Appg - Andhra 2016

APPG - MDSET 2016
Q.1 The function of the liner in a casting ring is to
Ans
1. Permit expansion of the mould
2. Allow contraction of the mould
3. Fecilitate venting of the mould
4. Retard heating of the investment
REF:Textbook of dental materials by sharmila

Hussain;pg 291
ANS: 1
The casting ring is first lined with a ring liner before

casting procedure,which should be placed few mm
short of the casting ring.Earlier asbestos liners
were used.It poses a health hazard from inhalation
of the dust.Hence, it is no longer used.
Functions:
1.Allows uniform mold expansion(acts as a
cushion)
2.When the ring is transformed from the furnace to
the casting machine,it reduces heat loss as it acts
as a thermal insulator
3.Allows easy devastating.
Q.2 The absolute minimal thickness of porcelain in metal ceramic restoration is
Ans
1. 1.5 mm
2. 1.2 mm
3. 0.7 mm
4. 0.5 mm
REF: FPD by Shillingberg; pg 457

ANS:3
Porcelain should be kept at a minimum thickness that is still compatible with good
aesthetics. Relatively thin porcelain, of uniform thickness and supported by rigid metal,
is strongest. The absolute minimum thickness of porcelain is 0 7 mm, and the desirable
thickness is 1.0 mm. Deficiencies in the incisal edge, interproximal areas, or occlusal
surface of the tooth preparation that have been caused by caries or previous
restorations should be blocked out in the preparation or compensat- ed for with extra
thickness of the coping in those areas.
Q.3 If radicular bone is apical to the interdental bone it is called as
Ans
1. Compromised architecture
2. Flat architecture
3. Positive architecture
4. Negative architecture
REF: Carranzas clinical periodontology ;11th ed ;pg 1417
ANS:3
Positive architecture and negative architecture refer to the relative position of
interdental bone to radicular bone . The architecture is positive if the radicular bone is
apical to the interdental bone. The bone has negative architecture if the interdental
bone is more apical than the radicular bone. Flat architecture is the reduction of the
interdental bone to the same height as the radicular bone.
Q.4 When a tooth is intruded orthodontically the force is concentrated over an area.....
Ans
1. At the crest of the alveolar bone
2. On all sides of the tooth
3. At the apex
4. From lingual alveolar crest to apex
REF: Contemporary Orthodontics by William Proffit ; 5th ed;pg 295
ANS:3
For many years, it was considered essentially impossible to produce orthodontic
intrusion of teeth. Now it is clear that clinically successful intrusion can be
accomplished, but only if very light forces are applied to the teeth. Light force is
required for intrusion because the force will be concentrated in a small area at the tooth
apex . As with extrusion, the tooth probably will tip somewhat as it is intruded, but the
force still will be concentrated at the apex. Only if the force is kept very light can
intrusion be expected.
Q.5 Which of the following views is not useful to diagnose mandibular fractures
Ans
1. Panoramic view
2. Lateral oblique view
3. Occipitomental view
4. Posterio anterior view
REF: Textbook of dental radiology by Pramod john;pg 175
ANS:3
Fracture of Mandible
The main radiographic projections made in the diagnosis of fracture of the mandible
are: Orthopantomogram (OPG) Lateral oblique view
Posteroanterior (PA) or anteroposterior (AP) view

ReverseTowneview(forcondyles,condylarneck,andrami). Sometimes additional TMJ
views are required in the diagnosis of fractures involving the condyle or
coronoidprocess.
Q.6 Dosage of clindamycin for prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

Ans
1. 500mg
2. 600mg
3. 1gm
4. 2 gm
REF: Petersons principles of oral and maxillofacial surgery ;2nd ed;pg 24
ANS:2
For penicillin allergic patients
Clindamycin (Adults-600mg orally 1h before procedure)
(children- 20mg/kg orally 1h before procedure)
Azithromycin( adults-500mg orally 1h before procedure)
(children-15mg/kg orally 1h before procedure)
Clarithromycin( adults -500mg orally 1h before procedure)
( children -15mg/kg orally 1h before procedure)
Q.7 Delayed expansion of Zinc containing amalgam usually starts after.. days
Ans
1. 10 to 13 days
2. 6 to 7 days
3. 3 to 5 days
4. 7 to 10 days
REF: Review of endodontics operative dentistry by

Nisha Garg,Amit Garg ;pg 135
ANS:3
Delayed Expansion:
It is gradual expansion of zinc containing alloys due
to production of hydrogen gas when plastic mass gets
contaminated with moisture during manipulation.
Usually starts after 3-5 days and may continue for
months reaching greater than 4% i.e 400
micrometers.
Q.8 For settling the teeth in final occlusion at the end of fixed orthodontic therapy, we use
Ans
1. Re-implantation of teeth
2. Facebow
3. Inter arch laced elastics
4. Expansion appliance
Ref: Contemporary orthodontics by william profitt ;pg 616
ANS:3
A major reason for retention is to hold the teeth until soft tissue remodeling can take
place. Even with the best remodeling, however, some rebound from the application of
orthodontic forces occurs, and indeed the tendency for rebound after interarch elastics
are discontinued has already been
Use of laced elastics for settling the teeth into final occlusion at the end of treatment.
The elastics can be used either with light round archwires or (usually preferred) with
rectangular segments in the anterior brackets and no wire at all posteriorly. The last
step in treatment then becomes cutting the rectangular finishing archwires distal to the
lateral incisors or canines and removing the posterior segments
Q.9 Hecks disease is caused
Ans
1. HIV
2. Fungus
3. EB virus
4. HPV-virus
REF: Andrews' Diseases of the Skin: Clinical
Dermatology
By William D. James, Timothy Berger;Pg 19
ANS:4
HPV-13 and HPV-32 have been classically associated with Hecks disease.Clinically,the
lesions may be papular or papillomatous and favour the buccal and labial mucosa and
the commissures of the mouth.Lesions may spontaneously resolve.Treatment options
include surgery,co2 laser,electrosurgery, and topical,intralesional or systemic IFN.
Q.10 Cidex is
Ans 1. Cetavlon solution
3.5 percent
2. Gluteraldehyde
5 percent
3. Gluteraldehyde
2 percent
4. Gluteraldehyde
REF: SRBS SURGICAL OPERATIONS; Pg 12

ANS: 4
2% gluteraldehyde is called cidex, which is used to sterile sharp
instruments.Instruments should be dipped for 10 hrs to achieve complete sterilization.
It is potent bactericide,sporicide,fungicide and viricide.
5% chloroxylenol is dettol.
2%cetavlon is cetrimide.
Q.11 FDA approved drug of choice for Xerostomia
1. Atropine
2. Scopolamine
3. Bromhexine
4. Cevimeline
REF:
Atlas and Text of Corneal Pathology and Surgery
By Boyd Samuel; Pg 90
ANS:4
Oral secretagogues, such as the muscarinic agonists pilocarpine and cevimeline, are
the FDA approved for their use in sjogrens syndrome.
Q.12 The temperature of carbon dioxide snow used for cold testing is
Ans
1. Minus 38 degrees celcius
REF: INGLES ENDODONTICS 6th ed;pg 535

ANS:3
Carbon dioxide snow, more commonly known as dry ice, became popular because it
was predictable as a cold thermal material in diagnostic testing. Ehrmannpopularized
the use of the CO2 pencil (78C) that had been previously introduced by Obwegeser
and Steinhauser in 1963. A small amount of the CO 2 is expressed through the end of
the syringe that is then placed on the crowns of the teeth being evaluated.
Q.13 Caries promoting trace element is

Ans
1. Selenium
2. Aluminium
3. Copper
4. Vanadium
REF: Principles and Practice Of Pedodontics by Arathi Rao;Pg 171

ANS:1
Trace element in diet can be cariostatic or caries promoting .Thus they are grouped in
to
Cariostatioc -Fl,p
Mildly cariostatic -Mo,V,Cu,Sr,B,Li,Au,Fe
Doubtful cariostatic -Ba,Al,Ni,Pd,Ti
Caries Promoting -Se,Mg,Cd,Pt,Pb,Si

Trace elements are variously defined depending upon the field of chemical,Physical or
biologic sciences being discussed.In the field of biology,elements that are present in
only minute quantities in animal tissues are called trace elements,regardless of their
abundance in nature.
Q.14 Causative agent of herpetic whitlow is

Ans
1. Human papilloma
2. Hepatitis B virus
3. Varicella zoster
4. Herpes simplex
REF:Oski's Essential Pediatrics

edited by Michael Crocetti;Pg 317.
ANS:4
Herpetic whitlow is seen in people with herpes simple infection.
Herpetic whitlow is a painful,erythematous,swollen lesion occurring on the terminal
phalanx of fingers(69%) and thumb (21%)The pain fun white swellings appear to be
filled with us but,when opened for drainage ,they are found to contain little fluid and no
purulent material,occasionally, the whitlow which may persist for 7 to 10 days.
Q.15. Match the following:
Ans 1. ABCD = SRPQ
2. ABCD = RPSQ
3. ABCD = SPQR
4. ABCD = SQPR
ANS: 1
Q.16 The process of primary colonizing bacteria adhering to tooth surface providing new receptor
of other bacteria is know n as
Ans 1. Coadhesion
2. Biofilm
3. Translocation
4. attachment
REF:
Carranza's Clinical Periodontology: Expert Consult: Online
By Michael G. Newman, Henry Takei,;Pg 144
ANS:1
The primary colonising bacteria adhered to the tooth surface provide new receptors for
attachment by other other bacteria as a part of a process known as co-
adhesion.Together with the growth of adherent microorganisms,coadhesion leads to
the development of micro-colonies and eventually to mature biofilm.
Q.17 Match the following histo-pathological findings and choose the best combination
Ans 1. ABCD = SRPQ
2. ABCD = QPSR
3. ABCD = QRSP
4. ABCD = SPQR
ANS: 4
Q.18 Therapeutic use of Streptokinase is based on its
Ans 1. Antibacterial activity

