Neet - Combined Test - 6 (P, C, B) - 06.08.2017

NEET | 06.08.
2017
COMBINED TEST 6 (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. Two resistors of resistances R1=(300 3) and R2=(500 4) are connected in
series. The equivalent resistance of the series combination is
(1) (800 1) (2) (800 7) (3) (200 7) (4) (200 1)
2. Which of the following physical quantities has a unit but no dimensions?
(1) Relative velocity (2) Relative density (3) Strain (4) Angle
3. If power (P), surface tension (S) and Plancks constant (h) are arranged so that
the dimensions of time in their dimensional formulae are in ascending order,
then which of the following is correct?
(1) P, S, h (2) P, h, S (3) S, P, h (4) S, h, P
4. A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is kg, unit of length is
m and unit of time is s. What will be value of 5 J in this new system?
(1) 5 2-2 (2) 5 -1 -22 (3) 5 -2 -1-2 (4) 5 -1 22
2
5. In the formula X=3YZ , X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic
induction respectively. The dimensions of Y in MKSQ system are
(1) [M-3 L-2T4Q4] (2) [M-2 L-1T5Q3] (3) [M-1 L-2T4Q4] (4) [M-3 L-1T4Q4]
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Path length is a scalar quantity whereas displacement is a vector quantity.
(2) The magnitude of displacement is always equal to the path length traversed by
an object over a given time interval.
(3) The displacement depends only on the end points whereas path length
depends on the actual path followed.
(4) The path length is always positive whereas displacement can be positive,
negative and zero.
7. The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x=a+bt2, where a=8.5 m
and b=2.5 m s -2 and t is measured in seconds. The average velocity of
the object between t=2s and t=4s is
(1) 5 m s-1 (2) 10 m s-1 (3) 15 m s-1 (4) 20 m s-1
8. A boy walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km with a speed of
5 km h-1. Finding the market closed he instantly turns and walks back with a
speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the average speed and average velocity of the boy
between t=0 to t=50 min?
(1) 0, 0 (2) 6 km h-1, 0 (3) 0, 6 km h-1 (4) 6 km h-
1
, 6 km h-1
dv
9. The motion of a body is given by the equation 6 3v where v is the speed in m
dt
s-1 and t is time in s. The body is at rest at t=0. The speed varies with time as
(1) v=(1 e-3t) (2) v=2(1 e-3t) (3) v=(1 + e-2t) (4) v=2(1 + e-3t)
10. In the given v-t graph the distance travelled by the body in 5 seconds will be
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 1
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET | 06.08.2017
(1) 100 m (2) 80 m (3) 40 m (4) 20 m

-1
11. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 m s on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to
overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist
with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?
(1) 40 m s-1 (2) 25 m s-1 (3) 10 m s-1 (4) 20 m s-1
12. Three forces of magnitudes 6 N, 6 N and 72 N act at corner of cube along three
sides and shown in figure. Resultant of these forces is
(1) 12 N angle OB (2) 18 N along OA (3) 18 N along OC (4) 12 N along OE

13. The magnitude of the x-component of vector A is 3 and the magnitude of vector A
is 5. What is the magnitude of the y-component of vector A ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 8
14. The direction cosines of i j k are
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 2, 2, 2 (3) , , (4) , ,
2 2 2 3 3 3
15. Resultant of two vectors A and B is of magnitude P. If B is reversed, then
resultant is of magnitude Q. What is the value of P2+Q2?
(1) 2(A2+B2) (2) 2(A2-B2) (3) A2-B2 (4) A2+B2
16. The driver of a car moving towards a rocket launching pad with a speed of 6 ms -1
observed that the rocket is moving with speed of 10 m s-1. The upward speed of
the rocket as seen by the stationary observer is nearly.
(1) 4 ms-1 (2) 6 ms-1 (3) 8 ms-1 (4) 11 ms-1
17. The position of a particle is given by r 3ti 2t 2 j 5k, where t is in seconds and
the coefficients have the proper units for r to be in metres. The direction of
velocity of the particle at t=1 s is
(1) 530 with x axis (2) 370 with x axis (3) 300 with y axis (4) 600
with y axis
18. Rain is falling vertically with the speed of 30 ms-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a
speed of 12 ms-1 in east to west direction. In which direction she should hold her
umbrella?
2
(1) At an angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the east.
5

