MAHARASHTRA -2016

1) Which of the following is NOT seen in Horners syndrome?

A) Ptosis B) Meiosis
C) Sweating D) Enophthalmos

Answer C

Horners syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by 4 classic signs

1) Constricted pupil(Miosis)
2) Drooping of the upper eye lid ( Ptosis)
3) Absence of sweating of face (Anhydrosis)
4) Sinking of Eye ball into the bony cavity (enophthalmos)

Causes of Horners Syndrome: - Carotid artery dissection, Development of tumor in

neck, development of lesion in mid brain, trauma to neck or upper spinal cord.

2)Following nerves are present within the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus.
EXCEPT

A) Oculomotor B) Trochlear
C) Abducent D) Opthalmic

Answer C

Nerves present within the lateral wall of cavernous sinus and inside the sinus can be
recalled with mnemonic O TOM CAT.

O TOM: Components within lateral wall of sinus from top to bottom

O = Occulomotor Nerve

T = Troclear Nerve
O = Opthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve

M = Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve

Located Within the Sinus

C = Internal Carotid artery

A = Abducent Nerve

T = Trochlear Nerve

Ref B.D. Chaurasias Human Anatomy 6th Edition Pg. No 193

3) Inferior meatus of nose has the opening of

A) Sphenoidal sinus B) Frontal sinus

C) Nasolacrimal duct D) Maxillary sinus

Answer C

Inferior meatus receives the termination of nasolacrimal duct

The Superior meatus receives openings of Spenopalatine foramen

Middle meatus receives opening of Maxillary and Frontal sinus

Ref B.D. Chaurasias Human Anatomy 6th Edition Pg. No 76

4) Coronary sinus opens into

A) Right atrium B) Left atrium

C) Right ventricle D) Left ventricle

Answer A

Location of coronary sinus Posterior portion of coronary sulcus on the

diaphragmatic or posterior surface of heart
Opening of Coronary Sinus empties directly into right atrium near the conjunction
of the posterior interventricular sulcus and coronary sulcus

Function Primary collector of Cardiac venous blood

Ref K.Sembulingams Essentials of Medical Physiology 6th Edition Pg. No 426

5) Commonest site of the vermiform appendix is

A) Retrocaecal B) Subcaecal
C) Pre-ilial D) Post-ilial

Answer A

Vermiform appendix is the most variable abdominal organ in terms of position, extent,
peritoneal, and organ relations.The most common position of the appendix was
retrocecaecal followed by pelvic type; other variations include preileal, subileal,
postileal and subcecal type.

6) Oxygen-Hemoglobin Dissociation curve is shifted to left by following

factor.

A) Increase PCO2 B) Increase H+ Concentration

C) Increase Temperature D) FetalHemoglobin

Answer D

Oxygen dissociation is effected by:

1. Haemoglobin concentration in RBC
2. Temperature of body
3. Carbon dioxide tension of blood (normal 46 mm Hg)
4. Acid metabolites, i.e., effect of 2, 3-DPG (2-3 Diphosphoglycerate
Decreased lactic acid production, Decreased concentration of carbon dioxide,
increased pH of plasma, Decreased 2, 3-DPG causes shift of curve to left side
Ref Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical physiology 11th Edition Pg.No 540

7)In systemic circulation 2/3rd of resistance to the flow of Blood is offered by

A) Small arteries B) Arterioles
C) Capillaries D) Venules

Answer B

Arteries and arterioles are called resistance vessels. Account for maintain the blood
pressure. Arterial constriction increases afterload.
They are often termed as seat of peripheral vascular resistance.
Small changes in their calibre cause large changes in total peripheral resistance and
hence on distribution of blood flow.
Ref Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical physiology 11th Edition Pg.No 248

8)Over secretion of Growth Hormone during adulthood leads to

A) Gigantism B) Acromegaly
C) Cushing syndrome D) Addisons disease

Answer B

Gigantism is due to hypersecretion of growth hormone in childhood before fusion of

epiphysis of bone with shaft.

Acromegaly is due to hyper secretion of GH in adults. Enlargements of bones

(especially mandible), kyphosis (bowing of spine) and bull dog scalp are important
features

Ref Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical physiology 11th Edition Pg. No 857

Ref K.Sembulingams Essentials of Medical Physiology 6th Edition Pg. No 269

9) Glycine is used for synthesis of the following EXCEPT

A) Heme B) Serotonin
C) Purine D) Creatine

Answer B
Serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid L-tryptophan via a short metabolic
pathway that involves two major enzymes 1) Tryptophan hydroxylase (TPH) and
2) Amino acid decarboxylase

Ref Textbook of biochemistry Pg. No 967

10)Which of the following is an irreversible enzyme of glycolysis?

A) Aldolase B) Enolase

C) Phospho-hexose isomeraseD) Pyruvate kinase

Answer D

Most of the reactions of glycolysis are reversible; three are markedly exergonic and
must therefore be considered physiologically irreversible.

They are, 1) Catalysed by hexokinase (and glucokinase), 2) Phosphofructokinase,

and 3) Pyruvate kinase which are major sites of regulation of glycolysis.

Ref Harpers Biochemistry 27th Edition chapter 18

Ref U.Satyanarayana Biochemistry 4th Edition Pg. No 252

11) All of the following contribute to Hepatic Encephalopathy EXCEPT

A) Gastrointestinal bleeding
B) Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
C) Hypokalaemia
D) Protein restriction in diet

Answer D
Hepatic encephalopathy is a decline in brain function that occurs as a result of
severe liver disease. It can be acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term)

Mainly occurs in
1) acute fulminant viral hepatitis
2) toxic hepatitis
3) Reyes syndrome

Hepatic encephalopathy may be triggered by:

1) Infections such as pneumonia

2) kidney problems
3) dehydration
4) low oxygen levels (hypoxia)
5) recent surgery or trauma
6) use of medications to suppress the immune system
7) eating too much protein
8) use of medications (such as barbiturates or benzodiazepine tranquilizers) that
suppress the central nervous system
9) electrolyte imbalance, especially a decrease in potassium after vomiting or
taking diuretics
Ref Harrisons Principle of Internal Medicine Volume 2 13th Edition Pg. No 1493&2336

12) Which of the following confers Passive Immunity?

