ELECTRONICS SYSTEM & TECHNOLOGIES

**Biomedical Technology** Power rating=42 kW ANS d. sphygmomanometer

1. A mammography service examined 327 patients 7. Who completes the development of first computed 15. Given the energy level of 6.624x10^-18 J imparted to
during the third calendar quarter of 1996. 719 films tomographic (CT) scanner (EMI, Ltd.) in 1973? an electron stream by an X-ray device, calculate the
were exposed during this period, eight of which were a. Mistretta b. Forssmann c. Kuhl frequency in MHz.
repeats. What is the repeat rate? d. Hounsfield a. 10^6 MHz b. 45.29 MHz c. 10^10 MHz d.
a. 45.5% b. code 2.45% c. 1.1% d. 54.52% ANS. Hounsfield 300 MHz
ANS. 1.1% ANS. 10^10 MHz
8. It is the study of the response of an image receptor to f= E/h
x-rays f= (6.624x10^(-18) J)/(6.624x10^(-
a. sensitometry b. xeroradiography c. 34) J-s)
xeroradiometry d. spectrometry f= 10^10 MHz
ANS. Sensitometry
16. It was first noted by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and
9. Ratio of radiographic contrast with a grid to that won Albert Einstein the Nobel Prize in 1905. It refers
2. A type of luminescence where the visible light is without a grid
emitted only during the stimulation of the phosphor. to the emission of electrons from a clean metallic
a. grid ratio b. contrast improvement factor surface (phototube) when electromagnetic radiation
a. fluorescence b. phosphorescence c. after glow c. Collidge factor d. Bucky factor
d. any of the above (light waves or X-rays) falls onto that surface.
ANS. contrast improvement factor a. Photoelectric effect b. Compton effect
ANS. Fluorescence
c. Bremsstrahlung d. Mie effect
10. Analysis of persons irradiated therapeutically with ANS. Photoelectric effect
3. If a heart measures 12.5 cm from side to side at its superficial x-rays has shown that the skin erythema
widest point, and its image on chest radiograph dose required to affect 50% of persons so irradiated is
measures 14.7 cm, what is the magnification factor? 17. Unit of radiation exposure or amount of X-ray
about
a. 0.85 b. 1.18 c. 0.15 d. 2.2 radiation that will produce 2.08x10^9 ion pairs per
a. 200 rad b. 400 rad c. 600 rad d. 800 rad
ANS. 1.18 cubic centimetre of air at standard temperature and
ANS. 600 rad
MF= (image size)/(object size) pressure (STP).
MF= (14.7 cm)/(12.5 cm) a. Curie b. Roentgen
MF= 1.18 11. ECG recording requires a bandwidth of 0.05 to c. Radiation absorbed dose (rad) d. Gray
___Hz ANS. Roentgen
4. Radiation doses in the range of approximately200 to a. 1000 b. 540 c. 100 d. 40
1000 rad produce the ANS.100 18. An optical electronic device that measures the color
a. Gastrointestinal (GI) syndrome concentration of a substance in solution.
b. Central Nervous System (CNS) syndrome 12. Find the potential generated if blood flowing in a a. colorimeter b. flame photometer
c. Hematologic syndrome vessel with radius 0.9 cm cuts a magnetic field of 250 c. spectrophotometer d. chromatograph
d. Prodomal syndrome G. Assume a volume flow rate of 175 cubic cm per ANS.colorimeter
ANS. Hematologic syndrome second.
a. 206 uV b. 309 uV c. 903 uV d. 260 uV 19. Recording of heart sounds
5. Ratio of incident to transmitted radiation through a ANS. 309 uV a. ultracardiography b. cardioacoustics
grid ratio of patient dose with and without grid E= QB/50a c. electrocardiogram d. phonocardiography
a. Bucky factor b. Damadian factor c. Grid ratio E= ((175 cc.s)(250 G))/(50(0.9cm)) ANS. Phonocardiography
d. Roentgen equivalent E= 309 uV
ANS. Bucky factor 20. Recorder for measuring galvanic skin resistance
13. Period during which heart contracts. a. electrodermograph b. electromyograph
6. A radiographic single-phase unit installed in a private a. Diastole b. Systole c. block mode d. c. electrocorporealograph d. electrogalvanograph
office has a maximum capacity of 100 milliseconds of Synapse ANS.electrodermograph
120kVp and 500mA. What is the power rating? ANS. Systole
a. 42 kW b. 60 kW c. 600W d. 24kW
ANS 42 Kw 14. Apparatus for measuring blood pressure
Power rating=(0.7)x (mA x kVp)/1000 a. defibrillator b. electrocardiogram
Power rating=(0.7)x ((500)(120))/1000 c. plethysmograph d. sphygmomanometer
**Digital and Data Communications**
14. A bit pattern or a character added to the beginning
1. It consists of 36 unique codes representing the 10 and the end of a frame to separate the frames
digits and 26 uppercase letters a. Flag b. Firewall c. Frameguard d. Footprint
a. Discrete code b. code 39 c. continuous code ANS.Flag
d. 20 code 7. Inaccuracies caused by the representation of a
ANS.code 39 continuously varying quantity as one of a number of 15. An IPv4 has an address space of how many?
discrete values. a. 4294967296 b. 6927694924 c. 2449692769
2. The first fixed- length character code developed for a. alias signal b. slope overload c. distortion d. d. 9672969442
machines rather than for people quantizing errors ANS. 4294967296
a. ASCII Code b. Gray Code c. EBCDIC code ANS.quantizing errors 232 = 4294967296
d. Baudot Code
ANS.Baudot Code 8. Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using 16. What is the bit rate of STS 1?
knowledge of the way in which voice sounds are a. 51.84 Mbps b. 64 kbps c. 100 Mbps d. 2.4
3. The early pioneer in the development of error- produced: GHz
detection and correction procedures: a. vocoder b. codec c. sample-and-hold circuit ANS.51.84 Mbps
a. Richard W. Hamming b. William R. Hamming c. d. ADC
Emile Baudot d. Samuel Baudot ANS.vocoder 17. A block coding technique in which four bits are
ANS. Richard W. Hamming encoded into a five bit code
9. A coding scheme that records the change in signal a. Baudot b. 2B1Q Encoding c. 4B/5B Encoding
4. The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for level since the precious sample d. 4A/5A Encoding
error detection a. unipolar code b. PPM c. PCM d. delta ANS.4B/5B Encoding
a. checksum b. LRC c. CRC d. VRC modulation
ANS.CRC ANS.delta modulation 18. A national standards organization that defines
standards in the United States
5. For the given parameters, determine the energy per 10. Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate a. ANSI b. FCC c. ITU d. CCITT
bit-to noise power density ratio when coding an analog signal for digital transmission ANS.ANSI
C = 10e-12 W a. aliasing b. foldover distortion c. either a or b
fb = 60 kbps d. neither a nor b 19. In asynchronous transmission, one or more bits to
N = 1.2 x 10e-14`W ANS.either a or b indicate the end of transmission
B = 120 kHz a. trailer b. flag c. escape byte d. stop bit
a. 16.2 dB b. 14.2 dB c. 20.2 dB d. 11. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only ANS.stop bit
22.2 dB an average of 12000 frames per minute with each
ANS.22.2 dB frame carrying an average of 10000 bits. What is the 20. What is the overhead (number of extra bits) in the DS-
; throughput of this network? 3 service?
a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps a. 1.368 Mbps b. 1.480 Mbps c. 2.048 Mbps d.
ANS.2 Mbps 6.024 Mbps
Throughput= (12 000 x 10 000)/60 = 2 Mbps ANS.1.368 Mbps
6. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is **Electronics/Communications**
12. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB
positive with its voltage one-half the maximum value.
above 40. What is the minimum number of bits?
What proportion of the maximum output voltage is 1. The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist
a. 3.56 b. 5.63 c. 6.35 d. 3.65
produced? Theorem
ANS6.35
a. 0.786Vmax b. 0.876Vmax c. 0.867Vmax a. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
SNRdB = 6.02nb + 1.76 = 40
d. 0.678Vmax b. equal to the highest frequency of a signal
n = 6.35
ANS.0.876Vmax c. twice the bandwidth of a signal
13. The thick coaxial cable implementation of standard d. twice the highest frequency of a signal
Ethernet ANS.twice the highest frequency of a signal
a. 1000 Base-T b. 10 Base-T c. 10 Base 2 d.
10 Base 5 2. It is used in wireless applications in which stations
ANS.10 Base 5 must be able to share the medium without
 interception by an eavesdropper and without being d. five a. 0.97 dB b. 3.6 dB c. 6.02 dB
subject to jamming from a malicious intruder ANS. Two d. 7.2 dB
a. modulation b. Multiple access 10101 XOR 11001 = 01100 ( presence of two 1) ANS. 3.6 dB
c. multiple access d. Spread spectrum The total noise temperature of the antenna and
ANS.spread spectrum 9. An address space is the total number of addresses receiver is NTtot = 75+ 300 = 375.
used by the protocol, such as IPv4 and IPv6. What The noise temperature is given by:
3. An error detection method which uses ones is the address space of IPv6? where: NT noise temp, NR = Noise
complement arithmetic a. 232 ratio
a. Checksum b. 264 Rearranging the above to find NR gives:
b. CRC c. 296 NR = (375/290) +1 = 2.29
c. Simple-parity check d. 2128 The Noise figure is the decibel equivalent of the noise
d. Two-dimensional parity check ANS.2128 ratio, such that:
ANS.Checksum NF = 10 log NR = 3.6 dB
10. It is a standard designed by ITU to allow
4. It is a connecting device between two internetworks telephones in the public telephone network to talk to 3. The modulation index of an AM radio station is 0.75. If
that use different models computers/terminals connected to the internet the carrier power is 500W, what is the total
a. Bridge a. H. 111 transmitted power?
b. Gateway b. H.123 a. 391 W b. 438 W c. 641 W
c. Repeater c. H.321 d. 688 W
d. router d. H. 323 ANS.641 W
ANS.gateway ANS.323
4. An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal
5. It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of 11. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000 oscillator to generate a very stable 108MHz final
