Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
BANK
B -737/NG
SYSTEMS
CHAPTER 2
AIR SYSTEMS
CHAPTER 2 - AIR SYSTEMS
1. During pre-flight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only
one pack is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the consequence?
o Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone
which requires the most cooling
o During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two
pack operation.
o With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to
satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.
o If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone
temperature demands will be averaged for control of the left pack.
2. When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light
illuminates. What is correct?
o This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems.
o Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to
the backup system has occurred.
o This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset
button.
o This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a
preset value.
5. From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs.
o From the static ports
o From the Captains CDU
o From the ADIRUs
o From the EFIS control panel
1
7. The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated, what area is affected?
o The keel beam
o APU bleed duct
o Left aircond bay
o Right engine strut
9. The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution
warning?
o OVHT /DET
o AIR COND
o OVERHEAD
o As the light is in the proximity of the pilots perception there is no master caution for
this condition.
10. One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What is the situation?
o There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down.
o Both primary and secondary pack controls have failed.
o The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby pack
control
o Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack.
12. Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if:
o Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.
o Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF.
o Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON.
o Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON.
13. The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminates. What does it indicates?
o The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be
manually shift to manual
o The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to
STANDBY.
o The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the
altitude window.
o The pressurisation controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual.
2
15. What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit?
o The Right pack.
o The Left pack.
o Both packs.
o Ground air
19. Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the
FLT ALT selector during preflight, but subsequently the A/C climbed to FL390,
would you expect:
o A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve;
o A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve;
o A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve;
20. The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 PSID on the ground when:
o Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust.
o When the PSEU is activated.
o When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor.
21. AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
o The cabin altitude exceeds 15,800ft.
o The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min.
o The pressurization controller is moved to ALTN.
22. When both the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light illuminate:
o Pressurization has automatically switched to the ALTN system.
o Pressurization has automatically switched to the MAN system.
o Pressurization has automatically switched to the opposite automatic controller.
23. Where do the AUTO mode controllers receive their barometric information from?
o The captain's pitot/static system.
o The FO's pitot/static system.
o The ADIRUs.
3
24. Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of
the related equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should restore
airflow and extinguish the OFF light within approximately _____.
o 5 seconds
o 30 seconds
o 1 minute
o 3 minutes
27. Why should livestock (animals) be transported in the FWD cargo holds?
o Because they are cooled by air from the E&E bay.
o Because they are heated by air from the E&E bay.
o The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft cargo
door making loading easier
28. If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
o Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV.
o Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude.
o Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return
to the field of departure.
29. What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP?
o FL410.
o FL250.
o FL180.
o FL100.
30. Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted:
o True.
o False.
32. On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot\'s first action should be to:
o Analyse the situation and decide on corrective action.
o To don oxygen masks.
o Initiate an emergency descent.
o Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist.
4
33. An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the following
conditions occur:
o A single controller failure when \'ALTN\' light is also illuminated.
o Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the
cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft.
o Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65psi or with the
loss of AC power.
o Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
35. A flight deck ZONE TEMP light which remains illuminated after the master caution
system is reset indicates:
o A flight deck duct overheat.
o A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller.
o Both above statements are correct.
o Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs.
36. A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel.
o True.
o False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets.
o False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip.
o False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only.
38. If a PACK light can be reset by the TRIP RESET switch then:
o The fault was caused by an overheat trip.
o The fault was caused by a controller fault.
o The fault was caused by an overheat trip or by a controller fault.
o The pack should be selected off as per the QRH.
5
40. Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush
ingestion prior to liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors extend when activated:
o Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor
o Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear
o Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans).
41. If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controls
command the packs to produce air temperatures which will satisfy the average
temperature demand of the two cabin zones. The trim air modulating valves will:
o Open.
o Close.
42. If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the
Left pack to maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain ____ as
measured at the pack temperature sensor.
o 20C (68F) and 18C (65F)
o 24C (75F) and 18C (65F)
o 18C (65F) and 22C (72F)
44. The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around
thelining of the forward cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve isclosed,
exhaust air from the equipment cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft
cargo compartment for additional inflight heating.
o True
o False
45. The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes:
AUTO (automatic) - ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
o All three modes use DC motor.
o Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor.
o Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor.
47. The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure,
baro corrected altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to both automatic
controllers. The ADIRUs receive barometric corrections from the Captain\'s and First
Officer\'s BARO reference selectors. The automatic controllers also receive:
o Throttle position from both stall management computers.
o Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the
air/ground sensors.
o Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS.
6
48. Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust
valve. A small amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents, miscellaneous
fixed vents, and by seal leakage.
o True
o False
49. If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, the PACK,
MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lights illuminate.
o The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive
o The affected pack is controlled by the \'main\' standby pack control
o The pack will be inoperative
50. Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system,
drives the outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes. Outflow valve full
range of motion takes up to 2 minutes.
o True
o False
54. Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has
automatically closed?
o Modulating and Shutoff valve.
o Engine Bleed Air valve.
o Isolation valve.
o 5th valve of the compressor section.
7
56. An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:
o Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
o Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
o Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
o Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
57. What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in
AUTO?
o The isolation valve is always open
o The isolation valve is always closed.
o The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on
pneumatic load.
o Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned
OFF.
58. What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
o The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate.
o The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate.
o The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate
o All of the above.
60. In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer
temperature in order to:
o Reduce cabin airflow.
o Reduce the workload on the other pack.
o Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
o Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves.
61. The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What should
you do?
o Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start.
o Do not start the engines, call Maintenance.
o Do not start the engines, check MEL.
o Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start.
63. The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates a possible APU back pressure condition
and thrust must be limited to IDLE.
o True.
o False.
8
64. What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
o It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold.
o It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold.
o It is discharged overboard.
o It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor section.
65. What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate?
o Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits.
o Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits
o Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits.
o All of the above.
67. If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be
ignored by the temperature control system.
o True
o False
68. The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of
airflow from the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING
SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch on ALTERNATE
o No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
o Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
o Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does
not extinguish.
o Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does
not extinguish.
69. A leak in the APU Bleed Air Duct will be indicated by:
o Right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
o APU BLEED light illuminates on overhead panel
o Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
o CWS Master Caution BLEED
70. On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R
pressure indicates 50psi:
o As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
o Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize.
o Set both packs to high for 2 minutes.
o Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF
9
CHAPTER 3
ICE
&
RAIN PROTECTION
CHAPTER 3 - ANTI ICE & RAIN
2. Windshield wipers of are provided to maintain a clear area on the cockpit No.1
windows. Which of the following statements is correct?
o Each wiper is operated by a separate system
o Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated & electrically controlled
o Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield
o None of the above.
4. When are the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches turned ON if icing conditions exist on
ground?
o When cleared on the runway.
o During taxi out.
o Before engine start.
o Immediately after engine start.
6. In flight there are 2 methods recommended for operating the wing anti-ice
system:
o True.
o False.
7. The CAPT, F/O and AUX pitot probes contain static sensors.
o True.
o False.
1
9. The window heat PWR TEST:
o Must be tested before each flight.
o Provides a confident test.
o Also tests the overheat protection system.
o Must be tested before using the window heat system.
10. The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to all leading edge slats:
o True
o False.
11. Wing anti-ice should not be used when the Total Air Temperature is above +10
degrees C.
o True
o False.
13. Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left side
of each indicator indicates :
o If amber, an overtemperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine
cowl anti-ice valve.
o If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is OFF.
o If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON.
o All of the above.
14. What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative?
o 250 KIAS.
o 280 KIAS.
o 250 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
o 280 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
16. Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?
o Elevator pitot probes.
o Alternate static ports.
o No.1 Aux pitot probe and static port.
o No.2 Aux pitot probe and static port.
17. The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
o The Right elevator pitot is blocked.
o System B hydraulic pressure is low.
o The Right elevator pitot is not heated.
o All of the above are correct.
2
18. Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
o L2, L3, L4, L5.
o L1, L2, L3.
o L2, L4, L5.
o L1 only.
19. What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is placed ON while in flight?
o Both Control valves open
o Stick shaker logic is biased for icing conditions
o FMC displayed Vref is not adjusted
o All of the above
21. When operating on standby power, only the captain's pitot probe is heated,
however, the CAPT PITOT light does not illuminate for a failure.
o True.
o False.
22. Temperature controllers maintain the correct temperature on windows No. 1 and
2. In the event of an overheat, power is automatically removed.
o True.
o False.
24. With the WING ANTI-ICE switch ON and the aircraft on the ground, the WING ANTI-
ICE switch remains ON regardless of the control valve position.
o True.
o False.
3
25. The aircraft is on the ground. You place the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON. Which
conditions will allow the wing anti-ice valve to open?
o Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside
both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature.
o Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature.
o Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature
inside both wing distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature.
o Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside
both wing distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature.
26. The cowl anti-ice valve is _________ controlled and _______ operated.
o Electrically Electrically
o Pneumatically Mechanically
o Electrically Mechanically
o Electrically - Pneumatically
27. You select the engine anti-ice valve to the ON position. The COWL VALVE OPEN
light is illuminated blue and the TAI indication illuminates on the CDS. What happened?
o This is a normal indication.
o There is excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl
lip.
o There is excessive heat applied to the cowl lip.
o The cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position commanded by the ENG ANTI-ICE
switch.
28. Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat?
o Leading flaps.
o Outboard leading edge slats
o Three inboard leading edge slats
o All of the above
29. If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status
o True
o False
4
32. Passing 3000' climbing, you have selected Engine Anti-Ice ON. Passing FL90, you
select them OFF.
o Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the
airspeed indicator return to normal.
o Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to
normal.
o Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the
airspeed indicator return to normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
o Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to
normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used for takeoff.