NEET | 06.08.2017
2
(2) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the west.
5
5
(3) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the east.
2
5
(4) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the west.
2
19. If a body is projected with an angle to the horizontal, then
(1) Its velocity is always perpendicular to its acceleration.
(2) Its velocity becomes zero at its maximum height.
(3) Its velocity makes zero angle with the horizontal at its maximum height.
(4) The body just before hitting the ground, the direction of velocity coincides
with the acceleration
20.Two particles are projected in air with speed u at angles 1 and 2 (both acute) to
the horizontal respectively. If the height reached by the first particle is greater
than that of the second, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) 1 > 2 (2) 1 = 2 (3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 = T2
21. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with the same speed at angles of
projection 600 and 300 respectively. Which one of the following is true?
(1) Their range will be the same
(2) Their maximum height will be the same
(3) Their velocity at the highest point will be the same
(4) Their time of flight will be the same
22. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a speed of 360 k m h-1 released a bomb at
a height of 490 m from the ground. If g=9.8 ms-2, it will strike the ground at
(1) 10 km (2) 100 km (3) 1 km (4) 16 km
23. A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 10 ms -1 at an
angle of 300 with the horizontal. If it hits the ground at a distance of 17.3 m from
the base of the tower, the height of the tower is (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 5 m (2) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 10 m
-2
24. A player kicks a ball at a speed of 20 ms so that its horizontal range is maximum.
Another player 24 m away in the direction of kick starts running in the same
direction at the same instant of hit. If he has to catch the ball just before it
reaches the ground, he should run with a velocity equal to (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 2 2ms 1 (2) 4 2ms 1 (3) 6 2ms 1 (4) 10 2ms 1
(1) In one dimension motion, the velocity and the acceleration of an object are
always along the same line
(2) In two or three dimensions, the angle between velocity and acceleration
vectors may have any value between 00 and 1800.
(3) The kinematic equations for uniform acceleration can be applied in case of a
uniform circular motion.

NEET | 06.08.2017
(4) The resultant acceleration of an object in circular motion is towards the

centre only if the speed is constant.
26. A stone tied to the end of a string 100 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle
with a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 22s, then the
acceleration of the stone is
(1) 16 ms-2 (2) 4 ms-2 (3) 12 ms-2 (4) 8 ms-2
27. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm moves along the groove
steadily and completes 7 revolutions in 100 s. The linear speed of the insect is
(1) 4.3 cm s-1 (2) 5.3 cm s-1 (3) 6.3 cm s-1 (4) 7.3 cm
-1
s
28.A constant force acting on a body of mass of 5 kg change its speed from 5 m s -1 to
10 m s-1 in 10 s without changing the direction of motion. The force acting on the
body is
(1) 1.5 N (2) 2 N (3) 2.5 N (4) 5 N
-1
29. A bullet of mass 40 g moving with a speed of 90 ms enters a heavy wooden block
and is stopped after a distance of 60 cm. The average resistive force exerted by
the block on the bullet is
(1) 180 N (2) 220 N (3) 270 N (4) 320 N
30.Figure shows (x, t), (y, t) diagram of a particle moving in 2-dimensions. If the
particle has a mass of 500 g, the force acting on the particle is
(1) 1 N along y-axis (2) 1 N along x-axis (3) 0.5 N along x-axis (4) 0.5 N
along the y-axis
31. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. Let the force on
the particle for t<0, 0<t<4s, t>4 s be F1, F2 and F3 respectively. Then
(1) F1=F2=F3=0 (2) F1>F2=F3 (3) F1>F2>F3 (4) F1<F2<F3

(1) A cricketer moves his hands backwards while holding a catch.
(2) A person falling from a certain height receives more injuries when he falls on
a cemented floor than when he falls on a heap of sand.
(3) It is easier to push a lawn mower than to pull it.
(4) Mountain roads are generally made winding upwards rather than going
straight up.
33. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass
m. The reaction of the 6th coin (counted from the bottom) on the 7th
coin is
NEET | 06.08.2017
(1) 4 mg (2) 6 mg (3) 7 mg (4) 3 mg

34. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 15 ms-1 gushes out of a
tube of cross-sectional area 10-2 m2, and hits a vertical wall normally. Assuming
that it does not rebound from the wall, the force exerted on the wall by the
impact of water is
(1) 1.25 x 103 N (2) 2.25 x 103 N (3) 3.25 x 103 N (4) 4.25 x 103 N
35. A shell of mass 200 g is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the
shell is 80 ms-1, then the recoil speed of the gun is
(1) 16 cm s-1 (2) 8 cm s-1 (3) 8 m s-1 (4) 16 m s-1
36. A body is moving under the action of two forces F1 2i 5 j; F2 3i 4 j. Its velocity
will become uniform under a third force F3 given by

(1) 5i j (2) 5i j (3) 5i j (4) 5i 9 j
37. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trains floor is 0.2. The
maximum acceleration of the train in which a box lying on its floor will remain
stationary is (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 2 m s-2 (2) 4 m s-2 (3) 6 m s-2 (4) 8 m s-2
38.The mass of a bicycle rider along with the bicycle is 100 kg. He wants to cross
over a circular turn of radius 100 m with a speed of 10 ms -1. If the coefficient of
friction between the tyres and the road is 0.6, the frictional force required by the
rider to cross the turn is
(1) 300 N (2) 600 N (3) 1200 N (4) 150 N
39. A book is lying on the table. What is the angle between the action of the book on
the table and the reaction of the table on the book?
(1) 00 (2) 450 (3) 900 (4) 1800
40. A particle is acted upon by a force F which varies with position x as shown
in figure. If the particle at x=0 has kinetic energy of 25 J, then the kinetic energy
of the particle at x=16 m is
(1) 45 J (2) 30 J (3) 70 J (4) 20 J

41. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10 m s-1. It
is subjected to a retarding force Fr= - 0.1 x J m-1 during its travel from x=20 m to
x=30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be
(1) 250 J (2) 275 J (3) 450 J (4) 475 J
42. A rain drop of mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km hits the ground with a speed
of 50 m s-1. Which of the following statements is correct? (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) The loss of potential energy of the drop is 10 J
(2) The gain in kinetic energy of the drop is 1.25 J

NEET | 06.08.2017
(3) The gain in kinetic energy of the drop is not equal to the loss of potential
energy of the drop
(4) All of these
43. Two springs of spring constants 1000 N m-1 and 2000 N m-1are stretched with
same force. They will have potential energy in the ratio of
(1) 2:1 (2) 22 : 12 (3) 1:2 (4) 12 : 22
44.When two spheres of equal masses undergo glancing elastic collision with one of
them at rest, after collision they will move
(1) Opposite to one another (2) in the same direction
(3) together (4) at right angle to each other
45. A particle of mass 1 g moving with a velocity v1 3i 2 jms 1 experiences a
perfectly in elastic collision with another particle of mass 2 g and velocity
1 . The velocity of the particle is
v2 4 j 6kms
(1) 2.3 m s-1 (2) 4.6 m s-1 (3) 9.2 m s-1 (4) 6 m s-1

NEET | 06.08.2017
Part B (Chemistry)
46. What is true regarding complete combustion of gaseous isobutene?
(1) H= E (2) H > E (3) H= E = 0 (4) H < E
47. How much heat is produced when 4.50 g methane gas is burnt in a constant pressure system?
Given: CH4 +2O2 CO2+2H2O; H= -802 kJ
(1) 225.6 kJ (2)125.6 kJ (3)175.6 kJ (4) 325.6 kJ
48. Hf o for Al2O3 is -1670 kJ. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction : 4Al+3O22Al2O3
(1) 2340 kJ (2) 3340 kJ (3) 1340 kJ (4) 4320 kJ
49. Calculate the heat of neutralization by mixing 200 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 200 ml of 0.2 M
KOH if heat generated by the mixing is 2.3 kJ.
(1) 17.5 kJ (2) 42.5 kJ (3) 57.5 kJ (4) 34.5 kJ
50. A system does 100 J of work on surroundings by absorbing 150 J of heat. Calculate the change
in internal energy.
(1) 100 J (2) 50 J (3) 25 J (4) 150 J
51. Heat of resolution for C6H12O6 (s) +6O2 (g) 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (I) at constant pressure is
651 kcal at 170 C. Calculate the heat of reaction at constant volume at 17o C.
(1) 554.5 kcal (2) 654.5 kcal (3) 354.5 kcal (4) 154.5 kcal
52. The heat of combustion of naphthalene (C10H8(s)) at constant volume was measured to be
5133 kJ mol-1 at 298 K. Calculate the value of enthalpy change. (Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1).
(1) 3137955.14 Joule (2) 5137955.14 Joule
(3) 4127955.14 Joule (4) 3247955.14 Joule
53. Calculate the work performed when 2 moles of hydrogen expands isothermally and reversibly
at 250C from 15 to 50 litres.
(1) 1436 calories (2) 1318 calories (3)- 1215 calories (4) 1172 calories
54. Which one of the following equations does not correctly represents the first law of
thermodynamics for the given process?
(1) Isothermal process : q= - w
(2) Cyclic process : q= - w
(3) Expansion of gas into vacuum : = q
(4) Adiabatic process : = - w
55. The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume
of 10 litres to 20 litres at 250 C is
(1) 2.303 x 298 x 0.082 log 2 (2) 298 x 108 x 8.31 x 2.303 log 2
(3)2.303 298 x 0.082 log 0.2 (4) 8.31 x 107 x 298 2.303 log 0.5
56. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase its temperature. In
this process, which of the following is true?
(1) E=W=Q=0 (2) E0, Q=W=0 (3) E=W0, Q=0 (4) E=Q 0, W=0
57. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand freely and adiabatically into vacuum until its
volume has doubled. A statement which is not true concerning this expression is
(1) H=0 (2) S=0 (3) E=0 (4) W=0

