. _________. called tunnel vision)

954. Which has highest fiber? Grains, Grains, especially 972. What are the two types of Open-angle, closed
fruits, veggies, nuts. bran glaucoma? angle

955. When a person increases fiber in Slowly 973. Which one is the typical type and Open angle--90% of all
the diet they should do the one you should know well? cases
so____________. 974. Open-angle glaucoma is seen Later
956. Side effects of a high fiber diet Gas (flatus), minerals most commonly in
include__________ and ____________life.
malabsorption of ____________. 975. Open angle glaucoma is Open is painless; closed
957. Of milled bread, enriched bread, Whole grain (painless/painful); whereas is painful
fortified bread and whole grain closed angle is (painless/painful).
bread; which is highest in fiber? 976. What drugs (class) are given to Miotics -- these constrict
958. What type of herpes virus causes Herpes simplex II treat glaucoma? the pupil (remember:
genital herpes? in glaucoma DO NOT
DILATE the pupil)
959. Name the two most common ways Sexual
genial herpes is transmitted? intercourse/contact; 977. Name two miotics. Pilocarpine
through birth Timoptic

960. How long is the incubation period 3 to 7 days (about the

(any drug ending in -
of genital herpes? same for gonorrhea)
lol)
961. What do lesions of herpes look Fluid filled vesicles
978. Why is diamox given to glaucoma It is a diuretic that
like?
patients? decreases aqueous
962. What are the two most common On the genitals and humor production thus
sites for herpes? the mouth lowering intraocular
963. What drug is used to treat herpes? Acyclovir (or pressure.
Gancyclovir, 979. What type of drugs are ANY drug that DILATES
Famciclovir, contraindicated for glaucoma the pupils are BAD (i.e.
Penciclovir, patients? mydriatics)
Valacyclovir)
980. Can surgery be done for Yes
964. The client should keep the lesions Dry glaucoma?
(dry/moist)
981. What do you do if the patient
complaints of severe ocular pain
after surgery?
982. Gonorrhea is the most common
venereal disease next to
chlamydia. (T/F)
983. Gonorrhea can infect the eyes.
(T/F)
984. Gonorrhea can lead to sterility.
(T/F)
985. Gonorrhea occurs most
commonly in people ________ to
_________ years of age.
986. The almost exclusive way
gonorrhea is transmitted to an
infant's eye is through
_____________.
987. What is the name for the
gonorrhea conjunctivitis that
neonates get during birth?
988. In males, what is the most
common sign of gonorrheal
infection?
989. How long is the incubation
period of gonorrhea?
990. Which sex is most likely to be
asymptomatic with gonorrhea?
991. What is the most common
symptom of gonorrhea in
females?
992. When does the purulent
discharge of opthalmia
neonatorum begin?
993. What is the most serious
complication of opthalmia
neonatorum?
994. Gonnorrhea is caused by a gram
(negative/positive) organism?
995. The drug of choice for gonorrhea
is __________.
996. Why is probenecid given before
administration of penicillin?
997. How is the penicillin given (what
route)?
Call the MD-- 998. What is pelvic inflammatory Infection of the
hemorrhage into eye is disease? reproductive tract in the
most likely female, usually but not
always an advanced
True
stage of gonorrheal
infection.
999. How is pelvic inflammatory By IV penicillin
True
disease treated?
1000. In what position should a Semi- to high- fowlers to
True, in women
patient with pelvic keep the infection in the
inflammatory disease be pelvis
19 to 35 positioned?
1001. What drug is given to neonate Erythromycin or
to prevent gonorrheal tetracycline drops in eyes
The birth process, from conjunctivitis?
mother to infant eyes
1002. The sequence of growth and True
development is predictable.
(T/F)
Ophthalmia
1003. The rate of growth and False, it goes in spurts
Neonatorum
development is even. (T/F) and is often very uneven.
1004. Growth and development is a False
Dysuria or purulent
pediatric concern only. (T/F)
discharge
1005. Heredity determines most True
development. (T/F)
2 to 3 weeks
1006. Environment determines True
most development. (T/F)
Women
1007. The rate a person grows and False, the sequence is
develops is predictable. (T/F) more predictable than
Greenish-yellow
rate.
discharge from the
vagina 1008. Heredity has no influence on False, it is a secondary
development. (T/F) influence (it is not the
2 to 3 days after birth
primary influence--
environment is)
1009. The heart is a (fast/slow) Slow
Blindness
growing organ.
1010. Which component of growth Sequence
and development is
Negative
predictable: time of onset,
length or stage, effect of stage
Penicillin - If resistant and sequence of stage?
organism, Ciprofloxacin
1011. What is meant by the phrase-- Growth and
To prevent the growth and development is development starts with
excretion of penicillin cephalocaudal? the head and moves to
and thereby prolong its the extremities.
action
1012. Growth and development Proximal, distal
IM occurs first in __________ body
parts and progresses to
_________ body parts.
1013. In which phrase is rate and Infancy 1029. What is the most aggressive Plasma phoresis-- to
growth most rapid--infancy medical therapy for GBS? remove antibodies
or adolescence? fromt the blood.
1014. The proportion of the body Falls, in infants is 70% 1030. What information does the The amount of body
that is water (rises/falls) with water and adult is 58%. measurement of skin fold fat
age? thickness yield?
1015. An infant's stomach is Less 1031. In general, males have a higher True
(more/less) acid than adults. risk of heart disease than
females. (T/F)
1016. Lymphoid tissue mass grows False, it decreases in mass
steadily throughout life. (T/F) after adolescence 1032. Post-menopausal females have a False. They have a
lower risk of heart disease than higher risk.
1017. An adult's height begins to 30
males aged 25-40. (T/F)
decline after the average age
of__________. 1033. Family history of diabetes True
increases the risk fo heart
1018. The brain is fully mature in False, but by end of the
disease. (T/F)
size at birth. (T/F) first year of life you will
have all the brain cells you 1034. Family history of liver disease False
will ever have increases the risk of heart
disease. (T/F)
1019. By what age do most children End of the 2nd year of life.
have all their deciduous 1035. Cigarette smoking increases the True
teeth? risk of heart disease. (T/F)
1020. What is the #1 finding with Progressive ascending 1036. Oral contraceptives decrease the False, use increases
Guillian-Barre? paralysis risk of heart disease. (T/F) the risk
1021. What causes the paralysis of Demyelination of 1037. Routine exercise decreases the True
GBS? peripheral nerves risk of heart disease. (T/F)
(unknown cause) 1038. What is done in a graft for A blood vessel is
1022. What kind of infection Viral hemodialysis? sutured between an
precedes Guillian-Barre? artery and a vein.
1023. The patient completely False, there are usually 1039. What is done in an AV fistual? A surgical anastomosis
recovers from Guillian-Barre. residual effects but they is made between the
(T/F) do recover most of what artery and a vein.
was lost. 1040. Does anything exit the skin in an No
1024. Recovery usually occurs 4 to 6 AV fistula?
within ______ to _____ months 1041. How long can an AV fistula be Indefinitely
for patients with Guillian
used?
Barre.
1042. Who is the most likely to receive People with diabetes
1025. What is the first symptom of Clumsiness in ambulation
a graft for dialysis? mellitus.
Guillian-Barre? (function in legs and feet is
lost first. ) 1043. How often do clients with renal 3 times per week
failure undergo dialysis?
1026. What is the biggest danger of Respiratory arrest
Guillian-Barre? secondary to 1044. Is hemodialysis short term or Both- but most short
diaphragmatic paralysis long term? term dialysis is
achieved by
1027. In the acute phase of Motor function of all
hemodialysis
Guillian-Barre, it is very muscles (especially the
important to assess _______ diaphragm) 1045. How long does the average 4 to 6 hours
_________ every 2 hours. dialysis last?

