Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)
1. A person throws vertically n balls per second with the same velocity. He
throws a ball whenever the previous one is at its highest point. The height
to which the balls rise is
(1) g/n2 (2) 2gn (3) g/2n2 (4) 2gn2
2. The graph shown illustrates velocity versus time for two cars A and B
constrained to move in a straight line. Both cars were at the same position
at t = 0s. Consider the following statements.
(1) Car A is travelling west and Car B is travelling east.
(2) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 5s.
(3) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 10s
RT
6. The speed of sound in a gas is given by v where the letters have usual
M
meanings. The dimensional formula of is
0 0 0
(1) [M L T ] (2) [MLT] (3) [MLT-2] (4) [M0L0T-1]
7. In the equation X=3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic
induction respectively. In MKS system, the dimensional formula for Y is
(1) [M-3L-2T-2Q-4] (2) [ML-2] (3) [M-3L-2Q4 T8] (4) [M-3L-2Q4 T4]
x
8. The equation of a wave is given by y A sin k , where is the angular
v
velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimensional formula of k is
(1) [LT] (2) [T] (3) [T-1] (4) [T2]
9. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F=A cos
D
Bx+C sin Dt. The dimensional formula of is
B
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L0T-1] (3) [M0L-1T0] (4) [M0L1T-1]
10. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical
quantity will be
(1) Velocity if a=1, b=0, c=-1 (2) acceleration if a=1, b=1, c=-2
(3) force if a=0, b=-1, c=-2 (4) pressure if a=1, b=-1, c=-2
11. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of
combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. The speed of the
products of combustion with respect to an observer on the ground is
(1) 500 km h-1 (2) 1000 km h-1 (3) 1500 km h-1 (4) 2000 km h-1
12. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in
either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the
direction A to B notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of
his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite direction. The period T of bus service
is
(1) 4.5 min (2) 9 min (3) 12 min (4) 24 min
13. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a
theifs car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 kmh -1. If the
muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1, with what speed does the bullet hit the
thiefs car?
(1) 90 ms-1 (2) 105 ms-1 (3) 110 ms-1 (4) 120 ms-1
14. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle executing one dimensional simple harmonic
motion. Mark the correct combination. The signs of position, velocity and
acceleration variables at
(1) t=0.3 s, x<0, v<0, a<0 (2) t=1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a>0
(3) t=-1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a<0 (4) t=-0.3 s, x>0, v<0, a<0
15. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle in one dimensional motion. Three different
equal intervals of time are shown. Let v1,v2,v3 be the average speed in each of
the intervals respectively, then
18. Four velocity-time graphs (namely I, II, III and IV) are shown in figure in which
case is the acceleration uniform and positive?
The graph of the distance s between the two stones, before either hits the
ground, plotted against time t will be as
20.A particle stating from rest with uniform acceleration travels a distance x in first
2 second and a distance y in next 2 second, then
(1) y=2x (2) y=3x (3) y=4x (4) y=x
21. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. If the same
deceleration is applied on both the cars, the ratio of the respective distance in
which the two cars are stopped from that instant is
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:16
22. The position of a particle is given by r 3ti 2t 2 j 5k where t is in second and the
coefficients have proper units for r to be in metres. The direction of v(t) at t=1 s
is
(1) 370 with the x-axis (2) 530 with the x-axis (3) 450 with the y-axis (4)
0
60 with the y-axis
23. A particle starts from origin at t=0 with a velocity 5i m/s and moves in x-y plane
under action of a force which produce a constant acceleration of (3i 2 j ) m/s2.
The y-coordinate of the particle, when its x-coordinate is 84 m is
(1) 12 m (2) 24 m (3) 36 m (4) 48 m
24. A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with speed of 720 km/h
passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical
should the gun be fired for the cell with muzzle speed 600 ms-1 to hit the plane?
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2
(1) sin (2) sin (3) cos (4) cos
3 3 3 3
25. What is the angle between ( A B) and ( A B) ?
3
(1) 00 (2) radian (3) radian (4) radian
2 2
26. Figure shows the position time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. Let the
force on the particle for t<0, t<4s, t>4s be F 1 , F 2 and F 3 respectively.