NEET | 06.08.2017
58. Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 at
298K .Given H0 = - 92.4 kJ and S0 = - 198.3 JK-1.
(1) 23.106 kJ (2) 43.506 kJ (3) 33.306 kJ (4) 13.306 kJ
59. Determine the enthalpy change for the reaction CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) CH3Cl (g) + HCl (g). Bond
energies for C H, C Cl, Cl Cl, H Cl are 412, 338, 242, 431 kJ/mol respectively.
(1) 215 kJ/mol (2) 115 kJ/mol (3) 130 kJ/mol (4) 145 kJ/mol
60. Calculate the standard enthalpy change for a reaction CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO (g) + H2O (g)
given Hf0 CO2 (g), CO (g) and H2O (g) as 393.5, - 110.5 and 241.8 kJ/mol respectively.
(1) 31.2 kJ (2) 21.2 kJ (3) 11.2 kJ (4) 41.2 kJ
61. C (graphite) +O2 (g) CO2 (g); H= - 94.05 kcal mol -1
C (diamond) +O2 (g) CO2 (g); H= - 94.50 kcal mol-1

Therefore,
(1) C(graphite) C(diamond); H 0298 k= - 450 cal mol-1
(2) C(diamond) C(graphite); H 0298 k= 450 cal mol-1
(3) Graphite is the stable allotrope.
(4) Diamond is harder than graphite.
62. Consider the reactions
C (g) + 2H2 (g) CH4 (g), H = -x kcal
C (s) + 4H (g) CH4 (g), H = -x1 kcal
CH4 (g) CH3 (g) + H (g), H = y kcal
The bond energy of C H bond is
(1) y kcal mol-1 (2) x1 kcal mol-1 (3) x/4 kcal mol-1 (4) x1/4 kcal mol-
63. When a solid melts reversibly
(1) H decreases (2) G increases (3) E decreases (4) S increases
64. The quantity of heat which must be supplied to decompose a compound into its element is
equal to the heat evolved during the formation of that compound from the elements. This
statement is known as
(1) Hesss law (2) Joules law
(3)Le- chateliers principle (4) Lavoisier and Laplace law
65. Following reaction occurring in an automobile 2C8H18 (g) +25O2 (g) 16CO2 (g) +18H2O (g).
The sign of H, S and G would be
(1) + , - , + (2) - , + , - (3) - , + , + (4) + , + , -
66. 200 ml of KOH and 200 ml of HNO3 of same molarity are mixed together and librated 3.426
kJ of heat. Determine the molarity of each solution.
(1) 0.1 mole (2) 1.3 mole (3) 0.7 mole (4) 0.3 mole
67. For the reaction CH3COOH (l) + 2O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) at 250 C and 1 atm. Pressure,
H= - 874kJ. Then the change in internal energy (E) is .
(1) 874 kJ (2) 871.53 kJ (3) 876.47 kJ (4) + 874 kJ
68. The H2O (g) molecule dissociates as
(i) H2O (g) H(g) + OH (g); H = 490 kJ
(ii) OH (g) H(g) + O (g); H = 424 kJ
The average bond energy (in kJ) for water is
(1) 490 (2) 424 (3) 914 (4) 914/2

NEET | 06.08.2017
69. The specific heats of iodine vapours and solid are 0.031 and 0.055 Cal/g respectively. If heat
of sublimation of iodine is 24 Cal/g at 2000 C, what is its value at 2500 C?
(1) 22.8 Cal/g (2) 11.2 Cal/g (3)12.8 Cal/g (4) 24.4 Cal/g
70. A sample of gas is compressed by an average pressure of 0.50 atmosphere so as to decrease its
volume from 400 cm3 to 200 cm3. During the process 8.00 J of heat flows out to surroundings.
Calculate the change in internal energy of the system.
(1) 2.13 J (2) 4.17 J (3) 1.13 J (4) 3.52 J
71. Identify the transition elements.
(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d2, 4s2
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p2 (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p1
72. Which one of the following orders presents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature
of the given oxides?
(1)Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O (2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(3) Na2O < K2O< MgO< Al2O3 (4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3< MgO
73. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F- >O2- (2) Na+> Mg2+> Al3+ >O2- > F-
(3) Na+> F- > Mg2+>O2- > Al3+ (4) O2- > F- > Na+> Mg2+> Al3+
74. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it?
(1) CO2 < SiO2<SnO2<PbO2; increasing oxidizing power
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI; increasing acid strength
(3) NH3>PH3<AsH3 < SbH3; increasing basic strength
(4) B<C<O<N; increasing first ionization enthalpy
75. The correct order of increasing electron affinity of halogens is
(1) F<Cl<Br<I (2) I<Br<F<Cl (3) I>Br<Cl<F (4) Br<I<F<Cl
3- 2- -
76. The ionic radii of isoelectronic species N , O and F are in the order?
(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (2) 1.36, 0.71, 1.40 (3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40
77. Na2O, MgO, Al2O3 and SiO2 have heat of formation equal to 416, - 602, - 1676 and
911 kJ mol-1 respectively. The most stable oxide is
(1) Na2O (2) MgO (3) Al2O3 (4) SiO2
78. The correct order of acidic strength
(1) Cl2O7>SO2>P4O10 (2) K2O>CaO>MgO
(3) CO2>N2O5>SO3 (4) Na2O>MgO>Al2O3
79. Paulings electro negativity values for elements are useful in predicting
(1) Polarity of bonds in molecules
(2) Position of elements in electromotive series
(3) Coordination number
(4) Dipole moment of various molecules
80. The correct order of increasing oxidizing power is
(1) F2<Cl2<I2>Br2 (2) F2<Br2<Cl2<I2 (3) Cl2<Br2<F2<I2 (4) I2<Br2<Cl2<F2
81. Which one of the following is highest melting halide?
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr (3) AgF (4) AgI