1028. Before feeding in a patient Check the gag reflex 1046. What are 3 ways to gain access to AV shunt
with Guillian-Barre you the circulation in hemodialysis? AV fistula
must_________. AV graft
1047. What is the most common site Radial artery to radial
for an AV shunt? vein
1048. What should be avoided in the arm No venipuncture 1064. Which of these Petechiae
of the client with an AV shunt? or blood pressure symptoms are NOT seen
allowed in the arm in hemophilia?
with a shunt, graft Prolonged bleeding,
or fistula. petechiae, ecchymosis or
hematoma?
1049. What syndrome results when too Disequilibrium
much fluid is exchanged during syndrome 1065. Hepatitis is an _____, ______ Acute, inflammatory, liver
hemodialysis too quickly? disease of the _______.
1050. What are the symptoms of Change in LOC 1066. Hepatitis A,B,C and D are Viral
disequilibrium syndrome? N/V all (bacterial/viral)
Headache diseases.
Twitching 1067. An early sign of hepatitis Anorexia or fatigue
1051. Does anything exit the skin in an AV Yes, the plastic A is ________.
shunt? tube that connects 1068. Early stage hepatitis Flu
the artery and vein
often looks like the
outside the arm
_______.
1052. How long can AV shunt be used? Just for a few weeks 1069. In later stages of Urine
1053. Hemophilia is a ___________ disorder. Bleeding hepatitis, the ______ turns
dark.
1054. Hemophilia A is a deficiency of VIII
Factor # __________. 1070. What does pre-icteric The stage BEFORE the patient
mean? exhibits jaundice.
1055. During an acute bleeding episode, Pressure, ice
you should apply________ for 15 1071. What is the icteric stage? When the patient exhibits
minutes and apply________. jaundice.
1056. The inheritance patterns for Sex linked 1072. What skin symptoms do Pruritis (itching)
hemophilia is: recessive you see in hepatitis? Jaundice (Both are due to
(Give 2) bilirubin accumulation)
1057. In hemophilia, the PTT is (up/down), Up (increased or
the coagulation or clotting time is longer) 1073. Which disease has more Hepatitis B
(up/down) and the platelet count is Up (increased or severe symptoms--
(up/down). longer) Hepatitis A or B?
Neither 1074. Patients with hepatitis Cigarettes
(hemophilia does
have an aversion to
not affect platelets)
_________.
1058. What does hemarthrosis mean? Bleeding into the 1075. In hepatitis the ________ Stools: remember the urine is
joints
are light colored. dark and stools are light.
1059. During bleeding into the joints you Immobilize to (Bilirubin ends up in the skin
should (mobilize/immobilize) the prevent dislodging and urine instead of the stool
extremity. the clots that do where it should have gone.)
form. 1076. What is the common Shingles
1060. To treat hemarthrosis you should Elevate, heart name for Herpes Zoster?
_______ the extremity above the 1077. What type of rash occurs A vesicular rash over the
__________.
with shingles? pathway of a sensory nerve
1061. What is the name of frozen factor Cryoprecipitate 1078. How long does it take for 30 days
VIII given to hemophiliacs?
shingles to heal?
1062. Once you have stopped the bleeding 48 hours 1079. Who is the most Pain, pain, Pain
into the joint, how long should the
common subjective
hemarthrosis patient wait before
symptoms of shingles?
bearing weight or doing range of
motion?
1063. What drug can you apply topically Epinephrine, or
to stop bleeding? topical fibrin foam
1080. What three drugs are Acyclovir (anti-infective)
given for shingles? Tegretol (anticonvulsant--given
to stabilize nerve cell
membranes) Steroids (anti-
inflammatory)
1081. What other disease is chickenpox
related to shingles?
1082. What organism causes Varicella--herpes zoster
shingles?
1083. What is the #1 nursing Alteration in comfort: pain, #2
diagnosis with shingles? Impaired skin integrity
1084. Hepatitis A Enteric precautions
Fecal/oral route of transmission
Incubates 3 to 5 weeks
Vaccine available (Can give
immune globulin after
exposure)
HAsAg (this is what the blood
test show) Hepatitis A surface
Antigen
1085. Hepatitis B Watch those needles
HBsAg (this is what blood tests
show) Hepatitis B surface
antigen
HBIG - vaccine
Vaccination available, can give
immune globulin after
exposure
Transmitted by blood and body
fluids
Incubates 5 to 35 weks
1086. Hepatitis C Watch those needles
Incubates 2 to 23 weeks
Transmitted by blood only
No vaccine, immune globulin
doesn't work
1087. Which types of client Diabetics, peripheral vascular
should have their disease, very thick nails
toenails trimmed only
by an MD?
1088. Two purposes of bed Cleanses the skin
bath are... Provides comfort
1089. The typical hospital Should
client (should/should
not) wear their
dentures.
1090. What type of movement Inner to outer canthus
should be used for
cleansing eyes?
1091. Before applying elastic Elevate the clients legs for 3 to 5
hose the nurse should... minutes to decrease venous
stasis
1092. Clients on what class of
drugs should use an elastic
razor?
1093. When a client is unable to
hold his dentures firmly in
his mouth, the nurse
should...
1094. How often should mouth
care be performed for
those clients on oxygen?
1095. Should lemon and
glycerine swabs be used to
cleanse the mouth?
1096. How should a client's
toenails be trimmed?
1097. Are nurses permitted to
give perineal care to clients
of the opposite sex?
1098. Clients on what type of
therapy must use a safety
blade razor (non electric)?
1099. How should a nurse carry
soiled linen?
1100. When giving a bed bath, on
which body party should
the nurse begin to work?
1101. Give three reasons for
giving a back rub.
1102. The greatest danger in
placing water in the mouth
of the unconscious patient
during oral hygiene is...
1103. When shaving a client,
water used should be more
(hot/cold) than bath
water?
1104. What does evening or hour
of sleep (HS) care consist
of?
1105. What is dentifrice?
1106. What is sordes?
Anticoagulants
(heparin/coumadin/lovenox)
Leave them out
Every 2 hours
No, they are not cleansing
agents. They are used AFTER
cleansing as a moistening
agent
Straight across
Yes, nurses are permitted to
give perineal care to clients
of the opposite sex.
Oxygen therapy, since an
electric razor could cause
sparks
In a neat bundle held away
from the body.
The eyes
Comfort
Stimulate circulation and
muscles
Relaxation
Aspiration
Hot
Oral hygiene
Washing face/hands
Back rub
Tightening linens
Agents which promote
adherence of dentures to
gums, ie, Polygrip
Crusts on the tongue and
gums due to improper oral
hygiene
1107. What action will facilitate the
trimming of brittle toenails?
1108. Should the client roll the
elastic stocking down to wash
legs? Why or why not?
1109. Elastic stockings should be
removed for the bath. (T/F)
1110. When should a patient put on
TED hose?
1111. Hyperemesis Gravidarum is
______ and ________ vomiting
that persists into the _____
trimester.
1112. Give three possible causes of
hyperemesis gravidarum.
1113. Has hyperemesis gravidarum
ever been associated with
mixed feelings about
pregnancy?
1114. What are the two most
common complications of
hyperemesis gravidarum?
1115. What is the initial diet order
for clients with hyperemesis
gravidarum?
1116. Why are doctors cautious in
using antiemetics to treat
hyperemesis gravidarum?
1117. What are the instructions
given to clients recovering
from hyperemesis gravidarum
in relation to mealtime?
1118. What is the biggest challenge
in nursing care of the client
with hyperemesis gravidarum?
1119. Hypertension is an ________ or
sustained elevation in the
(systolic/diastolic) __________.
1120. Hypertension is often fatal if
untreated. (T/F)
1121. Hypertension is more
common in blacks or whites?
1122. Aging decreases the risk of
hypertension. (T/F)
1123. Obesity increases the risk of
hypertension. (T/F)
Soaking in warm water
No, it can cause a
constricting band around
the ankle/foot.
True
Before getting out of bed
(before the swelling
occurs).
Severe and prolonged;
2nd trimester (normal
vomiting should be gone
before 2nd trimester)
Pancreatitis
Multiple pregnancies
Hydatidiform mole
Yes, increased incidence
of it in women who are
ambivalent about
pregnancy
Electrolyte imbalance
(dehydration)
Starvation
NPO
They don't want to harm
the fetus
Remain seated upright
for 45 minutes after each
meal
Getting them to eat
Intermittent, diastolic
blood pressure
True
Blacks
False, it increases the risk
True
1124. Oral contraceptives Increase
(increase/decrease/do not
effect) the blood pressure.
1125. What four organs does Brain (stroke)
hypertension affect the most? Eyes (blindness)
Heart (MI)
Kidney (renal failure)
1126. How many measurements At least three
must be made before you can
say a person has hypertension?
1127. What blood pressure is Anything greater than
considered to be 140/90 mm Hg
hypertension?
1128. Which pressure is most An increased diastolic
damaging, an increased
(systolic/diastolic)?
1129. When a doctor takes three At least one week
different blood pressure
readings at different times,
how far apart must the
measurements be made?
1130. Can hypertension be cured? No, just treated
1131. What class of drugs is used to Diuretics
first treat hypertension?
1132. Name the two most common Calorie reduction for
dietary prescriptions used to weight loss
treat hypertension? Sodium restriction
1133. What two non-dietary lifestyle Decreases stress
changes are used commonly to Increase activity
treat hypertension?
1134. When you take the blood Both arms; lying, sitting
pressure of the client with and standing
hypertension you would
measure _____- _______, with the
client _____, _______ and _______.
1135. What do caffeine and smoking Increase it
do to blood pressure?
1136. What is the #1 side effect of Orthostatic hypotension
antihypertensives? (means you feel weak
when you rise to a
standing position
because your blood
pressure falls)
1137. Would vasodilators or Vasodilators (decreases
vasoconstrictors treat resistance)
hypertension?
1138. Would sympathetic Sympathetic blockers
stimulators or sympathetic (decrease cardiac output
blockers treat hypertension? and decrease resistance)
1139. In hypovolemic shock there is a Decrease; blood; 1155. What are mast trousers? Pneumatic device placed
________ in the circulating __________ decreases; oxygen around the legs and lower
volume -- this _______ tissue body that is inflated to force
perfusion with ________. blood centrally
1140. What gauge catheter would you use 16 or larger 1156. Do clients in hypovolemic Yes, to measure urine output
to start an IV in hypovolemic shock have to have a Foley (when output is >30 cc per
shock? inserted? hour the shock has resolved)
1141. What is the #1 cause of Acute blood loss 1157. In what position would On back with arms and legs
hypovolemic shock? you place a client in elevated
suspected hypovolemic
1142. What happens to the blood It decreases
shock?
pressure in hypovolemic shock?
1158. How often are vital signs Every 15 minutes
1143. What happens to the pulse pressure It narrows (becomes
measured in hypovolemic
in hypovolemic shock? a smaller number)
shock?
1144. How do you calculate the pulse You subtract the
1159. If the blood pressure Increase the oxygen flow rate
pressure? diastolic from
(systolic) falls below 80
systolic
mmHg, what would you
1145. If J. Doe's blood pressure is 100/60, 40 (100-minus 60 do first in hypovolemic
what is his pulse pressure? equals 40) shock?
1146. What is the normal pulse pressure? 40 (+ or -10) 1160. What is a hysterectomy? It is surgical removal of the
1147. In hypovolemic shock the level of Decreased uterus
consciousness (LOC) is 1161. How long must a woman 4 to 6 weeks
(increased/decreased). wait before having
1148. Which heart rate is associated with Tachycardia intercourse after
hypovolemic shock, bradycardia or hysterectomy?
tachycardia? 1162. Is the woman likely to Yes
1149. In hypovolemic shock the output 25 to 30 cc have a foley catheter in
of urine will be less than _______cc after a hysterectomy?
per hour. 1163. Are enemas common Yes
1150. The client's skin will be _____, ______, Cool, pale, clammy before a hysterectomy?
and ________. (due to arterial 1164. What would you do if the Call the MD, probably had a
constriction to shunt client complains of flank ureter tied off accidentally in
blood from skin to pain (back pain) after surgery
vital organs) hysterectomy?
1151. Which acid-base disorder is MOST Metabolic acidosis 1165. What are 2 common Grief, depression
commonly associated with (due to lactic acid psychological reactions to
hypovolemic shock? accumulation- no hysterectomy?
oxygen = anaerobic
1166. What causes Venous stasis in the abdomen
metabolism)
thrombophlebitis after (the woman was in the
1152. Of all the following, which one(s) Only the heart rate hysterectomy? vaginal lithotomy position for
increase in hypovolemic shock? and respiratory rate hours)
Blood pressure, output, heart rate,
1167. What sign would indicate A hard, red swelling in the
pH, LOC, pulse pressure,
the presence of posterior calf
respiratory rate
thrombophlebitis?
1153. What are the first two sings of Change in LOC and
1168. Should you assess for No. Homan's sign is no longer
hypovolemic shock? tachycardia
Homan's sign? recommended as a test for
1154. What is the #1 medical treatment Replace blood and thrombophlebitis because it
of hypovolemic shock fluids can cause a clot to embolize
1169. How long does the Oral contraceptives should be 1182. After positioning the HOB Call the doctor
woman have to be off discontinued 3 to 4 weeks the nurse should then...
oral contraceptives preoperatively. 1183. What activities/action Sneezing, coughing (non-
before hysterectomy?
MUST be avoided in the productive), straining at stool
1170. How long should a 2 months client with increased ICP? or doing anything which
woman wait before requires the valsalva
lifting heavy objects maneuver
after a hysterectomy? 1184. When a patient has Hyperventilate
1171. How long does a lady 3 to 4 weeks increased ICP the nurse
have to wait before should (hyper/hypo)
driving after a ventilate the patient?
hysterectomy? 1185. The most common Mannitol
1172. If the client complains Ambulation osmotic diuretic used to
of abdominal gas after decrease ICP is...
a hysterectomy, the 1186. The most common loop Lasix
best intervention is.....
diuretic given to decrease
1173. What are two major Thrombus and pulmonary ICP is...
complications of a embolus Urinary retention 1187. The most common anti- Decadron
hysterectomy besides
inflammatory drug given
hemorrhage?
to decrease ICP is...
1174. What body position Knee flexion (because it increases 1188. If analgesia is necessary Codeine
should be avoided the chance of thrombophlebitis)
for the patient with
after hysterectomy?
increased ICP the doctor
Why?
should order__________.
1175. When will bowel After 24 hours but before 72 1189. Why is codeine alone Because it does not depress
sounds return after a hours
used for analgesia in respiration or LOC as much as
hysterectomy?
increased ICP? other narcotics, and it
1176. What is the speculated Autoimmune suppresses cough
cause of ITP? 1190. What body system is Lymphatic
1177. What two things do Bleeding gums and epistaxis attacked by
the clients with ITP (nose bleed) mononucleosis?
complain of before 1191. What blood count will be Lymphocytes increase,
clinical diagnosis?
elevated in monocytes increase,
1178. What two observable Ecchymosis (bruises) mononucleosis? granulocytes decrease
skin signs are common Petechia (small dot-like 1192. How long is the average Three weeks
with ITP? hemorrhages)
recovery from
1179. What is papilledema It is edema of the optic disc, it is mononucleosis?
and how is it related to present when increased ICP 1193. What two medications ASA-- steroids if a bad case
increased ICP? pushes brain tissue through the
are given to clients with
optic foramen. (You see it with an
mononucleosis?
ophthalmoscope)
1194. What organism causes Epstein-barr herpes virus
1180. What environmental Dark, calm, quiet environment
mononucleosis?
changes are necessary
when there is 1195. Give four symptoms of Sore throat, malaise, stiff neck
increased ICP? mononucleosis. (nuchal rigidity) and nausea