34. The wing anti-ice system is effective with the slats in any position.
o True
o False.
35. Does the availability of bleed air for engine anti-ice require that the engine bleed
air switch be ON?
o Yes
o No.
36. Which system annunciator light illuminates when any of the pitot lights comes on?
o OVERHEAD
o ANTI-ICE
o PITOT
37. The OVHT test will cause all overheat lights to come on and the ON lights will
eventually go out. How does a pitot reinstate the Window heat after performing an
Overheat test?
o Cycle power OFF and ON to Main AC Bus # 2
o Cycle all switches OFF and ON
o Cycle all switches OFF for 10 seconds and ON
5
CHAPTER 4
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
CHAPTER 4 - AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
1. With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T
modes are commanded by the:
o MCP
o FMC
o FCC.
3. Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:
o A/T computer
o FMC
o IRUs
5. Moving the autopilot Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT position will
disengage the autopilot.
o True
o False.
6. If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overridden with control column
pressure, which of the following occurs?
o The autopilot disengages
o LNAV disengages
o The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released
within 250 ft of selected altitude.
o LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages.
7. The Control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode is:
o Less than normal CWS force
o Greater than normal CWS force
o The same as normal CWS force.
8. When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from
above or below:
o True
o False
1
9. When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane
will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
o 5 degrees or less
o 6 degrees or less
o 10 degrees or less
o 15 degrees or less.
10. How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS?
o One
o Two
o Three
o Fours (two for each channel)
11. The AUTOLAND warning light is armed during dual ILS A/P approach below ____
feet.
o 2500 feet
o 800 feet
o 500 feet
o 200 feet
12. What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged
in CMD?
o CWS P
o MCP SPD
o VNAV
o V/S
13. The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel.
o True
o False.
14. In the 'ARM' autothrottle mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain
thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
o True
o False.
16. Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in
ALT HOLD or after G/S capture.
o True
o False.
17. Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference?
o GA & ARM
o N1 & ARM
o THR HLD & ARM
o Only THR HLD
2
18. What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot
during an ILS approach?
o 2000 feet
o 1500 feet
o 800 feet
o 500 feet.
19. Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet RA
for a flight director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach?
o The autopilot disengages
o GA mode of the Flight Director engages
o The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1
o All the above are correct.
20. The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even through the autopilot is engaged
in CMD:
o True
o False.
23. If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the pitch command target speed is:
o V2, if airspeed is below V2
o Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 & V2+20
o V2+20, if airspeed is above V2+20
o All of the above
24. Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1 mode:
o True
o False.
25. The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged.
Changing the MCP altitude by at least 100 feet, arms the V/S mode.
o True
o False
26. Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel
disengages the autopilot.
o True
o False.
3
27. Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
o VNAV
o VOR LOC
o APP
o LNAV
28. During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees after
____ IAS.
o 10 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS.
o 15 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS
o 10 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
o 15 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
29. Dual channel A/P operation is possible ONLY when two generators are powering
the busses.
o True
o False.
30. Pushing a CWS engage switch engages the A/P pitch and roll axes in the CWS mode
and displays CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P manoeuvres the airplane in
response to control pressures applied by either pilot. The control pressure is similar to
that required for manual flight. If aileron pressure is released with 6 degrees or less
bank, the A/P rolls the wings level and holds existing heading. The heading hold feature
with bank less than 6 degrees is inhibited when:
o Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
o Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
o Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
o Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250
knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
31. If engaged the auto throttle will disengaged ____ after landing touchdown.
o 2 seconds
o 5 seconds
o 8 seconds
o 10 seconds
32. If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel
approach (before FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then disengaged.
o True
o False.
33. The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed
at touchdown.
o 27 feet
o 35 feet
o 50 feet
o 100 feet.
4
34. During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up.
As climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
o 8 degrees
o 10 degrees
o 13 degrees
o 15 degrees.
35. If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch
command bar provides commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed decreases
to approximately :
o 600 fpm
o 800 fpm
o 1000 fpm
o 1200 fpm
36. If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P
attempt to hold the airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope capture,
without regard to angle of attack or stick shaker limitations.
o True
o False.
38. An A/T Disengage flashing light (amber) indicates airspeed error under following
conditions: inflight, flaps not up & airspeed differs from commanded value by _______ and
is not approaching commanded value.
o + or - 10 knots
o + 10 knots or - 5 knots
o + 5 knots or - 10 knots
o + 15 knots or -10 knots.
40. The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode
and status:
o LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors
are operating normally for an automatic landing
o LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated sensors
are operating normally for an automatic landing
o LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout.
o LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are
operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is
operative.
5
41. The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out of
trim below 800 feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P
go-around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation.3- Disengage light test
switch held in position 2.4 Automatic ground test system fail.
o True.
o False.
42. After localizer & glideslope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually
overriding pitch and roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot disengagement.
o True
o False.
43. Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs.
With a radio altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after LOC and GS
capture.
o Immediately.
o 2 seconds.
o Between 2 and 5 seconds depending on the altitude.
o 4 seconds.
44. When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the
airplane levels and the pitch flight mode annunciation becomes:
o VNAV SPD.
o VNAV PTH.
o VNAV ACQ.
o VNAV ALT.
45. During a single F/D go-around, with a push of either TO/GA switch:
o F/D roll commands hold current heading.
o F/D roll commands hold current ground track.
o F/D roll commands hold current heading until passing 400 ft.
46. What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed
during VNAV operations?
o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 250 kts.
o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows FMC target speed..
o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes.
o IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes.
47. Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:
o VOR frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
o LOC frequency is selected only.
o LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
o VOR frequency is selected only.
48. At what altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed
during an ILS dual channel approach?
o 350 feet RA.
o 500 feet RA
o 50 feet RA.
o Will not disengage.
6
49. After a normal takeoff, which pitch command can you expect?
o V2
o V2 to V2+15kt
o V2 to V2+20kt
o V2+20kt
50. Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode /
Pitch mode) Which is the correct mode on the FMA?
o ARM / HDG SEL / TO/GA
o N1 / LNAV / MCP SPD
o ARM / LNAV / FMC SPD
o N1 / HDG SEL / VNAV
51. As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic Go-Around, what is the correct
FMA announcement? (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
o N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA
o GA / LNAV / MCP SPD
o GA / - / TO/GA
o MCP SPD / - / GA
52. When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What
will happen?
o VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
o VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
o VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
o VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
53. When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH
1030. What will the aircraft do?
o The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level
o The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level
o You cannot change the altitude when in ALT HOLD
o The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change.
54. On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur.
o LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale
o LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope
o LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope.
o LLZ 5/8 dot deviation, GS 1/2 dot below the glideslope
55. You are established on the ILS at 3000and inadvertently press TO/GA once. What
will happen?
o The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic
o The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic
o Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000
o The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up
56. The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display unit. What is correct?
o The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature
o The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be
illuminated
o The A/T is using the upgraded BLT performance information
o The FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values
7
CHAPTER 5
COMMUNICATIONS
CHAPTER 5 - COMMUNICATIONS
2. What is the purpose of the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel?
o It selects an alternate radio.
o It selects a degraded mode of operation of the ACP.
o It swaps audio control panels with the observer.
3. The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone orthe
boom microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operationof the hand
microphone.
o True.
o False.
5. In cased of degraded audio system operation can access the passenger address
system through the ACP (Audio Control Panel).
o True.
o False.
6. The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the attention
of other crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication is desired.
Attention is gained through the use of lights and aural signals (chimes or horn). If the
flight deck calls the cabin crew, the visual signal at called position is:
o Blue.
o Pink.
o Green.
o Blue then becomes red after 5 seconds.
7. On the Audio Control panel (ACP) the Cabin call light comes ON. It will illuminate
until:
o remains illuminated for 10 seconds.
o remains illuminated for 20 seconds.
o remains illuminated for 30 seconds.
o remains illuminated for 40 seconds.
1
9. The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:
o Always powers the CVR when DC bus 1 is powered.
o Always powers the CVR when DC bus 2 is powered.
o Always powers the CVR when AC Transfer bus 1 is powered.
o Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine
shutdown.
10. The CVR uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for maximum
of:
o 30 minutes.
o 60 minutes.
o 90 minutes.
o 120 minutes.
14. Which radio does the First Officer use in the degraded mode?
o VHF-1
o VHF-2
o Both VHFs
15. In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors functional?
o Yes.
o No.
16. Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are not heard on an audio
system operating in the degraded mode.
o True
o False
2
17. When the ALTNORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
o The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on
any radios.
o The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one
radio.
o The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the
crewmember can communicate on all radios.
o The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and
interphone.
18. With the Captains ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
o All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.
o Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
o The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost.
o VHF2 is the only useable radio.
20. Flight Attendants may be called from the flight deck, the other attendant station,
or from any passenger seat or lavatory. Master call lights in the passenger cabin identify
the source of incoming calls to the attendants.
o True
o False
3
CHAPTER 6
ELECTRICALS
CHAPTER 6 - ELECTRICAL
5. If the AC source powering a transfer bus fails, the transfer bus will remain
unpowered.
o True.
o False.
6. A high oil temperature in the IDG would cause an automatic disconnect of the IDG.
o True
o False.
7. The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
o Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control
Computers (FCCs)
o Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus
o Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered.
o Provide more power to DC bus 1
8. In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS
TRANS switch to OFF will:
o Cause AC Transfer bus No.1 to lose power
o Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power
o Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power
o Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail.
1
9. The TR3 Disconnect Relay:
o Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director
approach
o Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 & 2 through a diode
o Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS
approach
o Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as dispalyed on the AC
Voltmeter.
