4. Which phrase best describes meiosis I?

a. duplication of paired chromosomes

b. fusion of sister chromatids
c. division of homologous chromosomes (produce 2 haploid cells)
d. creation of two diploid cells (haploid s meiosis I)

5. What happens to sister chromatids in meiosis II?

a. They duplicate.
b. They are divided.
c. They remain together.
d. They do not take part.

6. Gametogenesis is the term for

a. the production of gametes.
b. the fertilization of eggs.
c. the development of polar bodies.
d. the movement of sperm.

9. When Mendel crossed plants that were purebred purple-flowered with plants that were purebred white-
flowered,
the resulting offspring all had purple flowers. When allowed to self-pollinate, this F generation gave rise to
white-flowered plants as well as purple. As a result, Mendel determined that individual traits are
a. inherited as discrete units.
b. diluted in offspring.
c. merged with successive generations.
d. lost in the pollination process.

14. If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would its alleles be represented?
a. Tt
b. TT
c. tt
d. tT

11. Which of the following conclusions was a result of Mendel's observations?

a. Organisms that give rise to purebreds are genetically superior.
b. Organisms that have intermediate features are self-pollinating.
c. Organisms inherit two copies of each gene, one from each parent.
d. Organisms that self-pollinate do not have "either-or" features.

10. Mendel was able to identify predictable patterns of heredity. He succeeded mainly because he chose to
study traits that
a. were always dominant.
b. tended to be recessive.
c. could be diluted.
d. had only two forms.

13. When an organism has two alleles at a particular locus that are different, the organism is called
a. purebred.
b. dominant.
c. heterozygous.
d. recessive.

15. An allele is dominant in a heterozygote when it is

a. expressed and the other allele is not.
b. a very common allele in a population.
c. the stronger of the two alleles.
d. more desirable than the other allele.
12. Hair color and eye color are examples of a person's
a. recessive traits.
b. dominant alleles.
c. genotype.-determines the hereditary potentials and limitations from embryonic formation to adulthood
d. phenotype. observable physical/biochemical characteristics

16. What do the letters inside the grid of a Punnett square represent?
a. phenotypes of parents
b. genotypes of offspring
c. testcrosses of offspring
d. chromosomes of parents

17. What is the probability that the offspring of a cross between a homozygous recessive parent and a
heterozygous parent will be homozygous recessive?
a. 1/1
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 1/8

18. Term for a cross that involves just one trait, such as pod shape, is called--
a. homozygous cross.
b. test cross.
c. monohybrid cross.
d. dihybrid cross.

19. What is the phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents?
a. 3:1
b. 1:2:1
c. 9:3:3:1
d. 1:2:2:1

20. Which of the following observations did Mendel make as a result of his experiments with dihybrid crosses?
a. Dominant traits are inherited together.
b. Different traits are inherited separately.
c. Similar traits are inherited in pairs.
d. Recessive traits are inherited unpredictably.

21. About how many different combinations of chromosomes can be produced through the random fertilization
of human gametes?
a. 24 x 24
b. 216 x 216
c. 223 x 223
d. 246 x 246

22. Which phrase best describes the process of crossing over?

a. Pairs of homologous chromosomes exchange segments.
b. Pairs of sister chromatids exchange segments.
c. Pairs of homologous chromosomes become linked.
d. Pairs of sister chromatids become linked.

23. Suppose a gene that codes for flower color is linked with a gene that codes for leaf shape. Which statement
is true of this pair of genes?
a. They have similar loci on homologous chromosomes.
b. They cross over separately during recombination.
c. They are close together on the same chromosome.
d. They likely will be inherited separately.
24. During what stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
a. prophase I of meiosis I
b. anaphase II of meiosis II
c. telophase I of meiosis I
d. metaphase II of meiosis II

27. A person who is heterozygous for a disorder caused by recessive alleles is a carrier of the disorder. A
carrier is a person who
a. does not have the disorder but can pass it on to offspring.
b. can develop the disorder later in life but cannot pass it on.
c. has a dominant normal allele that has been inactivated.
d. passes the disorder to offspring on the Y chromosome only.

28. Genes that are located on sex chromosomes are called

a. alleles.
b. recessive.
c. XY.
d. sex-linked.

25. Which of the following is a result of the study of gene linkage?

a. The precise genes in the human genome have been mapped.
b. The exact order of genes on a chromosome can be found.
c. The relative distances between genes can be calculated.
d. The specific characteristics of offspring can be predicted.

26. Which of the following phrases is TRUE of X chromosome inactivation?

a. affects fewer genes than Y chromosome expression
b. occurs in cells of female mammals
c. disables some chromosomes in cells of male mammals
d. determines phenotype in male mammals

29. Which statement is true of a sex-linked recessive gene?

a. In an XY male, this recessive gene is always expressed.
b. In an XY male, one copy is always inactivated.
c. In an XX female, only one copy is needed for expression.
d. In an XX female, it is always passed to offspring.

30. Unlike the traits studied by Mendel, most traits are produced by genes with
a. sex linkage.
b. only one allele.
c. dominance and recessiveness.
d. multiple alleles.

31. A plant that is homozygous for red flowers is crossed with a plant that is homozygous for white flowers. In
the case of incomplete dominance, the flowers of the offspring will be
a. red and white.
b. white only.
c. pink only.
d. red only.

32. In the case of codominant alleles, a plant that is homozygous for red flowers that is crossed with a plant
that is homozygous for white flowers will produce flowers that are
a. red and white spotted.
b. completely white.
c. dark pink all over.
d. pink and red.
33. Eye color, hair color, and skin color are polygenic traits. Polygenic traits result from
a. recessive genes.
b. many genes.
c. codominant genes.
d. epistatic genes.

