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1). How are the four Bleed Air Isolation Valves operated?
2). If the APU NRV Leak annunciator is lit, the first action is:
3). When operating the pressurization system in Manual Mode, turning the knob
Clockwise from Neutral will:
A). 23 Kg/min.
B). 14 Kg/min.
c). 50 Kg/min.
D). 5 Kg/min.
5). During normal flight with "RECIRC" selected the "Pack 2 HI TEMP" illuminated,
what other Overhead Panel annunciator would illuminate?
1
6). Which Cabin conditioning being provided by engine air, PACK Auto shutdown will
occur due to:
7). With engine air ON, or RECIRC selected and a Pack Valve light ON, the supply will
be:
10). With Engine Air switched ON and the Packs ON, is air conditioning and air frame
Anti-ice available?
12). What is the maximum aircraft altitude at which ground level Cabin conditions can
be maintained:
13). In the Auto Mode the Rate Knob controls Cabin Vertical Speed between:
16). With Manual selected the manual pressurization control knob controls :
3
17). What would an Overheat or Over pressure condition of an engine air supply do :
A). It would illuminate the ENG AIR FAULT caption and automatically close the
associated Air Valve.
B). It would illuminate the ENG AIR FAULT caption and automatically close both the Air
Valves in that wing.
C). It would illuminate the ENG AIR FAULT caption only.
20). On landing with the Pressurization System in Auto, the Discharge Valves will :
22). Where are the air supplies for Air Conditioning taken from :
A). Inboard Engines and APU.
B). Outboard Engines and APU
C). All Engines and APU.
4
23). The Discharged Valves automatically close, when the Cabin altitude reaches :
24). Before Take Off for a planned cruise altitude of 31 000 ft, the Baro Scale of the
pressure controller is set to 1013 mb and the rate knob is set in its detent, What
should be altitude setting be?
27). If a Pack is switched ON, but there is low flow through the Pack :
32). In the Auto Pressurization Mode with the Rate Knob in the detent, Cabin Rates of
change are :
1 A 5 B 9 C 13 A 17 A 21 A 25 A 29 C
2 A 6 A 10 C 14 C 18 B 22 C 26 A 30 B
3 B 7 B 11 A 15 A 19 C 23 D 27 C 31 B
4 B 8 A 12 A 16 C 20 A 24 A 28 A 32 A
6
SEC 22 AUTO FLIGHT
33). If the amber CAT II annunciators are lit, as the aircraft descends through 500 ft :
A). Extinguish or inhibit both Green and Amber annunciators and disarm the excess
deviation warnings from the monitor Computer.
B). Extinguish the Green annunciators but leave the annunciators lit and disarm the
excess deviation warning from the monitor unit.
C). Extinguish or inhibit both Green and Amber annunciators and allow the excess
deviation warnings from the monitor unit to operate.
35). Second pressure on the Pitch switch of the Autopilot controller will :
A). Sphere Level, FD bars climb and right, ATT, F.D LOC and G.S Flags.
B). Sphere Climb and right, F.D bars level with LOC G.S and ATT Flags.
C). Sphere 10 Climb and 20 right bank, FD bars full up and Full right with ATT and F.D
Flags.
37). What are the indications of the CAT II approach monitoring system :
A). Green and Amber CAT II annunciators and amber Loc deviation annunciators, all
steady lights .
B). Flashing Green and Amber CAT II annunciators only. (steady), and flashing.
C). Green and Amber CAT II annunciators only Green and and flashing LOC/GSL deviation
annunciators.
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38). The Flight Director may be displayed :
39). At what height will the Radio discrete to the CAT II inhibit both ILS excess deviation
warnings:
40). If the aircraft gets out of trim in roll, while the Autopilot is engaged:
A). The other system can be used, but with only half of the authority.
B). Both systems cut out and cannot be restored whilst the fault persists.
C). The good system can be used provided that the autopilot is engaged.
46). The elevator trim servo motor can be used as an electric trim facility using buttons
on the control wheels:
48). A continuous Audio Warning will be given if the Autopilot is disengaged by:
49). If the Flight Director is in use and engaged on the height lock, when the Autopilot is
engaged it will:
A). Engage in the Pitch Hold Mode and re-set the Flight Director to pitch hold .
B). Engage into Height Lock Mode and fly the aircraft to reduce height error to ZERO.
C). Disengage the Flight Director.
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50). With TURB Mode selected and Autopilot engaged:
A). A Green legend IN on the Autopilot controller and Green triangles on the Mode
Selector
B). A Green legend IN on the Autopilot controller and ELEV and AIL on the Mode
Selector.
C). A Green legend IN on the Mode Selector and AP IN or the Mode annunciators
54). Where Modes can be pre selected, the armed states are indicated by:
57). Radio Deviation Signals are routed to the A.F.G.S via the avionics switching Unit
controlled by:
58). With the Autopilot engaged and the required height set and armed on the altitude
selector the aircraft will:
11
62). The pilot may manually override the Autopilot through the torque limiters on:
63). First pressure on the Pitch switch on the Autopilot controller will cause:
65). If the bank angle of the aircraft was 15 at the time of Autopilot engagement:
A). A Green legend YDI and YD2 on the auto controller YD switch .
B). A Green IN ON the Mode selector YD window .
C). Both A and B.
12
68). The Flight Director when switched ON, will:
A). In pitch, IAS or VS Modes of the rate of descent is less that 1000 ft/min .
B). In pitch IAS or VS Modes if altitude change is zero and there are no pitch inputs.