11. After the loss of all generators, a fully charged battery can furnish power to the
STANDBY Bus equipment for a minimum of:
o 20 minutes
o 30 minutes
o 60 minutes
o 90 minutes
2
16. The 115V AC Standby Bus is powered by:
o The 115V Transfer Bus No.1 under normal conditions.
o The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions.
o The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators.
o The first & the third statements are correct.
17. One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is:
o All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power
System.
o There is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
o There is no paralleling of any power source.
o An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source..
18. Because engine generators power the transfer busses directly, and transfer
busses are connected by a bus tie system, the loss of an engine driven generator will not
necessarily result in the loss of any bus(ses).
o True
o False.
19. The modified DC system architecture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay found
in the B737-300 thru 500 being replaced with a cross bus tie relay. The cross bus tie relay
opens automatically under the same circumstances as did the TR3 disconnect relay.
o True
o False.
23. In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC
external power.
o True
o False.
3
24. Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates:
o The associated generator bus is not powered
o The associated transfer bus is not powered
o The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus
o The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
27. It is possible to power one transfer bus with external power and the other
transfer bus with the APU.
o True.
o False.
28. The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the
APU powering both Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
o One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off.
o During climb, the galleys may become inoperative.
o Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-
off.
o The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
29. AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the
AC meter selector.
o True
o False.
30. During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the
crew should see include:
o A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
o A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
o Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the
associated Transfer bus
o All of the above.
4
32. Both AC Transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by:
o A single IDG on the ground or inflight
o The APU generator while on the ground or inflight
o Both of the above
o No single source can power both AC Transfer busses simultaneously
33. On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO,
the Battery Bus is:
o Not powered.
o Powered by TR3.
o Powered by the Hot Battery Bus.
o Powered by the Battery.
39. With the STANDBY switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU
electrical power results in the automatic switching from the normal power source to the
alternate source for standby power:
o Inflight only.
o On the ground only.
o Either inflight or on the ground.
o Will not occur.
5
40. In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:
o All galley busses are automatically shed
o Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed
o Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed
o No galley busses are automatically shed
41. With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO (guarded position). In flight, or on the
ground, loss of all AC power. AC Standby bus is powered by battery through static
inverter & DC Standby bus is powered by battery.
o True.
o False.
42. DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the
battery and each of the 3 TRs. The Standby power and battery bus displays only Dc
voltage. Normal indication is : ______ volts
o 24 +/- 4
o 26 +/- 6
o 24 +/-2
o 26 +/-4
44. The purpose of the static inverter is to convert 24 volt DC power from the battery
to 115V AC power to supply the AC standby bus during the loss of normal electrical
power.
o True.
o False.
45. The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of
_____ minutes (if fully charged).
o 30
o 45
o 60
o 75
46. DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are:
o Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus.
o DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus.
o Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when
the battery switch is OFF).
o Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus.
47. If the TR UNIT light is illuminates in flight, it indicates that one or more TR\'s have
failed and you are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode.
o True.
o False.
6
48. An illuminated TR UNIT light while on the ground indicates that at least two TRs
have failed.
o True
o False
50. Either generator or the APU can power both transfer buses. In the event a power
source fails, what is required for that transfer bus to be powered by the opposite transfer
bus power source?
o The generator switch must be OFF.
o The battery switch must be ON.
o The BUS TRANS switch must be in the AUTO position.
51. Normal AC voltmeter indication for the APU generator with the AC busses loaded:
o 100 to 125 volts.
o 110 to 125 volts.
o 110 to 135 volts.
o 115 to 125 volts.
53. DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the
battery and each of the three TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays only DC
voltage. Normal indication is:
o 12 +/- 4 volts.
o 24 +/- 10 volts.
o 26 +/- 4 volts.
54. Both On the ground and in flight a amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a
fault exists in DC power system or standby power system.
o True.
o False.
56. How many TRs are required to power the entire DC system?
o Any one TR.
o Two TRs.
o Three TRs.
o Any TR and the battery.
7
57. What is the source of power for TR3?
o Transfer bus 1.
o Transfer bus 2.
o AC standby bus.
o None of above
62. On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in
BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
o Not powered
o Powered by TR 3
o Powered by the Hot Battery Bus
o Powered by the Battery
64. Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger?
o AC ground service bus 1
o AC ground service bus 2
o Transfer bus 2
o Transfer bus 1
65. The auxiliary battery operates in parallel with the main battery when the battery
is powering the standby bus.
o True
o False.
8
66. The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is
the first bus that is shed?
o Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first.
o Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first.
o The AC standby bus is shed first.
o None of above.
67. The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is
the second bus that is shed?
o Galleys on transfer bus 1
o Galleys on transfer bus 2
o The AC ground service bus.
o The AC standby bus
68. After an overload situation has been resolved, how do you recover the galley
buses?
o It happens automatically.
o Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON.
o A ground engineer should reselect the appropriate switch in the E/E
9
CHAPTER 7
ENGINE
&
APU
CHAPTER 7.1 - ENGINES
1. Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
o Maximum thrust position
o Forward thrust position
o Idle thrust position
o Any position
2. Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the
ignition select switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus while
the Right igniter plug receives power from the AC standby bus.
o True
o False
5. At low N2 values, the oil scavenge pump may not provide enough pressure to
return oil to the tank, causing a low quantity indication. Normal oil quantity should be
indicated after start.
o True
o False.
1
9. If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition & shut off fuel
to the engine:
o 15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts
o 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
o 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle
o No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.
10. The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should
you do?
o Nothing, this is normal condition
o Do not start the engines
o Shut down the APU
o Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines
11. The EEC automatically selects ground minimum idle, flight minimum idle and
approach idle. Approach idle is selected in flight:
o Below approximately 12000 ft
o If flaps are greater than 1 or engine & wing anti-ice are ON
o If flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
o Below 1500 ft, f flaps are greater than 1 or engine anti-ice is ON
13. In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals,
approach idle schedule begins:
o Below 20 000 feet MSL
o Below 15 000 feet MSL
o Below 10 000 feet MSL
o Below 5 000 feet MSL.
14. The EGT display, both box & dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off
ignition and shut off fuel to the engine if:
o An impending hot start is detected during ground starts
o An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts
o The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
o The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
15. Once activated, the DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:
o The completion of the APU start cycle
o Once the APU is at governed speed, ready to acceptable load
o An AC fuel pump pressurizes the manifold
o APU shutdown
2
16. What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
o The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 RPM 56%
o The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light
extinguishes
o An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed
valves
o Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE
extinguishes)
17. Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the following is
true?
o Acceptable, no action is necessary
o Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
o Undesirable, and permitted obly for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced
thrust setting
o Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible.
18. EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust
for the same thrust lever position.
o True
o False.
22. If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X BLEED START
indication will be displayed above the N2 dial.
o True
o False.
3
23. Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
o LOW OIL PRESSURE
o LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT
o HIGH OIL TEMP / FAULT
o OVERSPEED
27. The REVERSER light, located on the aft overhead panel, illuminates when the
thrust reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the
isolation valve closes.
o True
o False
28. The first action during an 'ABORTED ENGINE START' (before starter cutout) is:
o ENGINE START SWITCH .........OFF
o ENGINE START SWITCH......... GROUND
o ENGINE START LEVER ..........CUT OFF
29. In case of LOSS OF THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, you are supposed to wait for
successful engine start(s) before starting APU.
o True.
o False.
30. After a LOSS THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, in moderate to heavy rain, it may take up
to ______ to accelerate to idle.
o 30 seconds
o 60 seconds
o 2 minutes
o 3 minutes
31. During battery start, when does the EEC become energized?
o When positioning the startswitch to GND
o N2 greater than 15%
o When start lever is raised to idle
o Above 25% N1
4
32. The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EECs alternate mode. What is
correct?
o The EECs automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost
o The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight conditions to define
engine parameters
o If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions
will be used for the engine parameters.
o You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel
5
CHAPTER 7.2 - APU
6. Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU.
o On the ground only
o In the air only
o On the ground or in the air
o Never.
8. It is recommended to operate the APU for _____ before using it as a bleed air source.
o 20 seconds
o 30 seconds
o 45 seconds.
o 1 full minute
1
9. During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0 to 1100
C prior to normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on and off several
times. These indications have no adverse effect on starting the APU. It is not necessary to
monitor EGT during start.
o True
o False.
12. The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
o 30 seconds
o 60 seconds
o 120 seconds
o 135 seconds
13. The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
o On the ground only
o In the air only
o On the ground or in the air
o Never.
14. The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:
o 10 000 feet
o 17 000 feet
o 25 000 feet
o 30 000 feet
2
17. The APU will shut down on the ground if:
o The battery switch is placed to OFF
o The LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT light illuminates
o The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the main tank illuminate
o All of the above are correct.
18. When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a normal indication on
the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be
selected.
o True
o False.
19. If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
o The FAULT light illuminates
o The MAINT light illuminates
o The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
o There is no light associated wih this malfunction.
20. In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, all galley busses are
automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both main busses
automatically shed until the load is within design limits. On the ground, the APU attempts
to carry a full electrical load. If an overload condition is sensed, the APU sheds galley
busses first, and then both main busses until the load is within limits.
o True
o False.
22. Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
o LOW OIL PRESSURE
o FAULT
o OVERSPEED
o MAINT
23. The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:
o 41,000 feet
o 17,000 feet
o 25,000 feet
o 37,000 feet
3
25. Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:
o Discharges the APU fire extinguisher
o Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU
o Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve
o Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and
closes the bleed air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
26. When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the
electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be
selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is
placed on line.
o True
o False
4
CHAPTER 8
FIRE PROTECTION
CHAPTER 8 - FIRE PROTECTION
3. Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are MASTER CAUTION &
OVHT/DET annunciator lights, the ENG OVERHEAT light, the Master FIRE WARN lights
and the red fire switch light. What are the other indications?
o The APU DET INOP light illuminates.
o A Red ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates.
o The Fire Bell.