34. Identical twins who are raised apart can have differences that last a lifetime. This is evidence that
a. phenotype differences happen through epistatic genes.
b. genotype can change over time.
c. environment and genotype interact to affect phenotype.
d. codominance affects genotype.

35. Which conclusion is a result of Thomas Hunt Morgan's research with fruit flies?
a. Chromosome assortment during meiosis is not random.
b. Linked genes are located on the same chromosome.
c. The physical distance between genes can be determined.
d. Genes recombine independently during mitosis.

36. Which observation of Morgan's is evidence that crossing over occurs?

a. Linked genes are sometimes inherited separately.
b. Some dominant traits are always inherited together.
c. Inheritance of gene combinations is not random.
d. Fruit flies have only two groups of linked traits.

37. Two genes on a given chromosome that are most likely to be inherited together are
a. 6.8 map units apart.
b. 10 map units apart.
c. 2 map units apart.
d. 18.5 map units apart.

38. Suppose that the distance between two genes on a linkage map is 7 units. The cross-over frequency
between the
two genes is
a. 0.7%
b. 7%
c. 70%
d. 700%

39. Suppose the cross-over percentages for three gene pairs are: A to B = 9.5%, B to C = 14.5%, and A to C =
5%.
Which of the following sequences could represent the order of these genes on a chromosome?
a. CAB
b. ABC
c. CBA
d. ACB

40. What is the main difference between the carrier of a sex-linked disorder and the carrier of an autosomal
disorder?
a. Female carriers of an autosomal disorder pass the disorder to all offspring.
b. All carriers of autosomal disorders have two dominant alleles for the disorder.
c. The carrier of a sex-linked disorder is always female but does not have the disorder.
d. Male carriers of a sex-linked disorder always have mothers who had the disorder.

41. A chart that traces the phenotypes and genotypes within a family is called a
a. pedigree.
b. karyotype.
c. Punnett square.
d. chromosome map.
42. A genetic disorder is traced within a family. The disorder occurs mostly in males. The gene for this disorder
is
most likely
a. not sex-linked.
b. on the X chromosome.
c. an autosomal allele.
d. carried only by males.

43. Which of the following types of genetic information can be identified easily with a karyotype?
a. homologous chromosomes
b. dominant traits
c. exact locations of genes
d. recessive alleles

44. Which result of Frederick Griffith's experiments led him to believe in a "transforming principle"?
a. Mice injected with live S bacteria died.
b. Mice injected with live R bacteria lived.
c. Mice injected with dead S bacteria lived.
d. Mice injected with dead S and live R bacteria died.

45. An important factor in Oswald Avery's ability to identify the "transforming principle" as DNA was the fact that
proteins
a. contain very little phosphorus.
b. were present in the extract made from S bacteria.
c. do not react with enzymes.
d. could be observed in the extract made from R bacteria.

46. Chemical analysis of Avery's extracts showed that the ratio of nitrogen to phosphorus was consistent with
that of
a. enzymes.
b. DNA.
c. protein.
d. bacteria.

47. Hershey and Chase chose to use bacteriophages in their experiments because these viruses
a. contain little more than DNA and protein.
b. can be seen with a light microscope.
c. can infect only bacteria, not humans.
d. will not grow in radioactive culture.

48. As a result of the Hershey and Chase experiments, scientists believe that
a. radioactive isotopes can be used safely.
b. viruses use bacterial DNA to reproduce.
c. the "transforming principle" is DNA.
d. bacteriophages can be grown in culture medium.

49. The four types of nucleotides that make up DNA are named for their
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. nitrogen-containing bases.
c. phosphate groups.
d. ring-shaped sugars.

50. After examining the DNA of different organisms, which of the following did Erwin Chargaff conclude about
the
four bases?
a. A = T and C = G
b. A = C = G = T
c. A = C and G = T
d. A + T = C + G
51. Which of the following DNA sequences is complementary to the base sequence ACCGTAT?
a. GTTACGC
b. UCCGTAT
c. TGGCATA
d. CAATGCG

52. Combining the work of other scientists with their own research, Watson and Crick discovered that two
strands of
DNA join together to form a(n)
a. nucleotide.
b. X in a circle.
c. double helix.
d. covalent bond.

53. What holds base pairs together?

a. hydrogen bonds
b. sugar-phosphate backbones
c. pairs of double-ringed nucleotides
d. nitrogen-carbon bonds

54. The process that makes an exact copy of a cell's DNA is called
a. conservation.
b. preservation.
c. replication.
d. synthesis.

55. What are the main functions of DNA polymerase?

a. breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes bases
b. holds DNA strands apart and attracts bases
c. zips and unzips the double-stranded DNA
d. binds nucleotides and corrects base pair errors

56. Which of the following events occurs directly after a DNA molecule is unzipped?
a. Mismatched nucleotide bases are identified and replaced.
b. Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed bases.
c. Identical double-stranded DNA molecules are formed.
d. Enzymes break hydrogen bonds between base pairs.

57. The process of making new DNA molecules is semiconservative. This means that every new DNA molecule
is
composed of
a. two completely identical strands of DNA.
b. one original and one new strand of DNA.
c. one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA.
d. two strands that mix original and new DNA.

58. When new DNA molecules are formed, almost all errors are detected and fixed by
a. the correct nucleotide.
b. the sugar-phosphate backbone.
c. DNA polymerase.
d. one DNA strand.