2. Fibrinolytic activity
3. Fibrin polymerizing activity
4. Protein phosphorylizing activity

REF: Pharmacology for dentistry by Surender singh ; pg 245
ANS: 2
STREPTOKINASE:
It is a purified preparation of bacterial protein obtained from hemolytic streptococci.
It has fibrinolytic activity, prevents formation of fibrin at infected site and hence
responsible for spread of infection.
It acts by forming a complex with circulating plasminogen that binds loosely to fibrin
and it converts plasminogen to plasmin. It has no intrinsic activity. It is given by
parenteral route and has a short plasma half life.
Adverse effects include fever, allergic reactions, bleeding from different sites, rarely
anaphylaxis, arrhythmias, bronchospasm.
It is indicated in acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, deep vein

thrombosis, arterial thrombosis, acute thrombosis of central retinal vessels, extensive
coronary emboli and severe iliofemoral thrombophlebitis.
Q.19 All of these are seen in lead poisoning except

Ans 1. Peripheral neuritis
2. Hallucinations
3. GIT disturbances
4. Basophilic stippling of RBC
ANS:2
Classically, "lead poisoning" or "lead intoxication" has been defined as exposure to
high levels of lead typically associated with severe health effects.
The US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health
Organization state that a blood lead level of 10 g/dL or above is a cause for concern.
Acute poisoning
In acute poisoning, typical neurological signs are pain, muscle weakness, numbness
and tingling, and, rarely, symptoms associated with inflammation of the
brain.Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation are other acute
symptoms.Lead's effects on the mouth include astringency and a metallic
taste.Gastrointestinal problems, such as constipation, diarrhea, poor appetite, or
weight loss, are common in acute poisoning. Absorption of large amounts of lead over
a short time can cause shock (insufficient fluid in the circulatory system) due to loss of
water from the gastrointestinal tract. Hemolysis (the rupture of red blood cells) due to
acute poisoning can cause anemia and hemoglobin in the urine.Damage to kidneys
can cause changes in urination such as decreased urine output. People who survive
acute poisoning often go on to display symptoms of chronic poisoning.
Chronic poisoning
Chronic poisoning usually presents with symptoms affecting multiple systems, but is
associated with three main types of symptoms: gastrointestinal, neuromuscular, and
neurological. Central nervous system and neuromuscular symptoms usually result from
intense exposure, while gastrointestinal symptoms usually result from exposure over
longer periods.Signs of chronic exposure include loss of short-term memory or
concentration, depression, nausea, abdominal pain, loss of coordination, and
numbness and tingling in the extremities. Fatigue, problems with sleep, headaches,
stupor, slurred speech, and anemia are also found in chronic lead poisoning.A "lead
hue" of the skin with pallor and/or lividity is another feature.A blue line along the gum
with bluish black edging to the teeth, known as a Burton line, is another indication of
chronic lead poisoning. Children with chronic poisoning may refuse to play or may have
hyperkinetic or aggressive behavior disorders.Visual disturbance may present with
gradually progressing blurred vision as a result of central scotoma, caused by toxic
optic neuritis.
Q.20 The close apposition of the gingival epithelium to the tooth surface with no gain in height of
called as
Ans
1. epithelial adaptation
2. reattachment
3. new attachment
4. regeneration
REF: Carranzas clinical periodontology ;11th ed; pg 894
ANS:1
Epithelial adaptation differs from new attachment in that it is the close apposition of the
gingival epithelium to the tooth surface, with no gain in height of gingival fiber
attachment. The pocket is not completely obliterated, although it may not permit
passage of a probe.
Q.21 Balanced occlusion in complete denture is essential for

Ans:
1. Support
2. Stability
3. Retention
4. Esthetics
REF: Textbook of prosthodontics by Nallaswamy ;pg 184
ANS:2
Balanced occlusion is one of the most important factors that affect denture stability.
Absence of occlusal balance will result in leverage of the denture during mandibular
movement.
Q.22 The walking bleach technique uses
Ans 1. 0.3 percent Sodium perborate

Sodium perborate and hydrogen
2. peroxide
Combination of hydrochloric acid and
3. hydrogen peroxide
4. 30 percent Hydrogen peroxide

REF:Ingles 6th ed; Pg 1389
ANS:2
The term walking bleach was first coined by Nutting and Poe
Prepare the walking bleach paste by mixing sodium perborate and an inert liquid, such
as water, saline, or anesthetic solution, to a thick consistency of wet sand. Although
sodium perborate plus 30% H2O2 mixture may bleach faster, in most cases, long-
term results are similar to those with sodium perborate and water alone and therefore
need not be used routinely.With a plastic instrument, pack the pulp chamber with the
paste. Remove excess liquid by tamping with a cotton pellet. This also com- presses
and pushes the paste into all areas of the pulp chamber.
Q.23 Material of choice for single step border molding is

Ans
1. Low viscosity silicone
2. Polyether
3. Low fusing green stick compound
4. Alu-wax
REF:
Textbook of prosthodontics by Nallaswamy ;pg 81
ANS:2
Single step or simultaneous border moulding It is a procedure by which the entire

periphery of the tray is refined in a single step. Polyether impression material is the
material of choice because it fulfils all the requisites.
Ideal requisites for the material used for simultaneous border moulding: It should have
sufficient viscosity to remain
in position along the borders of the tray.
It should not be sticky, it should be easy to manipulate and load on deficient areas.
It should have a setting time of 3-5 minutes.
It should not displace the tissues.
It should be easily trimmed and shaped.
It should retain its flow properties when placed inside the mouth. Self-cure acrylic resin
can also be used for simultaneous border moulding, but its use is limited because of its
long-setting time and difficulty to trim.
Q.24 Rake angle for burs is negative
Ans
1. If rake face is ahead of radius
2. No answer is correct
3. If rake face is in line with radius

4. If rake face is behind radius
REF:
Textbook of Operative Dentistry by Nisha Garg, Amiit Garg; Pg 103.
ANS:1
RAKE ANGLE: Angle between rake face and the radial line.
POSITIVE RAKE ANGLE : When rake face trails the radial line.
NEGATIVE RAKE ANGLE: When rake face ahead of the radial line.
ZERO RAKE ANGLE: When rake face and radial line concise with each other
Q.25 At low levels of light, the colour perception of the eyes is lost. As the brightness becomes m
colour appears to change. This phenomenon is known as
Ans
1. Reflection Effect
2. Bezold-Brucke effect
3. Fluorescence
4. Metamerism
REF:
Phillips Dental materials 12th ed; Pg 38
ANS:2
At low light levels, the rods in the retina of the human eye are more dominant than the
cones, and color perception is lost. As the brightness becomes more intense, color
appears to change (Bezold-Brucke effect). Also, if an observer looks at a red object for
a reasonably long time, receptor fatigue causes a green hue to be seen when he or
she then looks at a white background. For this reason, if a patient is observed against
an intense-colored background, the dentist or clinician may select a tooth shade with
a hue that is shifted somewhat toward the complementary color of the background
color. For example, a blue background shifts color selection toward yellow, and an
orange background shifts the color selection toward blue-green. Unfortunately, 8% of
men and 0.5% of women exhibit color blindness . Most commonly, these people cannot
distinguish red from green because of the lack of either green-sensitive or red-sensitive
cones. However, this de ciency may not a ect the shade selection of natural teeth.
Q.26 A relatively young person complaining of a solitary, painless, fusiform enlargement of the Ma
firm and smooth and with normal overlying mucosa, has a radio opaque, ground glass appear
possible diagnosis is
Ans
1. Paget's disease
2. Fibrous Dysplasia
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Central giant cell granuloma

REF:Burketts oral medicine; pg 143
ANS:2
Fibrous dysplasia starts in childhood, presenting with a slowly progressive enlargement
of bone that generally slows or ceases with puberty.The pathogenesis is unclear. The
most widely accepted theory is that fibrous dysplasia results from an abnormality in the
development of bone-forming mesenchyme. Radiographically, fibrous dysplasia
classically presents with a ground glass appearance and may have varying degrees
of radiopacity and lucency depending on the amount of calcified material present. The
abnormal bone merges with the adjacent normal bone. CT and technetium 99m bone
scans are very useful in the diagnosis of fibrous dysplasia.
Q.27 The antioxidant agent in local anesthesia is
Ans
1. Thymol
2. Sodium bisulphite
3. Adrenalin
4. Methyl paraben
REF: Handbook of Local Anesthesia
By Stanley F. Malamed; Pg 160
ANS: 2
Local Anesthetic agent:Lignocaine HCL-2%(20mg/ml)
Vasoconstrictor: Adrenaline-1:80,000(0.012mg)
Reducing agent: Sodium Metabisulphite- 0.5mg
Preservative: Methyl paraben-0.1%(1mg)
Isotonic solution: sodium chloride-6mg
Fungicide: Thymol
Vehicle: Ringers solution
Diluting agent: Distilled Water
To ADUST ph (6-7): Sodium hydroxide
Q.28 The tooth which shows maximum morphological variations after 3rd molar is
Ans
1. Mandibular central incisor
2. Mandibular 1st premolar
3. Maxillary 1st premolar

4. Maxillary lateral incisor
REF: Wheelers Dental anatomy and histology ;
Pg 22
ANS:4
Dental anomalies are seen most often with third molars, maxillary lateral incisors, and
mandibular second premolars. Abnormally shaped crowns such as peg laterals and
mandibular second premolars with two lingual cusps present restorative and space
problems, respectively.
Q.29 One of your patients is found to be dyspnoeic. Auscultation of the Lungs revealed
bilateral diffuse wheeze. Which drug would you like to use for fastest relief?
Ans
1. Ipratropium Bromide
2. Salmeterol
3. Salbutamol
4. Monteleukast
REF: Textbook of pharmacology by surendersingh; pg 233

