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 TEST SERIES - 1

1. The first Factories Act was enacted in

a) 1881 b) 1895 c) 1897 d) 1885

2. Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ?

a. Who has completed 18 years of age b. who is less than 18 years
c. who is more than 14 years d. who is more than 15 years

3. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act,
1948 is called as _________
a. Occupier b. Manager c. Chairman d. Managing Director

4. The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of
Factories Act, 1948 should be ________ Cubic Meters.
a. 9.9 b. 10.2 c. 14.2 d. 13.2

5. The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the
organization if it employees _______ or more employees.
a. 200 b. 250 c. 300 d. 150

6. Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ?

a. Who has completed 17 years of age
b. who is less than 18 years
c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
d. None of these

7. Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948
a. Canteen b. Creches c. First Aid d. Drinking
water

8. First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons

a. 125 b. 135 c. 150 d. 160

9. Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more

employees.
a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 500 d. 750

10. Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons.

a. 250 b. 230 c. 300 d. 275

11. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for ______ days in a month.
a. 15 b. 25 c. 20 d. 28

12. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging _____ or more

employees.
a. 500 b. 250 c. 600 d. 750

13. The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging employees more than______

a. 400 b. 350 c. 500 d. 450

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14. Creche is to be provided if ______ or more lady employees are engaged.
a. 25 b. 32 c. 30 d. 40

15. An adult worker can upto ____ hrs in a day as per factories Act, 1948
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 12

16. Obligations of Workers under the Factories Act 1947 was discussed in section -----
a) 78 b) 101 c) 111 d) 99

17. The term Sabbatical is connected with

a) Paid leave for study b) Paternity leave
c) Maternity leave d) Quarantine leave

18. Section 49 of the Factories Act 1947 Says about

a) Welfare officer b) Canteen c) Rest room d) Crche

19. Section 2 ( K )of the Factories Act 1947 says about

a) Manufacturing Process b) Factory c) Worker d) None of these

20. Mention the types of Leave facilities available to a worker under the Factories Act
1947 ?
(a) Annual Leave with wages as per Factories Act
(b) Casual leave as per Standing orders
(c) National & Festival Holiday
(d) Maternity leave

21. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------ to
carry out the prescribed duties
a) Safety Officer b) Welfare officer
c) Security officer d) None of these

22. For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or Rules, the occupier shall liable for
punishment up to
a) 2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both
b) 6 months or fine upto 10, 000 or both
c) 3 three years or fine 10, 000 or both
d) None of these

23. In case of fatal accident occurred inside the factory , a separate accident report shall
be sent to the District magistrate in Form No --------- within 12 hours
a) Form No: 16 b) Form No: 18 A
c) Form No: 18 B d) Form No: 18

24. Manager of every factory should sent a annual report to the Inspectorate of factories
containing details like numbers of workers employed , leave with wages, safety
st
officers, ambulance room, canteen, shelter, accidents in form no --- on or before 31
January
a) Form No : 22 b) Form No: 21
c) Form No: 25 A d) Form No: 25 B

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25. If any employee found violating the section 20 of Factories Act 1947 shall be fine up to
a) Rs. 10 b) Rs. 5 c) Rs. 15 d) Rs.20

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A A C B C D C A A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C C B C A A A A

21 22 23 24 25
A A D A B

* Manager of a factory nominated under the section 7 (f) of Factories Act

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 TEST SERIES - 2

1. A formal explanation of the knowledge, skills, abilities, traits and other characteristics
necessary for effective job performance is known as:-
a) Job Description b) Job Analysis c) Job Specification d) Job Enrichment

2. Match the following :-

List-I List-II
a) The process of examining how work creates (i) Job Enrichment
or add values to the ongoing process in a business
b) A fundamental rethinking and radial redesign of (ii) Job Design
business process to achieve dramatic
improvements in cost, quality, service and speed
c) the process organising work into tasks required (iii) Work flow analysis
to perform a specific task.
d) The process of putting specialised tasks back together (iv) Business Process
so that one person is responsible for producing a whole Reengineering
product or an entire service. (B.P.R.)
Codes :-
a b c d a b c d
A) i ii iii iv C) iii iv i ii
B) ii i iv iii D) iii iv ii i

3. Too much reliance on internal recruitment can result in

a) Reduced Job Performance b) High Labour Turnover
c) Internal conflict d) Poor Group Dynamics

4. Mechanism of Human Resource Development includes -

a) Career planning b) Accountability c) Rewards d) None of these

5. Human Resource Planning system includes :-

a) Human Resource Supply forecast b) Human Resource Inventory
c) Corporate Plan d) Job Enrichment