A) Hepatitis B Vaccine B) MMR Vaccine
C) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin D) Infection with measles virus

Answer C

3 types of passive immunisation

1) Norma human immunoglobulin

2) Specific human immunoglobulin
3) Anti-sera and anti-toxin

For immediate protection Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) is used. The HBIG

should be given as soon as possible after accidental inoculation (ideally within 6 hours
and preferably not later than 48 hours).
Recommended dose is 0.05 to 0.07ml/kg bogy weight. Two doses should be given 30
days apart. HBIG gives protection up to 3 months

Ref Parks textbook of preventive and Social medicine Pg.No196

13)Low CSF glucose occurs in all of the following neurological diseases

EXCEPT
A) Bacterial meningitis B) Viral meningitis
C) Tubercular meningitis D) Fungal meningitis

Answer B

Normal CSF values

CSF opening pressure: 50180 mmH2O
Glucose: 4085 mg/dL.
Protein (total): 1545 mg/dL.
Type of Meningitis Glucose(mg/dl)
Bacterial meningitis Normal to marked decrease. <40 mg/dL
Viral meningitis Normal (> 40 mg/dL.)
Tubercular meningitis <40 mg/dL (Low)
Fungal meningitis <40 mg/dL (Low)

14)The disease which is characterized by three Ds- diarrhoea, dementia,

Dermatitis is due to deficiency of
A) Vitamin B2 B) Vitamin B3
C) Vitamin B6 D) Vitamin B12

Answer B

Vitamin Function Deficiency Syndrome

Vitamin B3 Niacin Incorporated into Pellagrathree "D's":
nicotinamide adenine
dementia, dermatitis,
dinucleotide (NAD) and
NAD phosphate, involved
 in a variety of redox diarrhea
reactions
Vitamin B6 Derivatives serve as Cheilosis, glossitis,
coenzymes in many
dermatitis, peripheral
intermediary reactions
neuropathy
Vitamin B12 Vitamin B12 is vital for Pernicious Anemia
the formation of red blood
cells, as well as for the
proper functioning and
health of nerve tissue

Ref Robins and Contran Pathologic basis of disease 7th Edition Pg. No 451

Ref U.Satyanarayana Biochemistry 4th Edition Pg. No 141

15)Haemophilia B occurs due to deficiency of which coagulation factor?

A) Factor VIII B) Von Willebrand Factor
C) Factor IX D) Factor V

Answer C

Factor deficiency Condition

Factor VIIIa, anti-haemophilic Factor A,
anti- haemophilic globulin Classical haemophilia or haemophilia A

Factor IX, Christmas factor, Anti

haemophilic factor B is plasma Haemophilia B
thromboplastin component (PTC)
Factor XI Plasma thromboplastin
Antecedent (PTA), anti-haemophilic Haemophilia C
factor c
(Ref Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical physiology 11th Edition Pg.No 459)

Ref K.Sembulingams Essentials of Medical Physiology 6th Edition Pg. No 91

16)Haemorrhage due to slippage of ligature is called as

A) Primary haemorrhage B) Reactionary haemorrhage
C) Secondary haemorrhage D) Tertiary haemorrhage

Answer B

Primary haemorrhage occurs at the time of injury or operation.

Reactionary haemorrhage may follow primary haemorrhage within 24 hours (usually

46 hours) and is mainly due to rolling (slipping) of a ligature, dislodgement of a
clot or cessation of reflex vasospasm.

The precipitating circumstances are: (1) the rise in blood pressure and the refilling of
the venous system on recovery from shock and (2) restlessness, coughing and
vomiting which raise the venous pressure.

Secondary haemorrhage occurs after 714 days, and is due to infection and
sloughing of part of the wall of an artery.

Ref A concise textbook of General surgery by S.Das

17)Immediate Management of Tension Pneumothorax is

A) Tracheostomy
B) CT Thorax
C) Central venous line access
D) Decompression with needle or chest tube

Answer D

Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that can occur with chest trauma
and is more likely to happen with trauma involving an opening in the chest wall.

Treatment is thoracic decompression often called needle thoracostomy or needle

compression. This involves using a needle catheter to release the trapped air in the
pleural space. If the patient has either a closed or open tension pneumothorax, then the
need for a needle decompression is required to save the patient.

Ref Harrisons Manual of Medicine 16th Edition Pg. No 692

18)Metastasis in multiple ipsilateral neck lymph nodes less than 6 cm in greatest

dimension belongs to nodal stage
A) N2a B) N1
C) N2b D) N3

Answer C

The staging of cancers is based on the size of the primary lesion, its extent of spread to
regional lymph nodes, and the presence or absence of blood born metastasis. The
major staging system currently in use is TNM system T for primary tumour, N for
regional lymph node involvement and M for metastasis.

T1- T4 primary lesion

N1 N3 Range of Nodes

M1 or M2 indicates presence of Metastasis

Ref Robins andContran Pathologic basis of disease eight edition

19) Maximum dose of lignocaine for local anaesthesia without adrenaline is

(mg/kg)
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5

Answer BAnswer may be C

Maximum dose: 4.4 mg/kg, up to 300 mg lidocaine without epinephrine

or 7 mg/kg, up to 500 mg lidocaine with epinephrine

Ref Handbook of Local Anaesthesia by Stanley F.Malamed 4th Edition

20)Bjork flap in tracheostomy is

A) Superiorly based B) Inferiorly based
C) Laterally based D) Free flap

Answer B
In 1960 Bjork introduced the concept of suturing an inferiorly based flap consisting of
the anterior portion of a single tracheal ring to the inferior skin margin to greatly
reduce the incidence of accidental decannulation.

This flap facilitates the re insertion of the tracheostomy tube if accidental

decannulation were to occur.

Ref Head and Neck Surgery Otoralyngology 4th Edition Pg. No 187

21) Apoptosis is inhibited by

A) P53 B) n-myc
C) ras D) Bcl-2

Answer D

Bcl-2 is an anti-apoptotic protein. It prevents the action of pro-apoptotic proteins

responsible for pore formation in the mitochondria.

Ref K.Sembulingams Essentials of Medical Physiology 6th Edition Pg. No 12

22) All are sites for primary tuberculosis EXCEPT

A) Lung B) Lymph node
C) Tonsil D) Intestine

Answer B

Primary tuberculosis First exposure to organism and can pursue either an indolent or
aggressive course.

The primaryTB organs involved are Lungs, Intestine, Tonsils and Skin

Secondary tuberculosis -a result of reactivation of primary infection. It is always an

active disease

Ref Essentials of pathology by Rubins 5th edition Pg.No 174

23) Increased number of autophagic vacuoles is seen in

A) Atrophy B) Hypertrophy
C) Hyperplasia D) Metaplasia

Answer A

Atrophy may be defined as the shrinkage in size of cell by loss of cell substance,
resulting in decreased functional ability. It is the decrease in cell size & number.

Atrophy is accompanied by increase autophagy, with resulting increase in number of

autophagic vacuoles.