ANS: 3
Short-acting bronchodilators are called "quick-acting," "reliever," or "rescue"
medications. These bronchodilators relieve acute asthma symptoms or attacks very
quickly by opening the airways. The rescue medications are best for treating sudden
asthma symptoms. The action of inhaled bronchodilators starts within minutes after
inhalation and lasts for two to four hours. Short-acting bronchodilators are also used
before exercise to prevent exercise-induced asthma.
It is highly selective -adrenergic stimulant having a prominent bronchodilator action. It
has poor cardiac action compared to isoprenaline. It is given by oral as well as
inhalation route by nebulizer. Palpitation, restlessness, nervousness are the common
side effects with salbutamol.
Q.30 Mesial slope of distobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar meets its d istal slope at ----angle
Ans
1. right angle
2. obtuse angle
3. no specific angle
4. acute angle
REF: Wheelers Dental anatomy and histology ;

Pg 176
ANS: 1
The mesiobuccal cusp is broader than the distobuccal cusp, and its mesial slope meets
its distal slope at an obtuse angle. The mesial slope of the distobuccal cusp meets its
distal slope at approximately a right angle. The distobuccal cusp is therefore sharper
than the mesiobuccal cusp, and it is at least as long and often longer
Q.31 Intra septal alveoloplasty with repositioning of labial cortical bone i s also known as
Ans
1. Reads alveoloplasty
2. Obwegesser's alveoloplasty
3. Clarks alveoloplasty
4. Deans alveoloplasty
REF: Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery by Neelima Anilmalik; Pg 421
ANS: 3
Intraseptal AlveoloplastyDeans Alveoloplasty with Repositioning of Labial Cortical
Bone
Used in maxilla only (mainly in the anterior region).
Technique is usually used to reduce gross maxillary overjet.
To reduce the volume of cancellous bone, maintaining stress bearing cortical bone
intact.
Does not require raising a mucoperiosteal flap.
Carried out immediately following extractions of anterior teeth.
Maintenance of periosteal attachment to the labial plate of bone (decreases

postoperative bone resorption and helps remodeling).
It has got ability to reduce a buccal undercut or labial prominence without significantly
reducing the height of the alveolar ridge.
Overall less alveolar bone resorption than with the use of buccal reduction technique.
Best long-term results.
Indicated in cases, where adequate bone height exists, but an undercut is present on
the buccal aspect of the maxillary ridge.
Carried out at the time of multiple teeth extractions or early initial postextraction period.
Two steps(i) removal of intraseptal bone followed by (ii) repositioning of the labial
cortical bone.
Immediate denture can be planned.

Q.32 Target lesions are observed in case of
Ans
1. Lichen planus
2. Erythema multiforme
3. Pemphigus vulgaris
4. Psoriasis
REF: Burkets oral medicine 11th ed; Pg 54.
ANS:2
EM is an acute, self-limited, inflammatory mucocutaneous disease that manifests on
the skin and often oral mucosa, although other mucosal surfaces, such as the genitalia,
may also be involved.
Skin lesions appear rapidly over a few days and begin as red macules that become
papular, starting primarily in the hands and moving centripetally toward the trunk in a
symmetric distribution. The most common sites of involvement are the upper
extremities, face, and neck.The skin lesions may take several formshence the term
multiforme. The classic skin lesion consists of a central blister or necrosis with
concentric rings of variable color around it called typical target or iris lesion that is
pathognomonic of EM
Q.33 Which of the following microorganisms are commonly present in la rge percentage of root c
teeth that present with persistent periradicular lesions indicative of failed treatment?
Ans
1. Porphyromonas gingivalis
2. Tannerella forsythia
3. Enterococcus faecalis
4. Dialister invisus
REF: Textbook of endodontics by NishaGarg ;Pg 53

ANS:3
E. faecalis is considered to be most common reason for failed root canals and in
canals with persistent infection.
It is a gram-positive cocci and is facultative anaerobe. Due to presence of following

features, it can stay in root canals even in adverse conditions:
Itcanpersistinpoornutrientenvironmentofrootcanal treated teeth.

It can survive in presence of medicaments like calcium hydroxide.
It can stay alive in presence of irrigants like sodium hypochlorite.
It can convert into viable but non-cultivable state.

It can form biofilm in medicated canals.
It can penetrate and utilize fluid present in dentinal tubules.
It can survive in prolonged periods of starvation and utilize
Tissue fluid that flow from periodontal ligament.
It can survive in low pH and high temperature.
It can acquire gene encoding resistance combined with
Natural resistance to antibiotics.
It can establish monoinfections in medicated root canals.
Q.34 Which of the following is the most radio-resistant tumour?
Ans
1. Carcinoma of Maxillary sinus
2. Ewing's sarcoma
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Carcinoma of alveolus
REF:Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery by Rajiv M Borle: Pg 636
ANS:3
Although ameloblastoma is generally considered radioresistant.irradiation has been

recommended as one of the treatment modalities of the treatment of ameloblastoma in
the older literature.Although radiotherapy can reduce the size of an ameloblastoma,
Primarily that part of the tumor which has expanded the jaw or broken into the soft
tissues, it doesnot appear to be an appropriate treatment for an operable
ameloblastoma.Its main use is in inoperable cases,Primarily in the posterior maxilla.In
the recent times,this treatment modality for ameloblastoma has become obsolete.
Q.35 Any disturbance and aberrations in morphodifferentiation of the too th can lead to
Ans
1. Supernumerary teeth
2. Peg teeth
3. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
4. Enamel hypoplasia
REF:
Mccdonald dentistry child adolescent 9th ed; Pg 42
ANS:2
In the morphodifferentiation stage, the formative cells are arranged to outline the form
and size of the tooth. This process occurs before matrix deposition. The morphologic
pattern of the tooth becomes established when the inner enamel epithelium is arranged
so that the boundary between it and the odontoblasts outlines the future
dentinoenamel junction. Disturbances and aberrations in morphodifferentiation lead to
abnormal forms and sizes of teeth. Resulting conditions include peg teeth, other types
of microdontia, and macrodontia.
Q.36 Class VI according to Applegate modification of Kennedy's system i s an
Ans
1. Edentulous situation in which the teeth adjacent to space are no t capable of total support of r
prosthesis
2. Edentulous situation in which the teeth adjacent to space are ca pable of total support of re
prosthesis
3. Edentulous area bounded anteriorly and posteriorly by natural t eeth but in which posterior
suitable
4. Edentulous area bounded anteriorly and posteriorly by natural t eeth but in which anterior a
suitable
REF:
Textbook of Prosthodontics by Nallaswamy; Pg 284
ANS:2
Applegates Classification or Kennedy-Applegates Classification
Applegate modified Kennedys classification in 1960 and enumerated the following six
classes:
Class I: All remaining teeth anterior to bilateral edentulous areas .
Class II: Remaining teeth of either right or left side anterior to the unilateral edentulous
area (unilateral free-end)
Class III: The edentulous space bounded by teeth anteriorly and posteriorly
Class IV: The edentulous space anterior to the remaining natural teeth, which bound
it both to the right and left of the midline .
Class V: A space bounded by teeth at its anterior and posterior terminals. (It differs
from class 3 in that the edentulous space is long with weak anterior teeth)
Class VI: Same as class 3 but the restoration can be fabricated to be entirely tooth
borne
Q.37 Base paste in Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste consists of all o f the following except
Ans
1. Zinc oxide
2. Fixed vegetable oil
3. Mineral oil
4. Oil of cloves
REF: Phillips Dental materials 12th ed ; Pg 178
ANS:4
2
Composition of a Zinc OxideEugenol Impression Paste
Tube No. 1 (base):
Zinc oxide (French-processed or USP) 87 %
Fixed vegetable or mineral oil 13 %
Tube No. 2 (accelerator):
Oil of cloves or eugenol 12%
Gum or polymerized rosin 50%

Filler (silica type) 20%
Lanolin 3%
Resinous balsam 10%
Accelerator solution (CaCl2) and color 5%
Q.38 In Scammon's curves for growth of the four major tissue systems o f the body, the S - shape
indicates
Ans 1. Genital tissue
2. General body tissue
3. Neural tissue
4. Lymphoid tissue
REF: Textbook of Orthodontics by Gurkeeratsingh ; Pg 10

ANS:2
Different tissues in the body grow at different times and different rates. Therefore, the
amount of growth accomplished at a particular age is variable. Scammon divided the
tissues in the body into:
a. Neural tissues
b. Lymphoid tissues
c. Somatic/general tissues (muscles, bone, viscera).
d. Genital tissues
Neural tissues complete 90 percent of their growth by 6 years and 96 percent by 10

years of age
Lymphoid tissues reach 100 percent adult size by 7 years: proliferate far beyond the
adult size in late childhood (200% by 14 years) and involute around the onset of
puberty
Somatic tissues show an S-shape curve with defi- nite slowing of growth rate during
childhood and acceleration at puberty going on till age 20
Growth of the genital tissues accelerate rapidly around the onset of puberty
Q.39 which one of the cutaneous mechanoreceptors is best suited to encode the
information regarding vibration at 60-300 Hz sense?
Ans
1. Ruffini endings
2. Pacinian corpuscles
3. Merkels disks
4. Meissners corpuscles
REF: Guytons Textbook of medical Physiology ; Pg 587
ANS: 2
All tactile receptors are involved in detection of vibration, although different receptors
detect different frequencies of vibration. Pacinian corpuscles can detect signal
vibrations from 30 to 800 cycles per second because they respond extremely rapidly to
minute and rapid deformations of the tissues, and they also transmit their signals over
type Ab nerve fibers, which can transmit as many as 1000 impulses per second. Low-
frequency vibrations from 2 up to 80 cycles per second, in contrast, stimulate other
tactile receptors, especially Meissners corpuscles, which are less rapidly adapting
than pacinian corpuscles.
Q.40 Delta clasps are used bilaterally to anchor the appliance in
Ans
1. Frankel
2. Twin block
3. Bionator
4. Activator
REF: Textbook of Orthodontics by Gurkeeratsingh: Pg 531
ANS: 2
DELTA CLASPS
After initial use of the Adams clasp, Clark introduced the delta clasp in 1985. The basic
premise was to reduce the incidence of breakages (as seen with the Adams clasp) due
to repeated adjustments and consequent metal fatigue.
They are used bilaterally to anchor the twinblock applaince
Q.41 In a case of zygomatic arch fracture, which of the following radiogr aph is used
Ans
1. Lateral skull view
2. Transorbital view
3. Submento-vertex view
4. Orthopantomogram
REF: Textbook of oral radiology by White and paraoh; Pg 213
ANS:3
SUBMENTOVERTEX (BASE) PROJECTION
Image Receptor and Patient Placement '"
The image receptor is positioned parallel to patient's transverse plane and