data due to circuitry action which causes bits to arrive pixels. If each pixel uses 1024 colors, how many bits carrier frequency. The output of the crystal oscillator
at different times are needed to send the complete contents of a is fed to a x36 multiplier circuit then mixed with a 34.5
a. alias b. impulse screen? MHz signal. The sum output of the mixer is filtered
c. jitter d. parity a. 12 Gigabits out, while the difference is fed to another multiplier in
ANS.jitter b. 1. 2 Gigabits order to generate the final carrier frequency. What is
c. 120 Megabits the multiplier value?
6. In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input d. 12 Megabits a. 108 b. 3 c. 1.5 d. 72
voltage level to the smallest voltage level that can be ANS.12 Megabits ANS. 72
quantized 1,200 times 1000 pixels x 10 bits = 12 Mb Basic Block Diagram of the FM carrier generator:
a. Dynamic range 1024 colors requires 10 bits , 210 = 1024 1 MHz carrier > x 36 > Mixer > Multiplier >
b. Figure of merit
108MHz carrier
c. Quality factor **Laws and Ethics, Analog and Digital Electronics,
d. Noise figure Microelectronics, Power Line Communications** First Multiplier output:
ANS.Dynamic range
1MHz x 36 = 36 MHz
1. The sensitivity of a radio receiver is given in terms of Mixer output:
7. A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using dBm. If the receiver is receiving 200 mW, what is the 36MHz + 34.5 MHz = 70.5MHz (filtered output)
a time slot of 2 bits, determine the frame duration. corresponding dBm of this signal? 36MHz 34.5 MHz = 1.5 MHz (difference fed
a. 20 s a. 46dBm b. -46 dBm c. 23 dBm to the next multiplier)
b. 50 s d. -23 dBm Multiplier stage:
c. 100 s ANS.23 dBm Output = 108MHz
dBm for 200 mW = 10 log (200mW/1mW) = 23 dBm Output = 1.5MHz x n
d. 400 s
N = 108/1.5
ANS.20 s 2. An antenna with a noise temperature of 75 Kelvin is = 72
connected to a receiver input with a noise
8. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords temperature of 300 K. Given the reference **Electronic Communications**
( 10101, 11001) temperature T0 = 290 K, find the noise figure of the
a. one system. 1. A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the
b. two
upper frequency is double the lower frequency.
c. three
a. bandwidth b. frequency doubler c. octave d. 4. At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited 11. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the
harmonics transmission line behaves as a(an) ___________ unmodulated carrier value is 85V. What is the
ANS.octave circuit. modulation index?
a. inductive b. capacitive c. parallel-resonant a.0.47 b. 1.47 c. 0.68
2. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a d. series-resonant d. 0.32
narrowband FM receiver with deviation maximum of ANS.parallel-resonant ANS.0.47
10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 m = Em/ Ec
kHz. The S/N input is 3:1. 5. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns
a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16 delay of a 4 MHz signal to a 75-ft cable with a Emax = Ec + Em ; Em = Emax Ec = 125 85 = 40 V
ANS. 10 dielectric constant of 2.3. m = 40V/ 85V = 0.47
a. 108 degrees b. 4.8 degrees c. 52
3. A small variable capacitance in parallel with each degrees d. 250 degrees 12. The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast
section of ganged capacitor is called _______. ANS.108 degrees transmitter with a carrier power of 50kW when
a. trimmer b. converter c. padder d. = 360 td / T modulated 80 percent is:
autodyne T =1/f = 1 / 4MHz = 250 ns a. 62.5kW b. 66W c. 66kW
ANS. trimmer = 360 (75) / 250 = 108 degrees d. 40kW
ANS.66kW
**EST** 6. Which of the following is a flat conductor separated by Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2)
an insulating dielectric from a large ground plane that Pt = 50,000 ( 1 + 0.82 /2)
1. How many wavelengths long are required for a pair of is usually one-quarter or one-half wavelength long? Pt = 66,000 W
conductors to be considered as a transmission line? a. stripline b. microstrip c. twin-lead wire Pt = 66kW
a. b. c. 1/10 d. shielded-pair
d. 5/8 ANS. microstrip 13. One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great
ANS.1/10 deal of power. Which of the following is the reason
7. One complete revolution around a Smith Chart why it is not widely used?
2. Determine the time taken for a signal to travel down a represents _________ wavelengths. a. the signal occupies a narrow bandwidth b. the
10 m transmission line, if its velocity factor is 0.7. a. b. c. 1 signal has a low S/N c. the signal is
a. 23.33 ns b. 14.52ns c. 76.8 s d. 2 weak at high frequencies d. the signal is difficult
d. 47.6 ns ANS. to demodulate
ANS. 47.6 ns ANS.The signal is difficult to demodulate
T= L/ (Vf x Vc) 8. A mismatched transmission line is also referred to as
T= 10 m/ (0.7)(3x108 m/s) a ___________ line. 14. If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the
T= 47.6 ns a. lossy b. lossless c. non-resonant system is called a _______________________.
d. resonant a. low level modulator b. high-
3. The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U ANS.resonant level modulator c. differential-
foam coaxial cable is 52 V and its minimum voltage is . amplifier modulator d. lattice modulator
17 V. How many percent of the incident power is the 9. It is the ratio of the speed of propagation on a line to ANS.high-level modulator
reflected power? that of light in free-space.
a. 51% b. 26% c. 3% a. velocity factor b. refractive index c. dielectric 15. input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the
d. 97% constant d. standing-wave ratio frequency deviation caused by the noise if the
ANS.26% ANS.velocity factor modulating frequency is 1.5KHz and the permitted
2 = Pr/Pi deviation is 4KHz?
10. Which of the following is the most widely used UTP a. 1,460.8 Hz b. 547.8 Hz c. 2.67 Hz
= SWR-1 ; SWR = Vmax/ Vmin = 52/17 = 3.05 cable that can carry baseband data at rates up to 100 d. 4,107.3 Hz
SWR+1 Mbps at a range up to 100m? ANS.547.8 Hz
a. CAT 4 b. CAT 5 c. CAT 5e = fm
= 3.05 1 = 0.51 d. CAT 6 = sin -1 N/S = sin -1 1/2.8 = 0.3652
3.05 +1 ANS.CAT 5 = (0.3652)(1.5KHz) = 547.8 Hz
Thus : 2 = (0.51)2 = 0.26
The reflected power is 26 % of the incident power 16. What circuit is used to return the frequency response
: of a signal to its normal, flat level?
 a. pre-emphasis b. de-emphasis c. carrier- ANS. 93%
recovery d. frequency-multiplier Efficiency = Rr / Rt = 67 / (67 + 5) = 93% 9. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is
ANS. de-emphasis measured with
2. Two antennas have gains of 5.3 dBi and 4.5 dBd, a. a slotted line
17. It is the most common means of overcoming the respectively. Which has a greater gain? b. an EIRP meter
problems of quantizing error and noise. a. The first antenna has a higher gain. c. a dipole
a. multiplexing b. companding c. amplifying b. The second antenna has a higher gain. d. a field-strength meter
d. anti-aliasing c. Both antennas have the same gain ANS. a field-strength meter
ANS. companding d. Cannot be determined
18. ________________ means that the characteristics ANS. The second antenna has a higher gain.\ 10. A receiving antenna with a built-in preamplifier
and performance of an antenna are the same whether 3. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. active antenna
the antenna is radiating or intercepting an a. Marconi antenna b. passive antenna
electromagnetic signal. b. Yagi antenna c. coil
a. antenna reciprocity b. antenna c. Hertz antenna d. LC antenna
polarization d. none of the choices ANS. active antenna
c. antenna grounding d. tower sway ANS. Hertz antenna
ANS. antenna reciprocity 11. Which of the following is not a reason why most half-
4. An antenna's beamwidth is measured wave antennas are mounted horizontally at low
19. Which of the following methods is used to lower the a. from +90 to 90 frequencies?
resonant frequency of a shortened vertical antenna? b. between half-power points a. physical construction is easier
a. loading coil b. top hat loading c. drooping c. from front to back b. more cost-effective
radials d. grounding d. between the minor side-lobes c. mounting is easier
ANS.top hat loading ANS. between half-power points d. support is easier
ANS. more cost-effective
20. Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a 5. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's
parabolic antenna that has a diameter of 3 m, an radiation pattern caused by 12. The shape of the electromagnetic energy radiated
efficiency of 60% and operates at a frequency of 4 a. radio signals reflecting off the ground from or received by an antenna is called the
GHz. b. buildings and other structures on the ground a. signal shape
a. 39.8 dBi b. 41.94 dBi c. c. fading b. electromagnetic pattern
37.66dBi d. 79.53 dBi d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground c. radiation pattern
ANS. 39.8 dBi ANS. radio signals reflecting off the ground d. antenna pattern
G = 2 D2/ 2 ANS. radiation pattern
= 3x108/ 4MHz = 0.075 m 6. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using
G = 0.62(3)2 a. a shorted stub 13. Antennas that transmit an equal amount of energy in
0.0752 b. an LC network the horizontal direction are called
G= 9474.8 c. a loading coil a. bi-directional
G = 10 log 9474.8 d. all of the choices b. unidirectional
G = 39.8 dBi ANS. all of the choices c. omnidirectional
d. unilateral
21. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators 7. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased ANS. omnidirectional
used at the ends of the wire antenna. a. the number of lobes increases
a. skin effect b. end effect c. faraday b. efficiency decreases 14. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals
effect d. miller effect c. the number of nodes decreases over a narrow horizontal directional range is referred