5. Illumination of the APU DET INOP light will also cause the MASTER CAUTION and
OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate.
o True.
o False.
7. During normal operation as a dual loop system, with the OVHT DET switch in
NORMAL, an alert is initiated only if one of the detector elements in Loop A and one of the
detector elements in Loop B signal an overheat or fire condition.
o True.
o False.
1
8. In case of APU fire, the Recall Items are :1) APU
SWITCH.........................................................OFF2) APU FIRE WARNING SWITCH...... PULL &
ROTATE
o True
o False.
10. During cargo fire TEST, Individual detector faults can only be detected by a
manually initiated test. The MASTER CAUTION light does not illuminate.
o True.
o False.
12. In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated
red.
o At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at least
one detector on the remaining loop detects smoke)
o At least one detector in each loop detects smoke.
o At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire condition.
13. If the DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated (amber), a minimum of one loop in
one or both cargo compartments have failed.
o True.
o False.
14. Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the:
o Battery bus.
o No.1 AC Transfer bus.
o Switched hot battery bus.
15. A dual fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well.
o True.
o False.
2
17. The lavatory smoke detection system monitors for the presence of smoke. When
smoke is detected :- an aural warning sounds- the red alarm indicator light on the
lavatory smoke detector panel illuminates
o True.
o False.
18. After a wheel well fire, if the landing gear must be retracted for airplane
performance, leave the landing gear extended for ___ minutes after the WHEEL WELL fire
warning light has extinguished.
o 10 minutes.
o 15 minutes.
o 20 minutes.
o 30 minutes.
19. During 'SMOKE / FUMES REMOVAL' procedure, First Officer's window should be
opened if packs are off and smoke / fumes source is confirmed to be in the flight deck.
o True.
o False.
20. If smoke / fumes are uncontrollable, the crew is supposed to descent to the lowest
safe altitude and at 14000 or below, the PRESSURIZATION MODE SELECTOR should be
positioned to MAN while the OUTFLOW VALVE switch should be opened. What is the main
cause of the OUTFLOW VALVE operation?
o To depressurize the cabin.
o To provide maximum cabin ventilation.
o To provide smoke/fumes contamination of/from other compartments.
o This causes the cabin airflow to carry smoke/fumes aft.
3
CHAPTER 9
FLIGHT CONTROLS
CHAPTER 9 - FLIGHT CONTROLS
4. In the event of hydraulic Systems A & B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can be
operated with the Standby system.
o True
o False
6. During a normal landing, flight spoilers & ground spoilers will always extend
simultaneously.
o True
o False.
7. Elevator Feel provides simulated aero forces using airspeed from elevator pitot &
stabilizer position.
o True
o False
1
9. A Mach Trim system provides speed stability at the higher Mach numbers.Mach
trim is automatically accomplished above:
o Mach 0.50
o Mach 0.615
o Mach 0.655
o Mach 0.70
10. Mach Trim system corrects for Mach tuck by moving stabilizer up.
o True
o False.
11. Concerning Mach Trim operation, FCCs use Mach information from the ADC /
ADIRU, to compute a Mach trim actuator position whih repositions the elevator feel &
centering unit, which adjusts the control column neutral position (column will not move).
o True
o False.
12. In addition to Hydraulic System A & B, the rudder can also be powered by the
Standby Hydraulic System through the:
o System A Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
o System B Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
o Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
o Main Rudder Power Control Unit
13. The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of power for the Autoslat
System if:
o A loss of Hydraulic System A pressure is sensed
o Hydraulic System A engine driven pump is inoperative
o The Alternate Flaps Position Switch is momentarily held down
o A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed.
14. The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead
panel for the leading edge devices is:
o All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated
o All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated
o All LE devices EXT lights illuminated
o LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
2
17. Autopilot trim & main stabilizer trim use separate motors.
o True
o False.
21. Loss of Hydraulic System B pressure does not cause illumination of the amber
YAW DAMPER light or yaw damper disengagement.
o True
o False.
24. Elevator system feel is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer
receives inputs of:
o Altitude & elevator position
o Elevator balance tabs position
o Only System A hydraulic pressure
o Airspeed & stabilzer position.
3
25. The number of slats located on each wing are:
o 2
o 3
o 4
o 6.
26. When the Standby Yaw Damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on the
yaw damper indicator.
o True
o False.
27. The trailing edge flaps devices consist of double slotted flaps inboard outboard of
each engine.
o True
o False.
29. The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
o Flaps are up & a pressure imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected or if
one of the elevator feel pitot systems fails
o Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator
feel pitot systems fails
o Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the
elevator pitot systems fails.
o No correct answer is provided.
4
33. Main electric trim has 2 speed modes : high & low speed.
o True
o False.
39. During landing, compression of any landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers
to deploy. Compression of the Right main landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers
to deploy...
o True
o False.
40. During descent from altitude you need to decrease your aispeed by using your
speed brakes. What is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER.
o ARMED
o FLIGHT DETENT
o UP
o Any intermediate position.
5
41. If wheel spinup is not detected on landing with the speed brake armed the flight
spoilers will deploy automatically :
o Only when the RIGHT main landing gear strut compresses
o When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)
o When the ground spoilers deploy
o Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy.
43. Dual AILERON trim switches, located on the aft electronic panel, must be pushed
simultaneously to command trim changes. The trim electrically repositions the aileron
feel and centering unit, which causes the control wheel to rotate and redefines the
aileron neutral position.
o True
o False.
44. The flight control computers use Mach Information from the _____ to compute a
Mach trim actuator position.
o Airspeed Indicator
o ADIRU
o Mach/Airspeed Indicator & thrust levers position
45. What do the MACH TRIM FAIL, SPEED TRIM FAIL & AUTO SLAT FAIL lights have in
common?
o Will illuminate if both system computers fail
o Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed
o Also illuminates the Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator Lights.
o All of the above.
46. Extending the flaps to flaps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approximately
_______
o 30 seconds
o 1 minute
o 2 minutes
o 4 minutes.
6
48. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminated indicates _______
o Leading edge devices are in transit
o Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting
o Asymetric leading edge devices
o Any of the above.
49. The speedbrake lever will move forward and all spoilers will retract if either
thrust lever is advanced after landing.
o True
o False.
50. The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates that the speedbrake is not usable.
o True
o False.
51. The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the wing
with down aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____
degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated.
o 6,5
o 8
o 10
o 12.
52. At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the FULL EXTEND
position?
o 1
o 1 to 5
o Greater than 5
o 5 to 40.
53. With a loss of both system A & B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will
illuminate:
o True
o False.
54. What is the correct flap setting for a jammed stabilizer landing?
o 1
o 5
o 15
o 30 or 40.
7
56. During the 'ALTERNATE FLAPS OPERATION' procedure, you have to plan a Flaps
15 landing. After arming the ALTERNATE FLAPS MASTER SWITCH (230 kt max), you set
the flaps to desired flap position & extend flaps on maneuvering speed schedule. The LE
FLAPS TRANSIT light will remain illuminates until the flaps approach the:
o Flaps 1 position
o Flaps 5 position
o Flaps 10 position
o Flaps 15 position.
58. You have to perform a 'Runway Stabilizer' recall items. What bare your
chronological actions?
o 1) Hold firmly the Control column 2) Disengage the autopilot 3) if runaway continues,
cutout the stabilizer cutout switches (if runaway continues you'll have to grasp & hold
trim wheel)
o You immediately grasp & hold trim wheel while declaring an emergency
o You disengage autopilot and cutout immediately cutout switches
o You disengage autopilot and cutout the both A & B FLT CONTROL switches
59. The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed
to improve flight characteristics during operation with a low gross weight, aft center of
gravity and high thrust when the autopilot is not engaged.
o True
o False.
60. The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoffs & go-
arounds. Conditions for speed trim operation are:
o Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim
requirement
o Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement
o Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement
o Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds
following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim
requirement
61. During a steady right-handed turn on the ground, correct indications of the
YawDamper indicator would be?
o Steady full scale left deflection.
o Steady full scale right deflection
o Steady in the center position.
8
62. Landing flap 40 selected and in position. An IAS of 178kts is flown due to a
highwind gust. Would you expect:
o Flaps to retract to 30.
o Flaps to retract to 25.
o Flaps to remain in the current configuration.
64. With the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated (indicating failure of the Mach trim
system), you must:
o Limit airspeed to 280 kt / .82 Mach
o Limit aispeed to 270 kt
o Limit airspeed to 280 kt and altitude to 20,000 ft
65. If you activate the FLT CONTROL switch Overhead panel) to STBY RUD, you
activate:
o standby hydraulic systemp pump.
o standby hydraulic system pump and close flight control shutoff valve, isolating ailerons
and elevators.
o activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to
pressurize standby rudder power control unit.
9
CHAPTER 10
FLIGHT INSTRUMENT
&
DISPLAYS
CHAPTER 10 - FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
1. To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this
page:
o CLB or CRZ
o PROG
o CLB
o CLB or PERF
4. If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates; it indicates:
o A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU
o An entry of an invalid present position
o A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode
o That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
5. On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either
degrees Celsius or Fahrenheit:
o True
o False.
7. During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting
Message 'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
o VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
o The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed
o VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots
o VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than
10 knots
1
8. Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced
Climb Thrust.
o True
o False.
9. The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path
details for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route
segment:
o True
o False.
12. Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a
previously selected approach:
o True
o False.
13. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the
BOTH ON 2 position:
o The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's &
First Officer's displays
o Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator
o DEU 2 controls all six display units
o ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe
14. The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle is
35 degrees or more.
o True
o False.
15. The rising runway is displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude
is less than ____ feet.
o 2500
o 1500
o 500
o 200
2
16. The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on
the Mode Control Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse)
o True
o False.
17. The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading &
VOR/ADF bearing to the station. The RMI is powered by:
o The AC transfer bus 2
o The AC standby bus
o The DC standby bus.
o The TR3.
18. When the 'ROLL' flag (amber) appear on the Attitude indicator:
o The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 2 degrees
o The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 5 degrees
o The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 10 degrees
o The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 15 degrees
19. The Altitude Disagree Alert (amber 'ALT DISAGREE') on the digital altimeter
indicates the Captain's & F/O's altitude indications disagree by more than:
o 50 feet
o 100 feet for more than 2 continuous seconds
o 200 feet for more than 5 continuous seconds
o 500 feet for more than 10 continuous seconds
20. If the Altitude Failure Flag (amber) appears, it means that the barometric altitude
or barometric correction has failed. All altimeter symbols are removed except the ALT
ALERT annunciation and the barometric setting.
o True
o False.
22. The message EXCESS DATA is displayed if the amount of information sent to the
navigation display exceeds the display capability. The message can be removed by:
o Reducing the amount of map information
o Reducing range
o Deselecting one or more of the EFIS control map switches (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA,
POS)
o All of the above.
23. If you select the 'BOTH ON 1' switch of the CONTROL PANEL:
o The Left EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
o The Right EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
o The Left ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
o The Right ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
3
24. In the air, the flight recorder is not powered if both engines are shut down.
o True
o False.
26. The Mach digital counter indicates current Mach number & it is displayed when
airspeed increases above ___ Mach
o 0.30
o 0.40
o 0.50
o 0.60
27. The V2+15 white bug of the airspeed indicator is normally displayed for takeoff. It
is removed:
o At first flap retraction or when VREF is entered
o When landing gear lever is placed UP
o When speed is more than 250 knots KIAS
o All of the above.
28. The Flaps Up Airspeed Bug (green) is displayed after Zero Fuel Weight is entered
in the CDU and takeoff gross weight is calculated or after takeoff gross weight is set with
the speed reference selector.
o True
o False.
29. The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either DEU1
or DEU2 for all 6 display units. If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a
single DEU source, a 'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation illuminates above both pilot's
altimeters.
o True
o False.
31. If the MAIN PANEL DUs switch is turned to Outboard Primary Flight Display
(OUTBD PFD), the compact EFIS format is displayed on the outboard display unit & the
inboard display unit blanks.
o True
o False.
4
32. What is the purpose of the Air Data Modules (ADMs)?
o The ADMs convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the
ADIRUs
o The ADMs provide only pitot & static pressure to the standby instruments
o The ADMs provide inertial position & track data to the displays thru the ADIRUs
o The ADMs measure thru the Alpha vanes the airplane angle-of-attack.
34. The Standby attitude indicator provides attitude information that is independent
of the primary attitude displays. The indicator is powered by:
o The Battery bus
o The Transfer bus 1
o The Transfer bus 2
o The TR2
37. What will occur if the aircraft pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication (
PLI ) on the PFD during slow speed maneuvering ?
o The aircraft stalls
o The aircraft will experience initial stall buffet
o The stick shaker warning activates
o The stick nudger pushes the control column forward.
38. During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/
altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three second. What does it mean?
o Radio altitude data is unreliable
o The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
o A windshear has been encountered
o The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet
5
40. The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL:
o The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available
o The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is
operating
o The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON
o The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in
GROUND position
41. The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower
portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. What does it mean?
o The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch
o Glide slope is not being tracked
o The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
o The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error
42. An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
o The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source
o A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units
o A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
o A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source
for all six display units
44. Speed Trend Vector: Tip of arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next _____
based on the current airspeed and acceleration.
o 5 seconds
o 7 seconds
o 2 seconds
o 10 seconds
45. The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP
CTR is divided into three segments. With range greater than 20 NMs the trend vector:
o Predicts position at the end of 10,20 and 30 second intervals
o Predicts position at the end of 20,40 and 60 second intervals
o Predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals
o Predicts position at the end of 60,90 and 120 second intervals
46. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH
ON 2 position:
o The First Officer's EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain's and
First Officer's displays
o Both pilots displays are using the No2 DEU
o DEU 2 controls all six display units
o ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's
pitot probe
6
47. An amber CDS FAULT annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
o The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be
considered unreliable unless verified by another source
o A single DEU has been manually selected to drive all six display units
o A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
o Single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for
all six display units
48. A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator in the PFD indicates:
o Actual vertical speed
o Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected
o Electrical power loss to the indicator
o Indicates vertical speed in VNAV mode
49. The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:
o Position and speed only
o Attitude and speed only
o Altitude and speed only
o Position, attitude, altitude and speed
50. The Landing Altitude reference bar (Amber- 0-500ft, White- 500 1000ft)
indicates:
o Height above Minimum descent altitude
o Height above touchdown / Landing Altitude
o Radio Altitude
o Height above MSL
51. WXR selector on the EFIS Control Panel energizes the weather radar transmitter
and displays weather radar returns in:
o APP, VOR, MAP and PLN modes
o Map, centre Map, expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
o Only APP and Map modes
o Only expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
52. When Max range is selected on the EFIS Control Panel, weather radar returns are
limited to:
o 80 NM
o 160 NM
o 320 NM
o 640 NM
53. With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be shown within:
o 160 NM
o 120 NM
o 80 NM
o 40 NM
7
54. During an ILS Approach with the Localizer pointer in view, the rising runway
symbol comes into view:
o Below 2500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
o Below 1500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 50ft RA
o At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 1500ft RA
o At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
55. 'WXR RANGE DISAGREE' indicates selected range on the EFIS control panel is
different than the WXR display range.
o True
o False
8
CHAPTER 11
FLIGHT
MANAGEMENT
&
NAVIGATION
CHAPTER 11 - FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
1. When the IRSs are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:
o Attitude and true + magnetic heading
o Acceleration, vertical speed & ground speed
o Track, present position & wind data
o All of the above.
4. During the preliminary cockpit preparation the pilot accidentally moves the IRS
Mode Selector switch from OFF to ATT instead from OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS
operation be regained?
o Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN lights to extinguish, then perform full alignment
procedures
o Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position
o Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV
o Switch to the OFF position
6. With correct takeoff parameters, the FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust
when the TO/GA switch is pushed. During the takeoff roll, the autothrottle commands the
thrust & the FMC commands acceleration to between V2+15 & V2+25 knots.
o True
o False.
7. For LNAV to be engaged on the ground, the departure runway must be selected
and the course, to the first waypoint, must be within ___ degrees of the runway heading.
o 5
o 10
o 12
o 20
8. To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this
page:
o CLB or CRZ
o PROG
o CLB
o CLB or PERF
1
9. When penetrating turbulence:
o The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred
to the N1 LIMIT page for activation & execution
o The Turbulence N1 is activated on the CRZ page
o The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the
N1 set manually
o The Turbulence N1 is the minimum speed commanded by the autothrottle during all
flight conditions to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.
11. If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
o A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU.
o An entry of an invalid present position.
o A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode.
o That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
12. On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in either
degrees Celsius or Farenheit:
o True
o False.
14. After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the POS INIT page
again. The SET IRS POS line is missing. What is required?
o Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.
o Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.
o The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment,
then re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG
o Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the Left or Right IRS
unit.
2
15. During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC
Alertting Message 'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
o VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more
than 15 knots
o The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed.
o VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots.
o VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than
10 knots
16. Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced
Climb Thrust.
o True
o False.
17. The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight path
details for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a portion of a route
segment:
o True
o False.
20. Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a
previously selected approach:
o True
o False.
21. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the
BOTH ON 2 position:
o The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's &
First Officer's displays
o Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator.
o DEU 2 controls all six display units.
o ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot
probe.
3
23. If the FMC Alert Light of the LEFT / RIGHT FORWARD PANEL is illuminated. It
means:
o The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated.
o The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs.
o The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs or
test switch is in position 1 or 2
o The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or test switch is in position 1 or 2
24. Two GPS receivers receive GPS satellite positioning signals. The LEFT & RIGHT
GPS receivers are independent and ech provides an accurate airplane geographical
position to the FMC & other aircraft systems. GPS operation is automatic.
o True
o False.
25. When the IRS Mode Selector is turned OFF, the IRS remain powered for
approximately ________.
o 10 seconds.
o 30 seconds.
o 60 seconds.
o 90 seconds.
26. During IRS alignment, If the Latitude / Longitude is not within ___ NM of the origin
airport, the CDU scratchpad message VEIFY POSITION is displayed.
o 1,2
o 2,5
o 4
o 5
27. During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot
be completed due to IRS detection of:
o A significant difference between previous & entered position
o An unreasonable present position
o A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode
o Both first & second statements are correct.
28. The display selector of the ISDU (IRS Display Unit) is moved to position 'HDG/STS'
during alignment. What is shown in the right window?
o Right window displays ground speed.
o Right window displays wind speed.
o Right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete.
o Right window displays true track.
29. If the airplane is moved during alignment or fast realignment, the IRS
automatically begins the full alignment process:
o True
o False.
4
31. Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel
summation unit and:
o A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx
o Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry
o When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel
weight entry is not possible
o Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates
the airplane gross weight.
32. The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
o Wing tank fuel only
o Center tank fuel only
o Total fuel quantity remaining direct from the fuel summation unit
o Total fuel used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC
34. An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page
2/3 is:
o 10/30/45
o 10304
o 10/30.5
o 103045B
35. Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE
LEGS page?
o FMC calculated speed & altitude data for each waypoint
o Manually entered speed & altitude restrictions for each waypoint
o ETA & forecast wind data for cruising points
o All of the above are correct.