1181. When there is Position; head; 10-30 degrees 1196. Give three nursing Rest, ASA, fluids
increased ICP the measures for care of
nurse should first clients with
_______ the ______ of the mononucleosis.
bed to _________
degrees.
1197. What age group most 15 to 35 1210. What drug will be used for Codeine
commonly gets post-oeprative analgesia?
mononucleosis? 1211. Why is the patient taking Prevent seizures
1198. What organ should not The spleen, it could rupture dilantin post-craniotomy?
be palpated in the client which may lead to shock and 1212. Describe two ways to Test for glucose (if positive
with mononucleosis? death
determine if drainage post- then CSF), watch for halo
1199. How is mononucleosis Respiratory droplets craniotomy is CSF. effect on gauze (if present
transmitted? then CSF)
1200. Upon physical exam of a Increased temperature 1213. What painful procedure IV puncture
client with Enlarged lymph nodes must occur as part of an
mononucleosis, you Splenomegaly IVP?
find... 1214. Does the client need to Yes
1201. Name two Hepatitis, ruptured spleen, empty his bladder before an
complications of meningoencephalitis IVP?
mononucleosis. 1215. Is the client NPO for an IVP? Yes, after midnight
1202. Should you shampoo Yes 1216. What subjective experience Hot flush, salty taste in
the scalp and hair of the
will the client have at the mouth (these are transitory
patient before cranial
beginning of an IVP? and will pass quickly)
surgery?
1217. Does the client need to No
1203. What should you do Save it for the patient
have a catheter inserted for
with the hair shaved
an IVP?
from the scalp pre-
operatively? 1218. Is a dye always used during Yes
an IVP?
1204. If surgery was On back or non-operative side,
supratentorial (cerebral, with HOB up 15 to 45 degrees. 1219. What structures are Kidneys, renal pelvis,
pituitary) position the visualized during an IVP? ureters, bladder
patient _______ post- 1220. If the client is allergic to False, they will just give
operatively. iodine dye an IVP cannot be Benadryl or steroids for a
1205. If the surgery was Keep HOB flat done. (T/F) few days pre-test
infratentorial 1221. What question should be If the client is allergic to
(cerebellum/brainstem) asked to assess a client's iodine or shellfish
position the patient... risk of allergic reaction to
1206. Should the client turn, Turn every 2 hours, deep IVP dye?
cough, deep breathe breathe every hour, no cough 1222. What is required the An active bowel prep with
after a craniotomy? (could cause increased ICP) evening before an IVP? laxatives (optional in infants
1207. Should the client with Restricted to 1500 cc. and children)
cranial surgery have 1223. What are important post- Encourage fluids, ambulate
fluids forced or test measures after an IVP? with assistance
restricted?
1224. Performance of an IVP on Dehydrated elderly (can get
1208. What are three common Diabetes Insipidus (frontal what group of clients is renal failure)
complications of craniotomy), increased ICP, most dangerous?
craniotomy? meningitis
1225. Intussusception is a Telescopes
1209. If the post-operative Increased ICP, especially condition in which the
craniotomy patient has hypothalamus (remember bowel __________ into itself.
a high temperature in surgical wound infections don't
1226. Intussusception is more Boys
the first 48 hours post- occur until day 3 or 4), post
common in (boys/girls).
operatively, it is operative inflammatory
probably due to ________. temperatures are not usually 1227. Name two ways to correct Barium enema (the barium
over 100.8 intussusception. pushes the bowel straight),
or surgical repair
1228. The major Necrosis 1242. Untreated increased Herniation, death
complication of intracranial pressure (ICP) can
intussusception is lead to brain ________ and
______ of the bowel. _________.
1229. Intussusception 6 1243. ICP increases whenever Space
occurs most anything unusual occupies
commonly at age ______ in the cranium.
______ months. 1244. The earliest sign of increased Change in LOC (Level of
1230. Intussusception is Cystic fibrosis ICP is... Consciousness)
commonly seen in 1245. The pulse pressure _______ Widens
children who
when ICP is increased.
have_____ _______.
1246. Whenever there is increased Systolic
1231. Describe the cry of the Piercing cry
ICP the ________ blood pressure
infant with
rises.
intussusception.
1247. When there is increased ICP Diastolic
1232. In addition to Pull legs up to chest/abdomen
the _______ blood pressure
experiecing severe
remains the same.
abdominal pain tell
what position the 1248. Which pulse rate is most Bradycardia
infant will assume. commonly associated with
increased ICP?
1233. Describe the stool of a Current-jelly stool, bloody
child with mucous. If surgery is scheduled 1249. In increased ICP the Rises
intussusception. and the infant has a normal bowel temperature (rise/falls).
movement, surgery may be 1250. Describe the respiratory First, central
canceled. Call MD pattern seen in increased ICP. hyperventilation (very
1234. Describe the vomitus Bile stained early on) and at the end,
of a child with Cheyne-Stokes
intussusception. 1251. When ICP is increased, the Unilateral dilation with
1235. What organ is most The spleen pupils FIRST show... sluggish reaction
frequently removed in 1252. Eventually in increased ICP Fixed and dilated
ITP? the pupils become ________
1236. Why is this organ The spleen destroys old platelets and ______.
removed in ITP? so if you removed the organ that 1253. Will the client with increased Yes
destroys platelets, you increase ICP have a headache?
your platelet count
1254. What type of vomiting is Projectile
1237. What lab value is most Platelet count present in increased ICP?
decreased in ITP?
1238. Because these clients Infection (fungal and viral
with ITP are on primarily)
steroids they have an
increased risk of...
1239. Transfusions with Platelets
what product are
common in ITP?
1240. What is the most-life Hemorrhage
threatening
complications of ITP?
1241. Name the class of Steroids (decadron, prednisone,
drugs most commonly hexadrolsolucortef);
given to clients with Immunosuppresive agents
ITP? (immuran)
1255. Why does hyperventilation It reduces CO2, resulting in 1273. pCO2 35 o 45
"treat" increased ICP? vasoconstriction. CO2 is a 1274. K+ 3.5 to 5.3
vasodilator in the brain,
vasodilation would occupy 1275. pO2 78 to 100
more space and thus 1276. BUN 8 to 25
increase ICP more.
1277. Hemoglobin 12 to 16 female; 14 to 18 male
1256. When ICP increases the Restricted to decrease
1278. pH 7.35 to 7.45
patient is more likely to edema in the brain
have fluids 1279. O2 Sat 93 to 100
(encouraged/restricted). 1280. What is the common Croup
1257. What is the primary dietary Low calcium diet name for LTB?
prescription for calcium 1281. What is the typical Low grade, usually below 102
nephrolithiasis? temperature elevation in degrees, but can go up to 104
1258. For the client with calcium Acid croup? degrees
nephrolithiasis the diet 1282. Are antibiotics helpful for For croup, no. For epiglottitis,
should be _________ash. croup? For epiglottitis? yes.
1259. If the kidney stone is Phosphorous 1283. Is croup viral or bacterial? Viral
calcium phosphate the diet
must be low in _____ too.
1284. With which condition is Epiglottitis
croup most often
1260. The primary diet treatment Low pruine confused?
for uric acid
nephrolithiasis is _________ -
1285. Can croup be managed at Yes. No, epiglottitis is a medical
________. home? Can epiglottitis be emergency
managed at home?
1261. The client with uric acid Methionine
nephrolithiasis should
1286. Are sedatives used for No, because this would mask
have a diet low in children with croup? the signs of respiratory
___________. distress.

1262. What is methionine? The precursor of the amino

1263. Name two foods high in
methionine.
1264. Clients with cystine
nephrolithiasis should
have a (n) _________ ash diet.
1265. Increasing fluids to over
3000 cc per day is more
effective in treating renal
calculi ( kidney stones)
than any dietary
modification. (T/F)
1266. RBC
1267. WBC
acid cystine (precursor =
material out of which
something is made)
Milk, eggs
Alkaline
True. It's more important to
flush the urinary tract than
worry about what you're
eating.
4.0 to 6.0 mil/ul
5,000 to 11,000
1287. What causes epiglottitis? A
virus or bacteria?
1288. What is the best treatment
for croup?
1289. What should never be
done to a child with
epiglottitis?
1290. What are the typical signs
and symptoms of croup?
1291. What three signs tell you
that the child has
epiglottitis instead of
croup?
1292. When is croup baed
enough to be evaluated by
a doctor?
H. influenza bacteria
Cool moist air
Never put anything in the
child's mouth, ie, a tongue
blade can lead to obstruction
Barking cough, inspiratory
stridor, labored respiratory
pattern
Muffled voice
Drooling
Increased fever
When retractions, and high
pitched stridor are present

1268. Platelet Count 150,000 to 400,000

1293. What lead level needs 50 to 60 micrograms/dl
intervention?
1269. Creatinine 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dl
1294. With which class of drugs Chelating agents
1270. Na+ 135 to 145 will a child with lead
1271. HCO3 22 to 26 poisoning be treated?
1272. Hematocrit 36 to 54 1295. What do chelating agents They increase the excretion of
do? heavy metals
1296. The most frequent Ingestion of lead-based paint 1311. When the leukemia Limited
cause of lead chips child's platelets and
poisoning is... WBCs are low, his
activities should
1297. Name three common EDTA, desferal, BAL in oil
be...
chelating agents for
lead poisoning. 1312. When the platelet Suppository
and WBCs are low
1298. List specific symptoms Drowsiness, clumsiness, ataxia,
the nurse should not
of lead poisoning seizures, coma, respiratory arrest
insert a...
1299. Symptoms of lead Neurological
1313. Are IM injections When the platelets and WBCs are
poisoning show up in
and IV sticks low, IMs are to be avoided; IV sticks
the __________ system.
permitted on a child are to be limited, and only done
1300. Leukemia is cancer of Blood with leukemia? when absolutely necessary (ie, to
the _________-forming give chemotherapy or measure
tissues. blood counts)
1301. The type of cell that is Immature WBC 1314. Why are children on To prevent uric acid kidney stones
most common and chemotherapy also (remember when chemotherapy
problematic in on zyloprim kills cancer cells, purines and uric
leukemia (allopurinol)? acid buidl up and could cause
is____________________. kidney stones).
1302. In leukemia the RBC Low, because the bone marrow is 1315. Why do some The immature WBCs infiltrate the
count is (high/low). going "wild" producing all those children with joint and cause inflammation.
immature WBCs--no energy or leukemia have joint
nutrients left over to make RBCs pain?
1303. In leukemia, the Low, because the bone marrow is 1316. Why is a child with The immature WBCs infiltrate the
platelet count is going "wild" producing all those leukemia at risk for brain and cause inflammation
(high/low). immature WBCs-- no energy or neurological
nutrients to make platelets. symptoms due to
1304. Because of the Infection increased
immature WBCs, the intracranial
patient is at risk pressure?
for_______. 1317. If the platelet count Aspirin
1305. Because of low Bruising, ecchymosis, bleeding is low what drug
platelets, the patient is petechiae should the child not
at risk for _________, take?
______, and __________. 1318. Is the alopecia of NO, it will grow back (remember, the
1306. What causes lymph All those small immature WBCs chemotherapy alopecia of radiation therapy is
gland enlargement in clog the lymphatic system permanent? permanent because the follicle is
leukemia? destroyed too)