(Consider one dimensional motion only)
The contact forces between the two blocks in the two cases are in the ratio
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:3 (3) 3:2
(4) 5:3
31. A block has weight W and it is held against a vertical wall by applying a
horizontal force F. The minimum value of F is
(1) Less then W (2) equal to W (3) greater than W (4) Not
settled by the data
32. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of
mass m. If a force P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the
rope on the block is
Pm Pm PM
(1) (2) (3) P (4)
M m M m M m
33. A 1 kg block and a 0.5 kg block move together on a horizontal frictionless surface.
Each block exerts a force of 6 N on the other. The blocks move with a uniform
acceleration of
34. A man slides down a light rope whose breaking strength is times his weight
(<1). The maximum acceleration of the man so that the rope just breaks is
(1) g(1-) (2) g(1+) (3) g (4) g/
35. A weight W rests on a rough horizontal plane. If the angle of friction be , the
least force that will move the body along the plane will be
(1) W cos (2) W cot (3) W tan (4) W sin
36. A plate of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface (see figure), and a
body of mass m is placed on this plate. The coefficient of dynamic friction
between this body and the plate is . If a force 2 mg is applied to the body of
mass m along the horizontal, the acceleration of the plate will be
m m 2 m 2 m
(1) g (2) g (3) g (4) g
M ( M m) M ( M m)
37. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms -1. The man
holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can
he fire per second at the most?
(1) Most (2) four (3) two (4)
three
38.A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 0 with the
horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and
the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on the block is 10 N, the mass of the block
(in kg) is (take g=10 ms-2)
(1) 2.0 (2) 4.0 (3) 1.6
(4) 2.5
39. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2, respectively.
Their speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The
radii of their centripetal acceleration is
(1) m1:m2 (2) r1:r2 (3) 1:1 (4) m1r1:m2r2
40. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an angle 30 and 600 with the
0
vertical are shown in the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes.
What is the relative vertical acceleration of A with respect to B?
(1) 4.9 m s-2 in vertical direction (2) 4.9 m s-2 in horizontal direction
(3) 9.8 m s-2 in vertical direction (4) Zero
41. A particle of mass 2 kg located at the position ( + )m has a velocity 2 (i j k)
m/s. Its angular momentum about z-axis in kg-m2/s is:
(1) zero (2) +8 (3) 12 (4) 8
42. A spinning ice skater can increase his rate of rotation by bringing his arms and
free leg closer to his body. How does this procedure affect the skaters angular
momentum and kinetic energy?
(1) angular momentum remains the same while kinetic energy increases
(2) angular momentum remains the same while kinetic energy decreases
(3) both angular momentum and kinetic energy remain the same
(4) angular momentum increases while kinetic energy remains the same
43. A truck moving on horizontal road towards east with velocity 20 ms1 collides
elastically with a light ball moving with velocity 25 ms1 along west. The velocity
of the ball just after collision
(1) 65 ms1 towards east (2) 25 ms1 towards west
(3) 65 ms1 towards west (4) 20 ms1 towards east
44.Two billiard balls undergo a head-on collision. Ball 1 is twice as heavy as ball 2.
Initially, ball 1 moves with a speed v towards ball 2 which is at rest. Immediately
after the collision, ball 1 travels at a speed of v/3 in the same direction. What
type of collision has occured?
(1) inelastic (2) elastic
(3) completely inelastic (4) Cannot be determined from the
information given
45. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors i 2 j k and 3i 2 j k
respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:
(1) 2i j k (2) 2i j 2k (3) i j k (4) 2i 2k
Part B (Chemistry)
46. Ammonical AgNO3 reacts with acetylene to form:
(1) Silver acetate (2) Silver acetylide
(3) Silver formate (4) Silver metal
47. If 20cc of methane burnt using 50cc of oxygen the volume of the gases left
after cooling to room temperature:
(1) 60cc (2) 70cc
(3) 30cc (4) 50cc
48. On heating CH3COONa with sodalime the gas evolved will be
(1) C2H2 (2) CH4
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H4
49. The product obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne
would be
H3C
CH3
(1) (2) H3C O
O
O
O + HCO 2H
H3C
(3) H C + CH 2O (4)
3
OH
50. A mixture of methane, ethylene, ethyne gases is passed through a Woulfes
bottle containing ammonical AgNO3. The gas not coming out from bottle is
(1) Methane (2) Ethyne (3)Ethelene (4) All
51. Which of the following will have least hindered rotation about carbon-
carbon bond?
(1) Ethane (2) Ethylene
(3) Acetylene (4) Hexachloro ethane
52. Addition of one equivalent of bromine to 1, 3pentadiene produces
(1) 1, 3pentadiene produces (2) 4, 5dibromo2pentene
(3) 3, 4dibromopentene (4) 3, 4dibromo2pentene
53. What is the chief product obtained when nbutane is treated with bromine
in the presence of light at 130C?