59. The central dogma of molecular biology states that information flows in one direction from
a. nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm.
b. ribosomes to proteins to DNA.
c. genes to nuclei to ribosomes.
d. DNA to RNA to proteins.
60. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following DNA
strand:
GTAGTCA.
a. UATUAGA
b. ACGACTG
c. CAUCAGU
d. CATCAGT

61. The main function of tRNA is to

a. carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins.
b. form a portion of ribosomes, a cell's protein factories.
c. string together complementary RNA and DNA strands.
d. bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes.

62. Which of the following events occurs directly after RNA polymerase recognizes the transcription start site of
a
gene?
a. The polymerase strings amino acids into a polypeptide.
b. Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed DNA bases.
c. A complementary RNA strand detaches itself from the DNA.
d. The DNA strand begins to unwind, separating the two strands.

63. A primary difference between transcription and replication is that transcription

a. happens repeatedly throughout a single cell cycle.
b. occurs within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
c. is catalyzed by large and complex enzymes.
d. proceeds according to careful cellular control.

64. What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a. base
b. codon
c. amine
d. serine

65. How many amino acids are used to make up the all of the proteins in the human body?
a. 16
b. 20
c. 23
d. 46

66. A tRNA that carries the amino acid methionine pairs with which type of codon?
a. serine codon
b. tRNA codon
c. start codon
d. anticodon

67. Which phrase best describes translation?

a. converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b. catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c. produces RNA from DNA molecules
d. recycles tRNA molecules for reuse

68. Which of the following is the site of translation?

a. vacuole
b. lysosome
c. nucleus
d. ribosome
69. In prokaryotes, gene expression is regulated by controlling
a. transcription.
b. replication.
c. translation.
d. processing.

70. The bacterial lac operon is switched on when

a. the operator binds to the promoter.
b. lactose binds to the lac operator.
c. the operator binds to the lac genes.
d. lactose binds to the lac repressor.

71. In a eukaryotic cell, where does mRNA processing take place?

a. cytoplasm
b. nucleus
c. ribosome
d. operator

72. What is the term for the nucleotide sequences that are removed during mRNA processing?
a. operators
b. promoters
c. exons
d. introns

73. What is the main function of a promoter?

a. codes for enzymes that break down sugar
b. blocks the action of RNA polymerase
c. tells RNA polymerase where to start
d. keeps eukaryote genes permanently "off"

74. Generally, mutations that affect a single gene occur during

a. transcription.
b. replication.
c. translation.
d. operation.

75. Cystic fibrosis is an example of a genetic disease caused by the deletion of a nucleotide. What is the term
for this
type of mutation?
a. translocation
b. chromosomal
c. single-gene
d. frameshift

76. Which type of mutation has no effect on phenotype?

a. silent
b. frameshift
c. point
d. chromosomal

77. Mutations that can affect the offspring of an organism occur in what cell type?
a. body
b. germ
c. blood
d. brain
78. Which of the following is an example of a mutagen?
a. repair enzyme
b. triglyceride
c. UV sunlight
d. thymine

79. Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce and produce fertile
offspring?
a. individual
b. population
c. species
d. fossil

80. Which scientist proposed that if an organism used a structure so much that it grew, the trait of that larger
structure
could be passed to its offspring?
a. Erasmus Darwin
b. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
c. Georges de Buffon
d. Charles Lyell

81. The "present is the key to the past" describes the theory of
a. uniformitarianism.
b. catastrophism.
c. natural selection.
d. evolution.

82. Which of the following is a fossil?

a. a plant that has recently died
b. a group of similar organisms that can reproduce
c. a structure or organ that no longer functions
d. a trace of an organism that existed in the past

83. The theory that landforms on Earth's surface, such as mountains, waterfalls, and canyons, were created as
the result
of sudden spectacular events is called the theory of
a. uniformitarianism.
b. catastrophism.
c. gradualism.
d. evolution.

84. The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in a group is called a(n)
a. change.
b. adaptation.
c. species.
d. variation.

85. Over time, adaptations can lead populations to experience

a. environmental changes.
b. genetic changes.
c. geologic changes.
d. extinctions.

86. What did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations on the Galpagos Islands off the coast of South
America?
a. different species on different islands
b. all species on one of the islands
c. identical species on all the islands
d. the same species as in North America
87. What did Charles Darwin learn from the fossils of a giant armadillo that he found in Argentina?
a. An earthquake led to the armadillo's extinction.
b. Armadillos used to be marine organisms.
c. Modern animals may be related to fossilized organisms.
d. Fossils do not resemble modern animals.

88. Fossils of marine organisms high in the Andes Mountains led Darwin to conclude that
a. Earth is 6000 years old.
b. interspecific variation had taken place.
c. great change can happen over time.
d. an earthquake had taken place.

89. The development by scientists of a new color in a rose is the result of

a. natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. descent with modification.
d. overproduction.

90. In natural selection, the selective agent is the

a. humans.
b. mutations.
c. breeders.
d. environment.

91. All the rabbits living in a particular area would be an example of a(n)
a. population.
b. species.
c. fossil.
d. individual organism.

92. A bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a. life expectancy.
b. mutation rate.
c. fitness.
d. adaptability.

93. Which of the following describes natural selection?

a. It acts on genetic material directly.
b. It acts on existing physical traits.
c. It forms new traits.
d. It forms new genetic material.

94. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?

a. the wings of red-tailed hawks
b. the hind limbs of a house cat
c. the fins of a shark
d. the wings of an ostrich

95. Biogeography is the study of the

a. distribution of organisms around the world.
b. environments around the world.
c. different types of rocks around the world.
d. age of fossils around the world.

96. What is suggested by the similarity of early embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a. no evolutionary relationship between the groups
b. recent common ancestry
c. similar environments in the past
d. evolution from a distant common ancestor
97. Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar
structures.
These are known as
a. vestigial structures.
b. analogous structures.
c. homologous structures.
d. fossil structures.