perpendicular to the midsagittal and coronal planes.To achieve this,the patient's neck is
extended as far backwards as possiBle,with the canthomeatal line forming a 10-degree
angle with the image receptor.
Position of the Central X-Ray BeamThe central beam is perpendicular to the image
receptor, directed from below the mandible towards the vertex of the skull (hence the
name submentovertex, SMV), and centered about 2 cm anterior to a line connecting
the right and left condyles.
Resultant Image :The midsagittal plane (represented by an imaginary line extending

from the interproximal space of the maxillary central incisors through the nasal septum,
to the middle of the anterior arch of the atlas,and to the dens) should divide the skull
image in two symmetric halves. The buccal arid lingual cortical plates of the mandible
should be projected as uniform opaque lines. An underexposed view is required for the
evaluation of the zygomatic arches as they will be overexposed or "burned out" on
radiographs obtained with normal exposure factors.
Q.42 Water to Powder ratio of type II plaster is

Ans
1. 0.50 : 0.75
2. 0.22 : 0.24
3. 0.45 : 0.50
4. 0.28 : 0.3
REF: Phillips Dental materials ; Pg 189

ANS:3
the set plaster or stone is porous, and the greater the W/P ratio, the greater the
porosity. As might be expected on such a basis, the greater is the W/P ratio, the less is
the dry strength of the set material
Type 1(plaster,impression): 0.50-0.75

Type 2( plaster,model): 0.45-0.50
Type 3( Dental stone):
0.28-0.30
Type 4( Dental stone, high strength): 0.22-0.24
Type 5( High strength, high expansion): 0.18-0.22
Q.43 Tungsten is used in the X-ray tube as anode because of the following properties
Ans
1. Low atomic number, high melting point and low vapour pressure
2. High atomic number, high melting point and low vapour pressur e
3. High atomic number, high melting point and high vapour pressure
4. High atomic number, low melting point and low vapour pressure
REF:Textbook of oral radiology by White and paraoh; Pg 8
ANS:2
The anode consists of a tungsten target embedded in a copper stem . The purpose of
the target in an x-ray tube is to convert the kinetic energy of the electrons generated
from the filament into x-ray photons. This is an inefficient process with more than 99%
of the electron kinetic energy converted to heat. The target is made of tungsten, a
material that has several characteristics of an ideal target material. It has a high atomic
number , high melting point, high thermal conductivity, and low vapor pressure at the
working temperatures of an x-ray tube.
Q.44 The maximum amount of mercury vapours allowed in the workplace
Ans
1. 25 micrograms per cubic mm

REF:
Biogeochemical, Health, and Ecotoxicological Perspectives on Gold and Gold
by Ronald Eisler ;Pg 104
ANS:4
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sets a legally enforceable
3
ceiling limit for workplace exposure at 100 micrograms per cubic meter (g/m ).
Mercury concentration cannot exceed this level at any time during the work day. The
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) sets its recommended
3
exposure limit (REL) for mercury vapor at 50 g/m as a time weighted average
(TWA). The American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH),
3
recommends a threshold limit value (TLV) of 25 g/m mercury vapor
Q.45 A non invasive way of evaluating implant stability by impact resistance
Ans
1. bone sounding
2. Probing
3. Periotest
4. transgingival probing
REF: Crranzas clinical periodontology 11 th ed ;Pg 1694
ANS: 3
Originally designed to evaluate tooth mobility quantitatively, the Periotest (Gulden,
Bensheim, Germany) is a noninvasive, electronic device that provides an objective
measurement of the reaction of the periodontium to a defined impact load applied to
the tooth crown. The Periotest value depends to some extent on tooth mobility but
mainly on the damping characteristics of the periodontium. Despite the dependence on
the periodontium, the Periotest has been used to evaluate implant stability as well.
However, unlike teeth, the movement of implants and the surrounding bone is
minuscule, and therefore the Periotest values fall within a much smaller range
compared to the range found with teeth. Detection of horizontal mobility may be a
significant advantage for the use of the Periotest because it is much more sensitive to
horizontal movement than similar detection by other means, such as manual
assessment.Additionally, many variables have been associated with the use of the
Periotest related to positioning of the device.
Resonance frequency analysis (RFA) is another noninvasive method used to measure

the stability of implants.[58] This method uses a transducer that is attached to the
implant or abutment. A steady-state signal is applied to the implant through the
transducer, and a response is measured.
Q.46 Incisional biopsy should include
Ans
1. Pathologic with normal tissue as well
2. Only normal tissue
3. Only dysplastic tissue

4. Only pathologic tissue
REF:
Textbook of Oral surgery by Neelima anilmalik ;pg 17
ANS:1
Biopsy
The term biopsy most often indicates the removal of tissue from a living subject for
histological evaluation and analysis. It is important for the clinician to obtain a proper
specimen from the lesion for evaluation.
Punch Biopsy
A small part of the lesion is obtained as specimen using a punch. This technique is of
particular use in mucosal lesions from inaccessible regions that cannot be reached by
conventional methods. The technique produces some amount of crushing or distortion
of the tissues.
Incisional Biopsy
When there is a large diffuse lesion, a representative section of the lesion is incised
with the help of a scalpel along with the normal tissue and sent for histopathological
evaluation. The depth of the biopsy should be enough to obtain a representative area
of the lesion. Usually an elliptical, wedge-shaped tissue is obtained with the V of the
wedge converging into the deeper tissues.
Excisional Biopsy
Excisional biopsy is taken if the lesion is extremely small in size. In these cases the
entire lesion is excised in toto at the same sitting and sent for histopathological
examination. It is a combination of diagnostic and ablative procedure and is suitable for
lesions < 1 cm.
Q.47 Match the folowing and choose the best combination

Ans
1. ABCD = RPSQ
2. ABCD = PRSQ
3. ABCD = RPQS
4. ABCD = SRQP
ANS: 1
Q.48 Thrombocytopenia is seen in which of the following syndromes

Ans
1. Turner's Syndrome
2. Wiscott - Aldrich Syndrome
3. Treacher - Collins Syndrome

4. Zollinger - Ellison Syndrome
REF: Textbook of oral pathology;shafers ;Pg 790
ANS:2
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked recessive genetic condition with
variable expression, commonly includes immunoglobulin M (IgM) deficiency. This
disorder is a severe congenital immunodeficiency, found almost exclusively in boys.
This syndrome results from an X-linked genetic defect in a protein now termed Wiskott-
Aldrich syndrome protein (WASp). The gene resides on Xp11. 2223, and its
expression is limited to cells of hematopoietic lineage. The exact function of WASp is
not fully elucidated, but it seems to function as a bridge between signaling and actin
polymerization in the cytoskeleton.
Clinical Features. The disease is characterized by thrombocytopenic purpura, eczema,

usually beginning on the face, and a markedly increased susceptibility to infection due
to cellular and humoral immunodeficiency and an increased risk of autoimmune
disease and hematologic malignancy. Petechiae and a purpuric rash or ecchymoses of
the skin may be early signs of the disease.
Q.49.This patient with thekind of lesion shown in the image has come with history of
developing such ulcers repeatedly along with redness of eyes and scrotal ulcers. His
treatment options include all the following drugs except
Ans
1. Colchicine
2. Thalidomide
3. Pentoxyphyllin
4. Pilocarpin
REF: Pharmacology in dentistry by surendersingh ;pg 158
ANS:4
PILOCARPINE
It is a natural alkaloid obtained from leaves of Pilocarpus microphyllus and Pilocarpus
jaborandi. Pilocarpine is direct acting muscarinic agonist. It acts on M receptor. It

produces contraction of iris to produce miosis. It also stimulates ciliary muscle resulting
in increased accommodation and improved outflow of aqueous humor. As a result of
miosis the pressure on canal of Schlemm is reduced and hence improves drainage and
thus reduces intraocular pressure. Thus it is useful in treatment of glaucoma.
Pilocarpine when given IV increases the flow from salivary gland and other exocrine
glands. Bronchial smooth muscle and intestinal smooth muscle contract. Small doses
generally cause fall in BP, but higher doses elicit rise in BP and tachycardia (which is
due to ganglionic stimulation).
Therapeutic Uses
a. Open angle glaucoma.
b. Angle closure glaucoma.
c. Ocular surgery.
d. To counteract mydriasis.
e. Diagnosis ofAdies tonic pupil.
f. Accommodative esotropia.
Q.50 The aminoacid carboxylated by vitamin K is

Ans
1. Aspartate
2. Proline
3. Histidine
4. Glutamate
REF:
Chemistry and Biochemistry of the Amino Acids
edited by Graham Barrett ;Pg 190
ANS:4
Shah and suitte showed that the carboxylation occurred after synthesis of the protein
was vitamin-K dependent carboxylase was then also identified in kidney and bone,both
of which contain calcium binding proteins that are rich in gamma-carboxyglutamate.
Q.51 Surgical approach of "ACCELERATED OSTEOGENIC ORTHODONTICS

Ans
1. Early extraction of teeth with fixed appliance
2. Extraction of teeth with orthopaedic appliances
3. Early extraction of teeth
4. Corticotomy and bone grafting on facial surface

