Sunteți pe pagina 1din 21

NEET |20.08.

2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)


Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)

1. A person throws vertically n balls per second with the same velocity. He
throws a ball whenever the previous one is at its highest point. The height
to which the balls rise is
(1) g/n2 (2) 2gn (3) g/2n2 (4) 2gn2
2. The graph shown illustrates velocity versus time for two cars A and B
constrained to move in a straight line. Both cars were at the same position
at t = 0s. Consider the following statements.
(1) Car A is travelling west and Car B is travelling east.
(2) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 5s.
(3) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 10s

Which of the following is correct?


(1) only statement 1 is true (2) only statement 2 is true
(3) only statement 3 is true (4) only statements 1 and 2 are
true
3. A body A begins to move with initial velocity 2 m/sec and continues to
move at a constant acceleration a. t = 10 seconds after the body A begins
to move a body B departs from the same point with an initial velocity 12
m/sec and moves with the same acceleration a. What is the maximum
acceleration a at which the body B can overtake A?
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 1/2 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
4. A man travelling in a car with a maximum constant speed of 20m/s
watches the friend start off at a distance 100m ahead on a motor cycle
with constant acceleration a. The maximum value of a
for which the main in the car can reach his friend is

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) none of these


5. The acceleration versus time graph for a particle moving along a straight
line is shown in the figure. If the particle starts from rest at t = 0, then its
speed at t = 30 sec will be

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 1


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) 20 m/sec (2) 0 m/sec (3) 40 m/sec (4) 40 m/sec

RT
6. The speed of sound in a gas is given by v where the letters have usual
M
meanings. The dimensional formula of is
0 0 0
(1) [M L T ] (2) [MLT] (3) [MLT-2] (4) [M0L0T-1]
7. In the equation X=3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic
induction respectively. In MKS system, the dimensional formula for Y is
(1) [M-3L-2T-2Q-4] (2) [ML-2] (3) [M-3L-2Q4 T8] (4) [M-3L-2Q4 T4]
x
8. The equation of a wave is given by y A sin k , where is the angular
v
velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimensional formula of k is
(1) [LT] (2) [T] (3) [T-1] (4) [T2]
9. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F=A cos
D
Bx+C sin Dt. The dimensional formula of is
B
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L0T-1] (3) [M0L-1T0] (4) [M0L1T-1]
10. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical
quantity will be
(1) Velocity if a=1, b=0, c=-1 (2) acceleration if a=1, b=1, c=-2
(3) force if a=0, b=-1, c=-2 (4) pressure if a=1, b=-1, c=-2
11. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of
combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. The speed of the
products of combustion with respect to an observer on the ground is
(1) 500 km h-1 (2) 1000 km h-1 (3) 1500 km h-1 (4) 2000 km h-1
12. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in
either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the
direction A to B notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of
his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite direction. The period T of bus service
is
(1) 4.5 min (2) 9 min (3) 12 min (4) 24 min
13. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a
theifs car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 kmh -1. If the
muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1, with what speed does the bullet hit the
thiefs car?
(1) 90 ms-1 (2) 105 ms-1 (3) 110 ms-1 (4) 120 ms-1

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 2


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

14. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle executing one dimensional simple harmonic
motion. Mark the correct combination. The signs of position, velocity and
acceleration variables at

(1) t=0.3 s, x<0, v<0, a<0 (2) t=1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a>0
(3) t=-1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a<0 (4) t=-0.3 s, x>0, v<0, a<0

15. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle in one dimensional motion. Three different
equal intervals of time are shown. Let v1,v2,v3 be the average speed in each of
the intervals respectively, then

(1) v1<v2>v3 (2) v1>v2>v3 (3) v3>v1>v2 (4) v2>v1<v3


16. On a long horizontally moving belt, a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 kmh -1
(with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on
the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h-1. The time taken by the
child in running against the motion of the belt, between his parents is
(1) 10 s (2) 20 s (3) 25 s (4) 30 s
17. Which one of the following represents the time displacement graph of two objects
P and Q moving with zero relative speed?

18. Four velocity-time graphs (namely I, II, III and IV) are shown in figure in which
case is the acceleration uniform and positive?

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV


19. From a high tower at time t=0, one stone is dropped from rest and
simultaneously another stone is projected vertically up with an initial velocity.