36. When an active data base expires in flight, the expired database continues to be
used until the active data is changed after landing.
o True
o False.
5
37. When aligning the IRS between 78 degrees 15 minutes North or South latitude:
o Rotate the IRS switch from OFF to ALIGN
o Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on airplane latitude
o The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates & the ALIGN light
extinguishes
o Airplane present position is not a required entry.
38. The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
o Should not exceed actual navigation performance
o With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appears on the scratch pad
o Is shown on the POS SCHIFT page 3/3 only
o Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal and approach phases
39. What does the DES NOW prompt on the PATH DES page provide?
o Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode
o Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computing path
o Execution allows early initiation of a PATH descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the
computed path
o Arms the DES NOW function& extinguishes the EXEC light
42. On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the
company route is entered.
o True
o False.
43. Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
o True
o False.
45. Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
o True
o False.
6
46. On the FIX page, radial/distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance
from the fix to the airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane
position changes.
o True
o False.
47. The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC
encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry.
o True
o False.
48. On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
o Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page
o Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise
o Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page
o All of the above are correct.
49. In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are invalid
for offset. One of these is:
o Beginning of a flight plan waypoint
o Discontinuity
o PPOS holding pattern
o Course change greater than 90 degrees.
50. The FMC Advisory Message 'DRAG REQUIRED' indicates the airplane is ___ knots or
more above the FMC target speed or within ___ knots of VMO/MMO
o 10 & 8
o 5 & 10
o 5&8
o 10 & 5
52. The FMC Alerting Message 'SELECT MODE AFTER RTA' means:
o RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint
o The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time
o RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from
the Flight Plan
o Both first & third are correct.
53. After RTA waypoint entry, the displayed ETA is based on:
o The active flight plan.
o Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.
o Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.
o Both first & second are correct.
7
54. Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following speeds:
o Destination airport speed minus 5 knots
o Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots
o Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed
o Minimum flap restriction speed.
55. Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following
parameters related to the present vertical path:
o FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed & vertical spped
o V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line
o V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA
o Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line
56. FMC position updates from navigation sensor positions are used in the following
priority order:- GPS- Two or more DME stations- One VOR with a collocated DME- One
localizer & collocated DME- One localizer
o True
o false
57. When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the Approach Ref page
will be:
o Flashing
o Blank
o Box prompts
o 'INVALID'
58. What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
o Only attitude information
o Only heading information
o Only attitude & heading information
o Only altitude information
59. An entry of .79 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES will:
o Change the descent mode to a M.79 SPD DES
o Change the page title to display M.79 PATH DES
o Result in VNAV & LNAV disengagement
o Result in VNAV disengagement
60. Below 2500 feet RA, go around is engaged when a TO/GA switch is pushed.
o True
o False
61. Upon initiation of TO/GA, a new cruise altitude will be automatically assigned &
will appear on the FMC pages. The new cruise altitude will be...
o The higest restriction in the missed approach routing
o Default value of 1500 feet above airport elevation
62. Two fixed climb thrust derates can be selected on the N1 LIMIT page.CLB-1
provides a climb limit reduced by ___ % N1CLB-2 provides a climb limit reduced by ___ %
N1
o 3% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 6% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
o 5% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 10% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
o 7 % N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 13 % N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
o 10 % N1 & 20% N1
8
63. Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and decreases also
total trip fuel
o True
o False
64. If a CLB1 or CLB2 derate is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part of
the climb. Thrust eventually increases to maximum climb thrust by:
o 10 000 feet
o 12 000 feet
o 15 000 feet
o 18 000 feet
65. If the FMC fails, the FMC alert light will illuminate, the FMC/CDU FAIL light will
appear on both CDUs, and both CDUs will display failure modes. VTK will appear on both
navigation displays. LNAV & VNAV will disengage. After 25 to 30 seconds, both navigation
displays will display failure information.
o True
o False
66. 'INSUFFICIENT FUEL' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
o A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be
400 kg / 900 lbs or less
o A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be
500 kg / 1100 lbs or less
o A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be
900 kg / 2000 lbs or less
o A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be
1200 kg / 2700 lbs or less
67. 'RESET MCP ALTITUDE' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
o You are within 1 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on
the AFDS MCP
o You are within 3 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on
the AFDS MCP
o You are within 5 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on
the AFDS MCP
o You are within 10 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on
the AFDS MCP
68. 'DRAG REQUIRED' FMC Advisory message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
o Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
o Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
o Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
o Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
9
69. If you have a look in your Descent Page (DES), 'V/B' indication means:
o Actual flight path angle based on present ground speed & vertical speed (Vertical
Bearing or Total Vertical Speed)
o Vertical bearing direct from present position on the WPT/ALT line(the flight path angle
required if flying direct to the waypoint & altitude on the WPT/ALT line)
o The required vertical speed (in degrees) based on ground speed
o The required vertical speed (in fpm, based on present ground speed) to fly the
dispmayed V/B
70. The IRSs can operate on either AC or DC power. The Left IRS is normally powered
from the AC transfer bus 2, and the Right IRS from the AC Standby bus.
o True
o False
71. Decceleration points show on the MAP as green open circles with the label DECEL.
Deceleration points show prior to:
o Airspeed constrained waypoints
o Holding patterns
o Approach flap extension
o All of the above.
73. Data may be deleted from the supplemental database (SUPP) by 2 methods.
Deletion may be accomplished one item at a time on the display pages, or the entire
database may be deleted by selecting this prompt. The prompt is only available before
entry of an origin airport.
o True.
o False.
74. The STEP POINT displays the computed ETA at, and distance to, the first possible
step climb point based on gross weight. The STEP button (1R) is then used to enter step
climb or step descent altitudes for crew evaluation. It is blank when within ___ NM of top
of descent or when RTA mode is active.
o 100
o 50
o 30
o 10
75. Let's have a look in the cruise page (CRZ)...The actual wind displays computed or
manually entered true wind for present altitude.
o True
o False
10
CHAPTER 12
FUEL
CHAPTER 12 - FUEL
1. Each fuel tank uses two AC powered fuel pumps which are cooled and lubricated
by fuel passing through the pump.
o True
o False.
2. Inflight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What
happens to the No.1 engine?
o It receives fuel from the No.2 tank automatically
o It will shut down due to fuel starvation
o It receives fuel from the No.1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve
o It continues to operate using fuel though the center tank bypass valve.
3. Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
o Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check
valves.
o Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check
valves.
o Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
o Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights
illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF.
7. The center tank scavenge jet pump transfers remaining fuel from the center tank
at a rate of approximately ____.
o 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon altitude.
o 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon speed.
o 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon weight.
o 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon temperature.
1
8. Overwing fueling receptacles exist for both main tanks.
o True
o False.
9. The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main
fuel tanks combined.
o True
o False
11. During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg (700
lbs) of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper Display Unit will
show:
o A LOW indication
o A CONFIG indication
o A pump LOW PRESSURE indication
o None of the above.
12. You have 2500 kg (5500 lbs) of fuel in the No.1 main tank and 3060 kg (6750 lbs)
of fuel in the No2 main tank. You will see:
o A LOW indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
o An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and
system annunciation for fuel
o An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 with no Master Caution light and no system
annunciation for fuel
o The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No.2 turn amber.
13. Which valve connects the fuel engine manifold to the fueling manifold?
o The fueling valve.
o The crossfeed valve.
o The Manual Defuelling valve
14. For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main
tanks?
o 453 kg (1000 lbs)
o 500 kg (1100 lbs)
o 590 kg (1300 lbs)
o There is no maximum fuel imbalance.
2
15. In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?
o Center tank.
o Both main tanks.
o All tanks.
o None.
17. What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
o Low fuel pressure in the affected tank
o Low pressure in the fuel manifold
o Low fuel pump output pressure
o The first two statements are correct.
18. What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN light when the crossfeed selector is
positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
o Illuminated dim blue.
o Illuminated bright blue.
o Illuminated amber.
o Extinguished.
20. What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
o The Hot Battery Bus.
o The Battery Bus.
o The DC Standby Bus.
o The AC Standby Bus.
21. What is the source of electrical power for the spar fuel shutoff valves?
o The DC Standby Bus.
o The Battery Bus.
o The Hot Battery Bus.
o The Transfer Bus No.2.
3
23. The crossfeed valve when OPEN:
o Allows fuel transfer from any tank to either engine or APU.
o Allows transfer of fuel between wing tanks only.
o Clos.es the Bypass valve in each wing tank
25. Once the fuel scavenging process begins, it continues for the remainder of the
flight.
o True.
o False.
28. The fuel measuring stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as
determined from measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity
indicators. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
magnetically to an internal float. Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
o True.
o False.
29. How many fuel measuring sticks are installed in each main tank?
o Two.
o Three.
o Four.
o Six.
30. The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The
valve is ___ motor operated from the ___.
o AC & Transfer Bus No.1
o DC & Battery bus
o AC & Transfer Bus No.2
o DC & DC Standby Bus.
4
32. What is the main purpose of the FUEL DOOR SWITCH BYPASS located in the Right
Wing fueling panel?
o It energizes fueling panel if refueling power control relay fails.
o It checks operation of fuel quantity indicators.
o It de-energizes fueling panel if necessary (in case of thunderstorm for example).
33. The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The
valve is ____ operated from the ____:
o AC motor & Transfer bus 1.
o DC motor & Hot battery bus.
o AC motor & Transfer bus 2.
o DC motor & Battery bus.