(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br (2) CH3 CH2 CH Br
|
CH3
(3) CH3 CH CH Br CH3
| |
CH3 (4) H3C C CH2Br
|
CH3
55. The product obtained on heating n-heptane with Cr2O3 Al2O3 at 600C is
(1) Cyalohexane (2) Cyclohexane
(3) Benzene (4) Toluene
56. A sample of 1.79 mg of a compound of molar mass 90g mol1 when treated
with CH3MgI releases 1.34 ml of a gas at STP. The number of active
hydrogen in the molecule is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3)3 (4)4
57. 1 Chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives
(1) 1butene (2) 1butanol (3) 2butene (4) 2butanol
58. The addition of Br2 to trans2butene produces
(1) (+) 2, 3 dibromobutane (2) (-) 2, 3dibromobutane
(3) rac 2, 3 dibromobutane (4) meso2. 3dibromobutane
59. The ozonolysis of an olefin gives only propanone. The olefin is
(1) propene (2) but1ene
(3) but2ene (4) 2, 3dimethylbut2ene
60. The treatment of CH3C = CH2
|
CH3
with NaIO4 or boiling KMnO4 produces
(1) CH3COCH3 + CH2O (2) CH3CHO + CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 + CO2 (4) CH3COCH3 + HCOOH
61. Point out (A) in the given reaction sequence:
( A ) 3 2(B) 2CH3COOH CO 2
O /H O
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Me
Me Me
H
H
H
O
(1) 2 (2) O
(3) (4)
2
HC
|
CH3
Which is true about this reaction?
(1) A is meso 1, 2-butan-di-ol formed by syn addition
(2) A is meso 1, 2-butan-di-ol fomred by anti addition
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COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)
A and B are
(1) (2)
both CH2OH both CH3
OH
(3 CH2OH, CH3
(4
CH3 CH2OH,
) OH ) OH ,
Part C (Biology)
91. Waste products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by man as
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea (3) Uric acid (4)
Allantois
92. A man takes large amount of protein. He is likely to excrete
(1) Water (2) Glucose (3) Urea and uric acid (4) Salts
93. Which of the following nitrogenous substance is highly toxic
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (3) Amino acid (4) Ammonia
94.The chief nitrogenous waste in urine of rabbit or terrestrial mammals is
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (3) Ammonia (4) None
95. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the
form of uric acid are
(1) Birds and lizards (2) Mammals and mollusc
(3) Insects and bony fishes (4) Frogs and cartilaginous fishes
96.One of the following does the same work as is done by nephridia in earthworm
(1) Flame cells in liverfluke (2) Myotomes in fish
(3) Statocysts in prawn (4) Parotid gland in toad
97. The nephrostomes, in the kidneys, are functional in
(1) Rabbit (2) Adult frog (3) Tadpole (4) Cockroach
108. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the
following is to be expected
(1) The urine will be more dilute (2) There will be no urine formation
(3) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(4) The urine will be more concentrated
109. Which one of he four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a
single uriniferous tubule
(1) Bowman's capsule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct
110.Which of the following cycles in liver is mainly responsible for the synthesis of
urea
(1) Citruline cycle (2) Krebs cycle (3) Nitrogen cycle (4) Ornithine
cycle
111. At which stage of ornithine cycle arginase is used
(1) Arginine - Ornithine (2) Ornithine - Citruline
(3) Fumaric acid - Arginine (4) Glycolysis - Urea
112. Which one of the following pair of waste substances is removed from blood in
ornithine cycle
(1) CO2 and urea (2) Ammonia and urea
(3) CO2 and ammonia (4) Urea and sodium salt
113. Ornithine an amino acid is found
(1) As an intermediate of urea synthesis (2) As an intermediate of methonine
metabolism
(3) As a major fraction of the connective tissue (4) In bile salts
114. Ornithine cycle is related to
(1) Respiration (2) Nutrition (3) Excretion (4)
Digestion
115. The liquid which is collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is
(1) Concentrated urine (2) Blood plasma minus blood
proteins
(3) Glycogen and water (4) Sulphates and water
116. What causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the glomerulus into the
renal tubule
(1) Osmosis (2) High (hydrostatic) pressure
(3) Diapedesis (4) Dialysis
117. Which one of the following substances is actively secreted into the glomerular
filtrate of the kidney tubule?
