CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking, Third Edition Chapter 7 Solutions

Chapter 7 Solutions
Review Questions
1. If you want to see the hexadecimal boot setting for the configuration register, which command would
you use? (Choose all that apply.)
a. router> sh int
b. router> sh ver
c. router#sh ver
d. router#sh int
2. When the trace command is used, multiple packets are sent to a remote destination with:
a. Progressively higher TTL values until a packet reaches the destination
b. Progressively lower TTL values until a packet is returned from the destination
c. Progressively smaller hop counts
d. Full routing tables
3. If you want to configure the values that ping uses and have access to extended mode ping options,
which of the following represents the appropriate prompt and the command you would type before
pressing the Return key?
a. router#ping
b. router#ping ex md
c. router#ping motd
d. router> ping
e. router#ping e
f. router> ping e
4. What is usually stored in NVRAM? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Configuration register
b. Backup copy of the IOS
c. Limited version of the IOS
d. Configuration file
5. Which of the following connectivity utilities use ICMP messages for troubleshooting the connection?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. Ping
b. Telnet
c. Trace
d. IP route
e. Show version
6. Which layer of the OSI model contains the telnet utility?
a. Application
b. Network
c. Data Link
d. Physical
e. Transport
7. Which of the following information is not visible after you issue a ping?
a. Quantity of ICMP packets sent
b. Timeout duration
c. Success rate
d. MAC address
e. Roundtrip times
8. If the packet type is unknown, what does ping report?
a. ! b. . c. ? d. U
9. Which of the following commands are considered incomplete or will not be recognized by the routers
IOS? Assume that the Return key is pressed immediately after the command. (Choose all that apply.)
a. router> ping 192.168.1.1
b. router#ping
c. router> ping
d. router#config
e. router> config
10. Which of the following maps the route from HostA to HostB across the Internet?
a. show ip route command
b. Ping
c. Trace
d. Finger
11. If the configuration register is set to 0x2102, where will the system look for boot instructions?
a. Flash
b. NVRAM
c. RAM
d. ROM
12. If there are no specific instructions to the contrary, from where does the system attempt to load the
IOS?
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. NVRAM
d. Flash
13. If you want to see information about other Cisco devices attached to your router, which of the
following commands would you use?
a. show cisco neighbor
b. show cdp neighbor
c. show cdp config
d. initiate cdp scan
14. CDP is enabled by default on Cisco devices. True or False?
15. Which of the following is the first step in the router boot process?
a. Locate and load Cisco IOS
b. Load bootstrap
c. Locate and load router configuration file
d. POST
16. Which of the following occurs after the loading of the bootstrap?
a. Test hardware
b. Configuration register is examined to determine from where to load the IOS
c. Locate and load router configuration file
d. POST
17. What is another name for the privileged EXEC mode?
a. Enable secret mode
b. Enable mode
c. Login mode
d. User mode
18. By default, what will happen if the IOS cannot be found in flash memory?
a. The router attempts to load a minimal copy from ROM.
b. The router uses CDP.
c. The router contacts an HTTP server.
d. The router automatically shuts down.
19. If the router is configured to load the IOS from a TFTP server, where will the router look next for the
IOS?
a. ROM
b. Flash
c. FTP server
d. HTTP server
e. CDP
20. Which command could you use to back up the IOS to a TFTP server?
a. copy IOS tftp
b. copy flash tftp
c. copy rom tftp
d. copy running-config tftp
21. If you want to see information about other Cisco devices attached to your router, including their IP
addresses, which of the following commands would you use?
a. show cisco neighbor
b. show cdp neighbor
c. show cdp neighbor detail
d. show cdp neighbor Ethernet
22. What is the command to erase the configuration file on a Cisco 1900 series switch?
a. erase start
b. delete start
c. disable nvram
d. delete nvram
23. The show interfaces command displays the following output: Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is
administratively down. What do you infer?
a. There is no cable attached to the Ethernet0 interface on the router.
b. The no shutdown command needs to be configured on the Ethernet0 interface.
c. Incompatible routing protocols have been configured on the router.
d. There is a physical problem with the Ethernet0 interface on the router.