1307. Should you take a No 1319. What does ANC Absolute Neutrophil Count
rectal temperature on stand for?
a child with leukemia? 1320. What is the ANC If the ANC is below 500, then the
1308. Should you take an Yes, as long as they are over four used for in patient will be on protective isolation
oral temperature on a years old, in remission, and have leukemia?
child with leukemia? no sores in their mouth 1321. Which is used more The ANC is more reliable and valid.
1309. Should the child with No straws, No forks, Yes they can commonly to
active leukemia use have cups decided if the
straws, forks, cups? patient should be on
isolation: the WBCs
1310. The nurse's priority in Decreasing risk of infection
or the ANC?
treating a child with
newly diagnosed
leukemia is...
1322. By the end of the first six Double 1338. What dietary strategy is Wholesome snacks,
months of life an infant's birth- most appropriate for the because they are often too
weight should ______. industrious school-age busy to eat
child?
1323. By the end of the first year of life Triple
an infant's birthweigth 1339. Girls in adolescence need False, boys need more
should_______. more calories than calories.
adolescent boys. (T/F)
1324. The ideal food for infants Breast milk
is_________. 1340. Adolescents should take True
vitamin supplements. (T/F)
1325. Breast milk contains substances True
that increase immunities. (T/F) 1341. Mastitis and breast Primipara
engorgement are more
1326. Bottle-fed infants do not bond False
likely to occur in
well with their mothers. (T/F)
(primipara/multipara).
1327. The one nutrient that Iron
1342. Where does the organism The infant's nose or mouth
commercial formulas are
that causes mastitis come
typically low in is __________.
from?
1328. Breast milk does not contain False, however, it does
1343. Which organism most Staph
iron. (T/F) not contain enough
commonly causes mastitis?
iron - so they should be
fed iron fortified cereal 1344. Prolonged intervals Increase
starting at 6 months. between breast-feeding
(decrease/increase) the
1329. At what age should the infant be Not before 12 months
incidence of mastitis.
fed cows/goats milk?
1345. Can too tight bras lead to Yes, preventing emptying
1330. What is the major problem with They dont get enough
mastitis? of ducts
feeding an infant skim milk? calories and don't grow.
Dehydration from 1346. Mastitis usually occurs at 10
excessive solute load least _______days after
and inability to delivery.
concentrate urine. 1347. When mastitis is present the Hard, swollen, warm
1331. When should the infant be 4 to 6 months breasts are ________, _________,
introduced to textured solid and __________.
food? (What age?) 1348. Mastitis is accompanied by a 102 degrees
1332. What is the first food that an Iron fortified rice cereal fever over _________.
infant should be introduced to? 1349. If mastitis is caused by an Temporary increase in
1333. When forced to eat, the Rebel organism, what causes vascular and lymph supply
preschool child will.... breast engorgement? to the breast in preparation
for milk production
1334. Parents of preschooled children One
should be taught that as long as 1350. If mastitis occurs 1+ weeks 2 to 5 days after delivery
the child eats ______ good after delivery, when does
nutritious meal per day, they breast engorgement occur?
should not make eating food an 1351. Does breast engorgement Yes, the infant has a difficult
issue.
interfere with nursing? time latching on (getting
1335. Refusal to eat is common in True, but still offer a nipple in its mouth)
preschoolers (T/F). variety 1352. What class of drugs is used Antibiotics
1336. Youngsters develop food Observing significant to treat mastitis?
preferences by... people in their 1353. Antibiotics are used to treat False
environment
breast engorgment? (T/F)
1337. School-aged children grow at a True 1354. Application of (warm H2O Ice packs to decrease
slower rate than infants,
compress/ice packs) is the swelling
toddlers or adolescences. (T/F)
preferred treatment for
breast engorgement.
1355. The mother with False, the mother must keep 1370. In the chain of infection, hand Transmission
mastitis should stop breast feeding. (Offer unaffected washing breaks the mode of
breast feeding. (T/F) breast first) ____________.
1356. If the mother has an True 1371. The best way to decrease False, hand washing is
open abscess on her nosocomial infection is sterile the best way.
breast, must not technique. (T/F)
breast-feed. (T/F) 1372. Sterile gloved hands must always True
1357. For breast No, that would increase milk be kept above the waist. (T/F)
engorgement, the non- production and would make the 1373. When putting on the second of a False, reach under
breastfeeding mother problem worse (warm
set of sterile gloves, you should the cuff with the tip of
should be told to compresses or warm shower to let
grasp the cuff. (T/F) the gloved fingers.
express breast milk. milk "leak" is okay- Ice is best)
(T/F) 1374. When putting on the first glove of True
a set of sterile gloves, you should
1358. What is the best Breast-feeding - it will balance
grasp the cuff. (T/F)
treatment for breast supply and demand
engorgement? 1375. When putting on the second True
glove of a set of sterile gloves, you
1359. What is mastoiditis? Inflammation/infection of the
must not use the thumb of the
mastoid process
first hand. (T/F)
1360. What is the most Chronic otitis media 1376. Airborne microorganisms travel Dust or water
common cause of
on ________ or ______particles.
mastoiditis?
1377. Another name for medical asepsis Clean technique
1361. What are 4 signs and Drainage from ear, high fever,
is...
symptoms of headache and ear pain,
mastoiditis? tenderness over mastoid process 1378. Sensitivity (susceptibility) The susceptibility of
means... an organism to the
1362. What unusual post- Facial nerve paralysis due to
bacterial action of a
operative accidental damage during
particular agent
complication can surgery (law suit time!)
result from 1379. When unwrapping a sterile pack Away from you
mastoidectomy? how should you unfold the top
point?
1363. What should you do to Have the patient smile and
assess for facial nerve wrinkle forehead. 1380. Virulence means.... Ability of an organism
paralysis post- to produce disease
mastoidectomy? 1381. Another name for surgical asepsis Sterile technique
1364. What is the medical Systemic antibitoics is...
treatment for 1382. What is the best location in a On the over-bed table
mastoiditis? client's room to set up a sterile
1365. What is the surgery for Simple or radical mastoidectomy field?
mastoiditis called? 1383. Medical aseptic technique are True, doesn't
1366. Will a simple No, a radical mastoidectomy may aimed at reducing the number of eliminate all of it just
mastoidectomy organisms (T/F) decreases the
worsen hearing? number

1367. Should the nurse No, reinforce it. Physician changes 1384. What does bacteriostatic mean? Having the capability
change the post- first post op dressing to stop growth of the
mastoidectomy bacteria
dressing? 1385. What does bacteriocidal mean? Having the capability
1368. What is a common side Dizziness (vertigo) to kill bacteria.
effect of 1386. What does nosocomial infection Infection acquired
mastoidectomy? mean? through contact with
1369. What is a major Safety contamination in the
nursing diagnosis post- hospital
mastoidectomy?
1387. When pouring liquid
onto a sterile field you
should pour from a
height of _____ to _____
inches above sterile field.
1388. When you plan to use
gloves for a procedure
you do not need to wash
hands before it. (T/F)
1389. Culture means....
1390. Surgical aseptic
techniques render and
keep articles free from all
organisms. (T/F)
1391. You must never turn
your back to a sterile
field. (T/F)
1392. What must you do if you
reach across a sterile
field?
1393. Micro-organisms grow
best in a _______, _______,
_______place.
1394. It is common practice to
regard the edges of any
sterile field as
contaminated. (T/F)
1395. Immediately after
opening a bottle of
sterile water, can you
pour it directly into a
sterile basin?
1396. Which is the best method
for identifying clients
accurately?
1397. An emulsion is a mixture
of ______ and ______.
1398. Syrups and elixirs are of
particular concern to
diabetic clients
because....
1399. Oral medications have a
(faster/slower) onset of
action that IM drugs.
1400. Oral medications have a
(shorter/longer) duration
of action than IM
medications.
6 to 8 1401. How should drugs that stain teeth By a straw
be administered?
1402. A drug given by a parenteral route True
acts outside the GI tract. (T/F)
1403. Name the four most common SQ, IM, IV, ID
False, always wash even if you
parenteral routes of (intradermal)
plan to use gloves
administrations.
1404. When blood is administered by 18 gauge
IV, the needle/catheter should be
Growing colony of organisms,
________gauge.
usually for the purpose of
identifying them 1405. You can administer up to ____ cc 3 cc
of a drug per site by IM injection
True
in adults.
1406. Children should receive no more 2 cc
than _______ cc per site by IM
injection.
True
1407. The preferred IM injection site for Vastus lateralis
children under 3 is the _________
___________.
Consider the area
contaminated and not use the 1408. Why is the dorsogluteal site not Because the muscle is
articles in the area recommended for IM injection not well developed
the children less than 3 years of yet.
Warm, dark, moist
age?
1409. Can 3 cc of fluid be administered No, maximum of 1 cc
per IM into the deltoid of an
True, the outer 1 inch is
adult?
considered contaminated. You
must not touch it with your 1410. The #1 danger when using the Damage to the sciatic
sterile gloves. dorsogluteal site for IM injection nerve
is___________.
No, you must pour a few cc's
out of the bottle into a waste 1411. The preferred angle of injection to 90 degrees
container before you pour into to be used for IM administration
the sterile basin. (This is called is___________.
"lipping" the bottle) 1412. The preferred length of needle to 1 to 2 inch
By ID name-band administer an IM injection is...
1413. The preferred gauge of needle for 21 to 22 gauge
IM injection is...
Oil and H2O 1414. Which type of medications are Irritating, staining
given by Z-track injection?
they contain sugars 1415. How long is the needle kept 10 seconds
inserted during Z-track injection?
1416. What must be done to the Change the needle
equipment before injecting by Z-
Slower track method?
1417. When giving a Z-track injection, Laterally
the overlying skin is pulled
Longer (up/down/medially/laterally).
1418. Subcutaneous injection must be True (for boards),
given at 45 degrees. (T/F) false- whatever angle
gets it SQ without
going IM
1419. The preferred gauge of needle for 25 gauge 1434. Eye medications can be given False, into the
injection for SQ directly over the cornea. (T/F) conjunctival sac, never
injection___________. the cornea; hold the
dropper 1/2 inch
1420. The preferred length of needle for 5/8 inch
above the sac
SQ injection is_________.
1435. Eye drops should be placed Conjunctival sac
1421. The intradermal route is primarily Skin testing
directly into the _______ _______.
used for ________ _________.
1436. To prevent eye medications from Nasolacrimal sac, 10
1422. Name the two sites used for Inner forearm
getting into the systemic (press between the
intradermal injection. Upper back
circulation you apply pressure inner canthus and the
1423. In general, the nurse should wear True to the _______ for ______ seconds. bridge of the nose)
gloves when applying skin
1437. The eye should be irrigated so False, it must flow from
preparations such as lotions. (T/F)
that the solution flows from inner canthus to outer
1424. After using nose drops, the client Supine, 5 outer to inner canthus. (T/F) (alphabetical: I to O)
should remain ______ for _______
1438. If ear medications are not given Dizziness, nausea
minutes.
at room temperature the client
1425. Strict aseptic techniques is False-- only "clean" may experience...
required when administering a technique or medical
1439. To straighten the ear canal in the Up and back
vaginal medication. (T/F) asepsis is necessary
ADULT, the nurse should pull the
1426. Before administering vaginal Void pinna______ and ________.
medications the client is more
1440. To straighten the ear canal in the Down and back
comfortable if you ask them to
young CHILD under 3 the pinna
_________ .
should be pulled _______ and
1427. After administration of a vaginal Supine, 10 ________.
durg the client should remain
1441. After receiving ear drops the Side lying, 5
_____ for______ minutes.
client should remain in
1428. Rectal suppositories with an oil True ________position for
base should be kept refrigerated. ________minutes.
(T/F)
1442. How far above the ear canal 1/2 inch
1429. Strict sterile technique is required False, clean or should you hold the dropper
when administering a drug per medical asepsis while administering ear drops?
rectum. (T/F)
1443. Liquid doses of medications Eye
1430. The best way to ensure Push the suppository should be prepared at
effectiveness of a rectal against the wall of the _______level.
suppository is to... rectum
1444. Liquid drugs should be poured Opposite
1431. A rectal suppository is inserted 4,2 out of the side (opposite of/the
______ inches in an adult and same as) the label.
________ inches in a child.
1445. It is safe practice to administer False
1432. The client should remain supine False-- they should drugs prepared by another
for 5 minutes after having received be lying on their side nurse. (T/F)
a rectal suppository. (T/F) for 5 minutes, not
1446. In order to leave drugs at the True
supine
bedside you must have a
1433. A suppository given rectally must True, lubricant physician's order. (T/F)
be lubricated with a water soluble fingers also
1447. Young infants accept Dropper
lubricant. (T/F)
medication best when given
with a _______.
1448. It is safe practice to recap False, Never re-cap
needles after injection. (T/F)
1449. What do you Remove the syringe immediately and 1469. Pancreas Give with meals-these are oral enzymes
do if you get apply pressure; you must discard the pancreatin used with children with cystic fibrosis to
blood in the syringe and redraw medication in a new isozyme increase the absorption of the food they eat
syringe upon syringe 1470. Para-amino Give with meals/food-- anti tuberculosis
aspiration?
salicylate
1450. Tagamet Give with meals, remember Zantac does sodium (PAS)
not have to be given with meals 1471. Colchicine Give with meals -- anti gout, remember if
1451. Capoten Give on empty stomach, one hour before diarrhea develops, stop the drug
meals (antihypertensive) 1472. Thorazine Take with LOTS OF WATER regardless of
1452. Apresoline Given with meals (antihypertensive) meals to prevent constipation.
1453. Iron with Give with meals
All drugs that end in "-zine" are major
nausea
tranquilizers that also cause Psuedo
1454. Sulfonamides Take with LOTS OF WATER regardless of Parkinson's or extra-pyramidal effects.
whether you give it at mealtime or not --
1473. Carafate and Give on empty stomach 1 hour before
Bactrim, Septra, Gantricin, ie, used to treat
sulcrafate meals and at bedtime -- remember these
UTI
coat the GI tract and interfere with the
1455. Codeine Take with lots of water rergardless of absorption of other medications (give them
meals -- to prevent constipation by themselves)
1456. Antacids Give on empty stomach I hour ac and hs 1474. Allopurinol Give with meals and give with lots of water--
1457. Ipecac Give with 200-300 cc water-- not related to anti uric acid--- used to treat gout and the
mealtime -- this is an emetic (to make you purine build up seen in chemotherapy for
vomit after ingestion of poisons -- don't cancer
give if the poisons were caustic, or 1475. Define An increase in endolymph in the inner ear,
petroleum based) Meniere's causing severe vertigo.
1458. Rifampin Give on empty stomach (anti-tuberculosis) Disease
remember Rifampin causes red urine 1476. What is the Paroxysmal whirling vertigo --
1459. Non-steroidal Give with food (for arthrosis) famous triad sensorineural hearing loss--tinnitus
anti- of symptoms (ringing in the ears)
inflammatory in Meniere's?
drugs 1477. Does Women
1460. Aldactone Give with meals (K--sparing diuretic) Meniere's
occur more
1461. Iron (without Give on empty stomach with orange juice
in men or
nausea) to increase absorption
women?
1462. Penicillin Give on empty stomach
1478. What should Bed Rest
1463. Erythromycin Give on empty stomach (antibiotics) the client do
1464. Stool Softeners Take with lots of water regardless of if they get an
mealtim attack?