NEET | 06.08.2017
82. The following salt shows maximum covalent character.

(1) AlCl3 (2) MgCl2 (3) CsCl (4) LaCl3
83. The bond length of HCl molecule is 1.275 and its dipole moment is 1.03 D. The ionic
character of the molecule (in percent) (charge of the electron = 4.8 x 10-10 esu) is
(1) 100 (2) 67.3 (3) 33.66 (4) 16.83
84. The bond angle and dipole moment of water respectively, are
(1) 109.50, 1.84 D (2) 107.50, 1.56 D (3) 104.50, 1.84 D (4) 102.50, 1.56 D
85. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe?
(1) XeO3 (2) XeF4 (3) XeF6 (4) XeF2
86. Correct order of bond angles in NH3, PCl3 and BCl3 is
(1) PCl3 > NH3> BCl3 (2) NH3 > BCl3> PCl3
(3) NH3 > PCl3> BCl3 (4) BCl3> NH3> PCl3
87. Which of the following groups all do not have sp3d hybridization?
(1)CIF3, IF3, XeF3+ (2)ICI2-, CIF2-, I3- (3) CIF3, BrF3, IF3 (4) PCl3, AsCl3, PF5
88. Match List I with List II. Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.
List I List II
(Molecule/ion) (Type of hybridization)
A. NH4 1. sp3d3
B. PCl5 2. sp3d
C. SF6 3. sp3
D. IF7 4. sp3d2
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(1) 3 2 4 1 (2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 1 4 (4) 4 1 2 3
89. Match List I with List II. Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.
List I List II
A. XeO3 1. Planar triangular
B. XeOF4 2. T-shape
3-
C. BO3 3. Trigonal pyramid
D. CIF3 4. Square pyramid
-
E. I3 5. Linear
6. Bent
Codes:
A B C D E A B C D E
(1) 1 4 3 2 5 (2) 2 4 1 3 4
(3) 3 4 1 2 4 (4) 4 4 1 2 5
+ 2+ 2-
90. Given are O2, O2 , O2 and O2 respectively. Find the correct increasing bond order
(1) O2< O22-< O22+< O2+ (2) O22-< O2< O2+< O22+
(3) O22+< O2< O2+< O22- (4) O2+< O22-< O2< O22+

NEET | 06.08.2017
Part C (Biology)
91. Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness which transmits the infective stage of
which of the following parasite
(1) Leishmania donavani (2) Plasmodium fa1ciparum
(3) Trypanosoma gambiense (4) Wuchereria bancrofti
92. Fever in malaria is due to
(1) Entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(2) Entry of merozoites into liver cells
(3) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
(4) Entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood cells
93. Malaria is transmitted by 'Anopheles'. This was discovered by
(1) A. Laveran (2) Ronald Ross (3) Pasteur (4) Huxley
94. Filaria germ is a kind of
(1) Bacteria (2) Helminthes (3) Mosquito
(4) Protozoa
95. The accumulation of excess fluid in tissue space is called
(1) Hodgkin's disease (2) Parkinson's disease (3) Oedema
(4) Cirrhosis
96. Which of the following is a matching pair of the vector and the disease
(1) Culex -Filariasis (2) Housefly - Yellow fever
(3) Body louse - Typhoid (4) Sandfly - Plague
97. Congenital diseases are those which
(1) Occur during life time (2) Are deficiency diseases
(3) Are present from time of birth (4) Are spread from man to man
98. A non-infectious unnatural and unusual reaction of a person to any substance or
condition for which he is hypersensitive is termed as
(1) Infection (2) Immunity (3) Allergy

(4) Toxin
99. Cause of 'Erythroblastosis foetalis' may be
(1) Adjoining of RBC (2) Bleeding (3) Diapedesis (4)
Haemophilia
100. Which disease is caused by activation of oncogenes
(1) Cholera (2) Cancer (3) T.B. (4) Viral flu
101. Identify the wrong statements
A. The tumor of haematopoietic cells is called leukemia
B. Cancer arising from the epithelial tissues of internal organs and glands is
referred as melanoma
C. Sarcoma is a type of cancer where bone and cartilages are involved
D. Only benign tumors are called as true cancer or neoplasm
(1) A and B only (2) Band Conly (3) Band D only (4) A and C only