C). Temporary disengage Elevator, Elevator Trim and Roll Servo clutches.
A). Temporary disengage Elevator, Elevator Trim and Roll Servo clutches.
B). Synchronize the Flight Director with the Autopilot.
C). Cause the Autopilot to level the aircraft in Pitch and Roll.
A). The Autopilot clutches will disengage and manual and electric trims are available.
B). The Autopilot clutches will disengage and electrical trim is not available.
C). The Autopilot clutches will disengage and altitude hold mode is degraded.
13
74). The RNAV/NAV Switch by the captains mode annunciator panel is used to select :
A). Which HSI is used to control the Autopilot .
B). Whether the HSI displays RNAV signals or VHF NAV signals .
C). Whether VHF NAV 1 or VHF NAV 2 is used .
33 C 38 A 43 A 48 B 55 B 60 B 65 C 70 C
34 A 39 B 44 B 49 B 56 C 61 A 66 C 71 A
35 A 40 C 45 C 50 B 57 C 62 C 67 A 72 A
36 C 41 A 46 C 53 B 58 C 63 A 68 C 73 C
37 C 42 C 47 C 54 A 59 A 64 A 69 C 74 B
14
SEC 23 COMMUNICATION
75). When the Cabin Call Button is pressed in the Cockpit the response is:
A). A chime, green aisle lights (Steady) and crew call button light illuminated blue on
cabin attendants intercom panels.
B). A chime, green aisle, lights (Flashing) and crew call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panels .
C). A chime, green aisle lights (Steady) and crew call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panels.
76). When the E.I.C Button is pressed in the cabin the response is:
77). If the Emergency Call Button in the Cockpit is pressed the response is:
A). triple chime, green aisle lights (flashing) and Crew Call flashing red on cabin
attendants intercom panel.
B). A chime, red aisle lights (steady) and Crew Call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panel.
C). A chime, green aisle lights (flashing) and Crew Call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panel.
15
80). To transmit (Normal) on VHF COMM 1 with headset :
A). Press in VHF COMM 1 Button and rotate to adjust the Volume then press either R/T
switch on the Control Wheel or Radio Selector Unit .
B). Press in VHF COMM 1 receive Button and press either R/T switch to R/T on Radio
Selector Unit.
C). Press in VHF 1 transmit Button and rotate to adjust the Volume, press VHF 1
TRANSMIT Button and press either R/T switch to R/T on the Control Wheel or Radio
Selector Unit.
75 A 76 A 77 C 78 B 79 A 80 C 81 C 82 B
16
SEC - 24 ELECTRICAL
A). Putting the External Ground AC Power on line and putting Battery switch to ON.
B). It cannot be charged from flat in the aircraft, it must be removed from charging.
C). It would be recharged in the aircraft any time the emergency DC Bus Voltage is
greater than the Battery Voltage.
84). If No 1 GCU Sensor over current and its Bus Fault Relay operates :
85). Maximum Amperage drawn during main engine start would be approximately :
86). With the Standby Generator switch selected to arm, the Standby Generator will
operate :
87). With the External AC Ground Power connected and switched ON, if the AC Bus Tie
is set to open:
17
B). Three Phase AC plus 28 Volts DC power.
C). Three Phase AC plus 36 Volts DC power.
89). From which Bus Bar is the Battery normally charged up?
93). What the DC System is operating in parallel and DC load is low (Below 50 Amps)?
95). On ground with the APU Generator operating and engines 1 and 4 Generators not
operating, if the AC Bus Tie switch is open then:
98). With aircraft Bus Bars De-powered, the Emergency Lights are illuminated, to
extinguish them you must :
A). Put the Battery switch to ON and the OFF the emergency lights.
B). Put the Emergency lights switch to the OFF position.
C). Put the Battery switch to ON, the Start Master switch to ON and then turn OFF the
emergency lights.
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B). The start continues using power from the other TRU and the APU.
C). Both start contactors open and the start is discontinued.
102). What indications would illuminate on the electrical section of the overhead panel, if
AC BUS 1 developed a fault?
103). If TRU 1 is energized with battery switch selected ON and DC Bus Tie switch set to
Auto, the following Bus Bars are energized :
20
105). When a GCU senses under frequency?
A). The lock out relay operates and the GEN cannot be reset.
B). The out relay operates and the GEN can be reset in the normal way.
C). The GEN will auto reconnect when the IDG reacts sufficiently .
108). What would occur if, during normal operation with both TRUs powered, TRU No 1
failed?
21
111). Where are the 26 VAC EMERG BUS supplied normally fed from?
A). GEN 1 / 4 CROSS START, APU GEN, ECT AC and EXT DC.
B). EXT DC, EXT AC, APU GEN, GEN 1 / 4 CROSS START.
C). EXT AC, EXT DC, APU GEN and GEN 1 / 4 CROSS START.
113). How is the Battery Bus bar energized (i e HOT BATT BUS)?
115). In flight if both AC 1 and AC 2 Fail, where will DC supplies be available from?
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117). When will the Standby Generator operate automatically?
A). If its control switch is at ARM with AC BUS 1 OFF and AC BUS 2 OFF anunciator
illuminated .
B). If its control switch is at ARM with AC BUS 1 OFF or AC BUS 2 OFF anunciator
illuminated ..
C). If its control switch is at ARM with AC BUS 1 OFF and ESS AC BUS OFF
anunciator illuminated.
23
SEC - 26 FIRE PROTECTION
A). Closing the engine Air Valve will control the leak.