1465. Griseofulvin Give with meals-- especially high fat meals

1479. What safety Side rails up x 4, ambulate only with
(anti-fungal) measures assistance
should be
1466. Tetracycline Do not give with milk products, do not give followed
to pregnant women or children before with
age 8 or damage to tooth enamel occurs Meniere's?
1467. Theophylline Give with meals, ie, Aminophylline, 1480. What age 40 to 60
derivative Theodur (anti-asthmatic bronchodilator) group in
1468. Steroids Give with meals-- remember taper the Meniere's
patient off these drugs slowly highest in?
1481. What can PREVENT the attacks of Avoid sudden 1499. What is the definitive Lumbar puncture with
Meniere's? movements diagnostic test for culture of CSF (cerebro-
meningitis? spinal fluid)
1482. What electrolyte is given to people Ammonium
with Meniere's? chloride 1500. If the patient has Increased, increased,
meningitis, the CSF shows increased, decreased
1483. What is the surgery done for Labyrinthectomy
_______ pressure, _____ WBC,
Meniere's?
______ protein, ______
1484. What disease often follows Bell's palsy-- facial glucose.
labyrinthectomy? paralysis, will go
1501. On what type of isolation Contact and respiratory
away in a few
will the patient with precautions
months
meningitis be?
1485. What is the activity order after Bed rest
1502. How long will the patient Until they have been on an
labyrinthectomy?
with meningitis be on antibiotic for 48 hours
1486. When surgery is performed for Hearing is totally these precautions?
Meniere's, what are the lost in the surgical
1503. The room of a patient with Dark and quiet
consequences? ear
meningitis should be
1487. What should the client avoid after Sudden _______ and ______.
labyrinectomy? movements and
1504. The client with meningitis Seizures
increased Na food
can develop________.
1488. What type of diet is the client with Low salt
1505. What is opisthotonos? Arching of back (entire body)
Meniere's on?
from hyperextension of the
1489. What two classes of drugs are given in Antihistamines neck and ankles, due to
Meniere's? and diuretics severe meningeal irritation.
(Diamox)
1506. If a patient has Side-lying
1490. Meningitis is an inflammation of the Linings, brain , opisthotonos, in what
_______ of the _______ and spinal cord position would you place
___________. them?
1491. Meningitis can be caused by _______, Viruses, bacteria, 1507. Average duration of 5 days, 3 to 6
_____, and _____. chemicals menstrual flow is _____. The
1492. The four most common organisms Pneumococcus normal range is _____ to
that cause meningitis are... Meningococcus ______ days.
Streptococcus 1508. Average blood loss during 50 to 60 cc
H. influenza menstruation is _____cc.
1493. The child with meningitis is most Irritable 1509. Name the two phases of Follicular phase (first 14
likely to be (lethargic/irritable) at ovarian cycle. days)
first. Luteal phase (second 14
1494. What visual symptom will the Photophobia days)
patient with meningitis have? (over-sensitivity to 1510. In the menstrual cycle, day Menstrual discharge begins
light) 1 is the day on which...
1495. What is the most common musculo- Stiff neck- nuchal 1511. How long does an ovarian Average of 28 days
skeletal symptom of meningitis? rigidity cycle last?
1496. Will the patient with meningitis have Yes 1512. How many days after 14 days
a headache? ovulation does
1497. Kernig's sign is positive when there is Knee; hip menstruation begin?
pain in the _____ when attempting to 1513. What hormones are active FSH and Estrogen
straighten the leg with ____ flexed. during follicular phase?
1498. What type of vomiting is present in Projectile
meningitis?
1514. During the luteal phase of
the ovarian cycle, which of
the following hormones
increase: estrogen,
progesterone or LH?
1515. What is the major function
of the luteal phase of the
ovarian cycle?
1516. If an ovum is fertilized
during the luteal phase
what hormone will be
secreted?
1517. During menstruation, the
average daily loss of iron is
_____ mg.
1518. What occurs during the
follicular phase of the
ovarian cycle?
1519. What type of
environmental
modification is best for a
migraine?
1520. The long term treatment of
migraine focuses upon...
1521. What type of pain is typical
of migraines?
1522. Are migraines more or less
common in men?
1523. Besides pain, people with
migraines complain of
what other symptoms?
1524. What are the processes
occurring in migraines?
1525. Where is the pain of
migraine most likely
located?
1526. Name a drug given to treat
migraine?
1527. Are migraine headaches
usually unilateral or
bilateral?
1528. When Inderal is given in
migraine headache, it is
used to prevent or treat an
attack?
Progesterone and LH 1529. MS is a progressive _____ disease of Demyelinating
the CNS.
1530. Myelin promotes _____, _____ _____ Fast, smooth
of nerve impulses. conduction
1531. MS affects men more than women. False
To develop and maintain the
(T/F)
corpus luteum which
produces progesterone to 1532. What age group usually gets MS? 20 to 40
maintain pregnancy until 1533. MS usually occurs in (hot/cool) Cool
placenta is established. climates .
HCG (human chorionic 1534. What is the first sign of MS? Blurred or double
gonadotropin) vision
1535. MS can lead to urinary True
incontinence. (T/F)
0.5 to 1.0 mg
1536. MS can lead to impotence in True
males. (T/F)
1537. Patients with MS should be taught Wide based
It accomplishes maturation
to walk with a ____-____ gait.
of the graafian follicle which
results in ovulation 1538. Why are Adrenocorticotropic To decrease edema
Hormone (ACTH) and prednisone in the demyelination
Dark and quiet
given during acute MS? process
environment
1539. For acute exacerbations of MS ACTH (Corticotropin)
_______ per IV is often used.
Assessing things that bring 1540. What drug can be given to treat Urecholine,
on stress and then planning urinary retention in MS? Bethanocol
to avoid them. 1541. Will the muscles of MS clients be Spastic
Throbbing spastic or flaccid?
1542. What three drugs can be given for Valium, Baclofen
Less muscle spasms? (Lioresal), Dantrium
1543. Baclofen causes Constipation
Nausea, vomiting and visual (constipation/diarrhea)
disturbances 1544. Dantrium causes Diarrhea (hint: D's go
(constipation/diarrhea) together, Dantrium
Reflex constriction then and Diarrhea)
dilation of cerebral arteries. 1545. Patient's with MS should have Increased to dilute
Temporal, supraorbital (increased/restricted) fluids. urine and reduce
incidence of UTI.
1546. The diet of a patient with MS Acid
Sansert (methsergide), should be ____--ash.
Cafergot 1547. What major sense is affected most Tactile (touch)-- they
in MS (besides vision)? burn themselves
(Prophylaxis: Imipramine) easily
Unilateral
To prevent. It DOES NOT
treat.
1548. Which will bring on a MS
exacerbation: over-heating
or chilling?
1549. In Myasthenia Gravis (MG)
there is a disturbance in
transmission of impulses at
the _____ _____.
1550. The #1 sign of MG is ______
______ _____.
1551. What is the unique
adjective given to describe
the early signs of MG?
1552. MG affects men more than
women. (T/F)
1553. When women get MG they
are usually old or young?
1554. When men get MG they are
usually old or young?
1555. What neurotransmitter is
problematic in MG?
1556. What class of drugs is used
to treat MG?
1557. What ending do
anticholinesterases have?
1558. Are anticholinesterases
sympathetic or
parasympathetic?
1559. Anticholestinesterases will
have
(sympathetic/cholinergic)
side effects.
1560. What surgery CAN be done
for MG?
1561. The severe muscle
weakness of MG gets better
with exercise. (T/F)
1562. What will the facial
appearance of a patient
with MG look like?
1563. If a patient has MG, what
will be the results of the
Tensilon Test?
1564. Besides the Tensilon Test,
what other diagnostic tests
confirm a diagnosis of MG?
Both will; but they tend to do
better in cool weather
(summer will always be a bad
time for MS patients)
Neuromuscular junction
Severe muscle weakness
The early signs (difficulty
swallowing, visual problems)
are referred to a BULBAR
signs.
False, affects women more
than men
Young
Old
Acetylcholine
Anticholinesterases
-stigmine
Parasympathetic
Cholinergic (they will mimic
the parasympathetic
nervous system)
Thymectomy (removal of
thymus)
False, it is worse with activity
Mast-like with a snarling
smile (called a myasthenic
smile)
The patient will show a
dramatic sudden increase in
muscle strength
Electromylogram (EMG)
1565. What is the most
important thing to
remember about giving
Mestinon and other
anticholestinerases?
1566. Do you give
anticholestinerases with
or without food?
1567. What type of diet should
the patient with MG be
on?
1568. What equipment should
be at the bedside of an
MG patient?
1569. Name the two types of
crises that a MG patient
can have.
1570. The #1 danger in both
Myasthenic and
Cholinergic crisis is _____
______.
1571. What words will the
client use to describe the
pain of an MI?
1572. What is an MI?
1573. What is the #1 symptom
of an MI?
1574. Males are more likely to
get an MI than females.
(T/F)
1575. Due to MI occurs within
_____ of symptom onset
in 50% of all patients.
1576. What pain medication is
given for the pain of a MI
(Give three).
1577. What is the reason for
giving post MI patients
ASA?
1578. Name a new drug with
anti-platelet activity.
1579. The three most common
complications after MI
are ____ _____,_____, and
_______.
They must be given EXACTLY
ON TIME; at home, they might
need to set their alarm
With food, about 1/2 hour ac;
giving ac helps strengthen
muscles of swallowing
Soft
Suction apparatus (for meals),
tracheostomy/endotube (for
ventilation)
Cholinergic (too much
Mestinon)
Myasthenic (not enough
Mestinon)
Respiratory arrest
Crushing, heavy, squeezing,
radiating to left arm, neck , jaw,
shoulder
Either a clot, spasm or plaque
that blocks the coronary
arteries causing loss of blood
supply to the heart and
myocardial cell death
Severe chest pain unrelieved
by rest and nitroglycerine
True
One hour
Morphine, Demerol,
Nitroglycerine
To prevent platelets from
forming clots in the coronary
arteries
Plavix
Cardiogenic shock, arrhythmia,
CHF
1580. Give another name for an MI. Heart attack 1601. Rectum & Sigmoid colon (UC or Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's)
1581. What will the activity order Bed rest with bedside
be for the post-MI client? commode 1602. Bloody diarrhea (UC or Crohn's) Ulcerative colitis
1582. What is the most common Premature ventricular 1603. Young adults (UC or Crohn's) Ulcerative colitis
arrhythmia after a MI? contractions (PVCs) 1604. Surgery with ileostomy (UC or Either
1583. What cardiac enzymes Elevated CPK, LDH, SGOT Crohn's)
indicate an MI? 1605. Ileostomy (UC or Crohn's) Either
1584. What serum protein rises Troponin 1606. Jewish clients (UC or Crohn's) Either
soonest after myocardial cell
injury? 1607. Lesion through all layers of the Crohn's
bowel (UC or Crohn's)
1585. Do people without cell No it is only present when
damage have troponin in myocardial cells are 1608. Terminal-distal-small intestine Crohn's
their blood? damaged. (UC or Crohn's)

1586. How soon after cell damage As soon as 3 hours (can 1609. Regional enteritis (UC or Crohn's) Crohn's
does troponin increase? remain elevated for 7 1610. Adults, up to 40 (UC or Crohn's) Crohn's
days)
1611. Lesions form patches (UC or Crohn's
1587. When will the client with an 6 weeks after discharge Crohn's)
MI be allowed to engage in
1612. Sulfa drugs (UC or Crohn's) Crohn's
sexual intercourse after an
MI? 1613. Granulomas (UC or Crohn's) Crohn's---hint:
"gran"ny Crohn
1588. Will fluid resuscitation No, you must use cardiac
(administering large drugs (giving IVs and 1614. "String sign" on barium enema Crohn's
amounts of IV fluid) treat blood will not help this (UC or Crohn's)
cardiogenic shock? kind of shock) 1615. Diarrhea (UC or Crohn's) Crohn's
1589. Will the client with a MI be yes, yes 1616. Pain & cramping (UC or Crohn's) Crohn's
nauseated?...diaphoretic?
1617. Steroids (Prednisone) (UC or Either
1590. What will the extremities of Cold, clammy Crohn's)
the client with a MI feel like?
1618. The purpose of an upper GI is to Ulcerations
1591. What is the permanent EKG ST wave changes detect ___________.
change seen post MI?
1619. What 3 structures does an upper Esophagus, stomach,
1592. Of CPK and LDH which rises CPK GI series visualize? duodenum
earliest?
1620. Does barium come in different Yes
1593. What drug will be used to Lidocaine flavors?
treat PVCs of MI?
1621. What is the most uncomfortable Lying & turning on a
1594. Will the client with a MI need No, just moderate flow aspect of an upper GI series? hard, flat X-ray table
100% O2 for their entire stay (42% or 3 to 6 liters for first
in the hospital? 48 hours)
1622. Is fasting required before an Yes, usually NPO after
upper GI series? midnight.
1595. Clear liquid diet (UC or Ulcerative colitis diet
Crohn's)
1623. How much barium is swallowed? 8 oz