98. If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a. close relative.
b. early ancestor.
c. unrelated organism.
d. embryological stage.

99. Paleontology is the study of

a. ecosystems.
b. genetics.
c. fossils.
d. rocks and minerals.

100. Two organisms that are closely related would have

a. very similar DNA sequences.
b. exactly the same DNA sequences.
c. no proteins in common.
d. completely different DNA sequences.

101. Evolution is considered to be one of the most important theories in science, because it
a. was developed more than 100 years ago.
b. is not supported by the fossil record.
c. unites the fields of biology, geology, chemistry, and ecology.
d. was discovered by Charles Darwin, a famous scientist.

102. Protein sequences in one organism that resemble those of another suggest a
a. coincidence.
b. lack of evolutionary relationship.
c. great number of mutations.
d. shared ancestry.

103. A measure of how commonly a particular allele occurs in a population is known as the
a. gene pool.
b. allele frequency.
c. mutation rate.
d. phenotype.

104. The more genetic variation a population has, the more likely it is that some individuals will
a. evolve.
b. migrate.
c. survive.
d. mutate.

105. Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. This change is called a(n)
a. mutation.
b. gene flow.
c. gene pool.
d. allele.
106. What is the observable change in the allele frequencies of a population over time called?
a. selection
b. microevolution
c. distribution
d. recombination

107. Natural selection that changes the distribution of a trait to favor one extreme phenotype is called
a. disruptive selection.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. normalizing selection.
d. directional selection.

108. In stabilizing selection, what occurs in a population?

a. The population shifts toward one of two extreme phenotypes.
b. Both extreme phenotypes shift toward the middle.
c. The intermediate phenotype becomes more common.
d. The intermediate phenotype becomes rare.

109. A population that is not undergoing natural selection displays what type of distribution?
a. normal
b. disruptive
c. directional
d. stabilizing

110. In a population of birds, intermediate beak size is selected against, and both very small and very large
beak sizes
are favored. What type of selection is this an example of?
a. directional
b. disruptive
c. normal
d. stabilizing

111. Chance changes in allele frequencies within a population are called

a. gene flow.
b. gene pool.
c. genetic drift.
d. sexual selection.

112. Fighting between male elephant seals over females is an example of

a. bottleneck effect.
b. intrasexual selection.
c. intersexual selection.
d. founder effect.

113. What increases genetic variation when animals move from one population to another population?
a. genetic drift
b. sexual selection
c. bottleneck effect
d. gene flow

114. A problem in all populations influenced by the bottleneck effect is that

a. genetic variation is lost.
b. alleles can't become fixed.
c. offspring inherit harmful alleles.
d. chance no longer affects them.
115. Which of the following conditions could mean that a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. The population is small.
b. Gene flow is common.
c. Mating is random.
d. Mutations occur frequently.

116. The Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to

a. estimate the rate of mutations in a population.
b. determine the likelihood of random mating.
c. calculate the gene flow rate among organisms.
d. predict genotype frequencies in a population.

117. The five factors that can lead to evolution are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection, and
a. sexual selection.
b. controlled mating.
c. emigration.
d. immigration.

118. Mutations are important because they bring about

a. death of the organism in which they develop.
b. genetic variation needed for a population to evolve.
c. benefits for the individual, but not for the population.
d. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium within a population.

119. Which of the following statements applies to real populations?

a. Mutations are rarely passed to offspring.
b. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is rare.
c. Gene flow represses alleles for desirable traits.
d. Evolution cannot occur in large populations.

120. A difference of chemical scents between two populations is an example of what kind of isolation?
a. temporal
b. behavioral
c. geographic
d. disruptive

121. An earthquake causes an ocean channel to open up on an island where a low area previously existed.
The island's
lizard population is now separated on the two parts of the island, providing an example of
a. geographic isolation.
b. behavioral isolation.
c. disruptive selection.
d. temporal isolation.

122. Which of the following examples illustrates a temporal barrier to mating between populations?
a. Populations of the same species of seal live on islands too far apart to swim between them
for mating.
b. Species of birds have elaborate courtship dances, and females select the best dancers as
mates.
c. Varieties of oak tree produce pollen during different seasons, so they can't pollinate one
another.
d. Herds of caribou misinterpret each other's mating behavior, so they fight instead of
mating.

123. What kind of isolation occurs when two populations of birds have different courtship dances?
a. geographic
b. sexual
c. temporal
d. behavioral
124. Which of the following processes is considered to be random?
a. genetic mutation
b. natural selection
c. adaptive radiation
d. coevolution

125. The American flying squirrel and the flying phalanger of Australia live in similar environments and look
very
similar. However, they are not closely related. Their resemblance is most likely an example of
a. sexual selection.
b. temporal isolation.
c. convergent evolution.
d. divergent evolution.

126. The Galpagos Islands in the Pacific Ocean have varied habitats. Divergent evolution is occurring on
these islands,
meaning that the species that live there
a. have lived unchanged through long periods of stability.
b. are becoming more like each other in response to their habitats.
c. change in response to changes in other species they interact with.
d. had common ancestors but have become increasingly different.

127. Like all flowering plants, the snapdragon must be pollinated to reproduce, but its flowers are closed. A
bumblebee
has just enough weight to open a snapdragon flower by landing on it. This adaptation is an example of
a. convergent evolution.
b. coevolution.
c. divergent evolution.
d. speciation.

128. The total and permanent disappearance of a species from Earth is called
a. radiation.
b. coevolution.
c. extinction.
d. equilibrium.

129. The fossil footprint of a dinosaur is an example of a(n)

a. amber-preserved fossil.
b. natural cast.
c. trace fossil.
d. permineralized fossil.