NEET | 06.08.2017
102. It causes cancer of vagina

(1) Cadmium oxide (2) Diethylstibestrol (3) Afflatoxin (4)
Vinyl chloride
103. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide which
(1) Reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

(2) Causes gastric ulcers
(3) Raises blood pressure
(4) Is carcinogenic
104. Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic

hydrocarbons, which cause
(1) Reduction in oxygen transport (2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Cancer (4) Retardation of growth of foetus
105. The use of tobacco is originated in
(1) China (2) America (3) Russia (4) Eastern India
106. Carcinogenic agent is
(1) X-ray radiation (2) U.v. radiation (3) Nicotine (4) All the above
107. Which one of the following is most carcinogenic present in tobacco smoke
(1) Nicotine (2) Benzopyrene (3) Caffeine (4) Tar
108. Addiction to alcohol causes
(1) Cirrhosis (2) Epilepsy (3) Neurosis
(4) Psychosis
109. A person who is addict of alcohol gets his liver destroyed because
(1) Liver stores excess of glycogen (2) Liver stores excess of starch
(3) Liver stores excess of protein (4) Liver stores excess of fat
110. Driving after drinking is not advised because due to intoxication
(1) Reaction time delays (2) Judgement and co-ordination disturbs
(3) Affect behaviour and vision (4) All of the above
111. Opiate narcotic drugs are
(1) Antianxiety (2) Analgesic (3) Hypnotic
(4) Antihistamine
112. The drug useful to increase cardiovascular effects in human beings is
(1) Cocaine (2) Barbiturate (3) Benzodiazepine (4) Insulin
113. Benzo-diazepene is an
(1) Antidepressant (2) Antipsychotic (3) Antianxiety drug (4) Sedative
114. ECT is
(1) An apparatus for epilepsy (2) A durg which acts as sedative
(3) Shock treatment (4) Artificialorgan for human
115. Match the following and choose the correct answer
Column I Column II
(a) Phobia (i) Maladaptive habit
NEET | 06.08.2017
(b) Neurosis (ii) Undue concern about health

(c) Hypochondria (iii) Lack of sleep
(d) Insomnia (iv) Intense fear
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) -:
(iii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) -
(ii), (d) - (iii)
116. Which of following is a hallucinogen
(1) Lysergic acid diethylamide (2) Psilocybin
(3) Mescaline (4) A1lofthese
117. Cyclosporin A an immunosuppressive drug is produced by
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Manascus purpureus

(3) Penicillium notatum (4) Trichoderma polysporum
118. Heroin is
(1) Diacetyl morphine (2) Triacetyl morphine
(3) Tetra acetyl morphine (4) Mono acetyl morphine
119. Opium, morphine, heroin, pethidine and methadone are collectively called as
(1) Tranquillisers (2) Stimulants (3) Hallucinogens (4) Opiate
narcotics
120. Hallucinogens
(1) Are nerve depressants (2) Are nerve stimulants
(3) Alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions (4) Are pain relievers
121. 'Marijuana' is extracted from
(1) Dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant (2) Ergot fungus
(3) Hemp plant (Cannabis sativa) (4) Cocoa plant
122. The rejection of organ transplanting in human is prevented by using
(1) Aspirin (2) Cyclosporin (3) Calcitonin
(4) Thrombin
123. Drugs that cause malformation in embryo during pregnancy are called
(1) Tranquillizers (2) Teratogens (3) Alcoholic beverages (4) Nicotin
124. Amnesia is -
(1) Loss of memory (2) Loss of filtration capacity of kidney
(3) Loss of appetite (4) Loss of blood
125. Which of the following stimulates the heart
(1) Mescalin (2) Epinephrin (3) LSD
(4) Hasish
126. The tranquillisers differ from the sedatives that they
(1) Make a person more wakeful (2) Produce calmness
(3) Produce calmness without inducing sleep (4) Produce deep sleep
127. Ingestion of marijuana leads to illusions and alters the thoughts, feelings and
perceptions of a person. Marijuana is a