1596. Bed rest (UC or Crohn's) Ulcerative colitis

1624. Barium is ___________ in Chalky-bitter taste
consistency.
1597. Women mostly (UC or Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's)
1625. If an ulceration does not reduce Malignancy
by 50% on upper GI in 3
1598. One-layer ulceration's with Ulcerative colitis weeks of medication treatment
edema of bowel (UC or then _________ is suspected.
Crohn's)
1626. What are the 3 classic vital signs? Temperature, pulse,
1599. Steroids (UC or Crohn's) Either respiration
1600. I&O (UC or Crohn's) Either 1627. Measurement of vitals requires a False
doctors orders. (T/F)
1628. The temperature of the extremities Lower 1646. When using a glass 8-11
and skin is (higher/lower) than the thermometer it should remain
core. in the axilla for _______ minutes.
1629. List the 5 most common sites in which Oral, axillary, 1647. In the normal adult, which is Expiration
to measure the temperature. rectal, tympanic, longer, inspiration or
temporal expiration?
1630. The normal adult temperature via the 98.6 1648. What is the normal respiratory 12-20
oral route is... for an adult?
1631. The normal rectal temperature is.. 99.6 1649. What is bradypnea? Any respiratory rate
below 10 per minute.
1632. The normal axillary temperature is.. 97.6
1650. What is tachynpea? Any respiratory rate
1633. Body temperature is Increased
about 24 per minute.
(increased/decreased) with activity.
1651. Is it acceptable practice to Yes, if the respirations
1634. With any oral temperature device, the under, tongue,
count the number or are regular.
meter must be mouth, closed
respiration in 15 seconds and
______ the ________, and the ______ must
multiply by 4 to get the rate.
be _________.
(T/F)
1635. If your client is 4 years old or younger, No
1652. What is the pulse? The surge of blood
should you take an oral temperature?
ejected from the left
1636. Can you measure an oral temperature No ventricle.
on an unconscious patient?
1653. What is the average pulse rate 72 per minute (60 to
1637. Can you measure an oral temperature No for an adult? 100)
on someone with an
1654. What rate classifies as tachy in A rate above 100 per
NG tube in place?
an adult? minute
1638. If the client is found smoking, eating 15 minutes
1655. What rate classifies as brady in A rate below 60 per
or drinking when you
an adult? minute
are about to take a temperature you
should wait ______ (at least). 1656. Will pain alone increase the Yes, pain alone can
pulse rate? increase the pulse rate?
1639. Should you use the oral route for Yes
measuring temperature when a client 1657. Which finger should never be The thumb
has oxygen per nasal cannulae? used to determine a pulse?
1640. People on seizure precaution should Rectal or axillary, 1658. What does it mean to measure To auscultate with a
have their temperature measured by tympanic or an apical pulse? stethoscope over the
which route? temporal chest to hear the heart
rate.
1641. People with facial trauma should have Rectal or axillary
their temperature measured by which or tympanic 1659. If a pulse is irregular how Count one full minute.
route? would you determine the rate?
1642. Clients with rectal surgery, should Oral, axillary, 1660. If an apical/radial pulse is Count for 30 seconds
have their temperatures tympanic or regular how would you and multiply by 2.
measured by which route? temporal determine
the rate?
1643. People with heart blocks or Rectum-vagal
conduction problems should not have stimulation 1661. What is an apical-radial pulse? When 2 nurses measure
their temperatures taken per _____. causes more the apical rate
Why? heart block. simultaneously with the
radial rate for
1644. When using a glass thermometer it 3-10
comparison.
should remain in the
mouth for _______ minutes. 1662. How long must an apical-radial Always for 1 full minute.
pulse be measured?
1645. When using a glass thermometer it 2-3
should remain in the rectum for _______
minutes.
1663. How many nurses are Always two (it is never acceptable 1678. To prevent germs An occlusive dressing
needed to measure for one nurse to measure the apical from getting into or
an apical-radial pulse for a minute then measure out of a wound you
pulse? the radial or a minute.) should use what
type of dressing?
1664. What is a voiding It is a series of X-rays taken as the
cystogram? person with a full bladder is asked 1679. What solution is Tincture of benzoin
to void. The X-rays show any reflux put onto the skin to
of urine back up the ureters (a dye protect it from the
if injected prior to this) irritating effects of
the tape?
1665. Does the client need Yes
to have a catheter 1680. With what is a Sutures or steri-strips, staples
inserted for a voiding round closed in first
cystogram? intention?
1666. Is the client sedated No 1681. What is another Granulation
for the voiding name of second
cystogram? intention?
1667. Is the client NPO for No, just clear liquid breakfast 1682. When swabbing an Start at the incision and move
the voiding incision you would outward.
cystogram? start at the incision
or 1 Inch away from
1668. What problems does Bladder filling problems,
the incision?
a voiding cystogram vesicoureteral reflux
diagnose best? 1683. After you remove Wash your hands and put on sterile
soiled dressings and gloves
1669. What precautions Shielding the testicles from the X-
before you put on
are necessary for rays
the sterile dressing
males during a
you must....
voiding cystogram?
1684. What is meant be You pull the drain out 1 inch.
1670. Is there a bowel No
the phrase "advance
evacuation prep for a
the drain 1 inch"?
voiding cystogram?
1685. After advancing a Should
1671. For what reason are Permit you to remove & replace
Penrose drain you
Montgomery straps dressings without using tape
(should/should not)
used? (protects the skin)
cut off the excess
1672. Sutures in general 7th drain?
are removed by the
1686. When a dressing is True, by a process called capillary
___ day.
saturated, germs action.
1673. Leaving a would Dark, warm, moist can enter the
open to air decease wound from the
infection by outside. (T/F)
eliminating what 3
1687. When is a bad time Mealtime
environmental
to change
conditions?
dressings?
1674. To remove tape Toward (this way you don't put
1688. Define laceration. Cut
always pull pressure/pull on the suture line.)
(toward/away) from 1689. What is the #1 Both are internal forms of
the wound. difference between radiotherapy however, in sealed, a
sealed & unsealed solid object is placed in a body cavity;
1675. Define contusion. Bruise (internal)
radiation? in unsealed a radioactive substance
1676. Define debridement. Removal of necrotic tissue from a is injected in liquid form into a vein
wound.
1677. What is the purpose Remove secretions from the area so
of a wound drain? healing occurs.
1690. What are the 3 Time, distance, shielding 1699. When the patient is Wear gloves while in possible
principles the receiving radioactive contact with urine, special
nurse uses to iodine what precautions taken to dispose of the
protect precautions is/are urine.
self when caring most important?
for a client with a 1700. Rape is a crime of False, it is a violent act
sealed radioactive
passion. (T/F)
implant?
1701. Most rapes occur False, usually the same race
1691. What is another Beam or X-rays
involving two
name for external
people of different
radiation therapy?
races. (T/F)
1692. What is the In external the tumor is bombarded 1702. When must In the emergency room
difference with x-rays & nothing is placed in the
psychological care of
between external body; in internal there is some
the rape victim
radiation radioactive substance introduced into
begin?
treatment and the body
internal radiation 1703. ... Disorganization phase, re-
treatment? organziation phase