130. In which of the following situations would it be more likely for a fossil to form?
a. A vertebrate dies near a river delta.
b. An invertebrate dies on a mountain.
c. A soft-bodied worm dies in a desert.
d. A mammal dies on a rock bed.

131. The amount of time it takes for half of a radioactive isotope to decay is known as the
a. isotope.
b. half-life.
c. product.
d. radiocarbon.
132. Radiometric dating of which of the following samples has estimated the age of Earth to be 4.5 billion
years?
a. Burgess Shale fossils
b. Tollund Man
c. lake bed deposits
d. fallen meteorites

133. A natural cast forms when an organism

a. is trapped in tree resin, which hardens around it.
b. leaves an impression in sediment that fills with minerals.
c. has hard structures that are surrounded by minerals.
d. becomes encased whole in a material that preserves it.

134. Fossils that are useful for dating, because they are common, easy to identify, widespread, and existed for
a brief
time are called
a. trace fossils.
b. extinct fossils.
c. index fossils.
d. key fossils.

135. Earth's history is organized by

a. the Precambrian time scale.
b. units representing one million years.
c. the geologic time scale.
d. which plants lived on Earth.

136. Which of the following is the longest time span in Earth's history?
a. Mesozoic Era
b. Quaternary Period
c. Precambrian Time
d. Paleozoic Era

137. Which of the following periods make up the Mesozoic era?

a. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian
b. Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian
c. Quaternary, Tertiary, Triassic
d. Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous

138. The evolution of primates occurred in which of the following time periods?
a. Cenozoic Era
b. Mesozoic Era
c. Paleozoic Era
d. Precambrian Time

139. Which of the following contributed most to the intense heat of the Hadean eon?
a. clouds of carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and other gases
b. frequent collisions with asteroids and meteorites
c. lightning strikes and volcanic eruptions
d. closer proximity to the sun than is now the case

140. In the lipid membrane hypothesis, it is proposed that liposomes

a. formed in chimney-like structures at ocean hydrothermal vents.
b. were the result of lightning striking early Earth.
c. acted as barriers between organic molecules and the environment.
d. served as the genetic material on early Earth.
141. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey were the first to demonstrate that
a. the earliest genetic material was RNA, rather than DNA.
b. meteorites contain amino acids, many of which exist on Earth.
c. Earth formed from a nebula approximately 4.6 billion years ago.
d. organic molecules can be formed from inorganic molecules.

142. Which of the following hypotheses proposes that early organic molecules formed near ocean hydrothermal
vents?
a. iron-sulfide bubbles hypothesis
b. lipid membrane hypothesis
c. RNA world hypothesis
d. meteorite hypothesis

143. What discovery supports the hypothesis that RNA was the genetic material in the earliest organisms?
a. Ribozymes are RNA that can self-replicate.
b. DNA does not require enzymes to replicate.
c. RNA stores genetic information on ribozymes.
d. Chains of RNA will form lipid membranes.

144. What is the approximate age of the oldest known fossils?

a. 4.6 billion years
b. 3.5 billion years
c. 3.8 million years
d. 1.8 million years

145. When one organism lives inside the body of another, and both benefit, the relationship is called
a. photosynthesis.
b. permineralization.
c. mutation.
d. endosymbiosis.

146. The theory of endosymbiosis states that large prokaryotes took up smaller simple prokaryotes that
became
a. the cellular nucleus.
b. complex amino acids.
c. mitochondria and chloroplasts.
d. mitochondria and nuclei.

147. Which of the following events ended the Paleozoic era?

a. mass extinction
b. earthquake
c. meteorite
d. land plants

148.The earliest ancestors of mammals first appeared during the

a. Paleozoic era.
b. Precambrian Time.
c. Mesozoic era.
d. Cambrian explosion.

149. The mass extinction event that is theorized to have killed many species, including the dinosaurs, occurred
at the
end of which period?
a. Permian
b. Tertiary
c. Jurassic
d. Cretaceous
150. During the Cenozoic era, which group of organisms underwent the most dramatic radiation?
a. true birds
b. mammals
c. ray-finned fish
d. flowering plants

151. Which phrase best describes the focus of ecology?

a. individual organisms
b. individual cells
c. interactions among organisms
d. interactions among cells

152. What is the term for a group of different species in a given area?
a. population
b. ecosystem
c. community
d. biome

153. Which level of organization in ecology is a major regional or global community of organisms?
a. an ecosystem
b. population
c. community
d. biome

154. Studying a virtual ecosystem on a computer is an example of

a. experimentation.
b. modeling.
c. surveying.
d. observation.

155. Which of the following is the best example of an observation study?

a. a quadrat sample
b. a laboratory experiment
c. a computer program
d. a population model

156. Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a. sunlight
b. stream
c. tree
d. rock

157. Wind is considered to be an abiotic factor because it

a. is not related to biodiversity.
b. is a nonliving thing.
c. is in equilibrium.
d. is not in any ecosystem.

158. A rain forest has a high level of biodiversity because it has

a. many abiotic factors.
b. some endangered species.
c. few connections between living things.
d. a wide variety of living things.

159. A keystone species is a species that

a. goes unnoticed if its numbers decrease.
b. alters an area by building bridges and dams.
c. leads to a decrease in an area's biodiversity.
d. has an unusually large impact on its ecosystem.
160. Beavers are sometimes trapped for their fur. What could be one effect of increased trapping of beavers in
an area?
a. Biodiversity among the area's fish would increase.
b. The number of herons and kingfishers would decrease.
c. There would be more nesting areas for waterfowl.
d. More trees would be cut down.