REF: Contemporary orthodontics by William Proffitt; Pg 301
ANS:4
More recently, rapid tooth movement after corticotomy has come to be viewed as a
demineralization/remineralization phenomenon that produces a regional acceleration of
bone remodeling that allows faster tooth movement, rather than movement of blocks of
bone that contain a tooth. Now, lighter force to move teeth more physiologically while
taking advantage of more widespread remodeling of alveolar bone is recommended,
and the surgical approach has been broadened into accelerated osteogenic
orthodontics (AOO) by adding areas of decortication over the facial surfaces of
alveolar bone that are then covered with particulate bone grafting material
(demineralized freeze-dried bone or a mixture of this with bovine bone or allograft
bone;This adds modeling (changing the external shape of bone) to remodeling after
local injury. One of the risks of expansion of the dental arches, of course, is
fenestration of the alveolar bone, and the AOO approach is said to generate new bone
that allows facial movement of teeth without this risk.
Q.52 Sublingual chlorhexidin is called
Ans
1. Periotest
2. Arestin
3. Periochip
4. Atridox
REF: Carranzas clinical Periodontology ;Pg 1168
ANS:3
PerioChip is a small chip (4.0 5.0 0.35 mm) composed of a biodegradable
hydrolyzed gelatin matrix, cross-linked with glutaraldehyde and also containing glycerin
and water, into which 2.5 mg of chlorhexidine gluconate has been incorporated per
chip. This delivery system releases chlorhexidine and maintains drug concentrations in
the GCF greater than 100 g/ml for at least 7 days,concentrations well above the
tolerance of most oral bacteria.Because the chip biodegrades in 7 to 10 days, a
second appointment for removal is not needed.
Q.53.This patient presented with dryness of mouth. On questioning he was

complaining of dry eyes also. His treatment modalities include all of the following
except
Ans
1. Anticholinergics
2. Pilocarpin
3. Artificial Tears
4. Steroids
REF: Pharmacology for dentistry by Surendersingh; Pg 161.
ANS:1
Anticholinergic or cholinergic blocking agents are the agents which block the action of
acetylcholine at the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve endings. They are also
termed as antimuscarinic or muscarinic blockers and atropine is the classical
antagonist which blocks the effect of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors. The
nicotinic antagonists also block certain actions of acetylcholine and are termed as
ganglion blocking agents.
Effect on secretions: Atropine reduces the various body secretions e.g. sweat, salivary,
bronchial and lacrimal etc. It also reduces the volume and total acidity of gastric
secretion and, reduce the secretion of mucin and enzymes in the gastric secretions
induced by cholinergic drugs.
It has no significant effect on intestinal and pancreatic secretions.
Q.54 Blue coloured reamer is numbered as
Ans
1. 25 and 60
2. 60 and 90
3. 10 and 30
4. 30 and 60
REF: Ingles Endodontics 5th ed; Pg 475
ANS:4
HANDLE SIZE :
08 Gray
10 Purple
15,45,90,150 white
20,50,100 Yellow
25,55,110 Red
30,60,120 Blue
35,70,130 - Green
40,80,140 Black
Q.55 Which of the following is a non-opioid analgesic and does not inhibit Prostaglandin synth
Ans
1. Nefopam
2. Piroxicam
3. Tenoxicam
4. Ketorolac
REF: Textbook for Pharmacology by Tripathi;Pg 199
ANS:1
Nefopam It is a non opioid analgesic which does not inhibit PG synthesis and acts
rapidly in traumatic and postoperative pain Favourable results have been obtained in
short-lasting musculoskeletal pain.
Nefopam produces anticholinergic (dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision) and
sympathomimetic (tachycardia, nervousness) side effects, and nausea is often dose
limiting It is contraindicated in epilepticsDose:30-+0 mg TDS oral, 20 mg i.m. 6 hourly.
Q.56 Hemolytic anemia in patients taking anti-malarial drug Primaquin can be attributed to the de
Ans
1. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
2. Glucose 6-phosphatase
3. Glycogen phosphorylase
4. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

REF:
Patient-Centered Pharmacology: Learning System for the Conscientious Prescribeby
William N Tindall;Pg 359
ANS:1
Primaquine: Prophylaxis and treatment of malaria in areas where there is known
resistance to chloroquine and in paediatric and obstetric patients; post exposure
prevention for re-lapsing malaria or eradication of malaria when there is liver
involvement; also used in treatment
Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency may experience

haemolytic anaemia or leukopenia when taking chloroquine or primaquine.
Q.57 If the X-ray beam is oriented at right angles to the object, but not tothe film, then it
results in
Ans
1. Blurring of image
2. Foreshortening of image
3. Same size of image

4. Elongation of image
REF: Oral Radiology ; White and Paraoh
;Pg 87.
ANS: 4
Image shape distortion is minimized when the long axes of the film and tooth are
parallel. When central ray of the x-ray beam is perpendicular to the film, but the object
is not parallel to the film. The resultant image is distorted because of the unequal
distances of the various parts of the object from the film. This type of shape distortion is
called foreshortening because it causes the radiographic image to be shorter than the
object.
when the x-ray beam is oriented at right angles to the object but not the film. This
results in elongation, with the object appearing longer on the film than its actual length.
Q.58 Liesegang rings are found in

Ans
1. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
2. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
3. Primordial cyst
4. Dentigerous cyst
REF: Shafers Textbook of oral pathology ;Pg 285
ANS:1
Another characteristic feature of the Pindborg tumor is the presence of calcification,
sometimes in large amounts, and often in the form of Liesegang rings. This calcification
actually appears to occur in some instances in globules of the amyloid like material,
many of which have coalesced and are transformed from being PAS (periodic acid-
Schiff)-negative to PAS-positive during this calcification process. There does not
appear to be necessarily a relationship between the amount of amyloid material formed
in a given lesion and the amount of calcification occurring.
Q.59 The number of walls in the apical portion of the defect is often greater than that of its occlus
reffered to as
Ans
1. Osseous craters
2. Combined osseous defect
3. horizontal defect
4. vertical defect
REF: Carranzas Clinical Periodontology ;Pg 338
ANS:2
Angular defects were classified by Goldman and Cohen on the basis of the number of
osseous walls.[16] Angular defects may have one, two, or three walls . The number of
walls in the apical portion of the defect is often greater than that in its occlusal portion,
in which case the term combined osseous defect is used
Q.60 Bohn's nodules are

Ans
1. Cystic swellings in neonates
2. Cysts associated with soft palate
3. Warts on the tongue
4. Cysts of gingiva in growing children

REF: Shafers Textbook of oral pathology ; Pg 267
ANS:1
Dental Lamina Cyst of Newborn
(Gingival cyst of newborn, Epsteins pearls, Bohns nodules)
Dental lamina cyst of the newborn are multiple, occasionally solitary, superficial raised
nodules on edentulous alveolar ridges of infants that resolve without treatment; derived
from rests of the dental lamina and consisting of keratin-producing epithelial lining.
Bohns nodules and Epsteins pearls are two similar lesions with which gingival cysts
sometimes may be confused; however, the location and etiology of these lesions are
somewhat different. As originally described, Epsteins pearls are cystic, keratin-filled
nodules found along the mid palatine raphe, probably derived from entrapped epithelial
remnants along the line of fusion . Bohns nodules are keratin-filled cysts scattered
over the palate, most numerous along the junction of the hard and soft palate and
apparently derived from palatal salivary gland structures
Q.61 Most likely physiological side effect of dental amalgam is
Ans
1. Coomb's type I hypersensitivity
2. Coombs type II hypersensitivity
3. Coomb's type III hypersensitivity

4. Coomb's type IV hypersensitivity
REF:
Phillips Dental materials ; Pg 359
ANS:4
Typically, allergic responses represent an antigen-antibody reaction marked by itching,
rashes, sneezing, and difficulty in breathing, with swelling or other symptoms. Contact
dermatitis or Coombs type IV hypersensitivity reactions represent the most likely
physiologic side effects to dental amalgam, but these reactions are experienced by
less than 1% of the treated population. To confirm suspicions of true hypersensitivity,
especially when a reaction has been sustained for 2 weeks or more, the patient should
be evaluated by an allergist. A small percentage of people are allergic to mercury, just
as a certain number of people are allergic to many other metallic elements. When such
a reaction has been documented by an allergist, an alternative material, such as a
composite or ceramic material, must be used. However, none of these materials has
yet been proven to be safer, in all respects, than dental amalgam.
Q.62 Oral hairy leukoplakia is a

Ans
1. Vascular hamartoma
2. Fungal infection
3. Epstein Barr virus infection
4. Inflammatory condition
REF: Shafers Textbook of oral pathology ;Pg
360
ANS:3
Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) was first reported by Greenspan and coworkers in 1984
on the lateral margin of the tongue among young homosexual males. The term hairy
leukoplakia was given because of the corrugated surface of the epithelium. Initially this
lesion was observed exclusively in male homosexuals. Further reports indicated their
prevalence among other risk groups for AIDS (IDUs, transfusion recipients,
hemophiliacs) and in certain immunocompromised HIV seronegative patients.
The association of these lesions with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) has been demonstrated
by immunohistochemistry, electron microscopy and in situ hybridization. It has been
hypothesized that basal epithelial cells of the lateral margin of the tongue normally
harbor latent EBV and significant diminution of Langerhans cells by HIV, in the affected
site, permits reactivation of EBV with subsequent epithelial hyperplasia. It must be
noted that EBV is associated with several forms of lymphoma in HIV-positive patients.
Q.63 Furcation defect is detected by the use of
Ans
1. Nabers probe
2. Marquins probe
3. Williams probe
4. CPITN probe
REF: Carranzas Clinical Periodontology
;Pg 840
ANS:1
Definitive diagnosis of furcation involvement is made by clinical examination, which
includes careful probing with a specially designed probe (e.g., Nabers). Radiographs
are helpful, but root superimposition, caused by anatomic variations and/or improper
technique, can obscure radiographic representation of furcation involvement. As a
general rule, bone loss is greater than it appears in the radiograph.
Q.64 In Quad helix appliance, activation of anterior helices produce