Causes
Physiological Pathological
Loss of Hormonal Stimulation Disuse, Denervation, Ischemia, Cachexia
Aging Loss of endocrine stimulation,
pressure,Malnutrition
Ref Robins and Contran Pathologic basis of disease eight edition

Ref Textbook of pathology by Harshamohan 7th edition Pg. No 38

24) Liquid Paraffin is sterilised by

A) Autoclave B) Steam steriliser
C) Boiling D) Hot Air Oven

Answer D

Hot air oven is the most widely adopted method of sterilization by dry heat. A holding
period of 160C for one hour is used. It is used to sterilise glassware, forceps, scissors,
scalpels, all glass syringes, swabs, pharmaceutical products such as liquid paraffin,
sulphonamides, dusting powder, fats and greases.

Ref Introduction to medical Microbiology by Ananthanarayana Pg. No 14

25) Apart from dental caries, streptococcus mutans can cause

A) Endocarditis B) Food poisoning
C) Urinary tract infection D) Pharyngitis

Answer A

S. mutans is implicated in the pathogenesis of cardiovascular diseases, and is the most

prevalent bacterial species detected in extirpated heart valve tissues, as well as
inatheromatous plaques, with an incidence of 68.6% and 74.1%, respectively.

Ref J ClinMicrobiol. 2006 Sep; 44(9): 33133317

Ref Textbook of pathology by Harshamohan 7th edition Pg. No 425

26) Which of the following is a long acting glucocorticoid preparation?

A) Triamcinolone B) Hydrocortisone
C) Prednisolone D) Beta methasone

Answer D

(Ref Goodman and Gilmans Manual of pharmacology and therapeutics Pg.No 1027)

27)The ratio of median lethal dose to median effective dose is called as

A) Clearance B) Therapeutic index
C) Tachyphylaxis D) Plasma half life

Answer B

The therapeutic index is an indicator of safety. It is the safety range of dose; The gap
between the therapeutic effect DRC (Dose-Response Curve) and the adverse effect
DRC defines the safety margin or the therapeutic index of a drug.
Drugs having high therapeutic index are safer than those with low therapeutic index,
which are more likely to be toxic.
(Ref Goodman and Gilmans Manual of pharmacology and therapeutics Pg.No 78)

28)Streptokinase over dose is treated with

A) Warfarin
B) Vitamin K
C) Aspirin
D) Epsilon Amino-caproic acid

Answer D

Streptokinase is Fibrinolytic agent that is given to achieve reperfusion of ischaemia

by dissolving the clot.
Antifibrinolytics These drugs inhibit plasminogen activation and prevent dissolution
of clot.
These are:
1. Epsilon amino-Caproic acid
2. Tranexamic acid
3. Aprotinin

(Ref Goodman and Gilmans Manual of pharmacology and therapeutics Pg.No 960)

29)Which of the following is used for the treatment of paracetamolpoisoning?

A) Neostigmine B) N-acetyl cysteine
C) Naloxone D) Folic acid

Answer B

Severe liver damage occurs in 90% of patients with plasma concentrations of

acetaminophen >300 mg/mL at 4 hours or 45 mg/mL at 15 hours after the ingestion of
the drug.
N-acetylcysteine(NAC) (MUCOMYST, MUCOSIL, PARVOLEX) is indicated for
those at risk of hepatic injury. NAC therapy should be instituted in suspected cases of
acetaminophen poisoning
(Ref Goodman and Gilmans Manual of pharmacology and therapeutics Pg.No 446)

30)Drug of choice for late onset mushroom poisoning

A) Atropine B) Thioctic acid
C) Carbachol D) Adrenaline

Answer B

Mushroom poisoning or Mycetism is increased as a result of popularity of hunting

wild mushrooms. The most serious form of mycetism is produced by Amanita
phalloides, other Amanita species, Lepiota, and Galerinaspecies.
These species account for >90% of fatal cases. Treatment is largely supportive;
penicillin, thioctic acid, and silibininmaybe effective antidotes, but the evidence is
anecdotal.
(Ref Goodman and Gilmans Manual of pharmacology and therapeutics Pg.No 119)

31) How much should be the degree of contact angle for proper wetting?
A) Zero B) Forty five
C) Sixty D) Ninety

Answer A

The degree of wetting is indicated by the contact angle of the adhesive to the
adherend.

The extent to which an adhesive will wet the surface of an adherend may be
determined by the contact angle.

Contact angle = 0 Perfect wetting

Contact angle = 0<90 highly wettability
Contact angle =90<180 Low wettability
Contact angle = 180 Perfect non wetting
Ref Basic Dental Materials by J. Manapallil Pg. No 13

32) Which of the following may result if an excessive amount of monomer is

Incorporated into an acrylic resin mixture?
A) Excessive expansion B) Low impact strength
C) Excessive shrinkage D) Excessive brittleness

Answer C

Generally polymer to monomer ratio is approximately 3:1 by volume.Excess

monomer would produce increase polymerization shrinkage. Using 3:1 ratio the
volumetric can be limited approx. 7%.

Ref Phillips Science of Dental Materials 12thEdition Pg. No 478

33) The disadvantage of CAD-CAM ceramic restorations

A) More porosity
B) Patient acceptance is less
C) Lack of computer controlled processing support for occlusal adjustment
D) Low abrasiveness

Answer C

CEREC system was the first commercially available CAD/ CAM system

Disadvantages

1) Expensive
2) Require special training
3) Technique sensitive
4) Computer prepares rough occlusal anatomy without consideration of opposing
occlusal anatomy and final occlusal adjustments are to be carried out.

Ref Review of Endodontics Operative dentistry Pg. No 142

34)ANSI/ADA Specification No. 1 requires that amalgam neither contract nor
expand more than
A) 20 m/cm B) 20 m/mm
C) 20 mm/cm D) 40 m/cm

Answer A

ADA Specification No. 1 for amalgam specifies that amalgam should neither contract
nor expand more than 20 m/cm measured at 37C between 5 min and 24 hours after
the beginning of trituration with a device which is accurate to at 0.5 m.

Ref Essentials of Operative Dentistry Pg. No 237

35) Fluoride recharging of a glass ionomer cement restoration is more effective

by which of the following agents ?
A) 0.02% NaF solution for 2-3 minutes
B) 0.02% NaF solution for 4-5 minutes
C) 1.23% APF solution for 4-5 minutes
D) 1.23% APF solution for 2-3 minutes

Answer C

Three fluoride recharging agents (1.23% APF gel, 1.1% neutral NaF and 0.001%
CaF2)

36) The maximum flow permitted for Type I waxes at 37C is

A) 0.1% B) 0.5%
C) 1% D) 2%

Answer C

Inlay waxes should have a maximum flow of 1 % at 37 C to permit carving and

removal of wax pattern and a minimal flow of 70% at 45 c which helps in insertion of
wax into prepared cavity.