B). Closing the engine Air Valve may not control the leak.
C). Both engine Air Valves on that side automatically close .
122). When an engine fire test button on the ground test panel is held in the indications
are :
A). Fire handle lamp lit, fire bell, Loop fault amber caption lit, red flasher, amber
flasher, engine fire red caption and thrust lever lamp .
B). Fire handle lamp lit, Thrust lever lamp lit, engine fire red caption lit, fire bell, triple
chime, Loop fault amber caption lit, red flasher amber flasher .
C). Fire handle lamp lit, single chime, loop fault amber caption lit, fire bell, red flasher,
amber flasher .
A). Engine Air Valve is closed, and Hydraulic Pump Isolation Value or Engine Driven
Generator trips OFF line.
B). A Micro switch is operated to bring on the relevant Fire Handle white light on the
MWP.
C). The L.P Fuel Valve is closed through a system of cables and pulleys .
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125). When Smoke is detected in either Toilet:
A). A Toilet red Smoke MWP caption illuminates with a Triple Chime.
B). A Toilet Smoke amber MWP caption illuminates with a Single Chime.
C). No Cockpit indication is given.
126). If the aircraft is on the ground with the APU running and the APU Fire TEST is
carried out :
A). The APU will Auto shut down and the Fire Bottle will auto discharge.
B). The APU will Auto shut down and the Fire Bottle will not discharge .
C). The APU will Continue to run and the Normal fire test indications will be observed .
A). Pack 1/2 Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with the Air Condition
annunciator on the MWP .
B). The Tail Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with an AirSupply
annunciator on the MWP .
C). The Rear Bay Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with an Air COND
annunciator on the MWP .
129). When the APU Fire TEST Button on the ground TEST Panel is held in the
indications are :
A). Fire Bell, APU Red Fire; Caption MWP, APU ; Amber MWP caption Red Flasher,
Amber Flasher, APU Fire Red annunciator, APU Loop Fault Amber annunciator .
B). Triple Chime, Red APU Fire caption, Amber APU caption, Red flasher, Amber
flasher, APU Fire Red annunciator, APU Loop Fault Amber annunciator .
C). Fire Bell, Red APU Fire caption, Amber APU caption, Red Flasher, Amber Flasher,
Single Chime, APU Fire Red annunciator, APU Loop Fault Amber annunciator .
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130). When an Engine Fire Warning occurs the Red, MWP Engine Fire Light will be
extinguished :
132). If both Zone Temp detect switches are selected to both Loops and on the ground
test panel zone loop A is pressed :
A). Left and right Zone Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with associated
warnings.
B). Left Zone Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with associated warnings .
C). No additional indications will be given.
A). A Red Pylon O/heat Warning occurs with Thrust Lever light, Triple Chimes and Alert
flashers with no Auto shut down.
B). L/R Zone Hi Temp amber caution occurs with Single Chime and Amber flashers and
full Automatic shut down.
C). L/R Zone Hi Temp' Amber caution occurs with Single Chime and Amber Flashers and
no Automatic shut down.
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135). The Engine Fire Detection System continuously monitors for a Fault in the fire wire
by:
A). Checking the Resistance Value to see if a short circuit has occurred.
B). Checking the Reference Pressures to see that no gas has leaked out.
C). Checking the Reference Pressures to dielectric to ensure that the wire hasn't broken
27
SEC - 27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
136). How is Pitch Control after an Elevator Cable run has Jammed maintained :
138). With the aircraft parked, wind and Storm damage to the Elevators and Ailerons is
prevented by :
139). with the Elevator disconnected after a jam in the left control circuit you lost:
A). Left and Right Stall Warning summing units must be activated .
B). Operation of either stall identification summing unit in isolation will cause a stick
push .
C). One Stall Warning and the opposite vane stall identification summing unit must be
activated .
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141). Which Spoiler System has a time delay built into its control System :
142). Pulling the Control Column fully back on the ground with zero Wind:
143). If a STALL IDENT annunciator illuminated in normal flight and the pilot pressed
and inhibited it, then :
144). The Elevator Disconnect Handle when operated disconnects the elevator systems
by :
A). The action of a Micro Switch on the Handle operating an electrical disconnect device
.
B). Separating them at the input to the Hydraulic Power Control Unit .
C). Mechanically uncoupling the two sides of the System
146). If the CONFIG caption lights at the start of the Take Off. What is the first action?
148). What conditions are the ailerons and elevators in when the aircraft is parked:
150). What audible warning accompanies a CONFIG" Warning Red caption on the MWP
and Red Alert flashes on the Glare Shield :
A). Flap Fault will illuminate and flaps will operate at half speed.
B). Flap Fault will illuminate and flaps will be locked .
C). Flap INOP will illuminate and flaps will be locked.
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153). The Air Brake is operated by :
156). If a Green Hydraulic Sys. failure occurs, what effect will this have on Flap
operation:
A). No warnings will be given by the Flap system and the Flaps will operate at full speed .
B). Flap Fault will illuminate and Flaps will operate at half system .
C). Flap INOP will illuminate and Flaps will be locked.
157). If the Lift Spoilers unlocked warning light is on and landing distance is not critical
it is recommended :
A). To land with 24 Flap and expect 20% increase in landing distance.
B). To land with normal 33 Flap.
C). To land with 18 Flap and expect a 40% increase in landing distance.
31
159). The M.W.S RUDDER VALVE caption will illuminate if:
A). The Hand Wheels will be jammed until the system is broken out or Uncoupled.