161. An organism that makes its own food is called a

a. consumer.
b. producer.
c. heterotroph.
d. chloroplast.

162. A moose is considered to be a consumer because it

a. gets energy by eating other resources.
b. makes its own food.
c. forms carbohydrates using chemicals.
d. uses sunlight for energy.

163. The basis for the energy in an ecosystem is provided by

a. consumers.
b. heterotrophs.
c. chemosynthesis.
d. producers.

164. Most producers get energy from the Sun using the process of
a. respiration.
b. consumption.
c. photosynthesis.
d. chemosynthesis.

165. Chemosynthesis is the process in which organisms

a. form carbohydrates using chemicals.
b. get energy by eating other organisms.
c. make chemicals that absorb sunlight.
d. use energy from the sun to form carbohydrates.

166. A model that shows a single sequence of feeding relationships is called a

a. trophic level.
b. food chain.
c. food web.
d. feeding chain.

167. A food chain contains oak trees (producer), mice (herbivore), black rat snakes (carnivore), and bald
eagles
(carnivore). How many trophic levels does this food chain have?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

168. Food webs are models that show

a. one sequence of producers and consumers.
b. networks of feeding relationships.
c. stored energy in food chains.
d. only primary consumers in an ecosystem.
169. The water cycle, in which water moves from the atmosphere, to the surface, below ground, and back, is
also called
the
a. biogeochemical cycle.
b. oxygen cycle.
c. hydrologic cycle.
d. nitrogen cycle.

170. Which two biogeochemical cycles depend directly on photosynthesis?

a. the hydrologic cycle and the oxygen cycle
b. the carbon cycle and the phosphorus cycle
c. the nitrogen cycle and the phosphorus cycle
d. the oxygen cycle and the carbon cycle

171. What happens during the process of nitrogen fixation?

a. Bacteria change ammonium into nitrate.
b. Bacteria grow on nodules on plant roots.
c. Bacteria absorb ammonia and excrete ammonium.
d. Bacteria convert gaseous nitrogen into ammonia.

172. Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?

a. in the atmosphere
b. at and below ground level
c. on fungi near plant roots
d. close to rocky terrain

173. Each level in a food chain contains less energy than the one below it because some energy is
a. added to the system.
b. lost as heat.
c. consumed by carnivores.
d. incorporated into biomass.

174. The term biomass refers to the total

a. dry mass of the organisms in a given area.
b. unused material excreted as waste.
c. producer-to-consumer ratio.
d. mass of all living things on Earth.

175. A diagram that shows how available energy is distributed among trophic levels in an ecosystem is called
a(n)
a. food pyramid.
b. pyramid of numbers.
c. food web.
d. energy pyramid.

176. A biomass pyramid is a diagram that compares the

a. masses of different organisms.
b. numbers of different organisms.
c. biomass of different trophic levels.
d. distribution of energy in trophic levels.

177. A diagram that shows the numbers of individual organisms at each trophic level in an ecosystem is called
a(n)
a. biomass pyramid.
b. pyramid of numbers.
c. energy pyramid.
d. inverted pyramid.
178. All of the environmental features in the area where an organism lives are known as its
a. niche.
b. habitat.
c. community.
d. behavior.

179. The lion's ecological niche includes its behavior and

a. the shade trees on the savanna.
b. its position in the food web.
c. an ecological equivalent.
d. all the nearby watering holes.

180. The idea that two species cannot occupy the same niche is known as
a. ecological equivalence.
b. niche partitioning.
c. evolutionary response.
d. competitive exclusion.

181. When two species compete for the same resources, their ecological niche may
a. become extinct.
b. adapt to one species.
c. not favor one of them.
d. split into two niches.

182. Ecological equivalents are species that occupy similar niches

a. in different geographical regions.
b. with plenty of food.
c. in different types of habitats.
d. after niche partitioning.

183. Two robins eating worms on the same lawn is an example of

a. mutualism.
b. commensalism.
c. competition.
d. parasitism.

184. Predation is best described as

a. one organism capturing and eating another.
b. two organisms competing for limited resources.
c. an interaction in which two species benefit from each other.
d. an interaction in which one species benefits and other is not affected.

185. An oak tree provides a sparrow a place to build a nest. The nest neither benefits nor harms the tree. What
is the
name for this type of relationship?
a. mutualism
b. commensalism
c. predation
d. parasitism

186. One difference between parasitism and predation is that parasites

a. do very little harm to their hosts.
b. keep their hosts alive for a period of time.
c. attack the host only from the inside.
d. are not very big.
187. Which of the following describes the density of a population?
a. 5 sloths dispersed randomly
b. 100 people in the area
c. 100 wolves per square mile
d. 1 acre per family

188. The way in which individuals of a population are spread out is called
a. population density.
b. population dispersion.
c. survivorship.
d. predation.

189. Zebra herds that live and move together are an example of what type of dispersion?
a. clumped dispersion
b. uniform dispersion
c. random dispersion
d. territorial dispersion

190. What does a survivorship curve show?

a. the number of births and deaths each year
b. the number of predators that fed on a species' eggs
c. the number of offspring born in a particular year
d. the number of offspring still alive over time

191. Most large mammals have type 1 survivorship curves, which means they have
a. low infant mortality and high rates of survival into old age.
b. roughly equal survivorship rates at all ages.
c. high numbers of offspring so that a few will survive.
d. very high levels of predation and uniform dispersion.

192. The movement of a single caribou into a herd is an example of

a. immigration.
b. emigration.
c. population.
d. competition.

193. What pattern of growth will a population with limited resources show?
a. exponential
b. logistic
c. density-dependent
d. density-independent

194. The carrying capacity is most likely to change

a. if emigration takes place.
b. when resources remain the same.
c. for all species at the same time.
d. after a fire or flood.