Ref Phillips Science of Dental Materials 12th Edition Pg. No 284

37) The two major fossae on the occlusal aspect of permanent maxillary first
molar are
A) Central fossa and mesial fossa
B) Central fossa and distal fossa
C) Mesial and distal triangular fossae
D) Distal fossa and distal triangular fossa

Answer B

Permanent maxillary 1st molarPermanent mandibular 1st molar

2 major fossa central & distal fossa 1 major fossa- central fossa
2 minor fossa distal & mesial triangular 2 minor fossa distal & mesial triangular
5 developmental grooves 4 developmental groove
1 oblique ridge 5 cusp ridge
4 cusp ridge
Wheelers Dental anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion 8th edition Pg. No 277

38)Membranapreformativa in a developing tooth develops in

A) Bud stage B) Cap stage
C) Bell stage D) Advanced bell stage

Answer C

Membrane performative separates the enamel organ and dental papilla before the
dentin formation, and helps in determining the morphology of the crown.

Orbans Oral Histology and Embryology 14th Edition Pg. No 29

39)Of the four layers, the cells most active in protein synthesis are of
A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum granulosum
C) Stratum spinosum D) Stratum basale

Answer C
Prickle cell layer (stratum spinosum). It consists of 1020 layers of relatively large,
polyhedral cells, equipped with short cytoplasmic processes resembling spines.
Orbans Oral Histology and Embryology 14th Edition Pg. No 202
40)The main types of collagen in the periodontal ligament are
A) Type I and Type II collagen B) Type I and Type III collagen
C) Type II and Type III collagen D) Only Type III collagen

Answer B

The most important elements of the periodontal ligament are the principal fibres,
which are collagenous, are arranged in bundles, and follow a wavy course when
viewed in longitudinal sections. Collagen types I and III, these fibrils associate to
form principal fibres.
Ref Carranzas Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 69
Orbans Oral Histology and Embryology 14th Edition Pg. No 150
41) The maximum life of the deciduous pulp including both prenatal and
Post natal times of development and the period of regression is approximately
A) 8.3 Years B) 9.6 Years
C) 10.6 Years D) 12.6 Years

Answer B

Orbans oral histology & embryology 14th edition Pg. No 109

42)Mesiolingual developmental groove is present in

A) Mandibular first premolar
B) Mandibular second premolar
C) Maxillary first premolar
D) Maxillary second premolar

Answer A

Mandibular 1st premolar:

Smallest of all premolars

Crown has lingual tilt of 30 degree to the long axis of root.
Lateral perforations are most often seen in mandibular premolars
Bifurcations & trifurcations are most common. Present challenge to endodontist
during biomechanical preparations. So known as Enigma to Endodontist
Surface of crown shows characteristic mesiolingual developmental groove
Shows maximum incidence of dens evaginatus
Wheelers Dental anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion 8th edition Pg. No 247

43)Hypermobility of temporomandibular joint has been reported in

A) Gardners syndrome B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C) Grinspan syndrome D) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Answer D

Connective tissue diseases frequently involve defect in collagen synthesis or structure

are OsteogenesisImperfecta, Ehlers- Danlos syndrome, Alport syndrome.

Ref Harrisons Textbook of Internal Medicine 17th Edition

44) Marked reduction in radio density of teeth radiologically is seen in

A) Dentin dysplasia B) Dentinogenesisimperfecta
C) Dentin hypocalcification D) Regional odontodysplasia

Answer D

Regional odontodysplasia is due to defective mineralization.both enamel &dentin

appear very thin and the pulp chamber is exceedingly large. The roentgenograms
characteristically shows a marked reduction in radiodensity of teeth, so that teeth
assume a ghost appearance. Maxillary anterior teeth are most frequently involved.

Shafers textbook of Oral Pathology 5th edition Pg. No 80

45) Which of the following syndrome is caused by mutations in patched

(PTCH) gene?
A) Gorlin and Goltz syndrome B) PapillonLefvre syndrome
C) Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome D) Sturge Weber syndrome
Answer A

Gorlin-Goltz syndrome also known as the basal cell nevus syndrome. It occurs due to
mutation in PTCH tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 9.

Clinical features: multiple basal cell carcinomas, often at puberty and in adolescence,
Odontogenickeratocyst, frontal blossing, hypertelorism, macrocephaly, calcified
falxcerebri, cleft lip, ocular defects, high arched palate, agenesis of corpus callosum
etc
Ref text book of Oral Medicine by Ghom Pg. No 230

46) Presence of lipid-laden, large foamy histiocytes in the connective tissue

Papillae between epithelial rete pegs is a striking feature of
A) Lipoblastoma B) Verruciformxanthoma
C) Lipoma D) Verruca vulgaris

Answer B

Xanthomas are non-neoplastic nodules resulting from the accumulation of fat laden
histiocytes in the dermis and subcutis or deeply in the tendons, synovium and bone. In
the verruciformxanthoma, there is a papillomatous, verucca like change of the
overlying epidermis.

Ref Rosai and Acermans Surgical Pathology 10th Edition Pg. No 180

47) Linear enamel caries lesions in deciduous teeth predominate in

A) Maxillary anterior teeth B) Maxillary posterior teeth
C) Mandibular posterior teeth D) Mandibular anterior teeth

Answer A
This is a feature of early childhood caries. Usually maxillary anterior teeth are
affected first due to pooling of milk. The lower incisors are protected by the action of
tongue.

RefShobhaTandon Textbook of Pedodontics 2nd Edition Pg. No 187

48) The presence of typical safety-pin cells and nucleated red blood cells is a
characteristic laboratory finding of
A) Aplastic anaemia B) Pernicious anaemia
C) Thalassemia D) Iron-deficiency anaemia

Answer C

The features of Thalassemia are 1)markedpoikilocytosis, 2)anisocytosis

3)reticulocytosis and 4) Nucleated red blood cells (normoblasts) are also seen.

In smears the red cells appear small (microcytic), pale (hypochromic), and regular in
shape. Target cells are often seen, a feature that results from the relatively large
surface area-to-volume ratio, which leads Hb to collect in a central, dark-red "puddle."

Ref Robbins Basic Pathology 8th edition pg .no 423-424

49) An anterior bite plane should be trimmed

A) 30 degrees inclined to occlusal plane
B) 60 degrees inclined to occlusal plane
C) To keep posterior teeth 2 mm apart
D) To keep posterior teeth 5 mm apart

Answer C

Anterior bite plane: used for correction of deep bite. It should provide a clearance of
2-3 mm between upper and lower posterior teeth to provide space for supraeruption.