24. What is the purpose of a hosts file on a router?
a. To allow you to use host names instead of IP addresses when referring to network devices
b. To facilitate ARP on the router
c. To allow routers to see other devices on the network
d. To block unwanted hosts from using the router
25. Which of the following commands will display the routing table for a Cisco router?
a. show route
b. show ip route
c. show routing table
d. show table
CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking, Third Edition Chapter 9 Solutions

Chapter 9 Solutions
Review Questions
1. What command injects a default route into an OSPF network?
a. passive-interface
b. loopback default
c. router ospf
d. default-information originate
2. Classless routing protocols carry subnet mask information in their routing table updates.
3. The process ID must match on all routers in an OSPF network. True or False?
4. What command switches RIP to version 2?
a. router rip 2
b. version 2
c. rip version 2
d. ripv2 on
5. What command turns off automatic summarization to major network boundaries in both RIPv2 and
EIGRP?
a. summarization off
b. no summary
c. no auto-summary
d. no ip classless
6. In what state are OSPF neighbors, when bidirectional communication has been established and
adjacencies have been formed?
a. Passive
b. Up
c. DR
d. FULL
7. Which type of authentication sends only a hash across the link between two authenticating peers?
a. MD5
b. Clear text
c. Signed secret keys
d. Shared keys
8. What command places the 192.168.12.32/27 network into OSPF area 0?
a. network 192.168.12.0 area 0
b. network 192.168.12.32 area 0
c. network 192.168.12.32 255.255.255.224 area 0
d. network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
9. EIGRP uses the same metric as IGRP multiplied by 256.
10. What feature of OSPF allows it to use a hierarchical design?
a. Areas
b. Auto summarization
c. Wildcard masks
d. Neighbor adjacencies
11. Cisco routers can be configured to send and receive RIPv1 updates on a per-interface basis. True or
False?
12. The feasibility condition states RD < FD = feasible successor.
13. What protocol is used by EIGRP to transport its routing protocol information?
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. RTP
d. DR/BDR
14. Which of the following commands enables EIGRP on a router with an autonomous system number of
101?
a. router eigrp
b. router eigrp 101
c. router 101 eigrp
d. as 101
15. What algorithm is used by OSPF for path selection?
a. DUAL
b. Open Path First
c. Shortest Path First
d. Default-information Originate
16. A backup route in EIGRP is a(n) feasible successor.
17. OSPF timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies. True or False?
18. EIGRP timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies. True or False?
19. Which of the following commands would ensure that a router becomes the DR on a broadcast,
multiaccess network?
a. ip ospf priority 256
b. ip ospf dr on
c. ip ospf priority 0
d. None of the above
20. What command displays the successors and feasible successors for EIGRP?
a. show ip route
b. show ip eigrp topology
c. show ip ospf topology
d. show ip topology
CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking, Third Edition Chapter 8 Solutions

Chapter 8 Solutions
Review Questions
1. Which of the following commands is necessary to add IGRP to a router? (Choose all that apply.)
a. router rip
b. router igrp [autonomous system #]
c. network [major network #]