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 3


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

The graph of the distance s between the two stones, before either hits the
ground, plotted against time t will be as

20.A particle stating from rest with uniform acceleration travels a distance x in first
2 second and a distance y in next 2 second, then
(1) y=2x (2) y=3x (3) y=4x (4) y=x
21. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. If the same
deceleration is applied on both the cars, the ratio of the respective distance in
which the two cars are stopped from that instant is
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:16
22. The position of a particle is given by r 3ti 2t 2 j 5k where t is in second and the
coefficients have proper units for r to be in metres. The direction of v(t) at t=1 s
is
(1) 370 with the x-axis (2) 530 with the x-axis (3) 450 with the y-axis (4)
0
60 with the y-axis
23. A particle starts from origin at t=0 with a velocity 5i m/s and moves in x-y plane
under action of a force which produce a constant acceleration of (3i 2 j ) m/s2.
The y-coordinate of the particle, when its x-coordinate is 84 m is
(1) 12 m (2) 24 m (3) 36 m (4) 48 m
24. A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with speed of 720 km/h
passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical
should the gun be fired for the cell with muzzle speed 600 ms-1 to hit the plane?
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2
(1) sin (2) sin (3) cos (4) cos
3 3 3 3
25. What is the angle between ( A B) and ( A B) ?
3
(1) 00 (2) radian (3) radian (4) radian
2 2
26. Figure shows the position time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. Let the
force on the particle for t<0, t<4s, t>4s be F 1 , F 2 and F 3 respectively.
(Consider one dimensional motion only)

(1) F1>F2>F3 (2) F1<F2>F3 (3) F2>F1=F3 (4) F1=F2=F3


27. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a hanging rope which can stand a maximum
tension of 600 M. In which of the following cases will the rope break: the monkey
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 4
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) Climbs up with an acceleration of 6 ms-2


(2) Climbs down with an acceleration of 4 ms-2
(3) Climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1
(4) Falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity
28.A rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from
the open end. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it
is 0.15. On a straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 ms -2.
At what distance from the starting point does the box fall off the truck?
(1) 12 m (2) 16 m (3) 18 m (4) 20 m
29. A women of 50 kg mass is standing in an elevator. Suddenly, the cable of the
elevator breaks and the elevator begins to fall freely. The force exerted by the
floor of the elevator on the women is
(1) 0 kg f (2) 50 kg f (3) 100 kg f (4) 50 x 9.8 kg f
30.Two blocks of masses 3m and 2m are in contact on a smooth table. A force P is
first applied horizontally on block of mass 3m and then on mass 2m.

The contact forces between the two blocks in the two cases are in the ratio
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:3 (3) 3:2
(4) 5:3
31. A block has weight W and it is held against a vertical wall by applying a
horizontal force F. The minimum value of F is

(1) Less then W (2) equal to W (3) greater than W (4) Not
settled by the data
32. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of
mass m. If a force P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the
rope on the block is
Pm Pm PM
(1) (2) (3) P (4)
M m M m M m
33. A 1 kg block and a 0.5 kg block move together on a horizontal frictionless surface.
Each block exerts a force of 6 N on the other. The blocks move with a uniform
acceleration of

(1) 3 ms-2 (2) 6 ms-2 (3) 9 ms-2 (4) 12 ms-2

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 5


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

34. A man slides down a light rope whose breaking strength is times his weight
(<1). The maximum acceleration of the man so that the rope just breaks is
(1) g(1-) (2) g(1+) (3) g (4) g/
35. A weight W rests on a rough horizontal plane. If the angle of friction be , the
least force that will move the body along the plane will be
(1) W cos (2) W cot (3) W tan (4) W sin
36. A plate of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface (see figure), and a
body of mass m is placed on this plate. The coefficient of dynamic friction
between this body and the plate is . If a force 2 mg is applied to the body of
mass m along the horizontal, the acceleration of the plate will be

m m 2 m 2 m
(1) g (2) g (3) g (4) g
M ( M m) M ( M m)
37. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms -1. The man
holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can
he fire per second at the most?
(1) Most (2) four (3) two (4)
three
38.A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 0 with the
horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and
the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on the block is 10 N, the mass of the block
(in kg) is (take g=10 ms-2)
(1) 2.0 (2) 4.0 (3) 1.6
(4) 2.5
39. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2, respectively.
Their speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The
radii of their centripetal acceleration is
(1) m1:m2 (2) r1:r2 (3) 1:1 (4) m1r1:m2r2
40. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an angle 30 and 600 with the
0

vertical are shown in the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes.
What is the relative vertical acceleration of A with respect to B?