Posterior bite plane: used in treatment of anterior cross bite.

Ref Orthodontics the art and science by Balaji 6th edition Pg. No-299

50) In orthodontics, elastics used having useful performance life are

A) Gum Rubber Elastics B) Latex Rubber Elastics
C) Non Latex Rubber Elastics D) All of the above

Answer B

The force of elastics depends on their diameter. Elastics are used for various purposes
such as space closure, to correct open bites, treatment of cross bites and to correct
inter arch relationship.

Ref Orthodontics the art and science by Balaji 6th EditionPg. No-405

51) The term gingival zenith is used to describe the

A) Gingival height
B) Apical point of gingival tissue
C) Gingival shape
D) Stippled appearance of gingiva

Answer B

Gingival zenith represents the most apical point at which the tooth emerges from the
free gingival margin. For an aesthetically pleasing smile it should be positioned distal
to centre of each tooth in maxillary anterior segment.

Ref textbook of Operative dentistry Pg. No 305

52)Dolichoprosopic means
A) Broad and short shape of head
B) Long and narrow face form
C) Broad and narrow shape of head
D) Broad and expanded dental arch

Answer B

Mesocephalic average Mesoprosopic - average

Brachycephalic broad skull Euryprosopic - broad
Doliocephalic narrow skull leptoprosopic long
Ref Orthodontics the art and science by Balaji 6th edition Pg. No-159

53) Growth modification procedures are best carried out in which stage ofSingers
method?
A) Stage one (early) B) Stage two (prepubertal)
C) Stage three (pubertal onset) D) Stage four (pubertal)

Answer B

Julian singer in 1980 proposed a system of hand wrist radiograph assessment that
would enable the clinician to rapidly and with some degree of reliability help
determine the maturational status of the patient.

Stage 2 represents period prior to adolescent growth spurt during which significant
amount of mandibular growth is possible.

Ref Orthodontics the art and science by Balaji 6th edition Pg. No-217

54) In McNamara analysis which cephalometric planes are used as reference

Planes
A) Sella-Nasion plane and anatomic frankfort horizontal plane
B) Anatomic frankfort plane and Basion-Nasion plane
C) Basion-Nasion plane and Nasion-Pogonion plane
D) Sella-Nasion plane and Basion-Nasion plane

Answer B

Ref Radiographic cephalometry by Jacobson Pg. No-114

55)While giving an Inferior Alveolar nerve block in a child, the injection should be
directed
A) Slightly higher and more posteriorly than an adult patient
B) Slightly higher and more anteriorly than an adult patient
C) Slightly lower and more anteriorly than an adult patient
D) Slightly lower and more posteriorly than an adult patient

Answer D

In children mandibular foramen is situated at a level lower than the occlusal plane of
primary teeth. So injection is made at a lower level and posteriorly. This will result in
determining the position of coronoid notch and deepest part of pterygomandibular
raphe which will determine the height of injection.

Ref Nikhil Marwah Textbook of Paediatric dentistry 3rd Edition Pg. No 731-732

56) How many inches of rubber dam sheet is best suited for use in children ?
A) 5 X5 B) 6 X 6
C) 5 X 6 D) 4 X 3

Answer A

Rubber dam sheets available in sizes 5x5 and 6x6, it has two sides dull side and shiny
side. The dull side should be towards the occlusal aspect so that no light reflects from
it to obstruct vision and shiny side always towards the tissues so that the dam can pass
easily over them with minimal irritation.

Ref KennedysPaediatric Operative DentistryPg.No 56

57)Accidental pulpal exposure in an area remote from an extensive carious lesion

should be treated by
A) Direct pulp capping B) Indirect pulp capping
C) Pulpotomy D) Pulpectomy

Answer A

Exposures should have bright red haemorrhage that is easily controlled by dry cotton
pellet with minimal pressure. Direct pulp capping is done to achieve a biological
closure of the exposure site by deposition of hard tissue barrier (Dentin Bridge)
between pulpal tissue and capping material thus walling of the exposure site.

Ref Nikhil Marwah Textbook of Paediatric dentistry 3rd Edition Pg. No 650

58)How many mg f/kg is recommended in salt fluoridation?

A) 200 250 B) 90 110
C) 0.7 1 D) 50 100

Answer A

Wespi in 1955 introduced salt fluoridation in Switzerland. Initially the conc was 90mg
f/kg but has been made to 200-350mg f/kg. The procedure of salt fluoridation can be
either by spraying conc solutions of NaF or KF on salt on a conveyor belt or by
mixing with PO4 carrier salt and then adding to main bulk.

Ref Nikhil Marwah Textbook of Paediatric dentistry 3rd Edition Pg. No 337

59)Downs syndrome is the clinical result of trisomy of chromosome

A) 9 B) 13
C) 18 D) 21

Answer D

Langdon down in 1866 first described Downs syndrome. Mental retardation is

considered to be the hallmark (IQ varies between 30 -50). Simain crease (single
transverse palmar crease) is the characteristic feature on hands. The eruption of teeth
is usually delayed and teeth are usallymicrodontia with hypocalcification and
hypoplastic defects. But the caries incidence is low.

RefShobhaTandon Textbook of Pedodontics 2nd Edition Pg. No 632

60)Provoked pain stimulated by thermal, chemical or mechanical irritants is reduced

or eliminated when the noxious stimulus is removed. This sign frequently indicates
A) Hyperplastic pulpitis B) Irreversible pulpitis
C) Pulpal necrosis D) Reversible pulpitis
Answer D

Pulp with irreversible pulpitis has mild inflammation and is capable of healing once
the irritating stimulus has been removed. The pain ceases within seconds or
immediately upon removal of the stimulus. This is due to movement of the dentinal
fluid towards the pulp tissue. Pain is short and sharp in nature but it is never
spontaneous.

Ref Nikhil Marwah Textbook of Paediatric dentistry 3rd Edition Pg. No 625

61)The oral finding in erythroblastosisfetalis includes

A) Dentinal dysplasia B) Hypoplastic teeth
C) Pigmented teeth D) Amelogenesis imperfect

Answer C

Erythroblastosisfetalis also called as hereditary disease of new born (HDN) occurs due
to isoimmuneantibodies. It manifests orally by the deposition of blood pigment in the
enamel and dentin of developing teeth giving them a green, brown or blue hue.