1693. Of sealed internal, Sealed internal, unsealed internal and 1704. Immediately after False, calmness & a composed
unsealed internal, external radiation treatment is of no rape, a woman who attitude are SIGNS of Rape Trauma
and external danger to the nurse unless the nurse is calm and syndrome, (calm person is just as
radiation is in the radiation treatment room composed is disorganized as the crying and
treatment, which during the treatment. adjusting well. (T/F) upset lady)
is MOST dangerous 1705. ... GI irritability, itching or burning on
for the nurse? urination, skeletal muscle tension*
1694. Should pregnant Never. (Lawsuit time!) don't forget PAIN
nurses care for 1706. Scoliosis is a ______ Lateral, spine
patient receiving curvature of the
sealed internal ______.
radiotherapy?
1707. Scoliosis is MOST Thoracic and lumbar
1695. Should pregnant Maybe, as long as they don't contact common in the
nurses care for a body secretions. _______ and
patient receiving ______ sections of the
unsealed internal spinal column.
radiotherapy?
1708. Scoliosis in the Right
1696. What skin No ointments with metals like zinc thoracic spine is
products should oxide, no talcum powder usually convex to
the patient the
receiving (left/right).
external
1709. Scoliosis in the Left (*Hint: curve Left in Lumbar)
radiotherapy
lumbar spine is
AVOID?
usually convex to
1697. Describe the Use plain water only, no soaps, pat the (left/right).
hygiene measures dry, can use cornstarch for itch
1710. With which other Kyphosis (humpback), Lordosis
the you teach the
two spine (swayback)
patient receiving
deformities is
external
scoliosis
radiotherapy?
associated?
1698. What are the Pruritis, erythema, burning, sloughing
1711. What is Kyphosis? Humpback in the thoracic area
major side effects of skin, anorexia, nausea & vomiting,
of radiotherapy? diarrhea, bone marrow depression 1712. What is Lordosis? Swayback in the lumbar region
(Lumbar, Lordosis)
1713. What is the difference Structural-you are born with; 1728. What is a common Cast syndrome
between structural and Functional-you get from bad complication of a
functional scoliosis? posture client in a body
cast (like a Risser
1714. What age group should Young teens
cast)?
be routinely screened for
scoliosis? 1729. What is cast Nausea, vomiting and abdominal
syndrome? distention that can result in
1715. What are the 3 subjective Back pain, dyspnea, fatigue
intestinal obstruction
complaints of clients
with scoliosis? 1730. What group of people ANYONE in a body cast
get cast syndrome?
1716. What test/exam X-rays of the spine
CONFIRMS the diagnosis 1731. What is the Removal of the cast, NG tube to
of scoliosis? treatment of for cast decompress, NPO
syndrome?
1717. What type of brace is Milwaukee
most commonly used for 1732. How would you, the Ask the client if they are
scoliosis? nurse, assess for experiencing any abdominal
developing symptoms-keep track of bowel
1718. Name 4 exercises used to Heel lifts; sit-ups;
cast syndrome? movements & passing flatus (if not
treat mild scoliosis. hyperextension of the spine;
having BMs or passing flatus, cast
breathing exercises
syndrome is suspected)
1719. What kind of treatment Surgical fusion with rod
1733. What causes cast Hyperextension of the spine by a
is done for severe insertion
syndrome, body cast: the hyperextension
scoliosis?
specifically in a Risser interrupts the nerve & blood
1720. What type of cast is used Risser cast cast? supply to the gut
post-operatively for
1734. The inheritance Autosomal recessive
scoliosis?
pattern of sickle-cell
1721. What kind of rod is used Harrington Rod anemia is _____
to "fix" curvature? _____.
1722. Scoliosis MOST Teenage females 1735. What does It means you only have 1 defective
commonly affects _____ heterozygous mean? gene from 1 parent.
_____
1736. People who are Heterozygous
(type of clients).
(hetero/homo) have
1723. How many hours a day 23 sickle cell
should the client wear a trait.
Milkwaukee brace?
1737. What does It means you have the defective
1724. What solution should be Tincture of benzoin or homozygous mean? gene from both parents.
used on the skin where alcohol,no lotions of ointments-
1738. People who are Homozygous
the you want to toughen the skin
(hetero/homo)zygous
brace rubs? not soften it
have sickle cell
1725. Clients with a Milwaukee True disease.
brace should avoid
1739. People with sickle True-usually it has occurred that in
vigorous
cell TRAIT only carry times of SEVERE stress, the TRAIT
exercise. (T/F)
the disease, they DO does cause some symptoms but
1726. After corrective Log rolled (in a body cast) NOT have symptoms. not usually.
SURGERY how is the (T/F)
client turned?
1740. What are the #1 and Hypoxia, dehydration
1727. How often should the Every 2 hours #2 causes of sickle
neurovascular status of cell crisis?
the
1741. The most common Vaso-occlusive
extremities of a client in
type of crisis that
a Risser cast be
occurs is a
measured? Fresh post-
______-______ crisis.
operatively?
1742. In vaso-occlusive crisis the Abnormal RBC's 1759. What is spinal It is a common occurrence in spinal cord
vessels become shock? injury in which the spinal cord swells
occluded with ______ ______. above and below the level in injury
1743. The abnormal hemoglobin Hgb S -- it "sickles" 1760. When does Immediately or within 2 hours of injury
produced by people with sickle spinal shock
cell anemia is called Hgb ______. occur?
1744. What shape does Hgb S make the Crescent-shaped 1761. How long does 5 days to 3 months
RBC's? spinal shock
last?
1745. Why do the crescent-shaped They clump together
RBCs cause occlusion and create a sludge. 1762. When the spinal C1 to C8
of the vessels? cord injury is at
level of _____ to
1746. What are the top 3 priorities in Oxygenation
_____ the patient
care of the client with Hydration
will be a
sickle-cell crisis? PAIN control
quadriplegic.
1747. What activity order will the Bed rest
1763. When the spinal C1 and C4
client with sickle cell CRISIS
cord injury is
have?
between _____
1748. Or Tylenol, Morphine, Demoral, Aspirin-it can cause and
Aspirin which is acidosis which makes _____, there is
NEVER given to a sickle-cell the crisis and sickling permanent
patient? worse respiratory
1749. At what age is death most likely Young adulthood paralysis.
in sickle cell anemia? 1764. Can the patient Yes, because even thought his injury
1750. Sickle-cell anemia symptoms do 6; fetal hemoglobin with spinal cord was below C4, spinal shock can lead to
not appear before injury at C7 level loss function above the level, however
the age of ____ months due to the have the will not be permanently ventilator
presence of _____ ______. respiratory dependent-he will breath on when once
arrest? spinal shock goes away.
1751. Sickle cell anemia is most Blacks
commonly seen in 1765. Spinal cord Paraplegia
(blacks/whites). injury in the
thoracic/lumbar
1752. Should a child in sickle-cell crisis No, it can occlude
regions result
wear tight clothes? vessels even more.
in ___plegia.
1753. Spinal cord injuries are more True
1766. If airway Modified jaw thrust
common in males. (T/F)
obstruction
1754. In what age range is spinal cord 15 to 25 occurs at the
injury most common? accident site
1755. The #1 goal in emergency Immobilization of the and
treatment of spinal cord injury spine you suspect
is... spinal cord
injury, what
1756. When halo traction is being used Ambulate maneuver is
to immobilize the spinal cord used to open the
the client is allowed to _______. airway?
1757. When the patient with spinal Absolute bed rest 1767. In spinal cord Move, hyperextend
cord injury is in tongs or injury never
on a stryker frame or on a ______ the neck.
circoelectric bed they are on......
1758. The 2 most common surgeries Laminectomy and
used to treat a spinal cord injury spinal fusion
are ____ and _____ _____.
1768. How should you change
the position of the spinal
cord
injury patient after he has
an order to be up? Why?
1769. For the patient with
neurogenic bladder you
should
straight catheterize every
____ hours.
1770. The patient with spinal
cord injury will have
(flaccid/spastic) muscles.
1771. Name 3 drugs used to treat
spasms.
1772. What is automatic
dysflexia or hyperreflexia?
1773. What are the vital sign
changes seen in autonomic
dysreflexia?
1774. What do you do first for
the client experiencing
autonomic dysreflexia?
1775. What do you do second for
the client experiencing
autonomic dysreflexia?
1776. Do you need to call the
doctor for autonomic
dysreflexia?
1777. What is the #1 treatment
for autonomic dysreflexia?
1778. What is the purpose of
restricting activity after
spinal
tap?
1779. Should the client drink
after a spinal tap?
1780. Do you need an informed
consent for a spinal tap?
1781. Should CSF contain blood?
1782. Does the client have to be
NPO before a spinal tap?
1783. What is the normal color
of cerebrospinal fluid?
Slowly, because of severe 1784. Into what space is Subarachnoid space
orthostatic hypotension (they the needle
use a tilt table) inserted during a
spinal
tap?
Every 6 hours 1785. Can the client turn Yes
side-to-side after a
spinal tap?
1786. In what position Lateral decubitus (on their side)
should the client position and knees to chest
Spastic be during a spinal
tap?
1787. Identify the Lie flat for 6 to 12 hours
Valium activity restriction
Baclofen necessary after
Dantrium lumbar puncture?
A common complication of 1788. What are the 2 To measure or relieve pressure and
quadriplegics in response to purposes of a obtain a CSF sample
a full bladder or bowel. spinal tap?
Sweating 1789. Does the client No
Headache have to be sedated
Nausea & vomiting before a spinal
Gooseflesh tap?
Severe HYPERtension 1790. Antibiotic (Define) A drug that destroys or inhibits
Raise HOB growth of micro-organisms
1791. Asepsis (Define) Absence of organisms causing disease
1792. Antiseptic (Define) A substance used to destroy or inhibit
Check the bladder, check the
the growth of pathogens but not
bowel
necessarily their spores (in general
SAFE TO USE ON PEOPLE)
No, only call the doctor if 1793. Disinfectant A substance used to destroy
draining the bladder &
(Define) pathogens but not necessarily their
removing impaction does not
spores (in general not intended for
work
use on persons)
Drain the bladder, empty the 1794. Bactericide Substance capable of destroying
bowel
(Define) micro-organisms but not necessarily
To prevent headache due to their spores
CSF loss 1795. Bacteriostatic Substance that prevents or inhibits
(Define) the growth of micro-organisms
1796. Anaerobe (Define) Micro-organisms that do not require
Yes, encourage fluids to
free oxygen to live
replace CSF
1797. Aerobe (Define) Micro-organisms requiring free
Yes
oxygen to live
1798. Pathogen (Define) Micro-organism that causes disease
No
1799. Clean technique Practices that help reduce the
No
(Define) number & spread of micro-organisms
(synonym for medical asepsis)
Clear, colorless 1800. Sterile (Define) An item on which all micro-organism
have been destroyed
1801. Coagulate (Define) Process that thickens or congeals 1815. The best client position during Semi-fowlers
a substance airway suctioning is _______.
1802. Host (Define) An animal or a person upon 1816. The suction should be While removing the
which or in which micro- delivered while catheter
organisms live. (inserting/removing) the
catheter.
1803. Portal of entry (Define) Part of the body where
organisms enter 1817. What outcomes would Clear even lung sounds,
indicate that suctioning was normal vital signs
1804. Contaminate (Define) To make something unclean or
effective?
unsterile
1818. How often should the client's When it needs to be, for
1805. Surgical asepsis (Define) Practices that render & keep
airway be suctioned? example moist lung
objects & areas free from all
sounds, tachycardia,
micro-organisms (synonym for
restlessness (hypoxia),
sterile techniques)
ineffective cough
1806. Medical asepsis (Define) Practices that help reduce the
1819. The unconscious client should Side-lying, facing nurse
number & spread of micro-
assume what position
organisms (synonym for clean
during suctioning?
techniques).
1820. If not contraindicated, what Administer a few breaths
1807. Spore (Define) A cell produced by a micro-
action by the nurse, before at 100% oxygen before
organism which develops into
suctioning, would most likely beginning.
active micro-organisms under
reduce hypoxia during
proper conditions.
suctioning?
1808. Which hand should The dominant, the non-
1821. What solution should be used Sterile saline
hold the suction dominant
to clear the tubing
catheter? Which
during suctioning?
should hold the
connecting tube? 1822. With what size catheter 12 to 16 French
should an adult's airway be
1809. The nurse should use Surgical asepsis (sterile
suctioned?
(medical/surgical) technique)
asepsis during airway 1823. How much suction should be Less than 80 mm Hg
suction? used for an infant?
1810. What kind of lubricant Sterile water-soluble 1824. How much suction should be 80 to 100 mm Hg
should be used on the used for a child?
suction catheter? 1825. How much suction should be 120 to 150 mm Hg
1811. Should the suction be Intermittent to prevent mucosal used for an adult?
continuous or damage
intermittent?
1812. For how long should 10 seconds
suction be applied
during any one entry of
the catheter?
1813. How often should the After each pass/entry/removal
nurse clear the tubing
during suctioning?
1814. Which way would you To the left, to the right
turn the client's head to
suction
the right mainstem
bronchus? The left
mainstem bronchus?
1826. Do you assess for Yes, in fact whenever a patient 1838. The goal of action Another person on the scene (it then
suicide potential makes a statement about wishing while the suicidal immediately decreases risk)
whenever a or wanting to die or kill self you patient is still off Remember: people who are alone
patient makes any must ALWAYS AND FIRST assess for the phone is to get are always high risk
statement about suicide potential*-stop everything _______ person
wanting to die or kill and assess for suicide patient _______ the ______.
self? (except CPR, or course) 1839. What are the four Search personal belongings for
1827. Children are at _____ Low classic suicide drugs & alcohol, remove any sharp
risk for suicide. precautions? objects, remove any device for
hanging or strangling; must be on
1828. Adolescents are High
constant one-to-one observation
(low/high) risk for
(NEVER out of sight)
suicide.
1840. Once the patient is No, you should not focus on the
1829. Young adults are High to moderate
admitted for attempt, focus on the present and
(low/high) risk for
attempted suicide future.
suicide.
should you ever
1830. People between 25 Low to moderate discuss the attempt
and 50 years are with them?
(low/moderate
1841. -pathy Disease, suffering
/high) risk for
suicide. 1842. -penia Lack, deficiency of
1831. People over 50 year High 1843. -sect To cut
are (low/high) risk 1844. -plast Plastic surgery on a specified part
for suicide.
1845. -sclerosis Hardening of a tissue by:
1832. The patient who has Moderate to high, depends upon
inflammation, deposition of mineral
a definite plan is feasibility and ease of plan
salt; an infiltration of connective
(low/high) risk for
tissue fibers
suicide.
1846. -centesis A perforation or puncture
1833. The use of pills Moderate
makes the patient 1847. -genic Produce, originate, become
(low/moderate/high) 1848. -emia Blood
risk for suicide.
1849. -otomy Butting
1834. The patient who has Low
1850. -pexy Fixation of something
NO definite plan is
(low/high) risk 1851. -atresia Condition of occlusion
for suicide. 1852. -desis Binding, fusing
1835. The use of _____, Guns, ropes, knives 1853. -cele Combining form meaning a tumor or
_______, and ______ to swelling or a cavity
kill self,
make high risk
1854. -cis Cut, kill
suicide. 1855. -rhapy; -rrhapy Joining in a seam, suturation
1836. Who is at higher risk Man 1856. -scope; -scopy Instrument for observation
for suicide, a man or
1857. -osis Indicates condition, process
a woman?
1858. -oma Tumor
1837. Of: married, Highest-separated then divorced
divorced, and Lowest-married 1859. -ostomy Surgical opening
separated, which 1860. -stasis Stoppage
marital status is
1861. -itis Inflammation
highest risk for
suicide? Lowest risk 1862. -ology Study of; knowledge, science
of suicide? 1863. -lysis Breaking down
1864. -ectomy Surgical removal of
1865. -tripsy Crushing of something by a 1886. TENS electrodes are Skin
surgical instrument placed into the .....
1866. -ase Used in naming enzymes 1887. Can TENS units be placed Never
over an incision to
1867. -gram; -graphy Write; record
decrease incisional pain?
1868. Syphilis is sexually True
1888. Patient with what other Cardiac pacemaker
transmiteed. (T/F)
mechanic device in use
1869. Syphilis first infects the Mucous membranes cannot use
_____ ______. TENS?
1870. What are the stages of Primary, secondary, latent, late 1889. How often should the Every day
syphilis? patient be taught to
1871. Syphilis is a fatal True change the TENS
disease if untreated. electrodes?
(T/F) 1890. How is a dorsal-column Dorsal column stimulation
1872. What organism causes Treponema palladium stimulator different than electrodes are surgically
syphilis? a TENS implanted by the spinal cord;
unit? the patient has to undergo a
1873. What is the lesion like The chancre (pronounced
laminectomy to place the DCS
in primary syphilis? shanker)
electrodes.
1874. The chancres of Painless
1891. In what group of clients Uncooperative, bleeding
syphilis are
is thoracentesis disorders
(painful/painless).
contraindicated?
1875. Chancres disappear True
1892. What instruction is most Don't move or cough
without treatment.
important to give the
(T/F)
client undergoing
1876. Late syphilis attacks Liver, heart, brain thoracentesis?
which 3 body organs?
1893. What is thoracentesis? The pleural space is entered
1877. What test CONFIRMS Dark-field illumination of the by puncture & fluid is drained
the presence of treponema palladium by gravity into bottles-allows
syphilis? the lungs rto re-expand
1878. What is the treatment Penicillin 1894. If a client has a cough, Give him a cough suppressant.
of choice for syphilis? what should be done
1879. Why is penicillin Procaine makes the shot less before
administered with painful; Probenecid blocks the thoracentesis?
Procaine? excretion of penicillin 1895. Does thoracentesis Yes, it invades a body cavity.
With Probenecid? require a signed
1880. What is the most Ataxia (gait problems) informed consent?
common sign of 1896. Describe the position the Upright with arms & shoulders
neurosyphillis? client should assume elevated, slighting leaning
1881. What does TENS stand Transcutaneous electrical nerve during a thoracentesis? forward.
for? stimulator 1897. What is exopthalmos? Bulging outward eyes
1882. Is it an invasive No, the skin in never broken. 1898. To care for a patient with Dark sunglasses, artificial tears
procedure? exopthalmos the patient
1883. Can TENS be used for Both should wear _____ _____
acute or chronic pain? and use _________ ________.