6. Which of the following supply forecasting Techniques uses historical information for
the movement of personnel in an organisation.
a) Simulation b) Trend Analysis c) Markov Analysis d) Renewal Analysis

7. Arrange the different steps of Human Resources Planning according to the sequence
they occur.
i) Estimating manpower gaps ii) Forecasting Demand for H.R.
iii) Forecasting Supply for H.R. iv) Analysing Organisational Plans
v) Monitoring and Control vi) Action Planning
A) iv, i, ii, iii, vi, v B) iv, ii, iii, i, vi, v
C) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi D) v, ii, i, iv, vi, iii

8. Which of the following is not the benefit of internal selection of Recruitment?

a) It boosts morale of the employees
b) It lowers the cost of Recruitment
c) It brings change in the pattern of organizational development
d) It helps in promotions and transfers within the organisation.

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9. Which of the following is not the difference between H.R.M. and Personnel
Management?
a) HRM treats people as resource or assets while personnel Management as labour
which can be replaced when needed.
b) HRM is more conservative in relation to Personnel Management
c) HRM has more pro-active role in relation to Personnel Management which is more
reactive
d) None of the above

10. What are the four levels of Personnel Management?

a) Professional b) Social c) Individual d) Both A and B

11. Which of the following level of Personnel Management deals with creating
job opportunities in the country to deal with the demand and supply.
a) corporate b) National c) Professional d) None

12. The authority and relationship in an organization is represented by

a) Organisation culture b) Organisation position
c) Organisation development d) Organisation structure

13. _________ is a medium through which both employees and company mutually co-
operate to achieve more production through high morale.
a) Industrial Relations b) Human Relations
c) Management Development d) Job

14. Which of the following benefits of organisation structure encourages innovative ideas
generation in the employees?
a) Location of Decision Centres b) Proper Balancing
c) Encouraging growth d) Simulating creativity

15. Which of the following type of organisations focus on the specific departments of
each department which is put under a specialist?
a) Matrix organisations b) Line organisations
c) Line and Staff organisation d) Functional organisation

16. Choose the correct statement:

a) Job evaluation is used to determine compensation
b) Job Induction is not a type of training
c) Job Enrichment is known as vertical job loading
d) Job Enlargement is known as vertical job leading
A) a and b are true B) b and d are true C) c and a are true D) c and d are true

17. Which of the following is not the benefits of Job Description?

a) Redressal of grievances b) Defining career paths
c) Placement of new employees d) Skills, Aptitudes, Knowledge

18. Which of the following features is not the part of behavioural specification?
a) Maturity b) Judgement Making skill c) Honest d) Leadership skill

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19. Arrange the following process according to the sequence in which they occur -
i) Job Designing ii) Recruitment iii) Job Analysis iv) Selection
Codes:
a) iv, ii, i, iii b) iii, i, ii, iv c) iii, i, ii, iv d) None of these

20. Match the following-

List I List-II
i) It answers the questions what human qualities and A. Job Designing
trends an necessary to do the job well
ii) It is a process of completing the various tasks to B. Recruitment
complete a job.
iii) It is process by which the organisation ensures C. Job Specification
the right kind and right number of people at
right time for right plan.
iv) It is process & stimulating the applicants to apply D. Human Resource Planning
for the jobs
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
a) i iii iv ii c) i ii iv iii
b) ii iv i iii d) ii iii i iv

21. Statement-I Human Resource planning is a continuous process to dominate any gap
but supply and demand.
Statement-II Recruitment follows after H.R. planning
i) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is correct explanation of Statement-I
ii) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is not correct the explanation of Statement-I
iii) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is right
iv) None of the above

22. Which of the following is not the technique of demand formatting -

a) Judgment b) Linear Programming model
c) Regression Analysis d) Ratio Analysis

23. Which of the following is the "positive" process in the objective of placing right kind
of manpower at right place at the right time.
a) Designing b) Evaluation c) Recruitment d) Planning

24. Match the items given in the List-I with those in the List-II
List I List-II
a) Predictive analysis to help anticipate the result of i. Job Specification
HR Strategy
b) Statement of purpose, slope duties, task and ii. Ernest McCorn
responsibilities of job
c) Position Analysis Questionnaire iii. Job Description
d) Statement of qualifications and qualities required iv. Work Force Analysis
for an employee to be successful
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
a) iv iii ii i c) i iv ii iii
b) i ii iii iv d) ii iv i iii