B). The Hand Wheels will both be free to move moving the aileron Tabs only.
C). The Hand Wheels will both be free to move moving the ailerons directly since the
tabs are jammed.
162). What happens if No 1 STALL WARN TEST Button is pushed on its own :
32
165). When the Aileron pull disconnect handle is pulled the effect on the detent strut is :
A). The disconnect device in the detent strut operates to allow it to become a sliding
strut.
B). The disconnect Handle has no direct affect on the detent strut.
C). A Micro Switch operates to electrically operate the disconnect device in the detent
strut to allow it to slide.
166). When the aircraft is parked how are the Ailerons and Elevators locked:
168). If the Yellow spoiler FAIL annunciator is lit in flight, you should:
170). In the event of a jam in the Aileron control circuit when will the AIL/EL UNCPLD
annunciator illuminate:
174). With the R/H Elevator Jammed, the L/H Channel retains :
175). The Cockpit Control Wheels are mechanically connected directly to:
176). The function of the Blow Back Spring in the control circuit:
A). So that the TAB will only become effective at high airspeeds when it is difficult to
move main controls .
B). To limit the authority of the TAB in accordance with airspeed.
C). To prevent the Ailerons moving excessively when the aircraft is parked in windy
conditions.
34
177). The Take Off CONFIG Warning circuit is activated by:
178). Selection of Flaps to A ,B, or C will not cause a CONFIG Warning to operate for Take
Off, which?
A). 0, 18, 24.
B). 18, 24, 33.
C). 18, 24, 30.
A). Elevator.
B). Aileron.
C). Rudder.
180). The AIL/ELEV UNCPLD Caption on the MWP should illuminate for uncoupled
ailerons as a result of:
36
SEC - 28 FUEL
184). When an Engine Fire Handle is pulled the LP Fuel Valve is operated via:
A). Micro switches in the handle which close the valve electrically.
B). A solenoid valve which operates to allow fuel muscle pressure to close the LP
valve.
C). A Cable and pulley system to close the valve.
185). During refueling it is important that the Right Inner Fuel Pump is OFF :
186). The Electric Power supply for the No 1 engine Fuel Pump is:
A). AC 2 .
B). AC 1.
C). EMERGENCY AC.
A). Yes.
B). NO.
C). Yes, but the Cross feed valve must be open.
192). The White Fuel Transfer annunciator on the MWP will illuminate:
193). The Fuel Feed Open annunciator on the MWP will illuminate:
194). When Refueling using Load pre selector the Center Tank:
38
195). Which Engines can be supplied with fuel under pressure from the Hydraulically
operated Standby Pumps?
196). When transferring the fuel remaining in the Center Tank after Auto transfer :
A). Select open on the Center Tank transfer switch then auto when it is empty.
B). Select open on the Center Tank transfer switch then shut when it is empty.
C). The fuel is not transferable.
198). The Center Tank transfer jet pumps are normally energized by:
199). The purpose of the Jet Pumps in the inner feed tanks are:
200). Under which circumstances will the Standby Fuel Pumps operate:
A). With the control switch set to NORMAL and an Electrical Failure to the appropriate
Inner Fuel Pump.
B). With the control switch set to NORMAL and an Electrical Failure to the appropriate
Outer Fuel Pump.
C). With the controls switch set to NORMAL and an Electrical Failure to both MAIN AC
Bus Bars.
39
201). Standby Fuel Pumps are driven by :
202). Which Electrical Fuel Pumps are normally powered from AC 2 Bus bar:
A). Carry out a 24 Flap landing and accept a 40 % increase in landing distance .
B). Carry out a 24 Flap landing and accept a 25 % increase in landing distance.
C). Do not land.
A). The LH Inner pump via the Cross Feed Pipe in the Wing Center area.
B). A separate APU Feed Tank .
C). The RH Cross Feed Valve.
A). - 11 PSI .
B). - 50PSI.
C). - 35 PSI.
40
207). What indications will be given if the refuel control station hinged panel in the
underside of the right wing leading edge, is open :
A). The REFUEL SELECTED annunciator light in the Overhead Fuel Panel is OUT.
B). The REFUEL SELECTED annunciator light in the Overhead Fuel Panel is ON.
C). The REFUEL SELECTED annunciator light will not come on until the refuel MASTER
switch is set to ON.
209). When landing with a Feed Tank Quantity less than 130 Kg use:
A). 35 PSI .
B). 50 PSI.
C). 11 PSI.
41
213). Which Jet Pumps will the Hydraulically Driven Standby Fuel Pumps operate:
214). During Refueling the Left Inner Fuel Pump may be left on:
215). with Auto Transfer selected fuel will transfer from the Center Tank:
42
SEC - 29 HYDRAULAICS
216). What effect will the STDBY GEN Switch to O/RIDE have on the Hydraulic Systems :
A). Stores fluid under pressure for emergency landing gear extension.
B). Stores fluid under pressure for emergency brakes.
C). Just provides damping when P.T.U or Standby Generator operate.
218). When the Standby Generator is operating, the following indications will be given
along the MWP indications :
A). Standby GEN on light and Green System pressure indicating below 1 500 PSI with AC
1 and AC 2 Off line.
B). Standby GEN on light and Green System pressure indication below 1 500 PSI and
Green System LOW PRESSURE light on with AC 1 and AC 2 Off line.
C). Standby GEN on light and Green System pressure indication 2 500 to 3 100 PSI with
Green System LOW PRESSURE light on with AC 1 and AC 2 OFF line.