(1) 4.9 m s-2 in vertical direction (2) 4.9 m s-2 in horizontal direction
(3) 9.8 m s-2 in vertical direction (4) Zero
41. A particle of mass 2 kg located at the position ( + )m has a velocity 2 (i j k)
m/s. Its angular momentum about z-axis in kg-m2/s is:
(1) zero (2) +8 (3) 12 (4) 8

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 6


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

42. A spinning ice skater can increase his rate of rotation by bringing his arms and
free leg closer to his body. How does this procedure affect the skaters angular
momentum and kinetic energy?
(1) angular momentum remains the same while kinetic energy increases
(2) angular momentum remains the same while kinetic energy decreases
(3) both angular momentum and kinetic energy remain the same
(4) angular momentum increases while kinetic energy remains the same
43. A truck moving on horizontal road towards east with velocity 20 ms1 collides
elastically with a light ball moving with velocity 25 ms1 along west. The velocity
of the ball just after collision
(1) 65 ms1 towards east (2) 25 ms1 towards west
(3) 65 ms1 towards west (4) 20 ms1 towards east
44.Two billiard balls undergo a head-on collision. Ball 1 is twice as heavy as ball 2.
Initially, ball 1 moves with a speed v towards ball 2 which is at rest. Immediately
after the collision, ball 1 travels at a speed of v/3 in the same direction. What
type of collision has occured?
(1) inelastic (2) elastic
(3) completely inelastic (4) Cannot be determined from the
information given
45. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors i 2 j k and 3i 2 j k
respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:
(1) 2i j k (2) 2i j 2k (3) i j k (4) 2i 2k

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 7


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

Part B (Chemistry)
46. Ammonical AgNO3 reacts with acetylene to form:
(1) Silver acetate (2) Silver acetylide
(3) Silver formate (4) Silver metal
47. If 20cc of methane burnt using 50cc of oxygen the volume of the gases left
after cooling to room temperature:
(1) 60cc (2) 70cc
(3) 30cc (4) 50cc
48. On heating CH3COONa with sodalime the gas evolved will be
(1) C2H2 (2) CH4
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H4
49. The product obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne
would be
H3C
CH3
(1) (2) H3C O
O
O
O + HCO 2H
H3C
(3) H C + CH 2O (4)
3
OH
50. A mixture of methane, ethylene, ethyne gases is passed through a Woulfes
bottle containing ammonical AgNO3. The gas not coming out from bottle is
(1) Methane (2) Ethyne (3)Ethelene (4) All
51. Which of the following will have least hindered rotation about carbon-
carbon bond?
(1) Ethane (2) Ethylene
(3) Acetylene (4) Hexachloro ethane
52. Addition of one equivalent of bromine to 1, 3pentadiene produces
(1) 1, 3pentadiene produces (2) 4, 5dibromo2pentene
(3) 3, 4dibromopentene (4) 3, 4dibromo2pentene
53. What is the chief product obtained when nbutane is treated with bromine
in the presence of light at 130C?
(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br (2) CH3 CH2 CH Br
|
CH3
(3) CH3 CH CH Br CH3
| |
CH3 (4) H3C C CH2Br
|
CH3

54. Bromination of an-alkane as compared to chlorination proceeds


(1) at a slower rate (2) at a faster rate
(3) with equal rates
(4) with equal or different rates depending upon the temperature

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 8


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

55. The product obtained on heating n-heptane with Cr2O3 Al2O3 at 600C is
(1) Cyalohexane (2) Cyclohexane
(3) Benzene (4) Toluene
56. A sample of 1.79 mg of a compound of molar mass 90g mol1 when treated
with CH3MgI releases 1.34 ml of a gas at STP. The number of active
hydrogen in the molecule is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3)3 (4)4
57. 1 Chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives
(1) 1butene (2) 1butanol (3) 2butene (4) 2butanol
58. The addition of Br2 to trans2butene produces
(1) (+) 2, 3 dibromobutane (2) (-) 2, 3dibromobutane
(3) rac 2, 3 dibromobutane (4) meso2. 3dibromobutane
59. The ozonolysis of an olefin gives only propanone. The olefin is
(1) propene (2) but1ene
(3) but2ene (4) 2, 3dimethylbut2ene
60. The treatment of CH3C = CH2
|
CH3
with NaIO4 or boiling KMnO4 produces
(1) CH3COCH3 + CH2O (2) CH3CHO + CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 + CO2 (4) CH3COCH3 + HCOOH
61. Point out (A) in the given reaction sequence:

( A ) 3 2(B) 2CH3COOH CO 2
O /H O

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

62. End product of the following sequence is:


2
CaO C ( A ) 2(c ) (C)
Heat H O Hg
H2 SO 4

(1) Ethanol (2) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate


(3) Ethanal (4) Ethylene glycol
63. 10 mL of a certain hydrocarbon require 25 mL of oxygen for complete
combustion and the volume of CO2 product is 20 mL. What is the formula of
hydrocarbon?
(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4 (3) CH4 (4) C2H6
64. Hydrogenation of the compound:

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 9


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

Me

Me Me

H
H
H

In the presence of poisoned palladium catalyst gives:


(1) An optically active compound (2) An optically inactive compound
(3) A racemic mixture (4) A diastereomeric mixture

65. Ozonolysis of will give

O
(1) 2 (2) O

(3) (4)
2

66. CH3 CH CH = CH2 + HBr A (predominant), A is


|
CH3
(1) CH3 CH CH CH3 (2) CH3 CH CH2 CH2Br
| | |
CH3 Br CH3
(3) Br (4) None is correct
|
CH3 C CH2 CH3
|
CH3

67. Stability of CH3 CH = CH CH3 CH3 C = C CH3


(I) | |
CH3 CH3
(II)
CH3 C = CH2 CH3 C = CHCH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(III)
(IV)
In the increasing order is
(1) I III IV II (2) I II III IV
(3) IV III II I (4) II III IV = I
68 CH3
|
. HC
|| A
alkaline KMnO 4

HC
|
CH3
Which is true about this reaction?
(1) A is meso 1, 2-butan-di-ol formed by syn addition
(2) A is meso 1, 2-butan-di-ol fomred by anti addition
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 10
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(3) A is a racemic mixture of d and l, 1, 2-butan-di-ol formed by anti


addition
(4)A is a racemic mixture of d and l 1, 2-butan-di-ol formed by syn addition.
69. The treatment of C2H5MgI with water produces
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(3) Ethanal (4) Ethanol
70. The order of reactivity of halogens towards halogenation of alkanes is
(1) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2
(3) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2
71. The chlorination of alkane involves
(1) Cl free radicals (2) Cl+ species
(3) Cl species (4) CH3 free radicals
72. CH 3
| CH3
HC H Br
||
Br2 H Br
CH CH3
|
CH3
(A)
Which is true statement?
(1) A is formed by anti addition and is meso
(2) A is formed by syn addition and is meso
(3) A is formed by anti addition and is racemic
(4) A is formed by syn addition and is racemic
CH3
73. H Br and enantiomer. 2-butene is
2-butene + Br2
Br H
CH3
(by anti addition)

(1) cis (2) trans (3) both (4) none


(A) cis-2-butene I
HCO3H
74.
HCO H
(B) trans-2-butene 3
II
Correct statements are
(1) is racemic mixture by anti addition
(2) II is meso compound by anti addition
(3) I is meso compound by syn addition
(4) II is racemic compound by syn addition
75.
B
BH3 / THF
CH2 3 A
H O
H2O 2 / OH

A and B are
(1) (2)
both CH2OH both CH3
OH
(3 CH2OH, CH3
(4
CH3 CH2OH,
) OH ) OH ,