d. router network igrp
2. What is the administrative distance of RIP?
a. 100
b. 110
c. 120
d. 90
3. Link-state routing protocols __________. (Choose all that apply.)
a. use link-state advertisements to notify routers of route changes
b. send routing tables to neighbors
c. reach convergence faster than distance-vector routing protocols
d. determine the best path via the hop count algorithm
4. RIP has a maximum hop count of __________.
a. 255
b. 16
c. 15
d. 254
5. Which command enables RIP on a router?
a. router network RIP
b. router rip
c. router igrp
d. router ospf
6. Which command will show the IP routing table of a router?
a. show ip route
b. show ip protocol
c. debug ip igrp events
d. show run
7. Nonroutable protocols are able to pass packets among multiple networks. True or False?
8. IGRP can use which of the following as metrics? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Hop count
b. Bandwidth
c. Delay
d. Split horizon
9. Which of the following is a routed protocol? (Choose all that apply.)
a. NetBEUI
b. TCP/IP
c. IPX/SPX
d. RIP
10. Which of the following helps to prevent routing loops? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Split horizon
b. Count-to-infinity
c. Hold-down timers
d. Split horizon with poison reverse
11. At which router prompt can you use the router rip and router igrp [autonomous system] commands?
a. routerB#
b. routerB>
c. routerB(config)#
d. routerB(config-router)#
12. At which router prompt can you issue the network [network #] command?
a. routerB#
b. routerB>
c. routerB(config)#
d. routerB(config-router)#
13. The debug ip rip command can be used in user mode and privileged mode. True or False?
14. Which of the following routing protocols can route between autonomous systems? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. IGRP
b. RIP
c. BGP
d. EGP
15. What type of routing protocol is used within autonomous systems?
a. Exterior Gateway Protocols
b. TCP/IP
c. NetBEUI
d. Interior Gateway Protocols
16. RIP and IGRP both advertise a route to a particular network. Which route will be added to the routing
table?
a. The RIP route
b. The IGRP route
c. Both RIP and IGRP routes
d. BGP-enhanced IGRP
17. What command is used to display RIP timers?
a. show ip route
b. show run
c. debug ip rip
d. show ip protocol
18. What two commands are needed to configure RIP on a router? (Choose all that apply.)
a. network rip
b. router rip
c. router network rip
d. network [network #]
19. A metric is a variable used to determine the suitability of a route. True or False?
20. A major drawback of link-state routing protocols is:
a. Routing by rumor
b. Increased memory and processing required on routers
c. Slow time to convergence
d. Inability to adapt to network topology changes
21. Which of the following commands would enable a routing protocol that is only concerned with hop
count?
a. router# router igrp
b. router(config)# router igrp
c. router# router rip
d. router(config)# router rip
e. router# router ospf
22. Which of the following are true about administrative distance? (Choose all that apply.)
a. The higher the administrative distance, the more desirable the route.
b. Administrative distances are used with static routes.
c. The default administrative distance for RIP is 120.
d. The default administrative distance for static routes is higher than those for dynamic routes.
e. The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower than that for the default
route of IGRP.
23. What does the number 240 stand for in the following command?
Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 240
a. Number of masked bits
b. Decimal subnet mask
c. Number of hops
d. Administrative distance
e. Autonomous network number
24. If you want to monitor real-time RIP traffic, which command would you type?
a. router> router rip
b. router# router rip
c. router# show rip
d. router(config)# show rip
e. router# debug ip rip
25. Which of the following does RIP support? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Load balancing
b. Link reliability metric
c. Bandwidth metric
d. Delay metric
26. What is used on routers to hide intranet IP addresses from the Internet?
a. PAP
b. CHAP
c. NAT
d. FRAT
27. How does NAT deal with multiple internal IP addresses mapping to a single external address?
a. PAP
b. CHAP
c. NAT
d. PAT
28. How does overlapping occur?
a. The network administrator doesnt plan for Internet connectivity.
b. The network administrator uses registered IP addresses without getting permission.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking, Third Edition Chapter 9 Solutions
Chapter 9 Solutions
Review Questions
1. What command injects a default route into an OSPF network?
a. passive-interface
b. loopback default
c. router ospf
d. default-information originate
2. Classless routing protocols carry subnet mask information in their routing table updates.
3. The process ID must match on all routers in an OSPF network. True or False?
4. What command switches RIP to version 2?
a. router rip 2
b. version 2
c. rip version 2
d. ripv2 on
5. What command turns off automatic summarization to major network boundaries in both RIPv2 and
EIGRP?
a. summarization off
b. no summary
c. no auto-summary
d. no ip classless
6. In what state are OSPF neighbors, when bidirectional communication has been established and
adjacencies have been formed?
a. Passive
b. Up
c. DR
d. FULL
7. Which type of authentication sends only a hash across the link between two authenticating peers?
a. MD5
b. Clear text
c. Signed secret keys
d. Shared keys
8. What command places the 192.168.12.32/27 network into OSPF area 0?
a. network 192.168.12.0 area 0
b. network 192.168.12.32 area 0
c. network 192.168.12.32 255.255.255.224 area 0
d. network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
9. EIGRP uses the same metric as IGRP multiplied by 256.
10. What feature of OSPF allows it to use a hierarchical design?
a. Areas
b. Auto summarization
c. Wildcard masks
d. Neighbor adjacencies
11. Cisco routers can be configured to send and receive RIPv1 updates on a per-interface basis. True or
False?