219). If the Green System Pump has failed the PTU will develop :
43
221). With a Green Hydraulic System Low Quantity situation :
A). PTU must be selected OFF to prevent loss of Yellow System pressure and services.
B). Yellow System is unaffected by loss of Green system fluid.
C). PTU must be selected OFF to prevent loss of Fluid from the Yellow System.
223). If in flight with AC Pump in the AUTO position and PTU ON, what warning will be
given for a main Hydraulic pump Failure :
A). HYD. System LOW PRESS light and HYD caption on MWP.
B). HYD caption on MWP and relevant pump Fail light on Overhead Panel.
C). Probably no Warning would be given.
226). The Emergency Main Landing Gear lock down circuit may be supplied with Fluid
under pressure from :
44
227). When Emergency Yellow is selected :
229). Yellow and Green System Reservoirs each have a capacity of approximately of :
A). RED.
B). PURPLE.
C). YELLOW.
231). The Green System provides Hydraulic power to Flaps, Rudder, Lift Spoiler (4) and :
A). Landing Gear, Air Brakes, Air Stairs, Wheel Brakes and Nose Wheel Steering.
B). Landing Gear, Roll Spoilers , N.W Steering and Air Brakes.
C). Landing Gear, Retract Brakes, N.W Steering and Air Brakes.
232). The (HYD) System LOW PRESSURE annunciator will illuminate at approximately :
45
233). What does the AC Pump Fail annunciator indicate :
235). If the Yellow System Pump has failed the AC Pump will develop :
236). With only No 2 ENG Pump ON, AC Pump ON and PTU ON, what will the System
pressures read :
237). What will cause an Auto shut down of the airframe anti-icing :
238). If two engines fail on the same wing it's ice protection is provided by:
239). When Taking Off in Icing conditions with Engine Anti-ice on:
47
242). What is the minimum % N2 to be used for flight in icing conditions?:
243). When Electrical Power to an Engine Anti-ice Valve fails the Valve :
A). When Inner Wing and Outer Wing ice protection is OFF and ice is detected.
B). When Outer wing ice protection is selected on and Inner Wing selected OFF.
C). When Outer Wing is selected on and Flaps are extended to 18 or more with Inner
Wing selected OFF.
48
248). The air low temperature annunciator could illuminate :
250). Which Flight Deck window has outer facing plies of glass :
A). Panel B.
B). Panel A.
C). Panel C.
252). With the Ice-detected caption illuminated (and the flaps are :
254). At 500 ft on approach in icing conditions the sequence for turning off airframe ice
protection is:
49
A). Outer Wings and Tail then inner wings.
B). Inner Wings then Outer Wings and Tail.
C). Tail then Inner Wings then Outer Wings.
50
SEC - 31 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
260). The appearance of a DAYGLO Colored SSC Flag in the Servo Altimeter indicates :
261). The Cabin ALT /DIFF /VSI Gauge is supplied with Static from :
51
265). The Altitude Alerting System provided:
A). A visual warning of approach to a preselected altitude and an audio and visual
warning of deviation from the attained selected altitude .
B). AD audio and visual warning of approach to a selected altitude and visual warning of
deviation from the attained selected altitude .
C). An audio and visual warning of approach to a selected altitude and an audio and
visual warning of deviation from the attained selected altitude.
266). The captains flight instruments which require Pitot and Static are supplied from:
267). The 220 Kts Flap Baulk Airspeed switch received dynamic pressure from :
A). PITOT 1.
B). PITOT 2.
C). PITOT 3.
269). The Altitude output from the Servo Altimeter to the Transponder is :
A). Affected by the Barometric setting knobs.
B). Not affected by the Barometric settings knobs.
C). Only affected by the Barometric setting Knobs of the altimeter that is selected.
272). What indications are given by the Altitude Alerting System for a deviation of more
than 300 ft from an established selector altitude:
A). A V Flag appears to show that the vibrator is operating to prevent a sticking display,
but altitude reporting is U/S.
B). A Red and Black Warning Bar obscures the Altitude read out.
C). A DAYGLO SSC Flag appears (Servo System Compensation).
53
SEC - 32 LANDING GEAR and BRAKES
276). When the Nose Gear is retracted the wheels each contact pads which :
A). Green System dump valve opens Yellow pressure provided to the combined assister
jack, 6 up locks are broken one for each gear and one for each gear door assembly.
B). Green Systems dump valve opens Yellow pressure provided to each down lock
actuator, 5 Up-locks are broken one for' each gear and one for each main gear door
assembly.
C). Green System dump valve opens, Yellow pressure provided to the combined assister
jack, 5 Up-locks are broken, one for each gear and one for each main gear door
assembly.
279). If after Take Off the undercarriage selector lever cannot be moved to the UP
position :
54
280). Pushing the TEST Button on the Brake Temperature indicator Panel will cause :
A). The display will indicate 750 C and all 4 Red Overheat Lamps will illuminate.
B). The display will indicate 650 C and the Max button will illuminate .
C). The display will indicate 650 C and all 4 Red Overheat Lamps will illuminate .
282). Which condition would produce a lit Gear selection lever and a warning horn that
cannot be cancelled :
A). The normal brakes are automatically reapplied using yellow hydraulic pressure to
stop the wheels rotating.
B). The brakes are applied using green system pressure in the normal brake pistons.
C). Smaller retraction brakes are applied using green hydraulics to stop the wheels
rotating.