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 11


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

76. Ethane is produced during the electrolysis of potassium salt of


(1) succinic acid (2) malonic acid (3) acetic acid (4)
fumaric acid
77. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(1) In ethane, staggered conformation is more stable than eclipsed
conformation
(2) Cyclohexane exists in two conformations
(3) The boat conformation of cyclohexane is more stable than chair
conformation.
(4) The boat and chair conformations of cyclohexane do not exist as
independent compounds
78. The compound with the highest boiling point is
(1) n-hexane (2) n-pentane
(3) 2, 2-dimethylpropane (4) 2-methylbutane
79. Marsh gas is
(1) methane (2) ethane (3) propane (4) butane
80. Which of the following facts is correct ?
(1) C-D bond is slightly weaker than C-H bond
(2) C-D bond is slightly stronger than C-H bond
(3) both C H and C D bonds are equally strong
(4) Replacement of D in C D by Cl is faster than the replacement of H in C- H.
81. The ozonolysis of 2, 4-dimethylpent 2-ene products
(1) two molecules of aldehydes
(2) two molecules of ketone
(3) one molecule of aldehyde and one molecule of ketone
(4) neither aldehyde nor ketone
82. The addition of HI in the presence of peroxide does not follow anti-
Markovnikovs rule because
(1) HI bond is too strong to be broken homolytically
(2) I atom is not reactive enough to add on a double bond
(3) I combines with H to give back HI
(4) HI is a reducing agent
83. Identify the product in the following reaction: n-heptane heated with Cr2O3
supported on alumina at 6000 C
Product
(1) benzene (2) toluene (3) xylene (4) cyclohexane
84. The treatment of ethylene with Baeyers reagent produces
(1) ethyl alcohol (2) acetaldehyde (3) ethylene glycol (4) -hydroxyl
acetaldehyde
85. The hydrolysis of Mg2C3 produces
(1) acetylene (2) propyne (3) butyne (4) ethylene
86. Lindlars catalyst is

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 12


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) Pt in ethanol (2) Ni in ethanol (3) Pd with BaSO4 (4) Na in liquid


NH3
87. The two hydrogen atoms in acetylene
(1) are acidic in nature (2) are alkaline in nature
(3) are neutral in nature (4) are acidic and alkaline in nature,
respectively.
88. Which of the following is true?
(1) Acetylene is more reactive than ethylene to an electrophilic attack
(2) Acetylene is less reactive than ethylene to an electrophilic attack
(3) Acetylene may show more reactivity or less reactivity towards
electrophilic attack depending upon electrophilic reagent
(4) Acetylene and ethylene show identical reactivities towards an electrophilic
attack
89. Which of the following orders regarding acid strength is correct ?
(1) CH3COOH > CH3CH2OH > CH CH
(2) CH3COOH > CH CH > CH3CH2OH
(3) HC CH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2OH
(4) HC CH > CH3CH2OH > CH3COOH
90. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne
would be
(1) CH3CH2COCH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(3) CH3CH2CHO + HCHO (4) CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH

Part C (Biology)
91. Waste products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by man as
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea (3) Uric acid (4)
Allantois
92. A man takes large amount of protein. He is likely to excrete
(1) Water (2) Glucose (3) Urea and uric acid (4) Salts
93. Which of the following nitrogenous substance is highly toxic
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (3) Amino acid (4) Ammonia
94.The chief nitrogenous waste in urine of rabbit or terrestrial mammals is
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (3) Ammonia (4) None
95. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the
form of uric acid are
(1) Birds and lizards (2) Mammals and mollusc
(3) Insects and bony fishes (4) Frogs and cartilaginous fishes
96.One of the following does the same work as is done by nephridia in earthworm
(1) Flame cells in liverfluke (2) Myotomes in fish
(3) Statocysts in prawn (4) Parotid gland in toad
97. The nephrostomes, in the kidneys, are functional in
(1) Rabbit (2) Adult frog (3) Tadpole (4) Cockroach

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 13


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

98. Correct order of excretory organs in Cockroach, Earthworm and Rabbit


respectively
(1) Skin, malpighi tubules, kidney (2) Malpighi tubules, nephridia,
kidney
(3) Nephridia, malpighi tubule, kidney (4) Nephridia, kidney, green gland
99.Intestinal excretory organs of Pheretima has a function of
(1) Locomotion (2) Respiration
(3) Water balance (4) Excretion of nitrogenous waste
100. Which one of the following blood vessels in mammals would normally
carry the largest amount of urea
(1) Hepatic portal vein (2) Hepatic vein (3) Renal artery (4) Hepatic
artery
101.Excretory waste of birds and reptiles are
(1) Urea (2) Urea and uric acid
(3) Uric acid (4) Ammonia and uric acid
102. Animal which excrete urea produced during metabolism of amino acids is
(1) Ureotelism (2) Uricotelism (3) Ammonotelism (4)
Aminotelism
103. The most abundant, harmful and universal waste product of metabolism is
(1) CO2 (2) Uric acid (3) H2O (4) None of these
104. The main nitrogenous waste of Hydra is
(1) Ammonia only (2) Urea only
(3) Uric acid only (4) Both (1) and (3)
105. Each human kidney has nearly
(1) 10,000 nephrons (2) 50,000 nephrons (3) 1,00,000 nephrons (4) 1
million nephrons
106. Podocytes are the cells present in
(1) Bowman's capsule (2) Loop of Henle (3) Duct of Bellini (4) Distal
convoluted tubule
107. Loop of Henle is meant for absorption of
(1) Potassium (2) Glucose (3) Water (4) CO2

108. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the
following is to be expected
(1) The urine will be more dilute (2) There will be no urine formation
(3) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(4) The urine will be more concentrated
109. Which one of he four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a
single uriniferous tubule
(1) Bowman's capsule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 14


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

110.Which of the following cycles in liver is mainly responsible for the synthesis of
urea
(1) Citruline cycle (2) Krebs cycle (3) Nitrogen cycle (4) Ornithine
cycle
111. At which stage of ornithine cycle arginase is used
(1) Arginine - Ornithine (2) Ornithine - Citruline
(3) Fumaric acid - Arginine (4) Glycolysis - Urea
112. Which one of the following pair of waste substances is removed from blood in
ornithine cycle
(1) CO2 and urea (2) Ammonia and urea
(3) CO2 and ammonia (4) Urea and sodium salt
113. Ornithine an amino acid is found
(1) As an intermediate of urea synthesis (2) As an intermediate of methonine
metabolism
(3) As a major fraction of the connective tissue (4) In bile salts
114. Ornithine cycle is related to
(1) Respiration (2) Nutrition (3) Excretion (4)
Digestion
115. The liquid which is collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is
(1) Concentrated urine (2) Blood plasma minus blood
proteins
(3) Glycogen and water (4) Sulphates and water
116. What causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the glomerulus into the
renal tubule
(1) Osmosis (2) High (hydrostatic) pressure
(3) Diapedesis (4) Dialysis
117. Which one of the following substances is actively secreted into the glomerular
filtrate of the kidney tubule?
(1) Potassium ions (2) Amino acids (3) Sodium ions (4) Chloride ions
118. In the kidney, glucose is mainly absorbed in
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Proximal convoluted tubules
(3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Bowman's capsule
119. Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's capsule, all are likely to happen
except
(1) Accumulation of fluid in the body (2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Increase in blood urea level (4) Loss of glucose through urine
120. Volume of urine is regulated by
(1) Aldosterone (2) Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(3) Aldosterone and ADH (4) ADH alone
121. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney tubules is regulated by
(1) STH (2) TSH (3) ADH (4) MSH
122. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are
totally removed
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 15
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) Urine will not collect in the bladder (2) Micturition will continue
(3) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(4) There will be no micturition
123.The yellow colour of urine of the vertebrates is due to
(1) Cholesterol (2) Urochrome (3) Uric acid (4) Melanin
124. Stool of a person contains whitish grey colour due to malfunction of
(1) Liver (2) Spleen (3) Kidney (4) Pancreas
125. Kidneys are not the only organs of excretion, their work is
supplemented by
(1) Liver (2) Skin (3) Heart (4) Large intestine
126. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to
contain abnormal quantities of
(1) Fats (2) Aminoacids (3) Glucose (4) Ketones
127. Which of these is not a ketone body
(1) Acetoacetic acid (2) Acetone (3) Succinic acid (4) Betahydroxy
butyric acid
128. Diuresis is a specific pathological condition which leads to
(1) Increased volume of urine excretion (2) Decreased volume of urine
excretion
(3) Increased glucose excretion (4) Decreased electrolyte concentration
129. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to
(1) Increase in the blood pressure (2) Decrease in the blood osmotic
pressure
(3) Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles (4) Damage to the proximal
convoluted tubules
130. A kidney stone is
(1) Blockage by fats
(2) Deposition of sand in kidney
(3) A salt such as oxalate crystallised in pelvis
(4) Blockage by proteins
131. Presence of RBC in urine is known as
(1) Proteinuria (2) Alkaptonuria (3) Haematuria (4) Uraethiasis
132.Reabsorption of glucose from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule is
carried out by
(1) Active transport (2) Osmosis
(3) Brownian movement (4) Diffusion
133.The glomerular filtration rate in a normal adult is nearly
(1) 200ml/minute (2) 250ml/minute (3) 120ml/minute (4)170ml/minute
134. Sodium, water and phosphate reabsorption is maximum in
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Proximal tubule (3) Distal tubule (4) Collecting
tubule
135.When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption then which of the
following will not help in the maintenance of blood volume
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 16
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) Decreased glomerular filtration (2) Increased ADH secretion