1884. TENS use is based upon Gate control

1899. Radioactive iodine is Destroys tissue, thyroid
the _______ _______ of given to hyperthyroid hormone
pain relief. patients because it _______
______ plus decreases
1885. TENS electrodes Large-this is the basis of gate production of ________
stimulate (Large/small) control theory. _______.
diameter fibers.
1900. The #1 problem with using Agranulocytosis 1916. Why do you assess the Because during surgery the
Propylthiouracil is ____. post-operative surgeon may have nicked the
thyroidectomy recurrent laryngeal nerve. (This
1901. What do you teach to all patients Report any sore throat
patient's voice for nerve is tested on the state
on drugs which have immediately
hoarseness boards!)
granulocytosis as a side effect?
periodically?
1902. Lugols solution decreases the Vascularity
1917. Will the post-operative He is on the voice rest unless you
_________ of the thyroid gland.
thyroidectomy patient are assessing his voice
1903. Lugols solution should be given Through a straw be allowed to talk?
_____a ______ to prevent staining of
1918. What positions should Semi-fowlers with neck
the teeth.
the post-operative supported in midline
1904. SSKI should be given with _____ Fruit juices; bitter taste thyroidectomy patient
______ to decrease the (SSKI-super saturated be?
_________ ________. sollution of potassium
1919. What 3 pieces of Suction, tracheotomy set, oxygen
iodide)
equipment must be in
1905. Patients with either hypo or True the room with thyroid
hyper thyroid can go into storm?
thyroid storm. (T/F)
1920. What calcium Hypocalcemia-due to accidental
1906. Give another name for thyroid Thyrotoxicosis, thyroid imbalance is common removal of the parathyroids.
storm. crisis in the post-op
1907. In thyrotoxicosis, the Increases (106); thyroidectomy patient?
temperature ______; the heart rate increases; 1921. When is hypocalcemia The 2nd and 3rd post operative
______ and the patient becomes delirious/comatose most likely to occur day-because it takes awhile for
__________. after thyroidectomy? the level to drop.
1908. What is the first thing a nurse Give oxygen Why?
does when thyroid storm occurs? 1922. Hypocalcemia will Tetany
1909. What is the 2nd thing a nurse Call MD, can pack in cause (tetany/severe
does when thyroid crisis occurs? ice or use muscle weakness).
hypothermia blanket 1923. What drug is used to Calcium gluconate
1910. What are the side effects of Tachycardia, treat decreased
thyroid replacement drugs? palpitations and other calcium?
signs seen in hyper 1924. What is Chvostek's sign? A sign of hypocalcemia, it is when
thyroidism you tap the cheek, the patient
1911. Why is Lugols solution given pre- To decrease the puffs out the cheeks. (CHvostek
operatively thyroidectomy? vascularity of the and CHeeks)
gland & minimize 1925. What is Trousseau's It is a sign or hypocalcemia-it is
blood loss sign? when you get a carpopedal
1912. After thyroidectomy you check Slipping your hand spasm of the hand when you
for wound hemorrhage by... under the neck and apply a blood pressure cuff to
shoulders. the lower arm.

1913. The #1 complication of Hemorrhage-or 1926. What is the earliest sign Tremors/tingling
thyroidectomy in the first 8 to 12 maybe airway of hypocalcemia?
hours is __________. 1927. Should you palpate the No, it the could send them into
1914. When moving the fresh post- Move the neck thyroid of the thyroid storm.
operative thyroidectomy patient hyperthyroid patient
you must take care to never _____ after ectomy?
_____ _____. 1928. Can dental work send a Yes, any stress can.
1915. Post-operatively thyroidectomy Neck hyperthyroid client
patients will have sand bags on into thyroid storm?
either side of the ______. 1929. Give another name for Hyperalimentation
TPN.
1930. Hyperalimentation Glucose, amino acids, water, minerals, 1941. How many types of tracheo- Four
contains vitamins esophageal malformation are
hypertonic ___, ____ there?
acids, ______, ______, 1942. What are the 3 most common 1) Esophageal atresia-EA,
and _____.
tracheo-esophageal 2) tracheo-esophageal
1931. TPN can be safely Yes, this is the preferred route. malformations? fistula-TEF 3) tracheo-
given via a central esophageal fistula with
line. (T/F) esophageal astresia- TEF
w/EA
1932. TPN can be safely It can, but only for a very short period
infused via a (48 to 72 hours maximum). 1943. What is the defect called An opening between the
peripheral IV line. esophageal fistula? esophagus & trachea but
(T/F) the esophagus is
connected to the stomach
1933. If a TPN solution is No, never ever speed up the rate.
& trachea is connected to
running too slow
the lungs.
and is 2 hours
behind 1944. What is the defect called The esophagus ends in a
can you increase tracheo-esophageal atresia blind pouch and there is
the rate 20%. (T/F) with no connection to the
fistula? stomach and there is a
1934. If a TPN infusion Hyperosmolar-because of all the
fistula between the
runs in too fast it solutes
esophagus and trachea.
creates a ____
osmolar 1945. Of: tracheo-esophageal Tracheo-esophageal
imbalance. fistula, esophageal atresia, fistula with esophageal
and tracheo-esopheal astresia astresia
1935. It is okay however False, never slow the rate down-it
with fistula, which is the
to slow the rate could cause hypoglycemia.
most common?
down if the client
leaves the unit. 1946. Name-a blind end esophagus: Simple esophageal atresia
(T/F) the trachea is connected to
the lungs.
1936. What tests must #1 accu check, #2 urine
the nurse perform glucose/acetone 1947. Name-the trachea is Tracheo-esophageal
every 6 hours when connected to the lungs, the fistula
a patient is on esophagus is connected to
TPN? the stomach, but there is a
hole connecting the trachea
1937. IV lipid emulsions True
and the esophagus.
can be given
central or 1948. Name-a blind end esophagus, Tracheo-esophageal
peripheral. (T/F) the trachea is connected to fistula with esophageal
the lungs, and the trachea astresia
1938. Be certain to shake False, never shake it, shaking
and esophagus are joined.
a lipid emulsion damages the molecules.
before 1949. If an infant has tracheo- Three C's-coughing,
admininstration. esophageal fistula with choking, cyanosis
(T/F) esophageal
atresia, what 3 signs will
1939. Into which port of The port closest to the insertion
show up at first feeding?
a peripheral IV line catheter site. More recently, lipids are
can a lipid infusion included in the hyperalimentation 1950. In an infant chokes, coughs, Attempt to gently pass a
be piggybacked? bag & there is no separate or gets cyanotic during the catheter into the
administration of the lipids. first feeding what should the esophagus if you meet
nurse do to ASSESS for resistance STOP, there
1940. What is meant by These are a group of congenital birth
tracheo-esophageal fistula most probably is
tracheo- defects in which the esophagus and
with espophageal atresia? esophageal atresia.
esophageal trachea are malformed.
malformation?
1951. How is the diagnosis of
tracheo-esophageal fistula
with esophageal atresia
confirmed?
1952. Prior to surgery for repair of
tracheo-esophageal fistula
with esophageal atresia, how
is the infant fed?
1953. Does a tracheo-esophageal
fistula with esophageal
atresia have to be repaired
immediately?
1954. The #1 problem for infants
with un-repaired tracheo-
esophageal fistula with
esophageal atresia is...
1955. How do you meet the oral
sucking needs of an infant
with with un-repaired
tracheo-esophageal fistula
with esophageal atresia?
1956. How should an infant with
tracheo-esophageal fistula
with esophageal atresia be
positioned?
1957. Should you suction the blind
esophageal pouch of
esophageal atresia?
1958. What is the common cleaning
solution used during
tracheostomy care?
1959. Cut the old trach ties
(before/after) you have
secured the new ties in place.
1960. Is it acceptable to scrub the
inside of the tracheostomy
cannula with a brush during
tracheostomy care?
1961. What are the 2 major reasons
for performing tracheostomy
care?
1962. Tie the ends of the trach ties
in a (bow knot/double knot).
1963. Trach care is performed by
(clean/sterile) technique.
1964. What must you do before
performing trach care
(besides wash your hands)?
X-ray with barium
They are NPO but fed by
G-tube (gastronomy)
No-can be maintained
with G-tube feedings and
suctioning until are old
enough & stable enough
to tolerate surgery.
Aspiration, secondary
problem in malnutrition.
Use pacifiers, even though
they don't take anything
orally, they should still be
encouraged to suck.
HOB up 30 degrees.
Yes, PRN, otherwise they
may aspirate mucous
Hydrogen peroxide
After
Yes, it is desirable
To keep the airway patent,
to keep the stoma site
clean (decrease infection)
Only a double knot
Sterile
Suction the airway
1965. A properly snug set of trach ties One
allows _______ finger(s) to be
placed between the neck and
ties.
1966. Both hands must be kept sterile False, only the
throughout the entire trach dominant hand
care procedure. (T/F) remains sterile
1967. When trach suctioning and care False, clean technique
is performed by the client at is adequate
home, sterile technique must be
followed. (T/F)
1968. What is another name for Tic douloureux
trigeminial neuralgia?
1969. Which cranial nerve is affected Cranial nerve 5
by trigeminial neuralgia?
1970. What is the #1 symptom of Episodic, severe one-
trigeminial neuralgia? sided facial pain
1971. What drug treats trigeminial Tegretol
neuralgia?
1972. What triggers attacks of Breezes, cold or hot
trigeminal neuralgia? foods/fluids, tooth
brushing, chewing,
touching the face,
talking
1973. Is surgery done for trigeminal Yes, nerve avulsion
neuralgia? (destroying the nerve)
1974. What environmental Prevent drafts or
modifications are necessary in temperature extreme.
care of the patient with
trigeminial neuralgia?
1975. What dietary modifications are Lukewarm, small
necessary in the care of a patient frequent semi-solid
with trigeminal neuralgia? foods
1976. After surgery for trigeminial Protected; unaffected
neuralgia, the patient's affected
eye will be ______ and the patient
should chew food on the
_________ side.
1977. What organism causes Mycobacterium
pulmonary TB? tuberculosis
1978. The mode of transmission of the Droplet nuclei
mycobacterium
tubercuolsis organism is by _____
_____.
1979. What living conditions Crowded, poorly
predispose you to TB? ventilated
1980. The incubation period of 4 to 8 weeks
tuberculosis is...
1981. What is the typical lung lesion in A tubercle
TB called?
1982. In TB, the appetite is ____; the client _______ weight and the Decreased, loses, elevates, afternoon
temperature ________ in the _________.
1983. What is a Mantoux test? An intradermal skin test to screen for TB-called PPD
1984. When should a Mantoux test be read? 48 to 72 hours after test injection
1985. What qualifies as a positive Mantoux? More than 10 mm induration (hardness), remember redness has
nothing to do with the test being positive
1986. Name three drugs given to treat TB. Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol
1987. How often and when during the day should Isoniazid, Every day, all together
Rifampin, and Ethambutol be given?
1988. What is the #1 side effect of Isoniazid? Peripheral neuritis-take B6 to prevent
1989. After how many weeks of drug therapy is the client 2 to 4 weeks
considered NO LONGER contagious?
1990. What isolation techniques are required for TB? Masks
1991. What test is most diagnostic for TB? Sputum for acid-fact bacilla
1992. What does the sputum look like in TB? Purulent (pus) or hemoptysis (blood)
1993. When should you obtain a sputum specimen for acid fast Early AM
bacilli TB?