285). Optimum conditions for Landing Gear Emergency lowering are (35B) :
A). Only available when the Nose Wheel Steering System Master is selected to ON .
B). Only available when the Steering Solenoid Valve is operated by a weight on Wheels
switch.
C). Only available when the Gear is selected down, Using Fluid from the Gear down
supply
287). The Red Light in the normal Landing Gear selector will illuminate :
288). If a Main Gear is not locked down after normal down selection IT may be assisted to
lock by :
A). They operate when the aircraft is on the ground and the brake temperature is greater
than 200 C.
B). They operate whenever the nose, Gear is locked down.
C). They operate whenever the main Gears are locked down.
A). Pressure will be applied to the brakes from which ever system Ls selected.
B). Yellow hydraulics must be selected before setting the park brake .
C). When the park brake handle is pulled yellow Hydraulics will automatically be
provided to the brakes.
292). The Back Up Gear System indicators adjacent to the Emergency selector will
illuminate when pressed :
A). When wheel speed increases above 33 Kts and until speed decreases below 15 Kts.
B). On landing 5 seconds after weight on wheels or sufficient wheel spin up occurs.
C). Both A and B are correct.
295). It is important to release the Brake Pedals before changing the brake selector
because:
A). The Brake Valve will not change over whilst the pedals are pressed.
B). The Brake Valve will get jammed with the brakes in the applied position .
C). Large quantities of fluid can get passed from one system to the other.
A). The brakes will remain powered by which ever system was selected.
B). The Solenoid Valves will be de-energized so Green hydraulics only will be available for
braking.
C). The Solenoid Valves will be de-energized so Yellow Hydraulics only will be available
for braking.
299). Which Hydraulic System supplies the Nose Whee1 Steering System and when is it
available:
A). Green with the gear selected down and the wheels are within the steering range.
B). Green or yellow when the gear is down and the wheels are within the steering range.
C). Green or yellow when the gear is down and the wheels are within the steering range.
A). 40%.
B). 50% .
C). 60%.
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SEC - 34 NAVIGATION
A). Checking the Compass Card of the HSI showing the heading flag with the Standby
Compass.
B). Checking the two HSI Compass Cards.
C). Checking to ensure that the HSI and the opposite RMI both show Compass Fault.
302). When the Navigation Selector Knob is set to NAV 2 and the First Officers Course
Selector Knob is rotated then :
A). Both Captains and First Officers HSI Course Bars will move.
B). Only the First Officers Course Bar will move.
C). Only the Captains Course will move.
305). When Testing the Radio Altimeter (By pressing the PUSH/TEST Knob on the
indicator) the sequence of figures would be for the first two seconds :
A). All 8's followed by a TEST Altitude and then the Decision Height.
B). The TEST Altitude followed by the Decision Height and then all the 8's .
C). The Decision Height followed by a TEST Altitude and then all the 8's.
308). Altitude information for the ATC Transponder Altitude Reporting function is
supplied from :
312). A Ground Crew Jack is connected directly to the flight crew intercom system and is
located at :
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313). Within the G.P.W.S , what occurrence would cause all the modes to be inhibited?
A). Is possible when the aircraft is on the ground and the park brake is on.
B). It is not possible.
C). It is possible when the aircraft is on the ground and either a PAX or service door is
open.
61
SEC - 35 OXYGEN
319). Min. Oxygen System dispatch pressure for two flight deck crew and 110 PAX is :
321). The BARD Valve Reset can be used to isolate the Passenger System from the
supply:
323). The Oxygen System Cylinders and charging equipment are located :
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325). When the Fight Deck Oxygen Mask is selected to the Normal (N) position :
326). To check oxygen availability through a flight deck mask with the mask in the box
make sure the main valve is on and :
A). Push the RESET/TEST slider and the yellow flow star will blink.
B). Press the Red Emergency pressure control knob and check that oxygen flows.
C). Push the RESET/TEST slider and also press the red emergency knob - check the yellow
star visible and oxygen flows to the mask.
327). The Passenger Oxygen Masks will drop out if the Cabin Altitude rises to:
328). If the Air Low Temperature annunciator illuminates, how will the pilot know which
engine causes it?
329). If one of the APU supply duct NRV fails open the indication will be:
330). A Temperature Sensor downstream of the flow limiting Venturi controls bleed air
temperature to :
A). 255 C.
B). 255 C.
C). 300 C .
331). Air to operate the FRESH / RECIC Mode Selector Valve is supplied from:
A). Engines 1 and 2 and A.P.U (LH Bleed Syst.).
B). Engines 2 and 3 only.
C). Engines 3 and 4 and A.P .U. (RH Bleed syst.).
332). Pneumatic Air to the Stall Warning and Identification System is provided from:
A). All Engines and APU.
B). Downstream of No 2 and No 3 Engine Isolation Valve .
C). Upstream of No 2 and No 3 Engine Isolation Valves.
A). 41 PSI.
B). 55 PSI.
C). 120 PSI.
A). Air over pressure, over temperature and with airframe anti-ice on air low
temperature conditions.
B). Only over pressure and over temperature conditions.
C). A Valve which is selected off, but remains open.
A). 300 C.
B). 225 C.
C). 340 C.
65
SEC - 49 APU
A). To remove loads one by one allowing TGT to stabilize before stopping the APU.
B). To shut the APU down from the load at which it is running to prevent series of
Thermal shocks.
c). To allow the APU to run at no load governed speed for 1 minute before shutting
down.
A). 746 C.
B). 870 C.
c). 974 C.