ANS.end effect d. none of the above to as
ANS. . the number of lobes increases a. focal factor
b. permittivity
**Electronics System & Technologies** 8. LPDA stands for c. directivity
a. Low-Power Dipole Array d. horizontal range
1. A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67 b. Log-Periodic Dipole Array ANS. directivity
ohms and a loss resistance of 5 ohms, measured at c. Low-Power Directed Array
the feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency. d. Log Power Dipole Array
a. 90% b. 91% c. 92% d. 93% ANS. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
15. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus ANS. a Q section
one or more additional conductors that are not 28. It is a microwave device that allows RF energy to
connected to the transmission line form a 21. By how much should two antennas be separated for pass through in one direction with very little loss, but
a. parasitic array space diversity in the 11 GHz band? absorbs RF power in the opposite direction.
b. bi-directional array a. 5.5 m b. 7.5m c. 9.5m a. multiplexer b. circulator c. isolator d. wave trap
c. half-wave dipole d. 11.5m ANS.isolator
d. counterpoise ANS.5.5 m
ANS. parasitic array 29. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna
22. What is the phase velocity of a rectangular aperture to eliminate sidelobes interfering nearby
16. An antenna made up of a driven element and one or waveguide with a wall separation of 3 cm and a stations is called
more parasitic elements is generally referred to as a desired frequency of operation of 6 GHz? a. radome b. shield c. shroud d. bass drum
a. Hertz antenna a. 3.45 x 108 m/s b. 4.35 x 108 m/s c. 4.53 x 108 m/s d. ANS.shroud
b. Marconi antenna 5.43 x 108 m/s 30. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
c. collinear antenna ANS.5.43 x 108 m/s _________.
d. Yagi antenna a. is greater than in free space
ANS. Yagi antenna 23. A transmitter and a receiver is 45 km apart. Suppose b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and
that there is an obstacle midway between the the free space wavelength
17. Which antennas usually consist of two or more half- transmitter and receiver. By how much must the path c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
wave dipoles mounted end to end? between the towers clear the obstacle in order to d. is directly proportional to the group velocity
a. Hertz avoid diffraction at a frequency of 11 GHz? ANSWER:is greater than in free space
b. Marconi a. 17.52 m b. 10.51 m c. 8.76 m d. 7.52 m
c. collinear ANS. 10.51 m 31. Geostationary satellites are located at ____ with
d. Yagi respect to the equator.
ANS. collinear 24. How far from the transmitter could a signal be a. 00 longitude b. 00 latitude c. 450 longitude
received if the transmitting and receiving antennas d. 900 latitude
18. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave where 40 m and 20 m, respectively, above level ANS. 00 latitude
dipoles spaced from one another by one-half terrain?
wavelengths is the a. 44.5 km b. 45.4 km c. 54.4 km d. None of the 32. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the
a. broadside array choices ______ ratio.
b. end-fire array ANS.44.5 km a. S/N b. G/T c. C/N d. EIRP
c. wide-bandwidth array ANS. G/T
d. parasitic array 25. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of
ANS. broadside array electric intensity change between two further walls, 33. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by
and no component of the electric field in the direction several kHz during a low earth orbit satellite pass?
19. When the characteristic impedance of the of propagation. The mode is a. The distance between the satellite and ground
transmission line matches the output impedance of a. TE11 b. TE10 c. TM22 d. TE20 station is changing, causing the Kepler effect
the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna ANS. TE20 b. The distance between the satellite and ground
itself, station is changing, causing the Bernoulli effect
a. the SWR will be 10:1 26. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return c. The distance between the satellite and ground
b. the SWR will be 1:10 loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator, station is changing, causing the Boyles Law effect
c. minimum power transfer will take place and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much d. The distance between the satellite and ground
d. maximum power transfer will take place power is dissipated in the load? station is changing, causing the Doppler effect
ANS. maximum power transfer will take place a. 1 W b. 851 mW c. 750 mW d. 638 mW ANS. The distance between the satellite and
ANS.638 mW ground station is changing, causing the Doppler
20. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced effect
transmission line of a specific impedance connected 27. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return
between a load and a source in order to match loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator, 1. The most ambitious LEO constellation to date is
impedances is and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much ______.
a. a balun power returns to the source? a. Iridium
b. an autotransformer a. 250 mW b. 350 W c. 535 W d. 690 W b. NAVSTAR
c. a Q section ANS. 5.43 x 108 m/s c. Teledesic
d. dummy load d. Globalstar
 ANS.Teledesic 2. Variation in signal loss caused by natural weather 3. + 26 dBu is how many volts?
disturbances. a. 7.75 V
2. A satellite-dish owner has a 3 meter dish designed for a. attenuation b. fading c. spreading loss b. 15.5 V
C-band (4 GHz) operation. The owner wants to use d. weather loss c. 31 V
the same dish with a new feedhorn, for Ku-band (12 ANS. fading d. 62 V
GHz) satellites. What effect will the change in ANS. 15.5 V
frequency have on the gain and beamwidth of the 3. Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna V (dBu) = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 Volts ]
antenna? that is 200 m high and a receiving antenna that is 100 26 = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ]
a. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth m high 26 / 20 = log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ] = 1.3
decreases to 1/3 of its former value. a. 99.5km b. 96.5 km c. 95.87 km d. Voltage = log-1 (1.3) x 0.775 V
b. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth 97.5 km Voltage = 15.5 V
decreases to 1/3 of its former value. ANS. 99. 4. A type of microphone that uses the principle of a
c. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth increases 4. The height above the earths surface from which a capacitor as a means of transduction. It uses a
to thrice of its former value. refracted wave appears to have been reflected polarizing voltage of between 9 and 48 V of DC
d. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth a. actual height b. virtual height c. average supply applied to its diaphragm by an external power
increases to thrice of its former value. height d. mean height supply.
ANS. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth ANS. virtual height a. Dynamic b.Condenser
decreases to 1/3 of its former value. c. Ribbon d.Carbon
5. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave ANS. Condenser
3. The moon orbits the earth with a period of propagation between two specific points on earths
approximately 28 days. How far away is it? Assume surface. 5. Determine the sound power in Watts produced by the
circular orbit. a. Critical Frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off banks alarm if a by-stander heard the alarm at a
a. 380 Mm b. 382 Mm c. 384 Mm d. 386 Mm frequency d. center frequency sound pressure level of 100 dB-SPL. The by-stander
ANS.384 Mm ANS. Critical Frequency is 100 ft away from the bank.
a. 56.85 W
4. What is the length of the path to a geostationary 6. Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the b. 55.68 W
satellite from an Earth station if the angle of elevation horizon level. c. 58.56 W
is 300? a. ground waves b. surface waves c. sky waves d. 58.65 W
a. 6400 km b. 39000 km c. 42400 km d. 46000 km d. space waves ANS. 58.65 W
ANS.39000 km ANS. sky waves PWL = SPL + 20 log D(m) + 8
PWL = 100 + 20 log (100/3.28) + 8 = 137.68 dB-PWL
5. What is the nominal uplink frequency for the Ku **Communications / Broadcast** 137.68 = 10 log W + 120
band? 1. An acoustical phenomenon wherein the sound W = log-1 [(137.68 120)/10]
a. 6 GHz continues to persist after the cause of sound has W = 58.65 Watts
b. 4 GHz stopped resulting in repeated reflections is called
c. 14 GHz a. echo 6. A loudspeaker produces an SPL of 85dB-SPL at 1
d. 12 GHz b. reverberation meter distance and input electrical power of 1 W. How
ANS. 14 GHz c. reflection loud is the SPL at distance of 20 meters if this
d. diffraction speaker is driven to 10 W of electrical power?
6. To cover all inhabited regions of the earth, the ANS.reverberation a. 82 dB-SPL
number of polar-orbit satellites required is b. 69 dB-SPL
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 2. A group of filters has 1/3 octave of spacing. If the c. 65 dB-SPL
ANS.1 initial frequency is 25 Hz, what is the next frequency d. 79 dB-SPL
available for the filter? ANS. 69 dB-SPL
**Printing** a. 50 Hz SPL@1m/1W = 85 dB-SPL (given)
1. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave b. 12.5 Hz SPL@20m/1W = 85 - 20 log (20m/1m) = 59 dB-SPL
propagation between two specific points on earths c. 75 Hz SPL@20m/10W = 59 + 10 log (10W/1W) = 69 dB-
surface. d. 31.5 Hz SPL
a. Critical Frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off ANS. 31.5 Hz
frequency d. mid frequency f2 = 2x f1 where x = 1/3, fraction of an octave 7. A number from 0 to 1 representing the ability of a