(3) Decreased arterial pressure in kidney (4) Increased arterial pressure in
kidney
136. Irritability and conductivity are maximum developed in
(1) Muscular tissue (2) Nervous tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) None of the
above
137.Axons form nerve in
(1) Autonomic nervous system (2) Central nervous system
(3) Peripheral nervous system (4) All of the above
138. The function of repairing in nervous tissue is done by
(1) Glial cells (2) Nerve cells (3) Cytons (4) Only
axons
139. The junction between Schwann cells is known as
(1) Plasmalemma (2) Node of Ranvier (3) Dendrons (4)
Synapse

140. Some cells of our body can be over a foot long. These are

(1) Nerve cells (2) Muscle cells (3) Bone cells (4)
Gland cells
141. Nissls granules are characteristically found in
(1) Nephrons (2) Neurons (3) Cytons (4) Dendrites
142. Which of the following tissues in mammals show the least capacity for
regeneration
(1) Epithelial tissue of the skin (2) Endothelium of blood vessels
(3) Skeletal tissue of long bones (4) Nervous tissue of brain
143. Cell bodies or cyton is found in
(1) Brain (2) Spinal cord
(3) Brain and ganglia (4) Brain, spinal cord and ganglia
144. Nerve fibres conduct impulses in
(1) One direction (2) Two direction (3) Multidirection (4) None of the above
145. Neurons are classified on the basis of
(1) Number of nucleus present (2) Number of processes arising
from the cell body
(3) Number of dendrites present (4) Number of axons present
146. Node of Ranvier is found in
(1) Right auricle (2) Muscle bundles (3) Dendrite (4) Axon
147. The brain develops from
(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm (3) Endoderm (4)
Meso-endoderm
148. Which one of the following statement in regard to nerve activity is true

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 17


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) The synaptic cleft does not prevent direct propagation of action potential from
presynaptic neuron to post synaptic cell
(2) Information across the synaptic cleft is transmitted by means of a chemical
neurotransmitter in small vesicle
(3) Combination of neurotransmitter with receptor site changes membrane
potential without changing membrane potentiality
(4) In tetanus the excitatory impulse to muscles are inhibited leading to lock jaw
149. Propagation of action potential is very fast in nerve fibres which have
(1) Large fibre diameter (2) Small fibre diameter
(3) Covering of myelin sheath (4) (1) and (3) both are correct
150. The following hormones are neurotransmitters
(1) Acetylcholine and secretin (2) Cholecystokinin and
acetylcholine
(3) Adrenalin and acetylcholine (4) Cholecystokinin and adrenalin
151. The potential difference between outside and inside of a nerve before excitation
is known as
(1) Resting potential (2) Action potential (3) Spike potential (4)
Reaction potential
152. During transmission of nerve impulse the potential inside membrane has
the following type of charge
(1) First positive, then negative and back positive
(2) First negative then positive and back negative
(3) First positive then negative and remain negative
(4) First negative then positive and remain positive
153.The medullary sheath of the nerve fibre is interrupted at intervals by
(1) Septa (2) Nodes of Ranvier (3) Synapses (4) Glia

154. When a nerve fibre is stimulated the inside of the membrane becomes
(1) Negatively charged (2) Positively charged
(3) Depolarised (4) Filled with acetylcholine
155.The mineral necessary for nervous conduction is
(1) Iron (2) Sodium (3) Phosphorus (4)
Magnesium
156. Suppose the terminal ends of axon are in contact with dendrites of four
adjacent neurons, the nerve impulse of the axon will
(1) Travel in all the four neurons
(2) Get, distributed in all the four neurons resulting in a weak impulse
(3) Travel only in one neuron which is in closest contact and with the same
intensity
(4) Travel in none of the neurons because the impulse travels from dendrites of
one neuron into the axon of another neuron
157.Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 18
Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) Effector organs to central nervous system (2) Receptors to central


nervous system
(3) Central nervous system to muscles (4) Central nervous system to
receptors
158. On nerve fibres to prevent leakage of an impulse layer of ...... is found