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25. Match the following
List I List-II
a) The process of Examining how work creates or add i. Job Enrichment
value to the ongoing process in a business
b) A fundamental rethinking and radical design of ii. Job Design
business process to achieve dramatic improvement in
cost, quality, service and speed
c) The process of organising work into the tasks required iii. Work Flow Analysis
to perform a specific task
d) The process of putting specialised tasks back together so iv. Business Process
that one person is responsible for producing a whole Reengineering (BPR)
product an entire service
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
a) i ii iii iv c) iii iv i ii
b) ii i iv iii d) iii iv ii i

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D A C D C B C B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D B D D C D D C B

21 22 23 24 25
B B C A D

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 TEST SERIES - 3

Q.1 Workers are allowed to purchase shares of the company and thus become its co-
owners in this process?
a) Collective Bargaining b) Co-partnership
c) JMC d) Workers Director

Q.2 Assertion (A): Industrial Labour in India has been migratory.

Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely from one end of the
channel that is the village end.
a) Both A & R are worn. b) Both A & R is right
c) A is wrong & R is right d) A is right & R is wrong

Q.3 Who considered collective bargaining as the most important concept for determining
the terms and conditions of employment?
a) Sidney & Beatrice Webb b) Robert Moxie
c) Managerial Attitude d) Administrative Participation

Q.4 Which of these are not levels of management?

a) Informative b) Consultative participation
c) Managerial Attitude d) Administrative Participation

Q.5 Levels of workers participation are

a) Joint Decision Making b) Self control
c) Influencing through information sharing d) All of these

Q.6 In which year Joint Manager Councils came into force?

a) 1955 b) 1956 c) 1957 d) 1958

Q.7 Work Committees are set up in undertaking employing how merry employees?
a) 100 b) 100 or more c) 200 d) 500

Q.8 What are functions of the Councils?

a) Information sharing b) Consultative c) Administrative d) All of these

Q.9 Shop councils function for how much period?

a) 1 yr b) 2 yrs c) 3 yrs d) 4 yrs

Q.10 Which of these are not the function of shop councils?

a) Assist is safety measure.
b) Assist management in achieving monthly/yearly production targets.
c) To study absenteeism in the shop.
d) Members of the council must be actually engaged in the unit.

Q.11 Unique concept which provides voluntary participation by the workers in direction of
quality improvement & self development.
a) grievance procedure b) quality circle c) suggestion scheme d) WPM

Q.12 Complete departure from the traditional concept of autocratic management or one-
man governance.
a) Industrial Democracy b) Workers Participation
c) Works Committee d) Worker Director

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Q.13 Which of these are not advantage of Industrial Democracy?
a) leads to cordial labour management relations & industrial peace.
b) gives higher status to workers & make them more responsible in their outlook &
behaviour
c) do not give training in democratic norms
d) workers feel committed to the decisions taken by them jointly with the management.
a) only c & d b) only a, b & c c) only c d) All of the above

Q.14 What are the two separate sets of functions performed by group of people
participating in management?
a) managerial b) operative c) both a & b d) None of these

Q.15 What are the different forms of participation in Management?

a) Ascending participation b) Descending Participation
c) both a & b d) None of these

Q.16 Modes of participation of workers in Management of Industrial Enterprise are

a) Work committee b) JMC c) CB d) Co-partnership
a) only b & c b) only a, b & c c) only d d) only a, b, c & d

Q.17 A works Committee has equal number of representative of?

a) Employer b) Worker c) both a & b d) None of these

Q.18 Which Council started Joint Management Council?

a) Gupta council b) Whitley Council c) Bar council d) None of these

Q.19 In which country JMC was started first time?

a) USA b) UK c) India d) Nepal

Q.20 Industrial relations process in which employee through their elected leaders
participate on equal basis with management in negotiating labour agreements.
a) JMC b) Collective Bargaining
c) Co-partnership d) Worker-Director

Q.21 What recommendations were passed by ILO for condition of workers?

a) hours of work b) weekly rest
c) holidays with pay d) labour administration and inspection
Code:
a) only a, b, c & d b) only c & d c) only b & c d) only a, b & c

Q.22 The composition of which of the following is similar to the structure of ILO?
a) Canteen Managing Committee b) Standing Labour Committee
c) Safety Committee d) Works Committee

Q.23 Which of the following conventions have secured highest number of ratifications?
a) Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
b) Freedom of Association and protection of Right to Organize (No. 87)
c) Equal Remuneration Convention (No. 100)
d) All of these

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Q.24 Which of the following statement is not true about ILO?
a) ILO is a tripartite body.
b) India was not a founding member of the ILO as it did not get its independence.
c) ILO has 3 or organs.
d) ILO passes conventions & recommendation prescribing International Labour
Standard.