339). The APU will AUTO shut down on the ground or in flight for :
340). After starting the APU, the APU power available annunciators will come ON :
341). The APU incorporates SHAFT PRIORITY load limiting this means :
A). In order to maintain shaft speed electrical loads will be reduced first.
B). In order to regulate the TGT air loads are reduced first .
c). Electrical loads will be reduced first to maintain TGT within limits.
66
343). Which Fuel Pump normally supplied the APU :
344). The approximate Fuel Flow of the APU at Sea Level under the load is :
A). Press APU STOP switch and observe APU run down on the % RPM gauge.
B). Press APU OVER SPEED switch on GRND. Test panel and 0bserve run down on % RPM
gauge then put APU switch to stop.
c). A and B are both correct.
A). In the Air Conditioning Bay, in the Main Landing Gear Wheel well area and at the
Refuel control panel.
B). In the External AC panel, at the Refuel control pane and in the Hydraulic Bay.
c). In the Air Conditioning Bay and on the Refuel control panel.
67
349). After starting the APU, it must be allowed to run at no load Governed Speed :
350). The Protective Breathing Smoke Hood is located behind the Co-pilot, it can supply
Oxygen for:
351). When the Cabin Emergency lights are in the armed position, the toilet standby
lights illuminate and :
A). If the supply from the Essential DC Busbar is interrupted the emergency lights will
illuminate and toilet standby lights extinguish.
B). If the supply from the Essential AC Busbar is interrupted the emergency lights will
illuminate .
C). The Emergency lights will only illuminate when the aircraft Main Battery falls below
18V.
352). What indications are given if the PILOT EMERG Call is initiated from the cabin
attendants panel :
A). The internal batteries in the power packs power the floor proximity lights, exit signs
and aisle lights.
B). 28v DC from the aircraft main battery is converted to 6V DC to light the floor
proximity lights, exit signs and aisle lights but if -main supply is less than 18V lights
will now be powered from internal batteries.
C). The internal batteries in the power packs power the floor proximity lights exit signs
and aisle lights, until the pack voltage drops below 18V then if the main aircraft
battery voltage is greater it will power the emergency lights.
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354). For Emergency Communications, mega-phones are installed:
C). In the stowage boxes immediately below the front and rear cabin attendants seats.
A). A Chime, chime, green aisle lights (steady), cabin call button light flashing red.
B). A Chime, green aisle lights (flashing), pilot emergency button flashing red .
C). A Chime, green aisle lights (flashing), crew call button light flashing red.
356). What actions are required to dispense smoke from the air conditioning in the
passenger cabin below 10,000 ft :
A). Select man and open and do not open the flight deck windows.
B). Operate the pressurization in auto and open the flight deck windows .
C). Select MAN and open and fully depressurize, and open the flight deck windows .
358). After flight and before opening a passenger or service door . the cabin attendant
must :
359). When the cabin emergency lights are set to arm the toilet standby lights are
supplied from :
361). When opening a passenger or service door from the outside if the slide is armed :
363). In order to switch off the emergency lights when the aircraft busses are
depowered place the:
A). Cabin Emergency light switch to off, and cockpit emergency light switch to off.
B). Cabin switch off, cockpit switch off ,battery switch off ,battery on and start power to
norm .
C). Cabin switch off, cockpit switch off, battery switch and start master to on and then
off .
71
SEC - 72 ENGINES
365). During Engine Start, what action is required to put the fuel ON :
A). At 10% N1, move Trigger Down and Push Thrust Lever Forward.
B). At 15% N1, move Trigger Down and Push Thrust Lever Forward.
C). At 10% N2, move Trigger Down and Push Thrust Lever Forward.
A). 80 Knots.
B). 75 Knots.
C). 85 Knots.
367). When Take Off Mode is selected the TMS actuators may :
369). Then Red OIL LO PRESS caption on the MWP will illuminate :
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370). How is the GO-AROUND Mode of the TMS selected :
A). Other engines also run back to fall extent of actuator movement or the Mode
FLOOR limit is reached.
B). When the system detects a failure it immediately swops to the other possible Master
engine .
C). When system detects a failure all actuators freeze except the failed engine which
centers.
A). Trigger down to cross the flight idle bulk and then the ground idle bulk whilst
retarding the Lever to Fuel OFF.
B). It is only necessary to trigger down to cross the ground idle bulk since the flight idle
bulk has been removed.
C). It is not necessary to trigger down whilst retarding the Thrust Lever, it is only
necessary when moving it from the Fuel OFF position.
73
375). After engine start, if the Hydraulic AIR LO PRESS annunciator remain lit do you :
A). Shut the engine down.
B). Switch on the AC Pump and PTU.
C). Increase relevant engine RPM until caption goes out.
376). If then engine Oil Quantity reads full before engine start then at full power, it will
read:
A). Full Oil Quantity.
B). 3/4 Oil Quantity.
C). 1/2 Oil Quantity.
A). Drains fuel from Combustion Chamber area during shut down.
B). Collects Oil and Fuel from various engine drains.
C). Both A and B are correct.
379). If the TMS Disconnect Button in power Levers one or four is pressed, the TMS
system will:
384). A small residual N1 might appear on the N1 gauge when electrical power is
available and the engine is shut down, this is :
385). When the TMS is signaling for a Thrust Lever to be opened, then it displays :
A). N1 of 6%.
B). N2 of 8%.
C). N2 of 10%.
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387). Minimum N2 for Icing condition is :
A). 67%.
B). 60%.
C). 78%.