(1) Potassium ions (2) Amino acids (3) Sodium ions (4) Chloride ions
118. In the kidney, glucose is mainly absorbed in
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Proximal convoluted tubules
(3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Bowman's capsule
119. Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's capsule, all are likely to happen
except
(1) Accumulation of fluid in the body (2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Increase in blood urea level (4) Loss of glucose through urine
120. Volume of urine is regulated by
(1) Aldosterone (2) Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(3) Aldosterone and ADH (4) ADH alone
121. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney tubules is regulated by
(1) STH (2) TSH (3) ADH (4) MSH
122. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are
totally removed
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NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)
(1) Urine will not collect in the bladder (2) Micturition will continue
(3) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(4) There will be no micturition
123.The yellow colour of urine of the vertebrates is due to
(1) Cholesterol (2) Urochrome (3) Uric acid (4) Melanin
124. Stool of a person contains whitish grey colour due to malfunction of
(1) Liver (2) Spleen (3) Kidney (4) Pancreas
125. Kidneys are not the only organs of excretion, their work is
supplemented by
(1) Liver (2) Skin (3) Heart (4) Large intestine
126. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to
contain abnormal quantities of
(1) Fats (2) Aminoacids (3) Glucose (4) Ketones
127. Which of these is not a ketone body
(1) Acetoacetic acid (2) Acetone (3) Succinic acid (4) Betahydroxy
butyric acid
128. Diuresis is a specific pathological condition which leads to
(1) Increased volume of urine excretion (2) Decreased volume of urine
excretion
(3) Increased glucose excretion (4) Decreased electrolyte concentration
129. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to
(1) Increase in the blood pressure (2) Decrease in the blood osmotic
pressure
(3) Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles (4) Damage to the proximal
convoluted tubules
130. A kidney stone is
(1) Blockage by fats
(2) Deposition of sand in kidney
(3) A salt such as oxalate crystallised in pelvis
(4) Blockage by proteins
131. Presence of RBC in urine is known as
(1) Proteinuria (2) Alkaptonuria (3) Haematuria (4) Uraethiasis
132.Reabsorption of glucose from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule is
carried out by
(1) Active transport (2) Osmosis
(3) Brownian movement (4) Diffusion
133.The glomerular filtration rate in a normal adult is nearly
(1) 200ml/minute (2) 250ml/minute (3) 120ml/minute (4)170ml/minute
134. Sodium, water and phosphate reabsorption is maximum in
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Proximal tubule (3) Distal tubule (4) Collecting
tubule
135.When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption then which of the
following will not help in the maintenance of blood volume
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COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)
140. Some cells of our body can be over a foot long. These are
(1) Nerve cells (2) Muscle cells (3) Bone cells (4)
Gland cells
141. Nissls granules are characteristically found in
(1) Nephrons (2) Neurons (3) Cytons (4) Dendrites
142. Which of the following tissues in mammals show the least capacity for
regeneration
(1) Epithelial tissue of the skin (2) Endothelium of blood vessels
(3) Skeletal tissue of long bones (4) Nervous tissue of brain
143. Cell bodies or cyton is found in
(1) Brain (2) Spinal cord
(3) Brain and ganglia (4) Brain, spinal cord and ganglia
144. Nerve fibres conduct impulses in
(1) One direction (2) Two direction (3) Multidirection (4) None of the above
145. Neurons are classified on the basis of
(1) Number of nucleus present (2) Number of processes arising
from the cell body
(3) Number of dendrites present (4) Number of axons present
146. Node of Ranvier is found in
(1) Right auricle (2) Muscle bundles (3) Dendrite (4) Axon
147. The brain develops from
(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm (3) Endoderm (4)
Meso-endoderm
148. Which one of the following statement in regard to nerve activity is true
(1) The synaptic cleft does not prevent direct propagation of action potential from
presynaptic neuron to post synaptic cell
(2) Information across the synaptic cleft is transmitted by means of a chemical
neurotransmitter in small vesicle
(3) Combination of neurotransmitter with receptor site changes membrane
potential without changing membrane potentiality
(4) In tetanus the excitatory impulse to muscles are inhibited leading to lock jaw
149. Propagation of action potential is very fast in nerve fibres which have
(1) Large fibre diameter (2) Small fibre diameter
(3) Covering of myelin sheath (4) (1) and (3) both are correct
150. The following hormones are neurotransmitters