ANS. Critical Frequency f2 = 21/3 x 25 = 31.5 Hz surface material to absorb sound energy is known as
 a. Sound absorption C 1. As per Philippine standard, frequency allocation of
c. Absorption Coefficient Formula : = AM Radio Broadcasting is from
b. Reflection coefficient
v a. 535 to 1605 kHz
Where : T = orbital period
d. Room Constant b. 526.5 to 1605 kHz
C = circumference
ANS.Absorption Coefficient c. 535 to 1705 kHz
v = orbital velocity
d. 526.5 to 1705 kHz
C = 2 r
8. The difference in dB between the loudest level of = 2 ( 6400 + 36,000 ) = 266.4 x 106 m
ANS. 526.5 to 1705 kHz
sound and the softest passage of sound is known as
a. Headroom b. signal-to-noise ratio 4x1011 2. Part of broadcasting in a day that refers to that period
v= =3.0 7km/s
c. gain d.dynamic range (3
6,000 +6 400) of time between 1000 UTC to 2200 UTC. UTC stands
ANS. dynamic range C 2 6 6.4x1 06m for Universal Time Coordinates.
T= = =2 4h
r
s a. daytime period
v 3 .0
7x1 03m /s
**Satellite Communications** or 1440 minutes b. nighttime period
1. The height above mean sea level of a satellite in a c. experimental period
geosynchronous orbit around Earth is: 6. The outline of a communications satellite antenna d. primetime period
a. 35,786 miles b. 35,786 NM c. 35,786 pattern on the earth is known as: ANS. nighttime period
feet d. 35,786 km a. beam b. propagation pattern c. spot
ANS.35,786 km d. footprint 3. An AM broadcast service area in which groundwave
ANS. footprint field of 1mV/m (60dBu) is not subject to objectionable
2. The location of a satellite is generally specified in interference or objectionable fading.
terms of 7. Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary a. primary service area
a. azimuth & elevation b. latitude & longitude c. satellite from an earth station where the angle of b. secondary service area
true morth d. bearing elevation is 30 .(earths radius = 6400 km, height of c. intermittent service area
ANS.latitude & longitude satellite above earth is 36 X 103 km) d. none among these
a. 36,000 km b. 36,000 mi c. 39,000 km ANS. primary service area
3. A point in the orbit of an object orbiting the earth that d. 39,000 mi.
is located closest to Earth. ANS.39,000 km 4. In antenna mast or tower construction, the required
a. perigee b. apogee c. apex d. obstruction painting and/or lighting must be imposed
subsatellite point
Formula : d=(
r+h
)2
(
rcs
o 2
) r
sn
i on mast or tower more than from the ground level.
ANS. perigee a. 100 ft
8. A satellite access technique where each earth station b. 150 ft
4. Find the velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit 500 transmits a short burst of information during a specific c. 200 ft
km above the earths surface. time slot. d. 250 ft
a. 76 km/s b. 76 m/s c. 7.6 a. FDMA b. DAMA c. TDMA d. ANS. 150 ft
km/s d. 7.6 km/s2 SCADA
ANS. 7.6 km/s ANS. TDMA ( Time Division Multiple Access) 5. Regarding the design of AM antenna, what should be
4x
10 1
1 the polarization of the radiator?
Formula : v= 9. An earth station antenna look angle is determined by : a. horizontal
(
d +0 )
6
4
0
a. azimuth & elevation b. longitude & latitude c. b. vertical
Where : v = velocity in meters per second bearing d. true north c. circular
d = distance above earths surface in km ANS. azimuth & elevation d. elliptical
4x
1
0 1
1
ANS. vertical
v=
(
50+
0 6
40
0 ) 10. An ITU radiocommunication standards for satellite
services which provides information on the range of 6. As per Phillipine standard, what is the minimum
= 7.6 km/s frequencies that can be used by fixed satellite service frequency separation in any service area for adjacent
systems for emergency and disaster relief operations. AM radio stations?
5. Find the orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit a. ITU-R M1854 b. ITU-R S 009 c. ITU-R a. 40 kHz
36,000 km above the earths surface if the earths S.1001-2 d. ITU-R S.004 b. 200 kHz
radius is 6400 km. ANS.ITU-R S.1001-2 c. 36 kHz
a. 1440 mins b. 24 days d. 300 kHz
c. 3,600 sec d. 1440 sec **Communications / Broadcast Engineering and ANS. 36 kHz
ANS. 1440 mins Acoustics**
7. What is the maximum power allowable for remote H = 1 / fH = 1 / 15734.264
pick-up stations used as broadcast auxillary services 13. What is the color TV system adopted by the H = 63.556 x 10-6 = 63.556 usec
for AM and FM broadcast stations? Philippines?
a. 10 W a. NTSC 19. Nominal RF bandwidth of NTSC TV channel
b. 15 W b. PAL a. 4.2 MHz
c. 35 W c. SECAM b. 4.5 MHz
d. 200 W d. none among choices c. 6 MHz
ANS. 35 W ANS.NTSC d. 5.35 MHz
8. What is the classification of an FM station having an 14. Exact value of color subcarrier frequency (MHz) is ANS. 6 MHz
ERP not exceeding 30kW? a. 3.579554
a. Class A b. 3.579455 20. A land mobile station used for the transmission of TV
b. Class B c. 3.580545 program materials and related communications from
c. Class C d. 3.579545 the scenes of events occuring at remote points from
d. Class D ANS. 3.579545 TV broadcast station studios to TV broadcast station.
ANS. Class B a. TV Pick-up station
15. Determine the visual carrier frequency of TV channel b. TV STL station
9. What is the modulation used for the stereophonic 9 c. TV Inter-city Relay station
subcarrier of FM composite baseband signal? a. 175.25 MHz d. TV Satellite link station
a. AM DSB FC b. 187.25 MHz ANS.TV Pick-up station
b. AM DSB SC c. 193.25 MHz
c. AM SSB d. 199.25 MHz 21. For a total capacity of 36 Mbps and 64-QAM of digital
d. AM VSB ANS.187.25 MHz modulation, what is the ideal RF bandwidth?
ANS. AM DSB SC fNLB = 174 + (N 7)6, using Arithmetic Progression a. 4 MHz
f9LB = 174 + (9 7)6 = 174 + (2)6 = 174 + 12 = 186 b. 5 MHz
10. What is the pilot subcarrier frequency used in FM MHz, low band frequency of channel 9 c. 6 MHz
stereophonic transmission? fVC = 186 + 1.25 = 187.25 MHz, visual carrier d. 7 MHz
a. 15 kHz frequency of channel 9 ANS. 6 MHz
b. 19 kHz For a 64-QAM, the total number of symbol
c. 30 kHz 16. What is the maximum allowable ERPs for channels 7 combinations is 64 symbols and the number of bits to
d. 38 kHz 13 in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu? produce this is
ANS.19 kHz a. 100 kW n = log2 64 = 6 bits per symbol
b. 316 kW Therefore the ideal RF bandwidth is
11. The output power of an FM transmitter is 5 kW. If the c. 350 kW BW = fB / n = 36 Mbps / 6 bits
power loss in transmission line is around 10 W and d. 1 MW BW = 6 MHz
the antenna has a power gain of 6 dB, what is the ANS. 1 MW
ERP of the station in kW? 22. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that
a. 5 kW 17. At NTSC standard, the number of lines per frame = utilized ionosphere as a medium of transmission and /
b. 30 kW ________ lines/frame or reception of radio signals?
c. 20 kW a. 485 a. ground wave
d. 19.96 kW b. 525 b. sky wave
ANS. 19.96 kW c. 625 c. space wave
GANT = 6 dB = 4 d. 585 d. all of these
ERP = (5000 10) x 4 = 4990 x 4 = 19,960 W or ANS. 525 ANS.sky wave
19.96 kW
18. At NTSC standard, line frequency = 15734.264 Hz. 23. What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling
12. Frequency allocation of FM broadcast in the What is the equivalent line period? at a frequency of 220 MHz in a coaxial line having
Philippines a. 66.556 usec Teflon foam as its dielectric, r = 2?
a. 535 1605 kHz b. 65.556 usec a. 1.0 m
b. 88 108 MHz c. 63.556 usec b. 0.85 m
c. 50 15000 Hz d. 64.556 usec c. 0.96 m
d. 174 216 MHz ANS. 63.556 usec d. 1.36 m
ANS. 88 108 MHz fH = 15734.264 Hz
 ANS. 0.96 m b. space diversity c. Inverse Square law
c = 3 x 108 m/sec = 300 x 106 m/sec c. angle diversity d. Gauss law
velocity factor vf = 1 / sqrt (r) = 1 / sqrt (2) = 0.707 = d. quadrature diversity ANS.Inverse Square law
vP / c ANS.space diversity
Therefore the velocity of the radio signal in the coaxial 32. The lowest portion of the ionosphere that is useful for
line is 28. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) different long-distance communication by amateurs; about 100
vP = 0.707c = 0.707 (300 x 106) = 212,132,034.36 frequencies in a simplex path? to 115 km above the earth is known as the layer.
m/sec (or 212 x 106 m/sec approx.) a. frequency diversity This is often termed as the Kennely-Heavyside layer.
so that the wavelength of the signal is b. space diversity a. D
= vP / f = 212 x 106 / 220 x 106 = 0.963636 m or c. angle diversity b. E
0.96 m approx. d. quadrature diversity c. F1
ANS. frequency diversity d. F2
24. What is the angle of refraction in a Teflon (r2 = 2) ANS. E
medium of a radio wave from air (r1 = 1.0) if its angle 29. What is the critical frequency of a layer if the
of incidence is 45? maximum value of electron density is 2 x 106 per 33. A graph which shows the radiation in actual field
a. 24 cm3? strength of electromagnetic fields at all points which
b. 26 a. 11 MHz are at equal distance from the antenna is known as
c. 28 b. 12 MHz a. Frequency Response
d. 30 c. 13 MHz b. Radiation Pattern
ANS. 30 d. 14 MHz c. Smith Chart
Using Snells Law ANS.13 MHz d. FCC F(50,50) Graph
Sqrt (r1) sin i = Sqrt (r2) sin r Nmax = 2 x 106 per cm3 = 2 x 106 x 106 per m3 = 2 x ANS, Radiation Pattern
Sqrt (1) sin 45 = Sqrt (2) sin r 1012 per m3
r = sin-1 [(Sqrt (1) sin 45) / Sqrt (2)] = sin-1 (0.5) = 30 fc = 9 x sqrt (Nmax) = 9 x sqrt (2 x 1012) 34. The efficiency of an antenna is 82 %. Its
fc = 12.73 MHz or 13 MHz approx.
radiation resistance is 30 . What is the value of its
25. An ionosphere layer also termed as absorption layer
loss resistance?
because it absorbs most of the frequencies above 30. A radio communication link is to be established via
a. 75
100 kHz is known as the layer. the ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of the
b. 15
a. D layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of the path and the