Enamel hyploplasia is also reported in some cases of Erythroblastosisfetalis

Ref text book of Oral Medicine by Ghom Pg. No 787

62) A debilitated patient on oral penicillin has white lesions that can be stripped away
from the tongue, leaving a raw surface. The patient probably has
A) Candidiasis B) Lichen planus
C) Histoplasmosis D) Mucosal dysplasia

Answer A

Pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush, moniliasis) is the most common fungal

infection of the oral cavity and is particularly common among persons rendered
vulnerable by diabetes mellitus, anemia, antibiotic or glucocorticoid therapy,
immunodeficiency, or debilitating illnesses such as disseminated cancer.
The pseudomembrane can be scraped off to reveal an underlying granular
erythematous inflammatory base. In milder infections there is minimal ulceration, but
in severe cases the entire mucosa may be denuded.

Ref Robbins Basic Pathology 8th edition pg .no 580-58

63)Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused due to

A) Coxsackievirus B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Epstein-Barr virus D) Human Immuno deficiency virus

Answer C

Oral hairy leukoplakia is an uncommon lesion seen virtually only in persons infected
with HIV.

It consists of white confluent patches, anywhere on the oral mucosa, that have a
hairy or corrugated surface resulting from marked epithelial thickening. It is caused
by Epstein-Barr virus infection of epithelial cells.

Ref Robbins Basic Pathology 8th edition pg .no 580-581

64)The first radiographic evidence of acute apical abscess can be

A) Rarefaction of alveolar bone
B) Condensation of alveolar bone
C) Destruction of lamina dura
D) Widening of periodontal ligament space

Answer D

Periapical radiographs provide the distinguishing information whether the lesion is of

pulpal or periodontal origin. A break in the lamina dura, accompanied by an apical or
lateral radiolucency is indicative of chronic or acute pulpal infection.

Ref Carranzas Clinical Periodontology 12th Edition Pg. No 477

65) A cystic lesion located buccally to normal lower molar is seen to cause,
displacement of the molar with lingual tipping of the roots. The lesion is most likely
to be
A) Odontogenickeratocyst B) Buccal bifurcation cyst
C) Lateral periodontal cyst D) Lateral type of dentigerous cyst

Answer B

The buccal bifurcation cyst is an uncommon inflammatory odontogenic cyst that

characteristically develops on the buccal aspect of the mandibular first permanent
molar. The pathogenesis of this cyst is uncertain.
Periodontal probing usually reveals pocket formation on the buccal aspect of the
involved tooth.
Radiographs typically show a well-circumscribed unilocular radiolucency involving
the buccal bifurcation and root area of the involved tooth.
An occlusal radiograph is most helpful in demonstrating the buccal location of the
lesion. The root apices of the molar are characteristically tipped toward the lingual
mandibular cortex.
Treated by enucleation.
Ref Neville oral and maxillofacial pathology 2nd edition

66) Which radiographic projection is most useful in examining sialolith of a

submandibular duct?
A) Maxillary cross sectional occlusal B) Mandibular cross sectional occlusal
C) PA skull D) PA mandible

Answer B

Projection for submandibular duct stone is Standard mandibular occlusal view and for
parotid gland peri apical view in the buccal vestibule.

This reduces the exposure to avoid burnout of sialoliths.

Ref text book of Oral Medicine by Ghom Pg. No 573

67) Concentration of fluoride in Duraphat is

A) 24500 ppm B) 20000 ppm
C) 12300 ppm D) 22600 ppm

Answer D

Commonly used fluoride varnishes

1) Duraphat
2) Flourprotector
3) Carex

Duraphat 5%NaF in organic lacquer

22,600ppm fluoride
Hardens into a yellowish brown coating in the presence of saliva
Ref Principles and practice of Pedodontics 3rd Edition Pg. No230

68) As per American Dental Association (ADA) Type III oral examination includes
A) Screening using tongue depressor and available illumination
B) Screening using mouth mirror and available illumination
C) Inspection, using mouth mirror, explorer and adequate illumination
D) Inspection using explorer and adequate illumination

Answer C

Type 3 examination is the most used method in public health surveying

RefSoben peter Essentials of Public health Dentistry 5th Edition Pg. No 391

69)The sequential steps in waste management includes

A) Segregation, deformation, decontamination, containment, disposal
B) Segregation, decontamination deformation, containment, disposal
C) Segregation, decontamination, containment, deformation, disposal
D) Segregation, decontamination, deformation, disposal containment

Answer B

RefSoben peter Essentials of Public health Dentistry 5th Edition Pg. No 104
70) Elements of standard precaution in infection control practice include all of the
following EXCEPT
A) Personal protective equipment
B) Aseptic management of patient care equipments
C) Immunisation program
D) Hand hygiene

Answer C

RefSoben peter Essentials of Public health Dentistry 5th Edition Pg. No 643 &644

71) In India, reverse smoking is particularly seen among

A) Males of Punjab and Haryana
B) Females of Punjab, Haryana and Jammu Kashmir
C) Females of Andhra Pradesh
D) Males of North eastern States of India

Answer C

Reverse smoking is found particularly in females of Visakhapatnam and Srikakulam

of AndhraPradesh. It is also known as addapoga.

The temperature of Palatal mucosa is estimated around 58C

RefSoben peter Essentials of Public health Dentistry 5th Edition Pg. No 322

72) Functions of Primary Health Centre in India includes all of the following
EXCEPT
A) Conducting National Health Programmes
B) Providing school dental health services
C) Basic lab services
D) Collection and reporting of vital statistics

Answer B

The functions of primary health centre in India cover 8 essential elements outlined in
Alma-Ata declaration. They are
 1) Medical care
2) MCH including family planning
3) Safe water supply and basic sanitation
4) Prevention and control of locally endemic disesases
5) Collection and reporting of vital statistics
6) Education about health
7) National health programmes
8) Referral services
9) Training of health guides, health workers and health assistants
10) Basic laboratory services

Ref Parks textbook of preventive and Social medicine 22nd Edition Pg.No845

73)Soldered connectors in fixed partial dentures involve the use of an intermediate

metal alloy whose melting temperature is
A) Higher than parent metal B) Lower than parent metal
C) Equal to parent metal D) Unrelated to parent metal

Answer B

Soldered connectors use intermediate metal alloy whose melting temperature is lower
than that of parent metal. The parts being joined are not melted during soldering but
must be thoroughly wettable by liquefied solder.

Ref Contemporary fixed prosthodontics Pg. No 843

74) The relative lightness or darkness of a color or the brightness of an object is

known as
A) Hue B) Chroma
C) Value D) Saturation

Answer C
Hue : it is specific color produced by a specific wavelength of light.It describes the
dominant color of an object like red, green or blue.

Chroma: amount of color per unit area of an object. It represents the degree of
saturation of a particular hue.

Value: lightness or darkness of an object. Lighter shades objects are with highest
value and dark shaded object with lower value.