Ans
1. Posterior expansion
2. No expansion is produced at all

3. Anterior expansion
4. Both anterior and posterior expansion

REF: Textbook of Orthodontics by Gurkeeratsingh ; Pg 594
ANS:1
Quad helix is activated by opening the helices. The activation of anterior helices
produces posterior expansion and activation of posterior helices produce causes
anterior expansion. Three months of retention are recommended with this appliance.
Q.65 The cells which produce enamel are

Ans
1. ameloblasts
2. osteoblasts
3.cementoblasts
4. odontoblasts
REF: Tencates Oral histology ;Pg 128.
ANS:1
Amelogenesis, or enamel formation, is a two-step process. When enamel rest forms, it
mineralizes only partially to approximately 30% . Subsequently, as the organic matrix
breaks down and is removed, crystals grow wider and thicker. is process whereby
organic matrix and water are lost and mineral is added accentuates a er the full
thickness of the enamel layer has been formed to attain greater than 96% mineral
content.
Ameloblasts secrete matrix proteins and are responsible for creating and maintaining
an extracellular environment favorable to mineral deposition.
Q.66 Number of major cusps in mandibular first molar is

Ans
1. 2
2. 6
3. 4
4. 3
REF: Wheelers Dental anatomy
;Pg 198
ANS: 3
From a developmental viewpoint, all mandibular molars have four major cusps,
whereas maxillary molars have only three major cusp.
All mandibular molars, including the first molar, are essentially quadrilateral in form.
The mandibular first molar, in most instances, has a functioning distal cusp, although it
is small in comparison with the other cusps. Occasionally, four-cusp first molars are
found, and more often, one discovers first molars with distobuccal and distal cusps
showing fusion with little or no trace of a distobuccal developmental groove between
them
Q.67The instrument shown here is useful for
Ans
1. To condense amalgam
2. Removal of Crown
3. Removal of Broken instrument

4. For Vital Bleaching
ANS: 2
A proprietary crown remover being used to dislodge a retainer. The device has a spring
loading system that delivers a jolt through the hook. In order to apply the jolt, the
retainer should have a prominent or open margin.There is a risk of tooth fracture if too
large a force is used.
Q.68 Green ridge is

Ans
1. Residual ridge which is in green color
2. Provides good support for the dentures
3. Contains bony spicules or undercuts with thin mucosal covering

4. Alveolar ridge that has been edentulous for a long time
ANS:3
Green ridge has bony spicules remaining from the extraction sites or
bony undercuts with a thin mucosal covering.
Q.69 Which of the following is not a treament for tumors of the jaw
Ans
1. Enucleation
2. Resection
3. Enucleation with curettage

4. Marsupialisation
REF: Petersons Principles of Oral and
maxillofacial surgery; Pg 577
ANS:4
. Marsupialization (Decompression) Principle Marsupialization,(Partsch)or
decompression, refers to creating a surgical window in the wall of the cyst, and
evacuation of the cystic contents. This process decreases intra-cystic pressure and
promotes shrinkage of the cyst and bone fill. The only portion that is removed is the
piece removed to produce the window. Indications
. Age: In a young child, with developing tooth germs, or when development of the
displaced teeth has not progressed, enucleation would damage the tooth buds.
In the elderly, debilitated patient, marsupialization, is less stressful and a reasonable

alternative. Proximity to vital structures When proximity of the cyst to vital structures,
could create an oronasal or oroantral fistula, injure neurovascular structures or damage
vital teeth, then marsupialization should be considered.
Eruption of teeth In a young patient with a dentigerous or pseudofollicular keratocyst,

marsupialization will permit the eruption of the unerupted tooth or any other developing
teeth that have been displaced.
Size of cyst In very large cysts, where enucleation, could result in a pathological
fracture, marsupialization, can be accomplished, through a more limited bony opening.
Vitality of teeth When the apices of many adjacent erupted teeth, are involved within a
large cyst, enucleation could prejudice the vitality of these teeth.
Q.70 Cooley's anemia is also known as
Ans
1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
2. Thalassemia
3. Hemophilia-B
4. Aplastic anemia
REF:Harshmohan Textbook of pathology
;Pg 323
ANS:2
-thalassaemia major, also termed Mediterranean or Cooleys anaemia is the most
common form of congenital haemolytic anaemia. -thalassaemia major is a
homozygous state with either complete absence of -chain synthesis ( thalassaemia
major) or only small amounts of -chains are formed ( + thalassaemia major). These
result in excessive formation of alternate haemoglobins, HbF ( 2 2) and HbA2 (2
2).
Q.71 Prosthesis used to close congenital or acquired opening in the palate is called
Ans
1. Stent
2. Swing lock denture
3. Splint
4. Obturator
REF: Textbook of prosthodontics by Nallaswamy ; Pg 706
ANS:4
Obturators
An obturator can be defined as, A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired

tissue opening, primarily of the hard palate and/or contiguous alveolar structures.
Prosthetic restoration of the defect often includes use of a surgical obturator, interim
obturator, and definitive obturator GPT
Rehabilitation of maxillary resection is done in three phases. During the first phase, a
surgical obturator is placed. An interim obturator is placed in the second phase and a
definitive obturator is placed during the third or final phase.
It is of two types namely,
Immediate surgical obturator: It is inserted at the time of surgery
Delayed surgical obturator: It is inserted 7-10 days after surgery.
Interim obturators:It is defined as, A prosthesis that is made several weeks or months
following the surgical resection of a portion of one or both maxillae. It frequently
includes replacement of teeth in the defect area. This prosthesis, when used, replaces
the surgical obturator that is placed immediately following the resection and may be
subsequently replaced with a definitive obturator GPT.
Definitive obturators:It is defined as, A prosthesis that artificially replaces part or all of
the maxilla and the associated teeth lost due to surgery or trauma GPT.
Based on the Material Used Based on the material used, obturators can be classified
into: Metal obturators Resin obturators Silicone obturators
Based on the Area of Restoration Palatal obturator Meatal obturator
Q.72 Replacement resorption is characterized by
Ans
1. Acute inflammation
2. Pain
3. Apical pathosis
4. Tooth ankylosis
REF:
Principles and Practice Of Pedodontics
By Arathi Rao; Pg 326.
ANS:4
REPLACEMENT RESORPTION: It is characterised by continuous replacement of root
surface with bone ,resulting in ankylosis.
INFLAMMATORY RESORPTION: This is characterised by development of bowl
shaped areas of resorption of cementum and dentin associated with inflammatory
changes consisting of granulation tissue with numerous lymphocytes,plasma cells and
PMNL.
Q.73 Category 2 root resorption accompanying orthodontic treatment ca n be defined as
Ans 1. No apical root resorption

Severe resorption Greater than one fourth of root
2. length
3. Moderate resorption, upto one fourth of root length
4. Slight blunting
REF:Textbook of orthodontics by William profit;Pg 312.
ANS:3
Root resorption accompanying orthodontic treatment can be placed into three
categories as illustrated here for maxillary central and lateral incisors:
A, Category 1: slight blunting;
B, category 2: moderate resorption, up to of root length;
C, category 3: severe resorption, greater than of root length.
Q.74 Hopkins -Cole test is performed on proteins to detect the presence of
Ans 1. Guanidine group
2. Imidazole group
3. Indole group
4. Phenolic group
REF : Wikipedia
ANS: 3
The Hopkins-Cole reaction, also known as the glyoxylic acid reaction, is a chemical
test used for detecting the presence of tryptophan in proteins. A protein solution is
mixed with Hopkins Cole reagent, which consists of glyoxylic acid. Concentrated
sulfuric acid is slowly added to form two layers. A purple ring appears between the two
layers if the test is positive for tryptophan. Nitrites, chlorates, nitrates and excess
chlorides prevent the reaction from occurring.
The indole moiety of tryptophan reacts with glyoxilic acid in the presence of
concentrated sulphuric acid to give a purple colored product.
Q.75 All the drugs given below can be used to protect gastric ulcer except
Ans 1. Magnesium hydroxide
2. Sucralfate
3. Misoprostol
4. Colloidal bismuth salt

REF:
Textbook of pharmacology by surendersingh; pg 265
ANS:1
Drugs which reduce gastric acid secretion
i. H2-receptor antagonists Cimetidine (CIMETIN) Ranitidine (HISTAC) Famotidine

(FACID) Roxatidine (ZORPEX) Also available Nizatidine, Loxatidine.
ii. Proton pump inhibitor Omeprazole (OMIZAC) Pantoprazole (PANTOCID) Rabeprazole

(VELOZ) Also available Esomeprazole, Lansoprazole
iii. Prostaglandin analogues Misoprostol (CYTOTEC) Enprostil
II. Ulcer healing agentsCarbenoxolone sodium (GASTRIULCER)
III. Ulcer protective agents Sucralfate (SUCRASE)
IV. Antacids (Neutralize gastric acid) Systemic antacidsSodium bicarbonate
Nonsystemic antacids Magnesium carbonate ,
Magnesium hydroxide (MILK OF MAGNESIA) Magnesium trisilicateAluminium

hydroxide gel (ALUDROX) Magaldrate (STACID)m carbonate
Q.76 Articulators work by
Ans 1. Duplicating jaw movements
2. Reproduce the bennet movements
3. Simulating the jaw movements
Have condylar movement

4.
REF:
Textbook of prosthodontics Nallaswamy ;pg 153
ANS:3
. Purpose of an Articulator
To hold the maxillary and mandibular casts in a determined fixed relationship.
To simulate the jaw movements like opening and closing.
To produce border movements (extreme lateral and protrusive movements) and

intraborder movements (within the border movement) of the teeth similar to those in the
mouth .
Q.77 The heavy force and rapid expansion should not be used in pre-school children because of
producing
Ans 1. Halitosis
2. Intolerable pain
3. Undesirable changes in the nose at that age
4. Mobility of teeth
REF:
Contemporary Orthodontics By william profit ;5th ed ; pg 240
ANS:3
It is important to realize that heavy force and rapid expansion should not be used in
preschool children because of the risk of producing undesirable changes in the nose at
that age . After adolescence, there is an increasing chance with advancing age that
bone spicules will have interlocked the suture to such an extent that it cannot be forced
open, and at that point surgery to reduce the resistance to expansion is the only way to
widen the palate.
Q.78 The needle insertion position for inferior alveolar nerve block in children should be
Ans
1. Lower and posteriorly than in adults
2. Higher and posteriorly than in adults
3. Higher and anteriorly than in adults