c. 12
b. E critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
d. 6.58
c. F1 the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value
ANS.6.58
d. F2 for the optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain
= Rd/(Rd + Rloss)
ANS. D analysis.
0.82 = 30/(30 + Rloss)
a. 8.2 MHz
0.82 (30 + Rloss) = 30 = 24.6 + 0.82 Rloss
26. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength b. 8.3 MHz
Rloss = (30 24.6) / 0.82 = 6.5854 or 6.58
Classifications, what is the classification of Super c. 8.4 MHz
approx.
High Frequency? d. 8.5 MHz
a. metric ANS. 8.4 MHz
b. decimetric For flat terrain analysis, tan i = d/2hv 35. A phenomenon on the surface of the sun with
c. centimetric i = tan-1 [d/2hv] = tan-1 [500/2(110)] = tan-1 [2.273] = appearance and disappearance of dark irregularly
d. millimetric 66.25 angle of incidence shaped areas.
ANS.centimetric MUF = fc x sec i = fc / cos i = 4 / cos 66.25 = 4 / 0.40275 a. SID
SHF band: 3 GHz 30 GHz = 9.932 MHz via Secant Law b. 11-year sunspot
max = 3 x 108 / 3 x 109 = 0.1 m = 100 cm OWF = 0.85 x MUF = 0.85 (9.932) = 8.4422 MHz or 8.4 c. Sporadic E-layer
min = 3 x 108 / 30 x 109 = 0.01 m = 1 cm MHz approx. d. Ionospheric storms
SHF band wavelength classification is ranging from 1 ANS.11-year sunspot
cm to 100 cm. Therefore it is centimetric wave. 31. The power density is inversely proportional to the
36. What should be done to increase the transmission
27. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) square of the distance from the source. This law is
known as distance at frequencies higher than HF bands?
separate antennas and receivers for each single
a. Faradays law a. increase antenna gain
transmitter?
b. increase antenna height
a. frequency diversity b. Snells law
c. increase transmitter power
 d. increase receiver sensitivity PFED = PR / GANT = 4.93 / 1.64 = 3.007 W or 3 W ANS.250 mW
ANS. increase antenna height approx. PT = -76 dB - PR
Where:
37. Which of the following factors must be considered in **Wireline and wireless ** PT = transmitted power in dBm
the transmission of a surface wave to reduce 1. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a PR = received power in dBm
attenuation? country are distinguished by their ___.
a. electrical properties of the terrain a. language digits b. area codes c. central office PT = -76 dB - PR
b. frequency codes d. access digits = -76 dB (-100dBm)
c. antenna polarization ANS.area codes = 24 dBm
d. all choices = 250 mW
ANS.all choices 2. Telephone traffic is measured ____
8. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination.
38. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength. Calculate the via net loss required for an acceptable
What is the designated band of stations frequency? amount of echo.
a. MF a. in erlangs c. with echo cancellers a. 0.2 dB b. 0.4 dB c. 0.6 dB d. 0.8 dB
b. HF b. by the relative congestion d. in terms of the ANS. 0.8 dB
c. VHF grade of service VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB
d. UHF ANS.in erlangs Where:
ANS.HF VNL = minimum required via net loss in dB
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM SOLVING): 3. In a cellular telephone system, each cell site contains t = time delay in ms for propagation one way
c = 3 x 108 m/sec a ____. along line
= 11 m = c / f a. touch tone processors c. repeater VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB
f = 3 x 108 / 11 = 27 MHz approx., which is within 3 b. control computer d. direct link to a branch = 0.2 X 2 + 0.4
30 MHz range designated as HF band exchange = 0.8 dB
ANS.repeater
39. What is the total radio horizon distance between an 9. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook
80 ft transmitting station and a 20 ft receiving station? 4. When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops is:
a. 53.66 km below a certain level, what action occurs? a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 53.66 mi a. the cell site switches antennas b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
c. 18.97 km b. the call is terminated ANS.48 volts DC
d. 18.97 mi c. the unit is handed off to a closer cell
ANS. 18.97 mi d. the MTSO increases power level 10. Central offices are connected by:
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM SOLVING): ANS.the unit is handed off to a closer cell a. local loops c. both a and b
dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x hT) + sqrt (2 x hR) b. trunk lines d. none of the above
dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x 80) + sqrt (2 x 20) 5. In a cellular telephone system, group of cells is called ANS.trunk lines
dRH (TOT) = 18.97 mi ___.
a. sector b. Cluster c. site d. cell segment 11. In telephony, call blocking is:
40. A power density of 1.57 x 10-4 W/m2 is measured 50 ANS.cluster a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
meters from a test antenna whose directive gain is b. occurs on the local loop when there is an
2.15 dB. How much power was fed into the test 6. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are electrical power failure
antenna? transmissions from base stations to mobile units c. occurs only on long-distance cables
a. 1 W (Downlink) d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
b. 2 W a. forward links b. reverse links ANS.occurs when the central office capacity is
c. 3 W c. TRX d. TRA exceeded
d. 4 W ANS.forward links
ANS.3 W 12. The cable used for local loops in telephone system is
From Inverse Square Law, PD = PR/4d2 7. A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from mainly:
PR = PD x 4d2 = 1.57 x 10-4 x 4(50)2 = 4.93 W the base as -100 dBm. What should the mobile a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
approx. is the radiated power transmitter power be set to as a first approximation, b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic
GANT = log-1 [2.15 dB/10] = 1.64 considering - 76 dB at mobile power contol? ANS.twisted-pair copper wire
PR = PFED x GANT a. 150 mW b. 200 mW c. 250 mW d. 300 mW
13. In DTMF, the four vertical frequencies are ____.
 a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz C. Advanced Mobile Phone System a. Use a higher frequency light source
b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service b. Use plastic cladding
c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz ANS.Advanced Mobile Phone Service c. Minimize the core diameter
d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz d. All the above
ANS. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz 21. In Cellular Radio, BSC stands for: ANS. Minimize the core diameter
a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract
14. In DTMF, the Horizontal frequencies are b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code 5. Which is not an important characteristic of a light
a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz ANS.Base Station Controller detector?
b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz a. Responsitivity b. Dark current c. Power
c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz 22. In Cellular Radio, MSC stands for: consumption d. Response speed
d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz a. Mobile Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier ANS. Power consumption
ANS.1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz b. Mobile Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier
6. The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a
15. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are ANS.Mobile Switching Center portion of the light energy traveling in the cladding is
transmissions from mobile units to base stations called
(Uplink) 23. In GSM, voice channels are called: a. Modal dispersion
a. forward links b. reverse links a. traffic channels c. bearer channels b. Material dispersion
c. TRX d. TRA b. voice channels d. talking channels c. Waveguide dispersion
ANS.reverse links ANS.traffic channels d. Cable dispersion
ANS. Waveguide dispersion
16. In DTMF, the horizontal frequencies is also known as 24. In Mobile Communications, GSM uses:
a. low group frequencies a. frequency hopping c. CDMA 7. Recent laser developments for fiber-optic
b. high group frequencies b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above communication include
c. mid group frequencies ANS.frequency hopping a. Distributed feedback (DFB)
d. top group frequencies b. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
ANS.high group frequencies 25. In Mobile Communications, IMSI stands for:: c. Heterojunction
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification d. Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical cavity
17. In DTMF, the Vertical frequencies is also known as b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification surface emitting (VCSEL)
a. low group frequencies c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification ANS.Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical
b. high group frequencies d. Intermodulation System Interference cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
c. bottom group frequencies ANS.International Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. top group frequencies 8. Which of the following considerations is important
ANS.low group frequencies ** Electronics and Communications** when deciding between using a diode laser or an
1. The most common light used in fiber-optic links is LED?
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone a. Infrared b. Red a. Response time
system is restricted in order to: c. Violet d. Ultraviolet b. Power levels
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" ANS.Infrared c. Temperature sensitivity
b. prevent "singing" d. Failure characteristics