Ref Phillips Science of Dental Materials 12th Edition Pg. No 35

75)Mesial rest concept in a distal extension cast partial denture is used to avoid
harmful effects caused by
A) Class I lever B) Class II lever
C) Class III lever D) Wheel and axle

Answer A

Mesial rest concept in a distal extension cast partial denture is to avoid harmful effects
of class I lever forces.

76)Block out done on the buccal and lingual surfaces to locate plastic or wax patterns
for clasp arms in cast partial denture designing is called as
A) Parallel blockout B) Shaped blockout
C) Arbitrary blockout D) Relief blockout

Answer B

Tapered blockout / Shaped blockout- the blade like device used will be tapered
(usually 2 -4 degrees). They can be positioned to provide a range of taper by placing
the cast on a specific area of the base.

This is mostly done for tooth-tissue-borne dentures to allow freedom of movement in

function.

RefMccrackens Removable Partial Prosthodontics Pg. No 144

77) Knife edge residual alveolar ridge is classified by Atwood as

A) Order II B) Order III
C) Order IV D) Order V

Answer C

Residual ridge resorption is classified into 6 orders by Atwood (1962) as

Order I- Pre extraction

Order II Post Extraction
Order III High well rounded
Order IV Knife edge
Order V Low well rounded
Order VI Depressed

Ref essentials of complete denture Prosthodontics by Sheldon Winkler 2nd Edition Pg. No 23

78) Which metal gives passivating effect in cobalt-chromium and nickel based alloys?
A) Cobalt B) Chromium
C) Nickel D) Beryllium

Answer B

Aluminium, chromium & titanium have high affinity for oxygen and they form
protective oxide film which prevent further oxidation & corrosion. This is called
passivation.

Co-Cr, Ni-Cr, Ni-Co-Cr alloys form chromium oxide on their surface which make
them corrosion resistant.

Ref Phillipss Science of Dental Materials 11th Edition Pg. No 56

79)Hanau H2 articulator has a inter condylar distance of

A) 90 mm B) 100 mm
C) 110 mm D) 120 mm

Answer C
Hanau-h2 is a non arconarticulator & has a fixed intercondylar distance of 110mm.
Belongs to Class III type A articulator. Permits horizontal and vertical positions and
also accept a face bow transfer.

Ref essentials of complete denture Prosthodontics by Sheldon Winkler 2nd Edition Pg. No 156

80)In guided tissue regeneration technique for root coverage, the titanium reinforced
membrane was used by _____________ to create space beneath the membrane.
A) Tinti and Vincenzi B) Pini-Prato and Tonetti
C) Ramfjord and Nissle D) Widman and Cohen

Answer A

Tinti&Vincenzi used titanium reinforced(Expanadedpolytetrafluoroethylene titanium

reinforced) membranes to create space beneath the membranes. Pini Prato et al
described a technique based on principles of guided tissue regeneration

Ref Carranzas Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 1021

81)The removal of tooth supporting bone for the correction of osseous defects is
called as
A) Osteoplasty B) Odontoplasty
C) Ostectomy D) Alveoloplasty

Answer C

Osteoplasty refers to reshaping the bone without removing tooth supporting bone

Ostectomy includes removal of tooth supporting bone

Ref Carranzas Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 952

82) Patients on oral bisphosphonate therapy can be successfully treated with implant
surgery, when minimum values of C-terminal cross-linked telopeptide type I collagen
(CTX) are
A) 150 pg/ml B) 100 pg/ml
C) 80 pg/ml D) 50 pg/ml
Answer A

CTX is a telopeptide that can be used as a biomarker in the serum to measure the rate
of bone turnover.Serum levels in healthy patients not taking bisphosphonates tends to
hover above 300 pg/ml.

Ref Williams Textbook of Endocrinology Pg. No 1344

83)The systemic disease that may increase oral melanin pigmentation is

A) Downs syndrome B) Albrights syndrome
C) Ramons syndrome D) Melkerson-Rosenthal syndrome

Answer B

McCune-Albright syndrome (MAS) consists of at least 2 of the following 3 features:

(1) polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (PFD), (2) caf-au-lait skin pigmentation, and (3)
autonomous endocrine hyperfunction (eg, gonadotropin-independent precocious
puberty).

Other endocrine syndromes may be present, including hyperthyroidism, acromegaly,

and Cushing syndrome.

Ref Burketts Oral Medicine: Diagnosis and Treatment 10th Edition Pg. No173

84) Calculus control toothpastes contain one of the following ingredients to reduce the
deposition of new calculus on teeth.
A) Zinc oxalate B) Sodium chloride
C) Pyrophosphates D) Hydroxyapatite

Answer C

Ingredients in tooth paste

silica, alumina, dicalcium phosphate,

Abrasives
and calcium carbonate
Detergents sodium lauryl sulphate
Thickeners silica and gums
Sweeteners Saccharine
Humectants glycerine and sorbitol
anticalculus
Pyrophosphates
agents

whitening agents Polyphosphates

strontium
desensitizing agents and potassium salts
Flavors mint or peppermint

Ref Carranzas Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 428

Ref Lindhe Clinical Periodontology 5th Edition Pg. No 741

85)The predominant immune cells present in the early lesions or stage II of gingivitis
is
A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes
C) Plasma cells D) Monocytes

Answer B

Stage of gingivitis Predominant cells

Initial Lesion PMNs
Early Lesion Lymphocytes
Established Lesion Plasma cells
Advanced Lesion Plasma cells
RefCarranzas Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 355

86)The growth of prophyromonasgingivalis is enhanced by metabolic by-products

A) Succinate from campylobacter rectus
B) Protoheme from campylobacter rectus
C) Hydrogen from fuso bacterium
D) Carbon dioxide from fusobacterium

Answer B
Ref Carranzas Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 150

87)Middle superior Alveolar nerve block provides anaesthesia to which root/roots of

the maxillary first molar?
A) Mesiobuccal root B) Distobuccal root
C) Palatal root D) All three roots

Answer A

The MSA nerve block is present only in 28% of population. The MSA block provides
anaesthesia to premolars and mesiobuccal root of maxillary 1st molar

Ref Handbook of Local Anaesthesia by Stanley F.Malamed 4th Edition Pg. No 168

88)The chief cause of success of Ashleys flap for closure of Oro Antral
Communication is
A) Abundant Blood Supply
B) Thickness of the mucosa
C) Maintenance of buccal vestibular depth
D) Suture lining resting on sound buccal bone

Answer A

Palatal rotational advancement flap by Ashley in 1939

Palatal flap is rotated across the fistula, so that the suture line rests on the sound bone
on the buccal side of the orifice. The abundant blood supply in the palatal side
promotes satisfactory wound healing

Disadvantage:requires mobilization of large amount of palatal tissue

Ref Text book of oral and maxillofacial surgery by Neelimaanilmalik 3rd Edition Pg. No 654

89)The right common carotid artery arises from

A) Arch of the aorta B) Brachiocephalic trunk
C) Thyrocervical trunk D) Subclavian artery

Answer B

The right common carotid artery commences at the bifurcation of the innominate
artery (right brachiocephalic trunk). The left arises from the superior mediastinum,
from the arch of aorta.