(1) Acetylcholine and secretin (2) Cholecystokinin and
acetylcholine
(3) Adrenalin and acetylcholine (4) Cholecystokinin and adrenalin
151. The potential difference between outside and inside of a nerve before excitation
is known as
(1) Resting potential (2) Action potential (3) Spike potential (4)
Reaction potential
152. During transmission of nerve impulse the potential inside membrane has
the following type of charge
(1) First positive, then negative and back positive
(2) First negative then positive and back negative
(3) First positive then negative and remain negative
(4) First negative then positive and remain positive
153.The medullary sheath of the nerve fibre is interrupted at intervals by
(1) Septa (2) Nodes of Ranvier (3) Synapses (4) Glia
154. When a nerve fibre is stimulated the inside of the membrane becomes
(1) Negatively charged (2) Positively charged
(3) Depolarised (4) Filled with acetylcholine
155.The mineral necessary for nervous conduction is
(1) Iron (2) Sodium (3) Phosphorus (4)
Magnesium
156. Suppose the terminal ends of axon are in contact with dendrites of four
adjacent neurons, the nerve impulse of the axon will
(1) Travel in all the four neurons
(2) Get, distributed in all the four neurons resulting in a weak impulse
(3) Travel only in one neuron which is in closest contact and with the same
intensity
(4) Travel in none of the neurons because the impulse travels from dendrites of
one neuron into the axon of another neuron
157.Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
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COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)
(1) Schwann cells (2) Neurilemma (3) Axons (4) Myelin sheath
159. Foramen of Monro is an aperture between
(1) 2nd and 3rd ventricle (2) Diocoel and metacoel
(3) Rhinocoel and diocoel (4) 3rd and 4th ventricle
160. The correct sequence of meninges from outer to the inner side is
(1) Arachnoid piamater duramater (2) Arachnoid duramater piamater
(3) Piamater arachnoid duramater (4) Duramater arachnoid
piamater
161. All the meninges of brain are interrupted at the structure known as
(1) Neuropore (2) Anterior choroid plexus only
(3) Posterior choroid plexus only (4) Anterior and posterior choroid
plexus
162. In which part of the following, the anterior choroid plexus is situated
(1) Diocoel (2) Metacoel (3) Olfactocoel (4) Optocoel
163. Foramen of Monro is
(1) Gap in pelvic girdle of rabbit
(2) Foramen in the skull of frog
(3) Space in brain of frog and rabbit
(4) Pore in the inter-auricular septum in a mammalian heart
164. Which of the following is a richly vascular layer with lots of blood
capillaries
(1) Durameter of brain (2) Piamater of spinal cord
(3) Epidermis of skin (4) Epithelial lining of trachea
165. Lateral ventricles are found in
(1) Heart (2) Brain (3) Thyroid (4) Brain and heart
166. Which one of the following cells secrete cerebrospinal fluid
(1) Ependymal cells (2) Neurons (3) Schwann cells (4) Neurilemma
167. Which of the following connect lateral ventricle of diocoel in brain with
third ventricle
(1) Iter (2) Foramen of Monro (3) Corpus striatum (4)
Filum terminale
168. Sub-arachnoid space is found in
(1) Piamater (2) Durameter (3) Blastocoel (4)
None of the above
(1) A cavity in the ventricle of a brain (2) A fluid filled in the posterior
chamber of eye
(3) A fluid filled in the sacculus of ear (4) An aperture in the auricle of
heart
170. In the anatomy of man aqueduct of sylvius occurs in
(1) Ventricle of heart (2) Eye
(3) In between middle and internal ear (4) Brain
171. Foramen of Magendie is situated in
(1) Right auricle (2) Base of skull
(3) Medulla oblongata of brain (4) Posterior end of humerus
172. The nervous strip connecting both the cerebral hemispheres in the rabbit is
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Corpus albicans (3) Corpus stratum (4) Corpus
spongiosum
173.The thermoregulatory centre is situated in
(1) Spinal cord (2) Pituitary body (3) Cerebellum (4)
Hypothalamus
174. Nissls granules are present in the ....... and are made up of .......
respectively
(1) Muscle cells and deoxyribo nucleic acid (2) Mast cells and RNA
(3) Osteocytes and DNA (4) Neuron and RNA
175.Space between the two adjoining neurons where the chemical transmitter is
released is known as
(1) Synaptic vesicle (2) Synapse (3) Synaptic cleft (4) Terminal
button
176. An injury to diencephalon may result in
(1) Loss of understanding (2) Loss of learning
(3) Loss of intelligence (4) Loss of heat sensation
177.The lungs, heart, intestine etc. are supplied by cranial nerve
(1) Trigeminal (2) Vagus (3) Abducens (4)
Oculomotor
178. Reflex action immediately involves
(1) Spinal cord (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla oblongate (4)
Optical lobe
179. Gasserian ganglion is formed by the
(1) Vagus nerve (2) Trigeminal nerve (3) Trochlear nerve (4)
Cervical nerve
180. IV, V and IX cranial nerves are
(1) Olfactory, spinal accessary and vagus (2) Trigeminal, vagus and
glossopharyngeal
(3) Occulomotor, trigeminal and hypoglossal (4) Pathetic, trigeminal and
glossopharyngeal