195. Diseases may spread more rapidly when an area is crowded, so disease is considered to be a
a. type I survivorship curve
b. population crasher.
c. density-dependent limiting factor.
d. requirement for logistic growth.

196. Which of the following is an example of a density-independent limiting factor?

a. a parasite
b. a decrease in prey
c. a food shortage
d. a natural disaster
197. A sequence of biotic changes that regenerate or create an ecological community is known as
a. migration.
b. factors.
c. succession.
d. erosion.

198. The development of an ecosystem in an area that has been covered by lava begins with the
a. breakdown of rock by pioneer species.
b. migration of animals.
c. growth of trees and shrubs.
d. appearance of soil.

199. Secondary succession is most likely to occur

a. after a forest fire.
b. with pioneer species.
c. if a glacier shrinks.
d. on a new volcanic island.

200. Which of the following statements about primary succession is true?

a. It begins with a climax community.
b. Small mammals are first to inhabit the area.
c. It only occurs after glaciers retreat.
d. It begins with bare rock.

201. The biota is the collection of living things that live in the
a. hydrosphere.
b. atmosphere.
c. geosphere.
d. biosphere.

202. Lake Michigan is part of the

a. geosphere.
b. atmosphere.
c. hydrosphere.
d. biosphere.

203. Which of the following is an example of a connection between Earth systems?

a. deer drinking from a stream
b. ice melting on a lake
c. minerals forming under Earth's surface
d. a robin hatching from an egg

204. The Gaia hypothesis suggests that

a. Earth systems do not interact.
b. Earth is a thinking being that regulates each Earth system.
c. Earth systems are not necessary for life on Earth.
d. Earth systems interact to yield a biosphere full of life.

205. A region's climate is defined by its

a. temperature over the course of a month.
b. hurricane incidence during one year.
c. precipitation pattern over the length of a day
d. long-term pattern of weather conditions.

206. The reeds at the edge of a pond form a

a. climate zone.
b. microclimate.
c. hydrosphere.
d. biosphere.
207. Earth's climate zones are caused by
a. uneven heating of Earth's curved surface.
b. the tilt of Earth's axis.
c. melting polar ice caps.
d. changes in the sun's radiation.

208. Areas on the downwind side of mountains are often dry because
a. inland areas have wider ranges of temperatures.
b. mountains are never near bodies of water.
c. rain falls on the side facing the wind.
d. the mountains block the wind completely.

209. The short life cycle of the water-holding frog is an adaptation to

a. sunlight.
b. climate.
c. weather.
d. wind.

210. A biome is defined by its

a. elevation and soil.
b. plant and animal species.
c. climate and plant communities.
d. latitude and longitude.

211. What characteristic do all deserts have in common?

a. very dry climate
b. constant hot temperatures
c. plants with long roots
d. no seasons

212. Which biome has hot summers, cold winters, and precipitation spread over the whole year?
a. mountainous coniferous forest
b. Mediterranean shrubland
c. temperate deciduous forest
d. tropical rain forest

213. Which two areas are not considered to be biomes?

a. polar ice caps and chaparral
b. mountains and tundra
c. polar ice caps and mountains
d. chaparral and grassland

214. Species that can survive under high pressure in murky water have adapted to the
a. intertidal zone.
b. neritic zone.
c. bathyal zone
d. abyssal zone.

215. The producers that live in the abyssal zone are chemosynthetic because this zone has no
a. deep-sea vents.
b. biomass.
c. light.
d. food.

216. Which ocean zone contains by far the most biomass?

a. intertidal
b. neritic
c. bathyal
d. abyssal
217. Corals are a type of
a. animal.
b. plant.
c. algae.
d. rock.

218. In cold, nutrient-rich waters in the neritic zone, plankton may live in
a. total darkness.
b. tidal pools.
c. coral reefs.
d. kelp forests.

219. An estuary can protect species from

a. salt water.
b. storms and currents.
c. all predators.
d. changing salinity
.
220. How are estuaries distinct from other environments?
a. They contain a mix of fresh and salt water.
b. They are highly productive.
c. They help maintain clean water supplies.
d. They serve as nesting areas.

221. Cattails growing in a swamp at the edge of a freshwater pond are part of a(n)
a. estuary.
b. limnetic zone.
c. wetland.
d. river.

222. A region of land that drains into a body of water is known as a(n)
a. estuary.
b. watershed.
c. littoral zone.
d. freshwater ecosystem.

223. The bottom of a lake is part of the lake's

a. intertidal zone.
b. limnetic zone.
c. benthic zone.
d. watershed.

224. Earth's human population is about

a. 6 billion.
b. 50 million.
c. 1 billion.
d. 50 billion.

225. Which of the following statements is true of Earth's carrying capacity?

a. It is infinitely expandable.
b. It was reached in the last century.
c. It has been increased by technology.
d. It grows larger as population increases.

226. Which of these is an example of a nonrenewable resource?

a. sun
b. water
c. wind
d. coal
227. Trees on Easter Island were cut faster than they could grow, so they became a
a. renewable resource.
b. nonrenewable resource.
c. resource for future generations.
d. waste product.

228. The amount of land needed to support a person is called his or her
a. nonrenewable resource.
b. renewable resource.
c. carrying capacity.
d. ecological footprint.

229. Particulates that can irritate your respiratory system or lungs are one form of
a. smog.
b. oxygen.
c. pollution.
d. ozone.

230. In addition to particulates, smog contains

a. sunlight.
b. acid rain.
c. ground-level ozone.
d. carbonic acid.