Q.25 Match the following Conventions of ILO to Concerned laws in India.

Convention of Law Source of Law
a) Holiday with pay convention (No. 52) i) Indian Constitution
b) Tripartite Constitution Convention (No. 144) ii) Factories Act
c) Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) iii) International Migrant
workmen Act
d) Inspection of Emigrant Convention (No. 29) iv) Minimum Wages Act
Codes:
a) a i, b iii, c ii, d iv c) a iii, b iv, c i, d ii
b) a ii, b iv, c i, d iii d) a ii, b i, c iv, d iii

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B A C D B B D B D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A C C C D C B B B

21 22 23 24 25
A B D B B

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 TEST SERIES - 4
1. The number of people required to form forming & register a trade Union is?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8

2. When Trade Union Act was enacted?

a. 1927 b. 1925 c. 1926 d. 1928

3. At how many number of workers in a factory works committee is to made?

a. 75 b. 90 c. 100 d. 80

4. Third Party Persuades disputants to come to an amicable adjustment of claims is

called?
a. Arbitration b. Collective Bargaining c. Conciliation

5. Final Order pertaining to Industrial Dispute passed by Industrial

Tribunal/Labour Court is called?
a. Judgement b. Order c. Award

6. The temporary closing of a place of employment or the suspension of work, an

employer is called?
a. Lay off b. Lock-out c. Retrenchment

7. The total number of protected workman to be in an organization is?

a. Min. 10 Max. 120 b. Min. 5 Max. 100 c. Min. 15 Max. 125

8. Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946 is applicable to Organisation

where number of employees are-
a. 100 or more b. 125 or more c. 150 or more

9. The rate of Subsistence allowance paid to an employee under suspension for first
90 days is?
a. 75% b. 60% d. 50%

10. Payment of Gratuity Act was enacted in __________

a. 1975 b. 1972 c. 1976

11. The Maximum Amount of Gratuity Payable under Payment of Gratuity Act is __
a. Rs. 3,00,000 b. Rs. 3,50,000 c. Rs. 3,75,000

12. The Gratuity is payable to person who has completed service of how many
years?
a. 5 b. 3 c. 6 d. 4

13. As per Factories Act, 1948? Who is considered to be an adult?

a. Who has completed 18 years of age b. who is less than 18 years
c. who is more than 14 years d. who is more than 15 years

14. As per Factories Act, 1948? Who is considered to be an adolescent?

a. Who has completed 17 years of age b. who is less than 18 years c. who has
completed 15 years but less than 18 years

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15. Who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under factories act, 1948
is called as?
a. Occupier b. Manager c. Chairman d. Managing Director

16. The provision for cooling water during hot weather in an organization where
number of employees are
a. 200 b. 250 or more c. 250 d. 150

17. Appointment of safety officers in Organisation when how many employees are
there?
a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 500 d. 750

18. Provision of canteen is made at how many employees engaged is factory?

a. 250 b. 230 c. 300 d. 275

19. Provision of Ambulance Room is to be made number of employees is more than?

a. 400 b. 350 c. 500 d. 450

20. First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ____ how many employees.
a. 125 b. 135 c. 150 d. 160

21. Provision of crche is to be kept at how many lady employees.

a. 25 b. 32 c. 30 d. 40

22. Organization has to appoint a welfare officer when number of employees is?
a. 500 b. 250 c. 600 d. 750

23. Working hours of _____ hrs in a day as per factories Act, 1948.
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 12

24. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for how many days in a
month.
a. 15 b. 25 c. 20 d. 28

25. Chapter V of ID Act, 1947 tells us about what?

a. Arbitration b. Conciliation c. Strikes and Lock-outs d. lay-off

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C C C C B B A C B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A A C A B A A C C

21 22 23 24 25
C A B C C

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 TEST SERIES - 5

1. Mechanism of Human Resource Development includes

a) Job Design b) Rewards
c) Human Resource Information System d) All of the above

2. What are the operative functions of HRM?

a) Organising b) Controlling c) Directing d) All of the above

3. Which of the following is not considered as a leadership style?

a) Task Oriented leadership style b) Society Oriented leadership style
c) Employee Oriented leadership style d) Autocratic Oriented leadership style

4. Which is not a performance appraisal method?

0
a) 360 performance appraisal b) Balance score card
c) Rank Method d) Interview Method