4. Lower and anteriorly than in adults
REF:
McDonald dentistry child adolescent 9th ed; pg 242.
ANS:1
Olsen reported that the mandibular foramen is situated at a level lower than the
occlusal plane of the primary teeth of the pediatric patient.Therefore the injection must
be made slightly lower and more posteriorly than for an adult patient. An accepted
technique is one in which the thumb is laid on the occlusal surface of the molars, with
the tip of the thumb resting on the internal oblique ridge and the ball of the thumb
resting in the retro molar fossa. Firm support during the injection procedure can be
given when the ball of the middle finger is resting on the posterior border of the
mandible. The barrel of the syringe should be directed on a plane between the two
primary molars on the opposite side of the arch. It is advisable to inject a small amount
of the solution as soon as the tissue is penetrated and to continue to inject minute
quantities as the needle is directed toward the mandibular foramen.
The depth of insertion averages about 15 mm but varies with the size of the mandible
and its changing proportions depending on the age of the patient.
Q.79 Intracoronal restoration resists displacement mainly by
Ans
1. sleeve retention
2. Wedge retention
3. All answers are wrong

4. Veneer retention
REF: Textbook of prosthodontics by Shillingberg ; Pg 119
ANS:2
An extracoronal restoration is an example of veneer, or sleeve, retention . The
opposing surfaces can also be internal, such as the buccal and lingual walls of the
proximal box of a proximo-occlusal inlay . An intracoronal restoration resists
displacement by wedge retention . Many restorations are a combination of the two
types.
Q.80 If the origin of the masseter muscle is more medial on the Zygomatic arch (ramus perpendic
in the distobuccal area
Ans 1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
4. Increases then decreases

REF:
ANS:1
Q.81 Premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth is seen in
Ans
1. Hypophosphatasia
2. increased phosphate levels
3. hyperparathyroidism
4. Hypothyroidism
REF: Shafers Textbook of oral pathology ;Pg 703
ANS:1
Hypophosphatasia
(Hypophosphatasemia)
Initially recognized by Rathbun in 1948, hypophosphatasia is a rare inherited metabolic

disease of decreased tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase and defective bone
mineralization. Varying widely in its clinical presentation, it has been subdivided into
five categories known as perinatal, infantile, childhood, adult, and
odontohypophosphatasia.
Oral Manifestations. The earliest manifestation of the disease may be loosening and
premature loss of deciduous teeth, chiefly the incisors. There are varying reports of
gingivitis; however it does not seem to be a consistent feature of the disease. The
differential diagnoses include achondrogenesis, osteogenesis imperfecta, rickets and
thanatophoric dysplasia.
Q.82 An investigator wants to determine an association between sugar exposure and dental carie
the relative risk. Select the most appropriate study design
Ans
1. Experimental study
2. Case control study
3. Cross-sectional study
4. Cohort study
REF: Mahajan & Gupta Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine 4th ed; pg 34
ANS:4
. Cohort: A well-defined group of people who share some common characteristic or
experience called cohort. A group of people born during a particular year is called birth
cohort, a cohort of smokers has the experience of smoking in common. There are two
cohorts in cohort study, one of them is described as exposed cohort (exposed to the
putative cause or condition) and other is unexposed or reference cohort (not exposed
to the putative cause or condition). There may be more than two cohorts when
exposure is classified according to level or type of exposure.
. Indication: When exposures are uncommon but incidence of disease among the
exposed group is comparatively high then cohort study may be suitable one (e.g.
radiation exposure).
Q.83 Match the following and choose the best combination -

Ans
1. ABCD = SRQP
2. ABCD = QPSR
3. ABCD = SPQR
4. ABCD = QSPR
ANS:4
Q.84 What is the pH of set MTA
Ans
1. 12.5
2. 8.5
3. 14
4. 10
REF: Textbook of endodontics by

Nisha Garg ;Pg 297
ANS:1
pH of MTA is 12.5, thus having its biological and histological properties similar to
calcium hydroxide. Setting time is 2 hours and 45 minutes. In contrast to Ca(OH) 2, it
produces hard setting non resorbable surface.
Because of being hydrophilic in nature, it sets in a moist environment. It has low

solubility and shows resistance to marginal leakage. It also exhibits excellent
biocompatibility in relation with vital tissues.
Q.85 Impaction with the highest difficulty index

Ans 1. Horizontal
2. Mesioangular
3. Distoangular
4. Vertical
REF:
Textbook of oral surgery by Neelima Anil malik ; Pg 124
ANS:3
. Classification of Impacted Teeth Maxillary and mandibular third molars are classified
radiographically by angulation, depth and arch length or relationship to the anterior
aspect of the ascending mandibular ramus. Classification is helpful for the following-
Describes the general position of the impacted third molar.
Aids in estimating the difficulty in removing the tooth.
Difficulty Index
Very difficult : 7 to 10
Moderately difficult : 5 to 7
Minimally difficult : 3 to 4
DIFFICULTY INDEX FOR REMOVAL OF IMPACTED LOWER THRD MOLARS
MESIOANGULAR -1 (easiest to remove)
HORIZONTAL/TRANSVERSE -2
VERTICAL - 3
DISTOANGULAR- 4
Q.86 Periodontal disease progression by short bursts of destruction followed by periods of no des
Ans
1. Slow model
2. Random model
3. Asynchronous model
4. Continuous model
REF: Contemporary periodontics
By Robert J. Genco, Henry Maurice Goldman
ANS:2
The most accepted theory for periodontal disease activity is the random burst theory in which s
destruction.
Q.87 The border of the maxillary major connector should be

Ans
1. 6 mm from the gingival crevice
2. No relation to the gingival crevice

REF:
Textbook of prosthodontics by Nallaswamy ; pg
327.
ANS:1
Intentional relief: The border of the major connector should be 6 mm away from
gingival margins in the maxillary arch in order to avoid any injury to the highly vascular
marginal gingiva.
In the mandible, the border of the major connector is placed 3 mm away from the
marginal gingiva. If this is not possible, it is extended across the marginal gingiva as a
lingual plate
Q.88 The minimum requirements for chemically activated resins used for repair applications of de
identified in ADA specification number
Ans
1. 15
2. 12
3. 13
4. 14
REF:
Phillips Dental materials 12th ed ; pg 492
ANS:3
The minimum requirements for chemically activated resins used in repair applications
are identified in ANSI/ADA Specification No. 13.
Several manufacturers o er chemically activated resins for relining dentures intraorally.

Unfortunately many of these materials generate enough heat to injure oral tissues. To
receive ADA approval, materials must comply with ANSI/ ADA Specification No. 17,
which places limits on the rate of temperature rise and maximum acceptable
temperature.
Some materials are manufactured for repair as well as relining purposes. Practitioners
should be extremely cautious in using such products. Some of these materials comply
with ANSI/ADA Specification No. 13 for repairs but fail to meet temperature
requirements set forth in ANSI/ADA Specification No. 17. Other materials comply with
Specification No. 17 but fail to meet the requirements of Specification No. 13. Such
materials o en discolor, harbor microorganisms, and separate from underlying denture
bases.
Q.89 A persistent linear, easily bleeding, erythematous gingivitis seen in HIV positive patient is
Ans
1. Bacillary angiomatosis
2. Plasma cell gingivitis

3. Atypical ulcers
4. linear gingival erythema
REF:
Carranzas clinical periodontology ;11th ed;pg 416
ANS:4
Linear Gingival Erythema
A persistent, linear, easily bleeding, erythematous gingivitis has been described in

some HIV-positive patients. Linear gingival erythema (LGE) may or may not serve as a
precursor to rapidly progressive NUP. The microflora of LGE may closely mimic that of
periodontitis rather than gingivitis. However, candida infection has been implicated as a
major etiologic factor, and human herpesviruses have been proposed as possible
triggers or cofactors.Linear gingivitis lesions may be localized or generalized in nature.
The erythematous gingivitis
(1) may be limited to marginal tissue,
(2) may extend into attached gingiva in a punctate or a diffuse erythema, or
(3) may extend into the alveolar mucosa.
Q.90 Match the following and choose the best combination -
Ans 1. ABCD = SRQP
2. ABCD = SPQR
3. ABCD = RSPQ
4. ABCD = QPSR
ANS:1
Q.91 Which cements are the least soluble in oral fluids
Ans 1. Zinc phosphate
2. Glass Ionomer Cement
3. Zinc oxide eugenol

4. Resin cements
ANS:4
With the exception of resin cements, an important requirement of dental cements is
that they be resistant to solubility and disintegration in the oral cavity. If the luting
cement dissolves or deteriorates so that fragments are lost from beneath a restoration,
leakage ensues with subsequent adverse ellects including sensitivity, caries, or both.
Dissolution or disintegration of restorative cement results in the loss of surface
material, which leads to eventual replacement of restorations
Q.92 A leaf gauze is used to assees
Ans 1. Pain during closing and opening of mouth
2. Thickness of the wire
3. Amount of mouth opening
4. Musculoskeletally stable position of condyle in the fossae
ANS:4
Leaf gauge
To obtain an interocclusal record using the Leaf Gauge Technique, a soft plastic leaf
gauge was placed between the subject's maxillary and mandibular incisors such that
the number of leaves provided sufficient vertical dimension to just disocclude the
posterior teeth. This was maintained for 5 minutes with subjects sitting upright. The
subject was then placed in a supine position, the leaf gauge removed without allowing
any occlusal contact, and the PVS registration material applied to the occlusal surfaces
of the mandibular teeth. The leaf gauge was then replaced and the subject instructed
to close into the registration material in the previous position, using the leaf gauge as
an anterior stop. The registration material was allowed to set and then removed the
patient's mouth.
Q.93 The transitional zone between the skin of the lips and the mucus membrane of the lip is the
Ans
1. Light zone
2. Vermilion zone
3. Dark zone
4. Grenz zone
REF: Tencate oral development and histology ;3rd ed ;pg 426
ANS:2
Transitional zone between the skin of the lip and the mucous membrane of the
lip known as the red zone. color due to thin epithelium, the presence of eleven in
the cells, and superficial blood vessels apparent in humans.
Q.94 Brown tumors are seen in