RefCunnigham Textbook of anatomy 5th Edition Pg. No 884

Ref Atlas of Neuroradiologic embryology, Anatomy by J.RandyJinkinsPg.No 284

90) The usual cerebral blood level of lidocaine necessary to induce seizure activity is
A) 0.01 g/ml B) 0.5 g/ml
C) 3.5 g/ml D) 7.5 g/ml

Answer D

Cerebral blood level of lidocaine necessary to induce seizure activity is 7.5 g/ml.
However, patients on the hypo responding side of this curve may not convulse until a
significantly higher brain blood level is reached.

Ref Handbook of Local Anaesthesia by Stanley F.Malamed 4th Edition

91)The anterior releasing incision in Ward II Flap design for mandibular wisdom
molar surgery is placed
A) Mesial to the second molar
B) Mesial to the first molar
C) Distal to the second molar
D) Midway to the CEJ of the second molar

Answer A

The anterior releasing incision in Modified Ward's given in mesial aspect of second
molar for greater access to remove deeply impacted tooth where the envelope flap is
not sufficient. This creates a three cornered flap.

Ref Petersons principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Pg. No 108

92) Common complication after tracheal intubation is

A) Sore throat B) Glotticedema
C) Vocal cord paralysis D) Laryngeal polyp

Answer A

The ETT bypasses the humidifying mechanisms in the nose and upper trachea.
Inadequate humidification leads to drying of secretions, depressed ciliary motility and
impaired mucous clearance.

The ETT also provides a surface for pathogenic organisms from the gastrointestinal
tract and oropharynx to adhere to and provides direct access for these organisms into
the respiratory tract.

93) Repeated dislocation of mandibular condyle can be treated by intentional fracture

of zygomatic arch and reunion. This procedure is called as
A) Denkers method B) Webers procedure
C) Dautrey procedure D) Stobies technique

Answer C

Dautrey or Le clerc procedure-Le Clerc and Girald described procedure for inferior
displacement of zygomatic arch to prevent translation. An oblique cut using a fissure
bur created anterior to articular eminence to decrease frequency of condylar
displacement by obstructing path of condylar movement. The osteotomized segments
are made to overlap one another.

Ref Petersons principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Pg. No 1169

94)Fracture at the isthmus of a Class II amalgam restoration is a result of inadequate

A) Resistance form B) Retention form
C) Convenience form D) Outline form

Answer A

Resistance form enables both the restoration and tooth to withstand masticatory forces
along the long axis of the tooth without fracture.Enough thickness of restorative
material is required to prevent its fracture under load. Inadequate depth leads to
inadequate resistance form which leads to fracture of restoration. Excess width of
isthumus reduces the resistance form of tooth & restoration

Ref Sturdevants Art and Science of Operative Dentistry 6th Edition Pg. No291

95) Combination of EDTA, urea peroxide and glycol based glyde is called as
A) EDTAC B) MTAD
C) RC-Prep D) GP solve

Answer C

RC-Prep is a chemo-mechanical preparation for root canals that uses a unique formation of
glycol, urea peroxide and EDTA in a special water soluble base to help remove calcifications
and lubricate canals to permit more efficient instrumentation

Ref Grossmans Endodontic Practice 12th Edition Pg. No 268

96) Which of the following are/is acceptable types of tooth preparations to receive
composite resins as restorative materials?
A) Conventional and bevelled conventional
B) Modified preparations where only the defect is removed
C) Box only or slot preparations
D) All of the above
Answer D

Basically 3 types of tooth preparations are made for composite restorations

1) Conventional Class V tooth Preparation

2) Bevelled Conventional Class V tooth Preparation
3) Modified Class V tooth preparation

Ref Textbook of Operative Dentistry by Nishagarg 3rd Edition Pg. No 481

97)Fish described zones of reaction of the peri radicular tissues to noxious products
from root canals. According to his work, zone of irritation is characterized by
A) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and bacteria
B) Round cell infiltration and toxins
C) Macrophages and osteoclasts
D) Fibroblasts and osteoblasts

The four zone described by fish are :

Zone of infection
Zone of Contamination
Zone of Irritation
Zone of Stimulation

Zone of Infection: present in center of lesion

Characterized by PMNLs

Zone of contamination: characterized by round cell infiltration

Demonstrates cellular destruction due to toxins from the central zone or zone of
infection
Lymphocytes are prevalent everywhere.
Zone of irritation : this zone is characterized by macrophages and osteoclast
This zone demonstrates much activity preparatory to repair.
Zone of stimulation: characterized by fibroblast and osteoblast
New bone is built in irregular fashion
Ref Cohen Pathways of pulp 9th Edition Pg. No 929

98) Gingival to occlusal divergence of preparation walls for inlay cavity preparation
ranges from
A) 2 to 5 degree B) 9 to 11 degree
C) 6 8 degree D) 12 15 degree

Answer A

A taper of 2-5 degree per wall can be made as it does not affect the retention.

99) When performing endodontic surgery on anterior crowned teeth, the ideal surgical
flap design is a
A) Full thickness rectangular flap
B) Full thickness triangular flap
C) SubmarginalLeubke-Ochsenbein flap
D) Submarginal semilunar flap

Answer C

Flaps used in endodontic surgery

1) Gingiva
2) Semilunar
3) Triangular
4) Rectangular
5) Submarginal (leubke ochsinbein flap)

Submarginal (leubke ochsinbein flap) scalloped horizontal incision in attached

gingiva and 2 vertical releasing incision.

Must have adequate attached gingiva.Best for epithelial wound closure.

Main advantage is minimizes crestal bone loss& gingival recession.

Ref Endodontics: Principles and practice Pg. No 364

100)The biggest advantage of pulp revascularization in endodontics is
A) Achieving continued root development
B) No additional material such as TCP or MTA is required
C) No obturation is needed
D) After control of infection, it can be completed in a single visit

Answer A

The advantages of pulp revascularization are the possibility of further root

development, reinforcement of dentinal walls by deposition of hard tissue and
strengthening the root against fracture.

Ref Ingles endodontics 6 Pg. No 1338