34. The FUEL TEMP indicator located on the fuel control panel displays fuel
temperature. A sensor in main tank No. 1 allows monitoring of fuel temperature.The
temperature indicating system uses:
o DC power.
o AC power.
35. The Fueling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate blue
when:
o The respective fueling valve is OPEN.
o The respective fueling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank
o The respective fuelling valve is in transit.
o The respective fueling valve is inoperative.
37. A fuel FILTER BYPASS light illuminated indicated impending fuel filter bypass due
to a contaminated filter. Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur due to fuel
contamination.
o True.
o False.
38. With FUEL TEMP LOW amber message displayed, fuel is approaching minimum.
Boeing QRH asks to increase speed, change altitude and/or deviate to a warmer air mass
to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temperature limit (3C / 5F above the
fuel freeze point or -43C / -45F whichever is higher).
o TAT will increase approximately 0.5 degrees C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
o TAT will increase approximately 0.5 to 0.7 degrees C for each .01 Mach increase in
speed.
o TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
o TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 to .07 Mach increase in speed.
5
39. The fuel LOW indication may be caused by an engine fuel leak. For indication(s) of
an engine fuel leak, check:
o Total fuel remaining compared to planned fuel remaining.
o Individual tank quantities.
o Fuel Flow indications for an engine with excessive fuel flow.
o The first two statements are correct.
43. When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can be
accomplished as follows:
o Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally.
o Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally. except the fuel shut-off system.
o Battery switch OFF - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate
normally.
45. Lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero.
Random fuel imbalance must not exceed 453 kgs (1000 lbs):
o For takeoff, flight or landing but not for takeoff
o For taxi, takeoff, flight or landing.
o In flight only
46. Main tanks 1 and 2 must be full if center tank contains more than 453 kgs (1000
lbs)
o True
o False.
6
47. When main tank fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from is
corresponding main tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps.
o True
o False
48. Total fuel weight is displayed on the fuel quantity gauges and on the ______ pages of
the CDU.
o PERF INIT and HOLDING
o PERF INIT and LEGS
o LEGS and PROGRESS
o PROGRESS and PERF INIT
49. Is there any fuel quantity measuring sticks installed in the Center tank?
o Yes
o No.
50. The engines can suction fuel from the center tank.
o True
o False.
51. For refuelling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when the
tank is full?
o Left and right wing tanks
o Left and right wing tanks and center tank.
53. Center fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF at the first indication of low
pressure.
o True.
o False.
7
55. Fuel Measuring Stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as determined
from measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel quantity indicators.
o Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
magnetically to an internal float.
o Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
electrically to an internal float.
o Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
pneumatically to an internal float.
o Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it
automatically to an internal float.
58. An amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced
to:
o 91kgs
o 363kgs
o 453kgs
o 726kgs
8
CHAPTER 13
HYDRAULICS
CHAPTER 13 - HYDRAULICS
1. The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear is a
conventional twowheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional steerable
onewheel unit.
a) True
b) False
1
8. After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the
system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
a) Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position
b) Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after
touchdown for landing
c) Applying manual brakes
d) Both second & third statements are correct.
10. What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
a) System A
b) System B
c) Standby system
d) Nose wheel steering accumulator
11. The lockout pin is installed in the steering depressurization valve. What does this
do?
a) Bypasses system B pressure
b) Depressurizes both system A & B pressure
c) Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems
d) Both first & third statements are correct.
13. Which of the following conditions must exit to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
a) AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON
b) Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
c) Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE
d) Position ANTISKID switch to RTO
14. The nose wheel doors remain open when the gear is down.
a) True.
b) False.
15. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a) AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
b) A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system
c) Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band
d) System B pressure is low
2
16. When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is in ALT position:
a) Hydraulic system B provides power for nose wheel steering.
b) Hydraulic system A provides power for nose wheel steering.
c) Standby hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel steering.
d) The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking
17. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a) AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.
b) A fault in the braking system.
c) Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band.
d) System B pressure is low.
18. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated with all gear down and locked.
a) True.
b) False.
19. What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
a) Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M)
b) Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum
c) Maintain 235 knots maximum for 20 minutes
d) Observe extend limit speed (270 knots/.82M)
20. What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes
in RTO?
a) Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle
b) Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected
c) Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
d) AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
21. The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking
brake when hydraulic system A & B are depressurized.
a) True
b) False.
22. Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
a) When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
b) When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON
c) When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still down
and the landing gear is positioned up
d) After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and
the landing gear is positioned up
23. The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If
A & B hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by
the brake accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS
indicator.
a) True
b) False.
3
24. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to decelerating
through 30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if both forward thrust
levers are retarded to IDLE and the main wheels spinup.
a) True
b) False
29. What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear extended?
a) 235 kt / .78M.
b) 235 kt / .80M.
c) 270 kt / .80M.
d) 270 kt / .82M.
31. What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator?
o 2500 psi.
o 2800 psi.
o 3000 psi.
o 3500 psi.
4
32. If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff:
o Use the override trigger.
o Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position.
o When at a safe altitude follow the QRH procedure.
o Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
34. Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING
GEAR lever in the UP position.
o True.
o False.
35. The parking brake can be set with only B hydraulic system pressurized.
o True
o False
37. The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
o Parking brake system.
o Flap system.
o Landing gear system.
o Nose wheel steering system.
38. The wheels should be chocked in case the brake pressure has bled down.
o True.
o False.
5
40. If the thrust levers are advanced after touchdown:
o The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate immediately.
o The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate after 3 seconds.
o The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate.
o The AUTO BRAKE select switch will move to OFF.
41. If the go-around mode is selected after touchdown and prior to A/T
disengagement, the A/Ps disengages and the A/Ts may command GA thrust.
o True.
o False.
42. Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
o Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction.
o Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction.
o Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by
preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.
43. The autobrake system performs a self-test at initial AC power application. If the
self test is not successful, the AUTO BRAKE DIARM
light illuminates and the system does not work.
o True.
o False.
44. With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobrake is initiated when:
o Wheel speed is > 60 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
o Wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
o Automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
o AUTO BRAKE ARM illuminated with wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE.
45. Hydraulic system pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:
o When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned UP.
o When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON.
o After failure of the No.1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear
lever is positioned up.
o After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and
the landing gear lever is positioned UP.
46. After landing, autobrake application begins when both forward thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE and Nose wheel and main wheels spin up.
o True.
o False.
47. The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red
when:
o One of the 6 green lights are faulty.
o There are no red lights.
o All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position
o All landing gear are DN and the gear handle is in OFF position
6
48. You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point do
the gear Uplocks all release?
o When the Manual Extension Access door is opened.
o When either gear extension handle is raised.
o When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits.
53. What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 kts with Autobrakes in RTO?
o Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
o Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected.
o Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
o AUTO BRAKE light will illuminate.
54. There are a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel.
These lights:
o Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear
handle is down.
o Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is
retarded to idle at a radio altitude of 800 feet or less.
o Illuminate green when the landing gear is in agreement with the landing gear lever.
o Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights.
55. What is the normal source of power for the alternate brake system?
o System A
o System B
o Standby system
o System A or Standby system
7
56. Manual landing gear extension is not possible with the landing gear lever in the up
position.
o True.
o False.
57. During taxiing for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates.
What should you do?
o Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If light re-
illuminates, use manual brakes in case of RTO.
o Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains
illuminated.
o Position ANTISKID select switch to OFF. Use manual brakes in case of RTO.
o AUTO BRAKE system is not mandatory. There is no limitation.
58. With the manual gear extension door open, which statement is correct?
o Landing gear can be retracted.
o Landing gear can be extended with the gear lever up and by pulling the manual
extension handles.
o Normal landing gear extension is possible with hydraulic B pressure.
o Pull the manual extension handles and landing gear lever must me selected down
62. When the gear is down with three greens, you can:
o Assume the gear is down and locked, provided the indicator lights on the overhead
panel are illuminated as well.
o Still get a landing gear warning horn
o Assume the gear is down and locked, even if one landing gear indicator light on the
overhead panel is NOT illuminated.
o All of the above is correct
8
63. Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:
o 1000psi
o 2000psi
o 3000psi
o 3500psi
64. Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
o 7 degrees
o 17 degrees
o 47 degrees
o 78 degrees
65. Regarding Normal and Alternate braking systems, which statement is true?
o Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will only operate on the
normal system.
o Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will operate on both
systems.
o Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, Autobrake will operate on
both systems.
o Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, autobrake will only
operate on the normal system.
67. Manual Gear Extension Handles: each landing gear uplock is released when
related handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24 inches (61 cm).
o True
o False
68. What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
o Airborne, No2 engine RPM drops below a limit value, both main landing gear are not up
and locked.
o Airborne, No1 and No2 engine RPM drop below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is
positioned DOWN, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
o Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned
UP, both main landing gear are not up and locked.
o Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned
UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
69. When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, the landing gear extends by:
o Hydraulic pressure
o Gravity
o Air loads
o All the above
9
70. After braking has started, the Autobrake system will disengage automatically
when:
o Wheel speed falls below 20kts.
o The pilot moves the speed brake lever to UP position.
o A forward thrust lever is advanced after landing.
o Reverse thrust is deselected.
71. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely
cause is:
o Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown.
o RTO mode selected on the ground.
o A malfunction has been detected in the automatic braking system.
o AUTO BRAKE select switch set to OFF.
10
CHAPTER 14
LANDING GEAR
&
BREAKS
CHAPTER 14 - LANDING GEAR & BREAKS
1. The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear is a
conventional twowheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional steerable
onewheel unit.
o True
o False
1
8. After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the
system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
o Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position
o Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after
touchdown for landing
o Applying manual brakes
o Both second & third statements are correct.