c. allow signals to be multiplexed 2. In the telecommunications industry, the most ANS.Response time
d. all of the above commonly used fiber(s) are
ANS. allow signals to be multiplexed a. 50 micron b. 62.5 micron 9. In 1815, the correct explanation of diffraction was
c. 50 and 62.5 micron d. 125 micron given by
19. This is the highest-ranking office in the DDD network ANS. 50 and 62.5 micron a. Maxwell b. Rayleigh c. Fresnel
in telephony in terms of the size of the geographical d. Snell
area served and the trunking options available. 3. The abrupt change in refractive index from core to ANS.Fresnel
a. section center c. primary center cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the
b. regional center d. all of the above a. Total internal reflection b. Numerical aperture 10. It is the central part of the optical communication
ANS.regional center c. Dispersion d. Step index system
ANS. Step index a. Light Source b. Optical Fiber c.
20. In Cellular Radio, AMPS stand for: Photodetector d. none of the above
a. American Mobile Phone System 4. A technique that is used to minimize the pulse ANS.Optical Fiber
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service dispersion effect is to
11. The light energy that is always emitted or absorbed in 5. Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place from
discrete units paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz. Note: such air. What numerical aperture does the fiber have?
a. Light Ray b. Boson c. Quanta reflectors are often used at that frequency as a. 0.852 b. 0.352 c.
d. Light antennas outside broadcast television microwave 1.032 d. 0.235
ANS.Quanta links. ANS. 0.352
a.140 b. 70 c. 3.50 d. 0.8750 By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between
12. Which of the following Ethernet fiber optic standard ANS.3.50 the indexes is:
uses synchronous, Centralized Clock? =(n1-n2)/n1
a. 10 Base-FL (Link) b. 10 Base-FB (Backbone) 6. This is often used to cure the problem of great =(1.55-1.51)/1.55
c. 10 Base-FP (passive) d. Both a & c thickness required of lenses used at lower microwave =0.0258
ANS.10 Base-FB (Backbone) frequencies or for strong curved wavefronts. By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found
to be:
13. It is a mixed, multiple-service standard to allow the a. Splicing b. Zoning c. Curving d. Polarizing NA=n1(2)
transmission of voice and video over an FDDJ ANS.Zoning =1.55[(2)(0.0258)]
network. = 0.352
a. FDDI - II b. FDDI - I c. Hi PPI 7. A structure-generally metallic and sometimes very
d. Escon complex-designed to provide an efficient coupling 13. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive
ANS. FDDI - II between space and the output of a transmitter or input index of 1.55 and is clad with another glass with a
to a receiver. refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place from
14. It is a layer of plastic that surrounds a fiber or group of a.Stub b. Antenna c. Transmission line d. waveguide air. What is the acceptance angle?
fibers ANS.antenna a. 22.8 b. 18.6 c. 20.6
a. Buffer Tube b. Bulkhead c. Cladding d. 23.6
d. Jacket 8. The ratio comparing the power density generated by a ANS. 20.6
ANS. Buffer Tube practical antenna in some direction, with that due to By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between
an isotopic antenna radiating the same total power. the indexes is:
** Signal Processing and Control Systems ** a. directivity b. Directive gain c. bandwidth =(n1-n2)/n1
1. The angular separation between the two half-power d. Elementary doublet =(1.55-1.51)/1.55
points on the power density radiation pattern. ANS.Directive gain(b) =0.0258
a.Bandwidth b Beamwidth c. Footprint d. Azimuth By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found
ANS.Beamwidth 9. Any array that is directional at right angles to the to be:
plane of the array is said, by inference, to have NA=n1(2)
2. Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of __________. =1.55[(2)(0.0258)]
the electromagnetic wave radiated from an antenna a.Broadside b. Broadside array c. Broadside = 0.352
and is parallel to the antenna itself. action d. End-fire array By equation (20.8), the acceptance angle is:
a.Propagation b. Coordinates ANS.Broadside action 0(max)=sin-1NA= sin-10.352=20.6
c. Polarization d. Azimuth
ANS.Polarization 10. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter is 14. For a single-mode optical cable with 0.25-dB/km
called __________ of the parabola, just as in camera
loss, determine the optical power 100km from a 0.1-
3. Placing a metallic array on the antenna effects to lenses.
mW light source.
increase the current at the base of the antenna, and a. focus b. resolution c. feed
a. -25dBm b. -45dBm c.
also to make the current distribution more uniform. d. aperture
-35dBm d. -30dBm
What is this called? ANS.Aperture
ANS. -35dBm
a.Reflector b. Grounding c. Top loading d. Feeding
P=0.1mW x 10-{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)}
ANS.Top loading 11. Corresponds to a resonant transmission line, and the
=1 x 10-4 x 10{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)]
dipole antennas describe so far have been resonant.
=(1 x 10-4)(1 x 10-25)
4. What principle that states that the properties of an a. Non-resonant antenna b. Resonant antenna
=0.316W
antenna are independent of whether it is used for c. Antenna arrays d. None of the above
P(dBm)= 10log
transmission or reception. ANS.Resonant antenna
= -35dBm
a.Alternation b. Diplexer
c. Reciprocity d. Repeatability 12. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive
ANS.Principle of reciprocity index of 1.55 and is clad with another glass with a
15. For an optical fiber 10km long with a pulse-spreading b. Wavelength distortion 6. Is an access method used primarily with LANs
constant of 5ns/km, determine the maximum digital c. Rayleigh scattering configured in a bus topology.
transmission rates for return-to-zero. d. Microbending
a. 10Mbps b. 20 Mbps ANS.Pulse spreading CSMA/CD b. CSMA c. CSMA/CA
c. 50 Mbps d. 5 Mbps d. MA
ANS.20Mbps Data comms
ANSWER: a. CSMA/CD
16. In fiber optics, it is a measure of the conversion 1. Is an OSI Layer which is responsible for providing
efficiency of a photodetector. It is the ratio of the error-free communications across the physical link 7. IP version 4 address length is
output current of a photodiode to the input optical connecting primary and secondary stations (nodes)
power and has the unit of amperes per watt 32 bits b. 24 bits c. 40 bits
a. Dark current b. Responsivity c. Spectral Response a.Data Link Layer b. Transport Layer c. Session Layer d. 48 bits
d. Light Sensitivity d. Presentation Layer
ANS.Responsivity Ans. 32 bits
ANSWER: a. Data Link layer
17. A phenomenon also called stress corrosion resulting if 8. Is a multiport bridge that provides bridging function.
the glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high 2. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the
humidity? smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the a. Repeater b. hub c. Router
a. Static fatigue digital-to-analog converter. d. Switch ANSWER: d. Switch
b. Absorption
c. Scattering loss a. Step size b. Quantization Error c. Resolution 9. Is a device which operates in the Network layer and it
d. Dispersion d. Dynamic range makes forwarding decisions on the basis of network
ANS. Static fatigue addresses
ANSWER: d. Dynamic range
18. The theory which states that when visible light or a. Repeater b. hub c. Router
high-frequency electromagnetic radiation illuminates a 3. Is a PCM system which uses a single bit PCM code to d. Switch
metallic surface, electrons are emitted. achieve digital transmission of analog signals
a. Photoelectric effect ANSWER: c. Router
b. Plancks law a.Trellis Coding b. Delta modulation c. Differential
c. Photoemission effect PCM d. QAM 10. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is
d. Ray Theory of light
ANS.Plancks law ANSWER: b. Delta modulation a. 51.84 Mbps b. 1.544 Mbps c. 3 Mbps
d. 2.048 Mbps
19. The science of measuring only light waves that are 4. Is a redundancy error detection scheme that uses parity
to determine if a transmission error has occurred within a ANSWER: a. 51.84 Mbps
visible to the human eye
a. Radiometry message and is sometimes called message parity.
11. Is one in which all computers share their resources
b. Photometry
a. Longitudinal redundancy check b. Vertical with all the other computers on the network.
c. Optometry
d. Optics redundancy check c. Character Parity Check
d. Checksum a. Dedicated client server network b. Peer-to-peer
ANS. Photometry
client/server network c. Peer-to-peer
ANSWER: a. Longitudinal redundancy check network d. All of the above
20. The process of constructing an ILD that is similar to
LED except that the ends are highly polished.
5. Is an n-bit data register inside the UART that keeps ANSWER: b. Peer-to-peer client/server network
a.epitaxially grown b. Planar diffusion c. lasing
d. None of the above track of the UARTs transmit and receive buffer registers
12. Is used to interface DTEs to digital transmission
ANS.Lasing channels
a. Control Register b. Status Word
register
21. A phenomenon in optical fibers communication a. Data modem b. Router c. Splitter d.
system that is caused by the difference in the Channel service unit
c. Control and Status Register d. Command
propagation times of light rays that take different
registerANSWER: b. Status Word register
paths down the fiber. ANSWER: d. Channel service unit
a. Pulse spreading
 a. directivity b. directive gain c. power gain c. standing wave ratio d. all of these
d. power density
13. Modulation which combines encoding and modulation ANSWER:c. standing wave ratio
to reduce the ANSWER: a. directivity