(1) Schwann cells (2) Neurilemma (3) Axons (4) Myelin sheath
159. Foramen of Monro is an aperture between
(1) 2nd and 3rd ventricle (2) Diocoel and metacoel
(3) Rhinocoel and diocoel (4) 3rd and 4th ventricle
160. The correct sequence of meninges from outer to the inner side is
(1) Arachnoid piamater duramater (2) Arachnoid duramater piamater
(3) Piamater arachnoid duramater (4) Duramater arachnoid
piamater
161. All the meninges of brain are interrupted at the structure known as
(1) Neuropore (2) Anterior choroid plexus only
(3) Posterior choroid plexus only (4) Anterior and posterior choroid
plexus
162. In which part of the following, the anterior choroid plexus is situated
(1) Diocoel (2) Metacoel (3) Olfactocoel (4) Optocoel
163. Foramen of Monro is
(1) Gap in pelvic girdle of rabbit
(2) Foramen in the skull of frog
(3) Space in brain of frog and rabbit
(4) Pore in the inter-auricular septum in a mammalian heart
164. Which of the following is a richly vascular layer with lots of blood
capillaries
(1) Durameter of brain (2) Piamater of spinal cord
(3) Epidermis of skin (4) Epithelial lining of trachea
165. Lateral ventricles are found in
(1) Heart (2) Brain (3) Thyroid (4) Brain and heart
166. Which one of the following cells secrete cerebrospinal fluid
(1) Ependymal cells (2) Neurons (3) Schwann cells (4) Neurilemma
167. Which of the following connect lateral ventricle of diocoel in brain with
third ventricle
(1) Iter (2) Foramen of Monro (3) Corpus striatum (4)
Filum terminale
168. Sub-arachnoid space is found in
(1) Piamater (2) Durameter (3) Blastocoel (4)
None of the above

169. Cerebral aqua is

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 19


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

(1) A cavity in the ventricle of a brain (2) A fluid filled in the posterior
chamber of eye
(3) A fluid filled in the sacculus of ear (4) An aperture in the auricle of
heart
170. In the anatomy of man aqueduct of sylvius occurs in
(1) Ventricle of heart (2) Eye
(3) In between middle and internal ear (4) Brain
171. Foramen of Magendie is situated in
(1) Right auricle (2) Base of skull
(3) Medulla oblongata of brain (4) Posterior end of humerus
172. The nervous strip connecting both the cerebral hemispheres in the rabbit is
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Corpus albicans (3) Corpus stratum (4) Corpus
spongiosum
173.The thermoregulatory centre is situated in
(1) Spinal cord (2) Pituitary body (3) Cerebellum (4)
Hypothalamus
174. Nissls granules are present in the ....... and are made up of .......
respectively
(1) Muscle cells and deoxyribo nucleic acid (2) Mast cells and RNA
(3) Osteocytes and DNA (4) Neuron and RNA
175.Space between the two adjoining neurons where the chemical transmitter is
released is known as
(1) Synaptic vesicle (2) Synapse (3) Synaptic cleft (4) Terminal
button
176. An injury to diencephalon may result in
(1) Loss of understanding (2) Loss of learning
(3) Loss of intelligence (4) Loss of heat sensation
177.The lungs, heart, intestine etc. are supplied by cranial nerve
(1) Trigeminal (2) Vagus (3) Abducens (4)
Oculomotor
178. Reflex action immediately involves
(1) Spinal cord (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla oblongate (4)
Optical lobe
179. Gasserian ganglion is formed by the
(1) Vagus nerve (2) Trigeminal nerve (3) Trochlear nerve (4)
Cervical nerve
180. IV, V and IX cranial nerves are
(1) Olfactory, spinal accessary and vagus (2) Trigeminal, vagus and
glossopharyngeal
(3) Occulomotor, trigeminal and hypoglossal (4) Pathetic, trigeminal and
glossopharyngeal

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 20


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com
NEET |20.08.2017
COMBINED TEST 8 (P, C, B)

ANSWER KEY 20.08.2017 (Ratchana)


PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 1 4 2 4 4
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 2
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 4 2 3 1 2 4 1 4 1 2
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 4 4 1 3 1 4 1 2 1
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 1
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 2 3 2 1 2 4 2 2 1 4
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 3 1 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 2
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 3, 4 4
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 3 3 1 1 2 3 2 2 3 2
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 3 1 2 1 1
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 3 3 4 1 1 1 3 2 4 2
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 4 4
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 3
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 3 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 1 2 1
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 3 4 4 3 2 4 1 2 4 3
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 4
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 4
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 3 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 4

1B/1, TVS Street, Rasipuram 637408. Namakkal (Dt.) 21


Mob : 9444331869, Email : impulse4jee@gmail.com

S-ar putea să vă placă și