NEET | 06.08.2017
(1) Narcotic (2) Stimulant (3) Hallucinogen (4) Sedative

128. Sleep is prevented by
(1) Barbiturates (2) Benzodiazephines (3) Amphetamines (4) Psilocybin
129. 'Valium' is an example of
(1) Benzodiazephines (2) Barbiturates (3) Stimulants
(4) Hallucinogens
130. The drugs used by weight conscious peoples to reduce appetite and increase
alertness are
(1) LSD (2) Morphine
(3) Amphetamines and cocaine (4) Aspirin
131. Which are intimately related
(1) Disease and health (2) Body and health
(3) Body and mind (4) Body and spiritualvalues
132. Psychoanalysis was founded by
(1) Jenner (2) Parkinson (3) Freud (4) Hansen
133. During hibernation frog performs
(1) Pulmonary respiration (2) Cutaneous respiration
(3) Bucco-pharyngeal respiration (4) Both cutaneous and pulmonary
respiration
134. Skin is an accesory organ of respiration in
(1) Humans (2) Frog (3) Rabbit (4) Lizard
135. Diffusion of oxygen in tissues of Cockroach occurs through
(1) Blood (2) Integument (3) Tracheae (4) Tracheoles
136. Fish brought out of water dies because of
(1) Absence of pressure (2) Inability to respire
(3) Inability to feed (4) Rise in temperature
137. Book lungs are respiratory structures of
(1) Arachnida (2) Mollusca (3) Mammals (4)
Earthworm
138. Arytenoid cartilage occurs in
(1) Larynx (2) Nose (3) Hyoid (4) Sternum
139. Lining of trachea is made of
(1) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Pseudostratified epithelium (4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
140. Epithelium lining bronchioles is
(1) Pseudostratified columnar (2) Pseudostratified sensory
(3) Squamous scnsory (4) Cuboidal and columnar
141. Numbers of lobes in right and left lungs of human are :
(1) 2, 4 (2) 3, 2 (3) 4, 2 (4)
6, 3
142. Covering of the lungs is called :
(1) Perichondrium (2) Pleural membrane (3) Pericardium (4) Peritoneum
143. During inspiration, air passes into lungs due to
NEET | 06.08.2017
(1) Increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall in lung pressure

(2) Fall in pressure inside the lungs
(3) Increased volume of thoracic cavity
(4) Muscular expansion of lungs
144. Rate and depth of respiration shall increase when
(1) Oxygen concentration increases (2) CO2 concentration increases
(3) Bicarbonate concentration increases (4) Bicarbonate concentration
decreases
145. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Stop (4) No affect.
146. The process of respiration is concerned with
(1) Intake of O2 (2) Liberation of O2
(3) Liberation of CO2 (4) Liberation of energy
147. During inspiration, the diaphragm:
(1) relaxes to become dome-shaped (2) contracts and flattens
(3) expands (4) shows no change
148. Tidal volume in human beings is
(1) 1000 ml (2) 1500 ml (3) 500 ml (4) 4.5 litres
149. Vital capacity of lungs is
(1) 500 ml (2) 3.5 4.5 L (3) 2.5 3.9 L (4) 1.5
2.5 L
150. Vital capacity of lung is equal to
(1) IRV + ERV + TV (2) IRV + ERV + TV -RV
(3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV (4) IRV + ERV
151. Residual volume in the lungs of an average human is
(1) 500 ml (2) 3-45Iitres (3) 1000 ml (4) 1500 ml
152. Vital capacity of lungs of an average human is
(1) 3000-4500 ml (2) 1500-.1800 ml (3) 2000-2500 ml (4) 500-1000 ml
153. human beings, CO2 concentration in the inspired and expired air is respectively
(1) 003% and 53% (2) 04% and 50% (3) 004% and 30% (4)
003% and 40%
154. Oxygen dissociation curve of myoglobin is
(1) Hypobolic (2) Hyperbolic (3) Linear (4)
Sigmoid
155. During one circuit of blood from lungs to the tissue and back through the
circulatory system the percentage of haemoglobin giving the oxygen is
(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 75% (4) 100%
156. Which of the following gases makes the most stable combination with the
haemoglobin of red blood cells ?
(1) CO2 (2) CO (3) O2 (4) N2
157. Oxygen is transported in vertebrates as
(1) Dissolved in plasma (2) Complex with haemoglobin
NEET | 06.08.2017
(3) Dissolved in cytoplasm of erythrocytes (4) Absorbed over the RBC.

158. Respiratory movements are controlled by
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Crura
cerebri
159. Pneumotaxic centre occurs in
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum (3) Medulla oblongata (4)
Pons varolii
160. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by
(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood (2) Carbon dioxide content in
arterial blood
(3) Oxygen content in venous blood (4) Oxygen content in arterial blood
161. Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements?
(1) cerebrum (2) cerebellum (3) diencephalon (4)
medulla oblongata
162. Controlling centre of normal breathing in mammals lies in :
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Midbrain (4)
Medulla oblongata
163. Asphyxia occurs due to
(1) Combination of hypoxia and hypercapnea (2) Combination of hypoxia and
hypocapnea
(3) Combination of hyperoxamia and hypocapnea
(4) Combination of hyperoxamia and hypercapnea
164. Reduction in respiratory surface of the lungs due to break down of partition in
the alveoli is known as
(1) Asphyxia (2) Bronchitis (3) Asthma (4)
Emphysema
165. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency
disease?
(1) retinol - xerophthalmia (2) cobalamine - beri-beri
(3) calciferol - pellagra (4) ascorbic acid - scurvy
166. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body.
Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
(1) parotid (2) pancreas (3) thyroid (4) parathyroid

167. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
(1) collar bones - 3 pairs
(2) salivary glands - 1 pair
(3) cranial nerves - 10 pairs
(4) floating ribs - 2 pairs.
168. Lysozyme that is present in saliva and tears. destroys
(1) certain types of bacteria (2) all viruses
(3) most virus-infected cells (4) certain fungi

NEET | 06.08.2017
169. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked
with an inhibitor?
(1) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the
active enzyme pepsin
(2) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so
trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.
170. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour
but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow
colour due to?
(1) bile pigments passed through bile juice (2) undigested milk protein casein
(3) pancreatic juice poured into duodenum (4) intestinal juice
171. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption
of food in humans?
(1) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the
help of carrier ions like Na+
(2) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from
intestine into blood capillaries
(3) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
(4) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
172. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the
stomach totally undigested?
(1) starch and fat (2) fat and cellulose
(3) starch and cellulose (4) protein and starch
173. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead
to
(1) Indigestion (2) Jaundice (3) Diarrhoea (4)
Vomiting
174. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of
blindness associated with vitamin'A' deficiency ?
(1) 'Flaver Savr' tomato(2) Canolla (3) Golden rice (4) Bt-
Brinjal
175. Which one of the following human organs is often called the graveyard of RBCs?
(1) Gall bladder (2) Kidney (3) Spleen (4) Liver
176. Which of the following is the matching pair of the deficient nutrient and the
resulting disease in which the patient develops swollen lips, thick pigmented skin
of hands and legs and irritability
(1) Iodine-goitre (2) Niacin-pellagra (3) Thiamine-beri beri (4) Protein -
Kwashiorkar
177. Which of the following is not a source of vitamin A
(1) Carrot (2) Mango (3) Apple (4) Yeast
NEET | 06.08.2017
178. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its
value/count in a normal human adult
(1) Urea 5-10 mg/100 ml of blood (2) Blood sugar 80-100 mg/ 100 ml
(3) Total blood volume 3-4 litres (4) ESR in wintrobe method 9-15
mm per hour in males and 20-34 mm per hour in females
179. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are
(1) Rice and hens egg (2) Carrot and chickens breast
(3) Goats liver and Spirulina (4) Chocolate and green gram
180. One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system
(1) Tetanus (2) Diarrhoea (3) Jaundice (4) Dysentery

NEET | 06.08.2017
ANSWER KEY 06.08.2017 (Ratchana)

PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 2 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 1
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 4 4 2 4 1 4 1 2 3 1
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 1 3 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 1
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 3 1 2 1 4 1 2 4 1
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 4 4 1 4 2
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 4 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 2
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 2
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 4 1 4 1 1 2 1 4 3 2
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 3 3 1 1 4 3 1 4 3 4
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 4 4 1 4 2
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 3 3 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 2
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 4
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 1 4 3
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 3 1 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 1 3 4
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 1
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 1 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 2
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 4 4 1 4 1 4 4 1 1 1
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 1


Neet - Combined Test - 6 (P, C, B) - 06.08.2017

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Neet - Combined Test - 6 (P, C, B) - 06.08.2017

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

NEET | 06.08.

COMBINED TEST 6 (P, C, B)

(1) 100 m (2) 80 m (3) 40 m (4) 20 m

(1) 12 N angle OB (2) 18 N along OA (3) 18 N along OC (4) 12 N along OE

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 2

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 3

(4) The resultant acceleration of an object in circular motion is towards the

(1) F1=F2=F3=0 (2) F1>F2=F3 (3) F1>F2>F3 (4) F1<F2<F3

(1) 4 mg (2) 6 mg (3) 7 mg (4) 3 mg

will become uniform under a third force F3 given by

(1) 45 J (2) 30 J (3) 70 J (4) 20 J

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 5

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 6

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 7

C (diamond) +O2 (g) CO2 (g); H= - 94.50 kcal mol-1

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 8

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 9

82. The following salt shows maximum covalent character.

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 10

(1) Infection (2) Immunity (3) Allergy

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 11

102. It causes cancer of vagina

(1) Reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

104. Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic

(b) Neurosis (ii) Undue concern about health

(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Manascus purpureus

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 13

(1) Narcotic (2) Stimulant (3) Hallucinogen (4) Sedative

(1) Increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall in lung pressure

(3) Dissolved in cytoplasm of erythrocytes (4) Absorbed over the RBC.

(1) parotid (2) pancreas (3) thyroid (4) parathyroid

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 16

(1) Tetanus (2) Diarrhoea (3) Jaundice (4) Dysentery

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 18

ANSWER KEY 06.08.2017 (Ratchana)

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 19

S-ar putea să vă placă și