probability of error.
9. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by
a. DPSK b. FSK c. QAM 4. The maximum horizontal distance between the the ionosphere, if wave is sent vertically upward.
d. TCM transmitter and the receiver for line of sight propagation is
known as: a. maximum usable frequency (muf) b.
ANSWER: d. TCM propagating frequency
a. radio horizon b. range c. single hop distance
14. Is an empirical record of a systems actual bit error d. service region c. critical frequency d. cut-off frequency
performance
ANSWER: a. radio horizon ANSWER: critical frequency
a. ER b. BER c. EER
d. BERT

ANSWER: b. BER 5. Typical mode of radiation of helical antenna is: 10. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna
to the receiving antenna
15. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting a. end fire b. normal c. common
transmission errors in synchronous data streams. mode d. differential mode a. ground wave b. scatter c.
space wave d. sky wave
a. Trellis Code b. EBCDIC c. Bisync Code ANSWER: a. end fire
d. Hamming code ANSWER:c. space wave

ANSWER: d. Hamming code

6.The electric field is perpendicular to the earths surface,
RADIO WAVE the polarization is: 11. VLF waves are for some types of services because
1. The electric field intensity is measured in:
a. vertical b. normal c. a. of low powers required b. the transmitting antennas
a. V/m b. V-m c. C/m horizontal d. circular are of convenient size
d. V/C
ANSWER:a. vertical c. they are very reliable d. they penetrate the
ANSWER:a. V/m ionosphere easily

ANSWER:c. they are very reliable

2. It is a result of an increase in the charge density in

dielectric materials. 7. In what major RF band is ground wave basically
applied? 12. It is the distance between two wave fronts having the
a. polarization b. dipole moment c. potential same phase at any given instant.
d. potential difference a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. UHF
a. wavefront b. wavelength c. wave
ANSWER a. MF (Medium Frequency) distance d. field intensity

ANSWER polarization ANSWER:b. wavelength

8. A measure of mismatch in a transmission line

3. It refers to the maximum antenna gain a. reflection coefficient b. propagation 13. It is a piece of transmission line which is normally
delay short-circuited at the far end.
a. terminator b. stub c. quarter wave transformer a. D layer b. E layer c. 3. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude-
d. none of these A layer d. F layer modulation systems with respect to

ANSWER: b. stub ANSWER: d. F layer a. Noise performance

b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel
18. Which is properly terminated antenna? c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
d. Power consumption
a. rhombic b. dipole ANSWER: c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
c. marconi d. hertz
14. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm 4. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received
resistive load. Calculate the reflection coefficient. ANSWER: a. rhombic data bits that provide information on noise, jitter, and
linearity is called a
a. 0.35 b. 0.25 c. 0.10 d. 19. Occurs when the radio beam is at point of grazing over
0.15 an obstacle. a. Eye pattern
b. Constellation pattern
ANSWER: b. 0.25 a. diffraction b. refraction c. c. Statistical concentration
absorption d. reflection d. Loopback
SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING) ANSWER:a. Eye pattern
ans: diffraction
Ref Coeff = (30 50)/(30 + 50) = 0.25 5. The type of radio transmission that uses
pseudorandomly switched transmissions is known as

20. A microwave communications system, space loss a. Facsimile

15. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line calculation formula is b. Spread spectrum
does not depend upon its c. Synthesizing
a. 92.4 + 10 log F + 20 log D b. 94.2 + 10 log F + 20 log D d. Compression
a. conductor spacing b. conductor diameter c. 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log Dd. 94.2 + 20 log F + 20 log D ANSWER: b. Spread spectrum