10. What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
o System A
o System B
o Standby system
o Nose wheel steering accumulator
11. The lockout pin is installed in the sterring depressurization valve. What does this
do?
o Bypasses system B pressure
o Depressurizes both system A & B pressure
o Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems
o Both first & third statements are correct.
13. Which of the following conditions must exit to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
o AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON
o Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
o Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE
o Position ANTISKID switch to RTO
14. The nose wheel doors remain open when the gear is down.
o True.
o False.
15. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
o AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
o A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system
o Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band
o System B pressure is low
2
16. When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is in ALT position:
o Hydraulic system B provides power for nose wheel steering.
o Hydraulic system A provides power for nose wheel steering.
o Standby hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel steering.
o The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking
17. What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
o AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.
o A fault in the braking system.
o Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band.
o System B pressure is low.
18. The landing gear warning horn is deactivated with all gear down and locked.
o True.
o False.
19. What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
o Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M)
o Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum
o Maintain 235 knots maximum for 20 minutes
o Observe extend limit speed (270 knots/.82M)
20. What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes
in RTO?
o Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle
o Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected
o Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
o AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
21. The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking
brake when hydraulic system A & B are depressurized.
o True
o False.
22. Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
o When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
o When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON
o When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still down
and the landing gear is positioned up
o After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and
the landing gear is positioned up
23. The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If
A & B hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is maintained by
the brake accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS
indicator.
o True
o False.
3
24. Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to decelerating
through
30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if both forward thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE and the main wheels spinup.
o True
o False
29. What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear extended?
o 235 kt / .78M.
o 235 kt / .80M.
o 270 kt / .80M.
o 270 kt / .82M.
31. What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator?
o 2500 psi.
o 2800 psi.
o 3000 psi.
o 3500 psi.
4
32. If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff:
o Use the override trigger.
o Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position.
o When at a safe altitude follow the QRH procedure.
o Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
34. Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING
GEAR lever in the UP position.
o True.
o False.
35. The parking brake can be set with only B hydraulic system pressurized.
o True
o False
37. The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
o Parking brake system.
o Flap system.
o Landing gear system.
o Nose wheel steering system.
38. The wheels should be chocked in case the brake pressure has bled down.
o True.
o False.
5
41. If the go-around mode is selected after touchdown and prior to A/T
disengagement, the A/Ps disengage and the A/Ts may command GA thrust.
o True.
o False.
42. Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
o Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction.
o Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction.
o Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by
preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.
43. The autobrake system performs a self-test at initial AC power application. If the
self test is not successful, the AUTO BRAKE DIARM light illuminates and the system does
not work.
o True.
o False.
44. With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobrake is initiated when:
o Wheel speed is > 60 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
o Wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
o Automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
o AUTO BRAKE ARM illuminated with wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE.
45. Hydraulic system pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:
o When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned UP.
o When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON.
o After failure of the No.1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear
lever is positioned up.
o After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and
the landing gear lever is positioned UP.
46. After landing, autobrake application begins when both forward thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE and Nose wheel and main wheels spin up.
o True.
o False.
47. The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red
when:
o One of the 6 green lights are faulty.
o There are no red lights.
o All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position
o All landing gear are DN and the gear handle is in OFF position
48. You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point do
the gear Uplocks all release?
o When the Manual Extension Access door is opened.
o When either gear extension handle is raised.
o When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits.
6
49. Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?
o The control wheel.
o The thrust levers.
o The control column.
o The steering wheel and the rudder pedals on the ground.
53. What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 kts with Autobrakes in RTO?
o Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
o Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected.
o Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
o AUTO BRAKE light will illuminate.
54. There are a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel.
These lights:
o Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear
handle is down.
o Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is
retarded to idle at a radio altitude of 800 feet or less.
o Illuminate green when the landing gear is in agreement with the landing gear lever.
o Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights.
55. What is the normal source of power for the alternate brake system?
o System A
o System B
o Standby system
o System A or Standby system
56. Manual landing gear extension is not possible with the landing gear lever in the up
position.
o True.
o False.
7
57. During taxiing for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates.
What should you do?
o Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If light re-
illuminates, use manual brakes in case of RTO.
o Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains
illuminated.
o Position ANTISKID select switch to OFF. Use manual brakes in case of RTO.
o AUTO BRAKE system is not mandatory. There is no limitation.
58. With the manual gear extension door open, which statement is correct?
o Landing gear can be retracted.
o Landing gear can be extended with the gear lever up and by pulling the manual
extension handles.
o Normal landing gear extension is possible with hydraulic B pressure.
o Pull the manual extension handles and landing gear lever must me selected down
62. When the gear is down with three greens, you can:
o Assume the gear is down and locked, provided the indicator lights on the overhead
panel are illuminated as well.
o Still get a landing gear warning horn
o Assume the gear is down and locked, even if one landing gear indicator light on the
overhead panel is NOT illuminated.
o All of the above is correct
8
64. Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
o 7 degrees
o 17 degrees
o 47 degrees
o 78 degrees
65. Regarding Normal and Alternate braking systems, which statement is true?
o Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will only operate on the
normal system.
o Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will operate on both
systems.
o Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, Autobrake will operate on
both systems.
o Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, autobrake will only
operate on the normal system.
67. Manual Gear Extension Handles: each landing gear uplock is released when
related handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24 inches (61 cm).
o True
o False
68. What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
o Airborne, No2 engine RPM drops below a limit value, both main landing gear are not up
and locked.
o Airborne, No1 and No2 engine RPM drop below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is
positioned DOWN, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
o Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned
UP, both main landing gear are not up and locked.
o Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned
UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
69. When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, the landing gear extends by:
o Hydraulic pressure
o Gravity
o Air loads
o All the above
70. After braking has started, the Autobrake system will disengage automatically
when:
o Wheel speed falls below 20kts.
o The pilot moves the speed brake lever to UP position.
o A forward thrust lever is advanced after landing.
o Reverse thrust is deselected.
9
71. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely
cause is:
o Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown.
o RTO mode selected on the ground.
o A malfunction has been detected in the automatic braking system.
o AUTO BRAKE select switch set to OFF.
10
CHAPTER 15
WARNING SYSTEMS
CHAPTER 15 - WARNING SYSTEMS
3. A steady warning horn alerts the crew when the landing gear is not down and
locked and a landing is attempted.
o True
o False
5. The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when the stabilizer trim is not in
the takeoff range.
o True
o False
6. Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper
computers?
o ADIRU data.
o Anti-ice controls.
o Anti-ice controls.
o All of the above.
7. Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning
system?
o Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5.
o Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15.
o Spoilers partially extended.
o SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position.
8. While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall. This
indicates:
o A normal condition
o A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing systems
o The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.
o A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight
1
9. Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the MASTER
CAUTION system.
o True
o False.
10. The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not
down and locked with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a high
power setting (above 34 degrees):
o True
o False.
11. The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unprepared terrain
while in the landing configuration.
o True
o False.
15. The windshear warning mode of the GPWS has priority over all other GPWS
modes.
o True
o False.
2
18. The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:
o Stabilizer trim is not in the green band.
o Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff.
o Speedbrake lever is not in the down position.
o All of the above is correct.
21. The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:
o True
o False.
22. While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert
occurs. To cancel the alert:
o Correct the flight path back to the glide slope.
o Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light
o The alert cannot be cancelled
o The first two statements are correct.
23. Which of the following will illuminate a landing gear configuration warning?
o Landing gear disagrees with the position of the landing gear lever.
o Landing gear is not down and locked.
o Either or both thrust levers are at idle and the aircraft is below 800 feet AGL.
o All of the above.
24. The GPWS provides a "BANK ANGLE" warning when the roll rate exceeds 25
degrees, 30 degrees, and 35 degrees.
o True
o False.
3
26. While flying an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert
occurs. To cancel the alert:
o Press RECALL.
o Press either pilot\'s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the
glide slope.
o The alert cannot be cancelled.
o Select another mode on MCP.
31. In the event of an over rotation, which part of the tailskid structure contacts the
runway?
o The skirt.
o The fairing.
o The shoe.
o The cartridge.
32. The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated
from:
o Weather Radar correlated with IRS position.
o GPWS nav data base correlated with IRS position.
o GPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position.
o FMC nav data base correlated with GPS position.
4
34. The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain:
o Within 2,000 feet RA.
o Below 1,000 feet barometric altitude.
o Above 1,000 feet RA.
o Within 2,000 feet barometric altitude.
35. In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC
switches are selected OFF.
o In PLAN, MAP, VOR or APP modes
o In MAP, center MAP, PLAN or APP modes
o In center MAP, VOR or APP modes.
o In MAP, center MAP, VOR, or APP modes.
38. On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
o Trailing edge flaps set to 2
o Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
o Stabilizer set in the takeoff range
o Takeoff power not set on both engines
39. When can you expect the EGPWS "Five Hundred" call?
o When descending through the 500 feet amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS
approach.
o When descending through 500 feet RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
o If descending through 500 feet RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check.
o On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the
glideslope beam.
40. TCAS TEST is displayed on the navigation display during the test followed by TCAS
TEST PASSED or TCAS TEST FAILED. This test remains in view for _____ then blanks. An
aural annunciation sounds at the completion of the test.
o 3 seconds
o 5 seconds
o 8 seconds
o 10 seconds
5
41. The area(s) inside the red lines indicate(s) the pitch region(s) to avoid in order to
resolve the traffic conflict. The airplane symbol must be outside the TCAS pitch command
area(s) to ensure traffic avoidance.
o True
o False
46. A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and "-07". This
means:
o The traffic is descending at 700fpm.
o You should descend at 700fpm.
o The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.
o You should descend at minimum 500fpm.
47. RAs can only be generated if the other airplane has a working:
o Mode A transponder.
o Mode C transponder.
o Mode S transponder.
o TCAS system.