12. The feasibility condition states RD < FD = feasible successor.
13. What protocol is used by EIGRP to transport its routing protocol information?
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. RTP
d. DR/BDR
14. Which of the following commands enables EIGRP on a router with an autonomous system number of
101?
a. router eigrp
b. router eigrp 101
c. router 101 eigrp
d. as 101
15. What algorithm is used by OSPF for path selection?
a. DUAL
b. Open Path First
c. Shortest Path First
d. Default-information Originate
16. A backup route in EIGRP is a(n) feasible successor.
17. OSPF timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies. True or False?
18. EIGRP timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies. True or False?
19. Which of the following commands would ensure that a router becomes the DR on a broadcast,
multiaccess network?
a. ip ospf priority 256
b. ip ospf dr on
c. ip ospf priority 0
d. None of the above
20. What command displays the successors and feasible successors for EIGRP?
a. show ip route
b. show ip eigrp topology
c. show ip ospf topology
d. show ip topology
CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking, Third Edition Chapter 5 Solutions
Chapter 5 Solutions
Review Questions
1. Which of the following WAN services operates over existing telephone lines to provide voice and data
communications?
a. SDLC
b. Frame Relay
c. ISDN
d. ATM
2. Which of the following is true about Frame Relay communication? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Provides faster communications over WAN links than X.25
b. Is slightly less efficient than X.25
c. Uses highly reliable digital facilities
d. Provides host-to-router and router-to-router communications
3. Which of the following is the providers end of the WAN link?
a. DTE
b. Computer
c. DCE
d. Dumb terminal
4. Which two devices would be considered part of the Physical layer for WAN equipment?
a. Routers and hubs
b. DTE and DCE
c. Gateways and hubs
d. Hubs and switches
5. Which of the following connection types can PPP support? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Router-to-router
b. Host-to-router
c. Host-to-host
d. Asynchronous
e. Synchronous
6. Which of the following can HDLC support? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Point-to-point
b. Multipoint
c. Synchronous
d. Asynchronous
e. Full-duplex
f. Half-duplex
7. Which of the following is a data link protocol used for connecting LANs in geographically separate
areas? (Choose all that apply.)
a. TCP
b. PPP
c. OSPF
d. Frame Relay
8. Which of the following data link protocols is most closely associated with the X.25 specification?
a. LAPB
b. LAPD
c. PPP
d. Frame Relay
9. Which of the following defines how frames are formatted and transmitted between systems on a single WAN
link?

a. Physical layer WAN standards

b. Data Link layer WAN standards
c. Network layer WAN standards
d. Application layer WAN standards
10. In WAN communications, which of the following identifies the device that is located at the users end
of the WAN?
a. DTE
b. DCE
c. CSU/DSU
d. TA
11. A modem is an example of a DCE in a WAN connection. True or False?
12. Which of the following data link protocols is most closely associated with the ISDN specification?
a. LAPB
b. LAPD
c. PPP
d. Frame Relay
13. A computer is an example of a DTE in a WAN connection. True or False?
14. Which of the following can make use of ISDN lines? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Frame Relay
b. LAPD
c. X.25
d. SDLC
15. Which of the following WAN protocols was developed specifically to connect mainframe computers?
a. PPP
b. SDLC
c. Frame Relay
d. ISDN
16. WAN standards typically provide definitions for which two layers of the OSI model? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Application
d. Presentation
e. Transport
17. Which of the following defines communications that can flow in two directions, but not
simultaneously?
a. Full-duplex
b. Simplex
c. Half-duplex
d. Quarter duplex
18. Which of the following communication methods relies on a timing device?
a. Synchronous
b. Asynchronous
c. Full-duplex
d. Half-duplex
19. Which of the following organizations was formerly known as CCITT?
a. Internet Engineering Task Force
b. International Organization for Standardization
c. International Telecommunication Union
d. Electronic Industries Alliance

20. Which of the following standards organizations has defined the RS-232, RS-449, and RS-530
standards?