ANSWER: 6. The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

c. length d. conductor
radius c. 92.4 + 20log F + 20 log D a. Channel-division multiple-access systems
b. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
ANSWER: c. length DATA c. Capture-division multiple-access systems
d. Code-division multiple-access systems
1. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to
generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by ANSWER:Code-division multiple-access systems
16. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the comparing the phase of two successive data bits is
impedance measured at the _______ when its length is 7. The acronym OFDM refers to ________.
infinite. a. CSU/DSU b. DPSK c. TDM
d. CVSD a.
Orthogonal Frequency Division
a. input b. shorted end of the line c. output Multiplexing
ANSWER: b. DPSK b. Over Frequency Division Multiplexing
d. midsection c. Optional Frequency Division Modulation
2. A special digital modulation technique that achieves d. Orthogonal Frequency Division
ANSWER:a. input high data rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called Modulation
ANSWER: Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
a. Delta modulation
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM) 8. Using radio to transmit gathered data on some
17. Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) particular phenomenon without human monitors is known
for long-distance night time communications? d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) as
ANSWER: c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM
a. Radio facsimile
 b. Radio telemetry b.
Bandwidth characteristics b. alias
c. Radio teletype c.
Simplicity in design c. modem
d. Radio multiplexing d.
Frequency response of the intelligence d. PSK
ANSWER: Radio telemetry signal ANSWER: Modem
ANSWER: Noise characteristics
9. The acronym for the form of data transmission in which 20. The bit ________ is the amount of power in a digital bit
the modulating wave shifts the output between two 15. A procedure that decides which device has permission for a given amount of time.
predetermined frequencies is _____. to transmit at a given time is called
a. error
a. FSK a. Line control b. energy
b. PSK b. Protocol c. joule
c. FPF c. Flow control d. hp
FSA d. Sequence control ANSWER: energy
ANSWER: a. FSK
ANSWER: Line Control 21. The relationship for bit rate to ________ bandwidth is
10. Pseudorandom implies a sequence that can be _____ defined by the Shannon-Hartley theorem.
but has the properties of randomness.
a. modem
a. decoded 16. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is b. codec
b. detected c. channel
c. re-created a.
Excessive noise producing errors d. amplifier
d. minimized b.
Slope overload ANSWER: Channel
ANSWER: re-created c.
Insufficient frequency response of the
intelligence signal 22. In an S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled
11. ______ implies that both analog and digital signals d. Complexity of design voltage is
share the same channel bandwidth. ANSWER: Slope overload
a. Aperture time
a. AM 17. The AT&T T1 lines b. Acquisition time
b. Hybrid c. Flat-top time
c. FM a.
Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 d. Dmin
d. RF voice channels ANSWER: Aperture time
Ans: hybrid b. Use delta modulation and include 48
voice channels 23. Error signals associated with the sampling process are
12. Telemetry may be defined as _____ metering. c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 called
voice channels
a. distance d. Use delta modulation and include 24 a. Foldover distortion
b. specialized voice channels b. Aliasing
c. remote ANSWER: Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice c. Nyquist rate
d. data channels d. Foldover distortion and aliasing
ANSWER: Remote ANSWER: Fold over distortion and aliasing
18. The ground wire in a USB cable is ______
13. Which is not a type of pulse modulation? 24. A(n) ________ is a single LSI chip containing both the
a. Yellow ADC and DAC circuitry
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) b. Blue
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) c. Red a. modem
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) d. Brown b. DSP
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM) ANSWER: Brown c. codec
ANSWER: Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) d. ASIC
19. A(n) ________ is used to allow a digital signal to be ANSWER: codec
14. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in transmitted on an analog channel.
25. The NRZ digital signal-encoding format has a
a. Noise characteristics a. codec ________ component in the waveform.
 a. dc 3. The signal power at the input to an amplifier is 100W a. 5.15 V b. 3005mV
b. sinusoidal and the noise power is 1 W. At the output, the signal c. 2124mV d. 2.24V
c. harmonic power is 1W and the noise power is 30mW. What is the
d. parity amplifier noise figure, as a ratio?
ANSWER: dc a. 3.5 b. 4.5 c. 3 d. 4 SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)
VN = = 4(1.38 x 10-23)(302)(6
ReedSolomon codes utilize a technique called ________
6
to rearrange the data into a nonlinear ordering scheme to (S/N)p = 100W = 100 x 10 )(50)
improve the chance of data correction 1W = 2.24V
(S/N)o = 1W = 33.3 8. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a broadcast
a. pseudorandom 0.03W FM program that has a maximum intelligence frequency of
b. BSC NF (ratio) = 100 =3 5 kHz. The input S/N is 2
c. interleaving 33.5
d. quantizing 4. It is desired to operate a receiver with NF = 8dB at S/N a. 2.5 b. 30 c. 3
ANSWER: interleaving = 15 dB over a 200-KHz bandwidth at ambient d. 25
temperature. Calculate the receivers sensitivity SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING)
1. .For an electronic device operating at a temperature of a. -84dBm b. -98dBm
17C with a bandwidth of 10 kHz, determine the thermal c. -80dBm d. -75dBm
noise power in dBm . SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) = x fi
a. 134dBm b. 130dBm c. = 0.5 x 5 kHz = 2.5 kHz
-134dBm d. 130dBm S = Sensitivity = -74dBm + NF + 10logf + 75 kHz = 30
ANSWER: c. -134dBm desired S/N 2.5 kHz
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) S = -174 + 8 + 10log(200,000) + 15
S = -98 dBm ** Signal Processing and Control Systems**
N = KTB T(kelvin) = 17C + 273 = 290 K 5. A Satellite receiving system includes a dish antenna
B = 1 x 104 Hz ( Teq = 35 K) connected via a coupling network (Teq= 40 K) 1. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car
= (1.38 x 10-23)(290)(1 x 104) = to a microwave receiver (Teq=52 K referred to its input). from rest to v, neglecting friction. How much added
-17
4 x 10 W What is the noise power to the receivers input over a 1- energy would be required to increase the speed from
MHz frequency range? v to 2v?
a. 1.75 x 10-15W b. 1.75 x 10-12W c. a. Q b.2Q c. 3Q d.4Q
N(dBm) = 10log (4 x 10-17) = -134 dBm -15
1.15 x 10 W d. 1.15 x 10-12W
0.001 SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) ANS. 3Q
2. A 300 resistor is connected across the 300 antenna
input of a television receiver. The bandwidth of the PN = KTf Using the energy equation W=KE2 KE1
receiver is 6MHz, and the resistor is at room = 1.38 x 10-23 J/K (35 + 40 + 52)K (1MHz)
temperature .Find the noise voltage applied to the receiver = 1.75 x 10-15 W
input. Q = 0.5mv2 0 - condition 1
6. Equivalent temperature of a passive system having the
a. 5.4 V b. 3.12 V c. 4.5 V same noise power output of a given system. W = 0.5m(2v)2 0.5mv2 - condition 2
d. 6.7 V
ANSWER: a. Noise figure
W=2mv2 0.5mv2 = 3(0.5mv2) = 3Q
b. Total temperature
a. 5.4 V c. Equivalent temperature
SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) d. Noise temperature

VN = Answer: 2. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential

d. noise temperature energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is the
= 4(1.38 x 10-23 J/K)(293 K)(6 x 106 Hz)(300 magnitude of the required electric field?
7. The noise voltage produced across a 50 is input
) resistance at a temperature of 302C with a bandwidth of a. 0.475 MV/m b. 0.336MV/m c. 0.225TV/m
= 5.4 x 10-6 V d. 0.113TV/m
6 MHz is ______.
= 5.4 V
ANS.E=0.475 MV/m
 u=1.00J/1.00m3 = 1.00J/m3 a. Clairuts equation b. Bernoullis
equation
E=0.475 MV/m (a)
c. Maxwells equation d. Hyrdofluid equation

ANS.Bernoullis equation
3. Material a is a water and material b is a glass with
index of refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an 8. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average
angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of speed of the charge carriers?
the reflected ray. a. drag velocity b. molecular-kinetic speed
a. 49.3o b. 91.3o c. 60o
d. 34.7o c. drift speed d. charge velocity

ANSWER: 60o ANS.drift speed

4. The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon 9. In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to
sensor is 633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous waves, commonly generated by electronic devices,
humor inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of whose wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m
light in this substance. to 10-4 m. Due to their short wavelengths these are
a. 2.25 x 108 m/s b. 3.25 x 108 m/s often used in radar systems and for studying the
atomic and molecular properties of matter.
c. 3.00 x 108 m/s d. 1.25 x 108 m/s a. Radio waves b. Microwaves

ANS. 2.25 x 108 m/s c. AM waves d. Radar waves

5. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of ANS.microwaves

0.900c fires a robot space probe in the same direction
as its motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the
spaceship. What is the probes velocity relative to the
Earth?
a. 0.900c b. 0.345c c. 0.700c d. 0.982c

ANS. 0.982c

6. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image

produced on a concave mirror due to the
convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points
on the principal axis. What do you call this effect?
a. spherical aberration b. focal divergence c.
parallax error d. Snells effect

ANS.spherical aberration

7. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a

fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In
addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the
elevation increases.