231. Pollutants in the water cycle can cause rain to

a. become more acidic than normal.
b. change from basic to acidic.
c. be saturated with particulates.
d. fall heavily and cause flooding.
232. How do greenhouse gases affect Earth's atmosphere?
a. They cool the atmosphere.
b. They heat the atmosphere.
c. They block incoming radiation from the sun.
d. They slow the loss of heat.

233. The increase in global temperatures is known as

a. the greenhouse effect.
b. acid rain.
c. global warming.
d. pollution.

234. How can fertilizers used on lawns and fields affect a lake?
a. They can stimulate excess plant and algae growth.
b. They can increase the amount of oxygen in the water.
c. They can prevent biomagnification.
d. They can alter the level of the water in the lake.

235. Deformities in an aquatic indicator species can reveal the

a. effect of pollutants on the species' predators.
b. biodiversity of the species in the area.
c. quality of the water in which it lives.
d. rate of reproduction of the species.

236. Pollutants that are fat-soluble

a. are excreted in an organism's waste.
b. accumulate in an organism's body.
c. do not pass to the next generation.
d. can be detoxified in water.
237. What happens during biomagnification?
a. Scientists use microscopes to look at pollutants.
b. Pollutants increase in concentration as they move up the food chain.
c. Water-soluble pollutants become more concentrated.
d. Animals in the food chain become larger.

238. Which of the following organisms is likely to be most affected by biomagnification of a pollutant?
a. phytoplankton
b. zooplankton
c. fish
d. hawk

239. When an ecosystem loses biodiversity, it becomes

a. more efficient.
b. easier to live in.
c. less stable.
d. fragmented.

240. Which of these is a major cause of extinction?

a. biodiversity
b. loss of habitat
c. the greenhouse effect
d. use of plants for medicine

241. A highway that keeps an organism from using its entire home range causes
a. extinction.
b. an island ecosystem.
c. biomagnification.
d. habitat fragmentation.

242. How can introduced species disrupt ecosystems?

a. by causing habitat fragmentation
b. by increasing biodiversity
c. by crowding out native species
d. by decreasing competition

243. Which of these is a problematic invasive species in the United States?

a. kudzu
b. house mouse
c. grey wolf
d. bamboo

244. Selective cutting of trees instead of clear cutting is an example of practicing

a. old growth forestry.
b. species rotation.
c. sustainable development.
d. gear review.

245. Which of these is a way to make fisheries more sustainable?

a. Use more fishing boats.
b. Reduce harvests.
c. Focus on only a few species.
d. Catch umbrella species.

246. A species whose protection also protects other species is called

a. a sustainable species.
b. an invasive species.
c. an introduced species.
d. an umbrella species.
247. The recovery of the bald eagle is partly a result of which law?
a. Clean Air Act
b. Clean Water Act
c. Endangered Species Act
d. National Parks Act

248. What group is the oldest living primate group?

a. prosimians
b. hominids
c. hominoids
d. anthropoids

249. Hominids include which of the following organisms?

a. orangutans
b. chimpanzees
c. humans
d. gorillas

250. Which of the following distinguishes the genus Homo from the genus Australopithecus?
a. Its fossils were found in Africa.
b. Its limbs were humanlike.
c. Its brain was much larger.
d. Its thumb opposed its other fingers.

ANSWERS KEY #BIOLOGY 29) A 58) B

#CoMMENTDOWNYOURSCO 30) D 59) C
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8) C 37) C 66) B
9) A 38) B 67) C
10) D 39) A 68) A
11) C 40) C 69) D
12) D 41) A 70) A
13) C 42) B 71) D
14) C 43) A 72) B
15) A 44) . 73) D
16) B 45) D 74) C
17) B 46) A 75) B
18) C 47) B 76) D
19) A 48) A 77) A
20) B 49) C 78) B
21) C 50) B 79) C
22) A 51) A 80) C
23) C 52) C 81) B
24) A 53) C 82) A
25) C 54) A 83) D
26) B 55) C 84) B
27) A 56) D 85) D
28) D 57) B 86) B
87) A 138) C 189) B
88) C 139) D 190) C
89) C 140) A 191) B
90) B 141) B 192) A
91) D 142) C 193) D
92) . 143) D 194) A
93) A 144) A 195) A
94) C 145) A 196) B
95) B 146) B 197) D
96) D 147) D 198) C
97) A 148) C 199) D
98) D 149) A 200) C
99) C 150) C 201) A
100) B 151) D 202) A
101) C 152) B 203) D
102) A 153) C 204) D
103) C 154) C 205) C
104) D 155) D 206) A
105) B 156) B 207) D
106) C 157) A 208) D
107) A 158) C 209) B
108) B 159) B 210) A
109) D 160) D 211) C
110) C 161) D 212) B
111) A 162) B 213) C
112) B 163) B 214) A
113) C 164) A 215) C
114) B 165) D 216) C
115) D 166) C 217) C
116) A 167) A 218) C
117) C 168) B 219) B
118) D 169) D 220) A
119) A 170) B 221) D
120) B 171) C 222) B
121) B 172) D 223) A
122) B 173) D 224) C
123) A 174) B 225) B
124) C 175) B 226) C
125) D 176) A 227) A
126) A 177) D 228) C
127) C 178) C 229) D
128) D 179) B 230) B
129) B 180) B 231) D
130) C 181) B 232) C
131) C 182) D 233) C
132) A 183) D 234) A
133) B 184) A 235) D
134) D 185) C 236) C
135) B 186) . 237) A
136) C 187) A 238) C
137) C 188) B 239) B
240) B 245) C 250) C
241) D 246) A 251) A
242) C 247) C 252) C
243) B 248) B 253) C
244) D 249) D