Ans
1. Neurofibromatosis
2. Osteomalacia
3. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
4. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
REF: Burkett oral medicine,11th ed;pg 532
ANS:3
In hyperparathyroidism,Skeletal presentations include bone
demineralization that manifests as reduction in bone mass.
Patients complain of bone pains and arthralgia and may develop
pathologic fractures. Bone radiographs show well-circumscribed
unilocular or multilocular radiolucent lesions known as brown
tumor of hyperparathyroidism, but brown tumors are now rare
occurrences in modern medicine because of early detection. If
brown tumors occur, they contain abundant hemorrhagic tissue
and hemosiderin, which give it a characteristically dark reddish-
brown color.
Q.95 Following are the features of osteogenesis imperfecta except

Ans
1. Moderate to severe bone fragility
2. Hypoextensible joints
3. dentinogenesis imperfecta
4. Blue sclera
REF: Shafers oral pathology ;pg 399
ANS:2
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(Brittle bones, fragilitas ossium, osteopsathyrosis, Lobsteins disease)
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a serious disease, the molecular pathogenesis of

which is being elucidated and it bears a superficial relatedness to dentinogenesis
imperfecta (refer Chapter 1, section on dentinogenesis imperfecta), a milder condition
affecting mesodermal tissues. It is a condition resulting from abnormality in the type I
collagen, which most commonly manifests as fragility of bones.
Physical features can vary depending on the type. It forms the basis for Sillence
classification.
Type I: Osteogenesis imperfecta. This is the most common and mildest form. In
subtype A, dentinogenesis imperfecta is absent, while in subtype B, dentinogenesis
imperfecta is present. Symptoms of both subtypes include blue sclera, in utero
fractures in 10% of patients (fractures are more common during infancy), mild-to-
moderate bone fragility with frequency of fractures decreasing after puberty,
kyphoscoliosis, hearing loss, easy bruising and short stature.
Type II: Osteogenesis imperfecta. Osteogenesis imperfecta type II exhibits extreme

bone fragility and frequent fractures. In utero fractures are present in 100% of cases.
Many are stillborn, and 90% die before four weeks of age. Blue sclera may be present.
Hearing loss is not common to type II OI. Dentinogenesis imperfecta may be present
along with small nose, micrognathia and short trunk.
Type III: Osteogenesis imperfecta. Type III is associated with dentinogenesis

imperfecta, sclera of variable hue, limb shortening and progressive deformities,
triangular facies with frontal bossing and pulmonary hypertension. In utero fractures
occur in 50% of cases. The remaining half of the cases have fractures in the neonatal
period. No hearing loss has been reported in this type.
Type IV: Osteogenesis imperfecta. In subtype A, dentinogenesis imperfecta is absent,

while in subtype B, dentinogenesis imperfecta is present. Symptoms of both subtypes
include normal sclera, normal hearing, fractures that begin in infancy (in utero fractures
are rare) and mild angulation and shortening of long bones. Bleeding diathesis have
not been reported in this type.
Q.96 Match the following material used for the most appropriate procedure and choose
the best combination -
Ans
1. ABCD = RSQP
2. ABCD = QPSR
3. ABCD = SRPQ
4. ABCD = RSPQ
ANS:1
Q.97 The overall degree of darkening of exposed film is known as

Ans
1. Sharpness
2. Contrast
3. Fog
4. Density
REF:oral radiology- principles and interpretation-white-pharoah;Pg 77

ANS:4
When a film is exposed by an x-ray beam (or by light, in the case of screen-film
combinations) and then processed,the silver halide crystals in the emulsion that were
struck by the photons are converted to grains of metallic silver. These silver grains
block the transmission of light from a view box and give the film its dark appearance.
The overall degree of darkening of an exposed film is referred to as radiographic

density.This density can be measured as the optical density of an area of an x-ray film .
Q.98 Gingival enlargement with leathery consistency with characteristic minutely pebbled surface
Ans 1. Idiopathic gingival enlargement
2. Drug induced gingival enlargement
3. Pregnancy gingival enlargement

4. Puberty gingival enlargement
REF:
Carranzas clinical periodontology ;10th ed;pg 379
ANS:1
Idiopathic gingival enlargement is a rare condition of un- determined cause. It has been
designated by such terms as gingivomatosis, elephantiasis, idiopathic fibromatosis,
hereditary gingival hyperplasia, and congenital familial fibromatosis.
Clinical Features. The enlargement affects the attached gingiva, as well as the gingival
margin and interdental papillae, in contrast to phenytoin-induced overgrowth, which is
often limited to the gingival margin and interdental papillae. The facial and lingual
surfaces of the mandible and maxilla are generally affected, but the involvement may
be limited to either jaw. The enlarged gingiva is pink, firm, and almost leathery in
consistency and has a characteristic minutely pebbled su rface . In severe cases the
teeth are almost completely covered, and the enlargement projects into the oral
vestibule. The jaws appear distorted because of the bulbous enlargement of the
gingiva. Secondary inflammatory changes are common at the gingival margin.
Q.99 Isolated areas in which the root denuded of bone and the root surfa ce is covered only by pe
overlying gingiva is
Ans
1. Dehiscence
2. Fenestration
3. Lamina dura
4. Alveolar bone proper
REF: Carranzas clinical periodontology ;10th ed;pg 86
ANS:2
Isolated areas in which the root is denuded of bone and the root surface is covered
only by periosteum and overlying gingiva are termed fenestrations. In these areas the
marginal bone is intact. When the denuded areas extend through the marginal hone,
the defect is called a dehiscence.
Q.100. Buccal flap advancement operation according to the principle of periosteal release desc
is used for
Ans 1. TMJ ankylosis
2. Oro-antral fistula closure
3. Pericoronitis
4. TMJ dislocation
REF: Textbook of oral surgery ; Neelima anil malik ;pg 578
ANS:2
Surgical Procedures Used in Closure of Oroantral Fistula
The surgical procedures can be divided into three groups: depending upon the type of
flap used: (i) Buccal, or (ii) Palatal flap, and (iii) Combination of both.
Buccal Flap Advancement Operation
It was originally described by Von Rehrmann in 1936. It is the most satisfactory method
of closing oroantral fistula. This is according to the principle of periosteal release
described by Berger in 1939.

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Q.1 The function of the liner in a casting ring is to

REF:Textbook of dental materials by sharmila

The casting ring is first lined with a ring liner before

Q.2 The absolute minimal thickness of porcelain in metal ceramic restoration is

REF: FPD by Shillingberg; pg 457

Q.3 If radicular bone is apical to the interdental bone it is called as

REF: Contemporary Orthodontics by William Proffit ; 5th ed;pg 295

REF: Textbook of dental radiology by Pramod john;pg 175

Posteroanterior (PA) or anteroposterior (AP) view

Q.6 Dosage of clindamycin for prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

REF: Petersons principles of oral and maxillofacial surgery ;2nd ed;pg 24

Clindamycin (Adults-600mg orally 1h before procedure)

(children- 20mg/kg orally 1h before procedure)

Azithromycin( adults-500mg orally 1h before procedure)

(children-15mg/kg orally 1h before procedure)

Clarithromycin( adults -500mg orally 1h before procedure)

( children -15mg/kg orally 1h before procedure)

REF: Review of endodontics operative dentistry by

Q.9 Hecks disease is caused

Ans 1. Cetavlon solution

REF: SRBS SURGICAL OPERATIONS; Pg 12

Q.11 FDA approved drug of choice for Xerostomia

REF: INGLES ENDODONTICS 6th ed;pg 535

Q.13 Caries promoting trace element is

REF: Principles and Practice Of Pedodontics by Arathi Rao;Pg 171

Mildly cariostatic -Mo,V,Cu,Sr,B,Li,Au,Fe

Doubtful cariostatic -Ba,Al,Ni,Pd,Ti

Caries Promoting -Se,Mg,Cd,Pt,Pb,Si

Q.14 Causative agent of herpetic whitlow is

REF:Oski's Essential Pediatrics

Q.15. Match the following:

Ans 1. ABCD = SRPQ

Q.18 Therapeutic use of Streptokinase is based on its

Ans 1. Antibacterial activity

3. Fibrin polymerizing activity

4. Protein phosphorylizing activity

It is indicated in acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, deep vein

Q.19 All of these are seen in lead poisoning except

Q.21 Balanced occlusion in complete denture is essential for

Q.22 The walking bleach technique uses

Ans 1. 0.3 percent Sodium perborate

4. 30 percent Hydrogen peroxide

Q.23 Material of choice for single step border molding is

Single step or simultaneous border moulding It is a procedure by which the entire

in position along the borders of the tray.

It should have a setting time of 3-5 minutes.

It should not displace the tissues.

It should be easily trimmed and shaped.

1. If rake face is ahead of radius

3. If rake face is in line with radius

4. Central giant cell granuloma

Q.27 The antioxidant agent in local anesthesia is

Reducing agent: Sodium Metabisulphite- 0.5mg

Preservative: Methyl paraben-0.1%(1mg)

Isotonic solution: sodium chloride-6mg

Vehicle: Ringers solution

Diluting agent: Distilled Water

To ADUST ph (6-7): Sodium hydroxide

2. Mandibular 1st premolar

3. Maxillary 1st premolar

REF: Textbook of pharmacology by surendersingh; pg 233

REF: Wheelers Dental anatomy and histology ;