5. Labor Welfare facilities were incorporated in which legislation?

a) MRTP Act b) Essential Commodities Act
c) Consumer Protection Act d) Factories Act

6. Which of the following steps includes comparing existing and required manpower
demands to reveals deficiency surplus state in the process of Human
Resource Planning?
a) Forecasting Demand for Human Resource b) Analysing Organisation Plans
c) Evaluation and control d) Estimating manpower gaps

7. Which of the following is not a technique for demand forecasting?

a) Ratio Trend Analysis b) Work Study Techniques
c) Evaluation Techniques d) Judgement

8. Simulation Technique includes ______ flows.

Which are examined for effects on factor manpower supplies?
a) Existing b) Past c) Coexistent d) Alternate

9. Job Analysis includes

a) Job description and Job specification b) Job Order and Job Description
c) Job Specification and Job order d) Job satisfaction and Job description

10. Feeling arising out of inadequate definition of Roles is known as:

a) Role Ambiguity b) Role Conflict
c) Role Perception d) Role Expectation

11. The provision of training and practice in an increased range of skills is known as-
a) Job Enrichment b) Job Enlargement c) Job Evaluation d) Job Analysis

12. A level or standard in a scale against which performance can be evaluated in order to
structure similar process is described as-
a) Standardisation b) Bench-Marking c) Structuring d) Institutionalising

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13. 'Grapevine' is a term used in relation to
a) Formal Communication b) Informal Comm.
c) Both A and B d) None of the these

14. Referring a dispute to an agreed third party for settlement or advice without the
force of litigation or resort to law is known as
a) Adjudication b) Arbitration c) Conciliation d) All of the these

15. Which of the following techniques permits the complain to remain anonymous?
a) The Exit interview b) The grip box system
c) The opinion survey d) None of the these

16. Redressal of employees grievances covers-

a) positive attitude towards employees grievance and readiness to help.
b) expediting machinery for resolving employees grievances
c) equitable salary for all
d) Both A & B

17. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under the Factories
Act, 1948 is called.
a) Occupier b) Manager c) Chairman d) Managing Director

18. Match the items given in List-I and List-II and indicate the correct code -
List-I List-II
a) The technique used in examining the effect of (i) Hillier Model
change in one variable at a time.
b) The process of developing the frequency (ii) Sensitivity Analysis
distribution of N.P.V. (Net Present Value).
c) The technique used in examining the chances (iii) Decision Tree
of N.P.V. being greater than zero.
d) The technique used when investment at a (iv) Stimulation
future date is to be decided based on the probable
of previous investment.
Codes:
a b c d a b c d
A) i ii iv iii c) iii iv i ii
B) ii iv i iii d) iv i ii iii

19. Match the following and indicate the correct code:

a) Mergers resulting into economies achieved (i) Conglomerate
primarily by eliminating the duplicate facilities
b) Mergers resulting into expansion of company's (ii) Horizontal Merger
business towards ultimate consumer or source of
raw material.
c) Mergers in unrelated line of business (iii) Vertical Merger
Codes:
a b c a b c
A) i ii iii c) iii i ii
B) ii iii i d) iii ii i

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20. Which of the following acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices?
a) The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946
b) The industrial Dispute Act, 1947
c) The Factories Act, 1948
d) All of the above

21. Which of the following techniques of demand forecasting involves the study
of duration of work operations alongwith the amount of labor required?
a) Regression Model b) Judgement Technique
c) Workload Analysis d) Probabilistic Models
22. Match the following and indicate the correct code:
a) This technique consider the alternative flows (i) Markov Analysis
which are examined for effects on future
manpower supplies.
b) It is an operational Research technique in (ii) Simulation
which planner tends to optimize the goal.
c) This estimates the future flows and supplies if (iii) Renewal Analysis
manpower.
d) This method uses the historical information on (iv) Goal programming
the movement of personnel within the
organization during a typical planning
Codes:
a b c d a b c d
A) i ii iv iii c) iv iii i ii
B) ii iv iii i d) ii i iv iii
23. Which of the following are the byproducts of job Analysis?
a) Job Evaluation b) Job Appraisal c) Job Description d) Job Behaviour
24. Which of the following is not the benefits of Job Description?
a) It helps in assisting the behaviour and performance of employees for salary and
wage administration
b) Job grading and classification
c) It helps in understanding the skills, aptitudes and qualifications regarding for the job.
d) For developing performance standards
25. Productivity can be expressed as-
a) b)

c) d)

ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. A
16. D 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. D

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