a. IETF
b. ITU-T
c. ISO
d. EIA
21. What is the purpose of multiplexing?
a. To split up a signal into discrete chunks so it can be transported across the WAN
b. To combine multiple signals onto a single medium
c. To put packets back in order after they become disorganized during transport
d. To acknowledge the receipt of packets
22. Which WAN technology can also be used on LANs?
a. Frame Relay
b. ISDN
c. PPP
d. ATM
CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking, Third Edition Chapter 10 Solutions
Chapter 10 Solutions
Review Questions
1. Which wildcard mask would apply an access list line to all packets from network 175.25.0.0?
a. 255.255.255.0
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.254.0.0
d. 0.0.255.255
2. Standard IP access lists filter traffic based on which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Destination IP address
b. IP protocol
c. Port number
d. Source IP address
3. Wildcard masks use a 0 to signify which bits of an address are significant.
4. Which command shows only the IP access lists on a router?
a. show access-lists
b. show ipx access-lists
c. show ip access-lists
d. show interface
5. Which commands allow you to view the interfaces that have IP access lists applied to them? (Choose
all that apply.)
a. show interfaces
b. show ip interface
c. show ip traffic
d. show ip counters
6. Which host and wildcard mask pair does the any keyword represent?
a. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
b. 0.0.255.255 0.0.0.0
c. 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
d. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
7. Which command is used to apply an IP access list to an interface?
a. ip access-group [list #] [in|out]
b. ip access-group permit 100
c. ip access-group [list #] [permit|deny]
d. show ip interface
8. Access lists are _________. (Choose all that apply.)
a. used to filter traffic and control network security
b. applied as either inbound or outbound filters
c. sequential permit or deny statements
d. built into the routers firmware
9. Standard IP access lists are represented by the _________ number range.
a. 100199
b. 199
c. 10001099
d. 200299
10. Which command could be used to remove an access list from your router?
a. no ip access-group in
b. no ip access-list 1 in
c. no access-list 1
d. no ip access-list one

11. Extended IP access lists are represented by the _________ number range.
a. 100199
b. 200299
c. 10001099
d. 199
12. The show access-lists command displays _________.
a. access lists applied to interfaces
b. all access lists on the router
c. only IP access lists on the router
d. only IPX access lists on the router
13. At which of the following prompts would you create an access list?
a. routerC#
b. routerC>
c. routerC(config-if)#
d. routerC(config)#
14. At which of the following prompts would you apply an access list to an interface?
a. routerC#
b. routerC>
c. routerC(config-if)#
d. routerC(config)
15. Which of the following host and corresponding wildcard mask pairs represent the same value as host
172.29.2.2?
a. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
b. 172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0
c. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
d. 0.0.0.0 172.29.2.2
16. A router can have one access list per protocol, per direction on each interface. True or False?
17. Which of the following is a benefit of using named lists?
a. The syntax is identical to using numbered lists.
b. There arent as many lists allowed so it is easier to remember them.
c. You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit.
d. There are no benefits to using named lists.
18. What happens if a list is applied to an interface and then the list itself is removed?
a. The commands will be executed and all traffic will be denied.
b. The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted.
c. The commands will not be executed and all traffic will be permitted.
d. None of the above
19. What is true of the host keyword? (Choose all that apply.)
a. It can only be used with extended IP lists.
b. It can be used with standard and extended IP lists.
c. It replaces the 0.0.0.255 wildcard mask.
d. It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask.
e. It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated.
f. It is placed after the IP address with which it is associated.
20. What is the purpose of the established parameter?
a. To establish a connection between the sender and receiver
b. To prevent any traffic into a network
c. To prevent any traffic into a network that didnt originate from that network
d. To permit all TCP traffic but not IP traffic into the established network

21. All access lists presented in this chapter, except standard IP lists, should be placed where?
a. As close to the source as possible
b. As close to the destination as possible
c. As close to the serial interface as possible
d. As close to the tftp server as possible
22. Which command links an access list to the VTY lines?
a. ip access-group
b. ip access-class
c. vty access-class
d. access-class