A). 857 C.
B). 785 C.
C). 875 C.
389). The engine Vibration amber annunciator on the MWP will illuminate :
390). During engine start, which of the following would call for the start to be Aborted :
391). What are the immediate actions on the event of an engine LO OIL PRESSURE
warning:
A). OIL PSI confirm red sector; THRUST LEVER FUL OFF.
B). OIL LO PRESS annunciator ; PRESS TO TEST; THRUST LEVER FUEL OFF, if annunciator
serviceable.
C). Retard Thrust Lever to flight idle; operate engine with care.
392). In the climb with TMS in TGT and SYNC Mode, if the Slave engine exceeds the
selected TGT, the TMS will:
A). Operate TGT thumb wheel to bring the Slave engine within limits.
B). Trim the Slave engine only.
C). The TMS will only control the temperature of the Master engine.
76
393). The L.P Turbine drives:
77
399). If the N % / C display is flashing when Take Off Mode is selected, then :
400). When doing an OVER SPEED shut down TEST on the engine, it will not shut down
unless :
403). IN descent Mode with Air Conditioning ON and Airframe Anti/De-icing selected
OFF, you would expect the TMS to :
A). 7.5 to 1.
B). 5.7 to 1.
C). 4.0 to 1.
78
405). The first recall item in the event of a Hot or Hung Start is :
79
SEC - 84 MISCELLANEOUS
407). The Red Light within the GRND OP Button will be lit when :
408). Pressing the Annunciator Control Test Button on the Overhead Panel will light all
the annunciators:
A). At full brilliance.
B). At the brilliance level set by the dimming control.
C). Check the dimming monitor circuits and all the trigger circuits.
A). Open the Drain Valve at the external Water Service panel .
B). Open the Drain Valves in the forward and AFT Cargo Compartments.
C). Open the Drain Valves in the hydraulic Bay and AFT Cargo Compartments .
410). If an MWS DIM FAIL annunciator appears on the Master Warning Panel, the
correct action is:
A). With the flight deck emergency lights switch on the arm position when the
emergency D.C. bus is depowered.
B). With the flight deck emergency lights switch in the arm position when the essential
DC bus is depowered.
C). With the flight deck emergency lights switch in the arm position and the essential AC
bus is depowered.
413). When will the Instrument Panel Storm Lighting be brought into operation :
414). When the NO Smoking switch is selected to AUTO, the NO Smoking Signs will be
illuminated only when:
417). If a Second Category Amber Warning is presented on the MWP, pressing either of
the Amber Caution lights on the Glare shield will :
418). In the event of an MWS FAULT indication on the Master Warning Panel, the Fault
is :
419). How many access doors are there into the 146 pressurized area:
A). 10 Doors.
B). 8 Doors .
C). 4 Doors.
A). An ON/OFF switch located on the Overhead lights and notices panel.
B). An ON/OFF switch located on the top R.H side of the Flight Deck entrance aisle .
C). Both A and B.
422). On the MWP a Fault has been presented, acknowledged and dimmed to a desired
level and then an amber ELECT Fault occurs. In addition to the ELECT repeater
being at full brilliance and the caution lights flashing :
A). The existing MWP, Fault would bright up, but the Fault indicated on the O/Head
Panel would be at dim level .
B). The existing Fault would remain dim, but the Fault indicated on the O/Head panel
would be at full brilliance.
82
C). The existing Fault and the new Fault would be at the dim Value.
A). 60 %N2 .
B). 67 %N2 .
C). 50 %N2 .
425). If the Cabin Door Not Shut caption on the MWP illuminates the pilot must :
A). 24 gals.
B). 68 gals.
C). 20 gals.
A). 680 Kg .
B). 860 Kg.
C). 1500 Kg .
428). If the Push/Pull GRND OP switch was left in the pulled condition on Take Off :
83
429). The Water Tank is located :
A). 17 000 ft .
B). 20 000 ft.
C). 25 000 ft.
A). Pressing the Storm Light buttons on the left hand and right dimmer panels .
B). Rotating the Panel Flood Dimmer knobs to the storm detent on the left and right
dimmer panels.
C). Placing the Flight Deck Emergency lights switch on the o/head panel to ON.
433). A RED HAZARDOUS condition (except Fire and CONFIG) is annunciated by a red
indication:
A). 882 C .
B). 865 C .
84
C). 849 C .
435). What is the normal operating sequence for opening a passenger door from the
inside :
A). 849 C .
B). 870 C.
C). 749 C .
437). With all the cabin lighting switches selected to OFF on the Cabin Attendants Panel
and ground power plugged in but not selected on:
440). If an amber annunciator appears on the overhead panel and then goes out:
85
A). There is a Fault on the MWS .
B). There is a Fault with the repeater annunciator .
C). There is no Fault and the annunciator was lit during a transition phase.
A). 43 318 Kg .
B). 43 091 Kg.
C). 40 381 Kg.
A). 746 C.
B). 870 C.
C). 794 C.
446). Maximum Operation Mach Number is:
A). 0.72 .
B). 0.68 .
86
C). 0.74.
A). Through connections behind a Water service panel on the lower RH side of the
aircraft.
B). By gaining access to the connections through the Hydraulic Bay.
C). At the service point on the lower LH side of the aircraft.
A). 96.9% .
B). 98.8% .
C). 96.7%.
A). 37 648 Kg .
87
B). 37 153 Kg.
C). 35 606 Kg .
453). The Main Landing Gear position indicators on the Center Instrument Panel have :
88