Unit 8

2.3.
8 Unit 8:
We are going to give you some suggestions in this section on how to cover the portions of Unit-8. We
would be putting stress on the following questions which generally one has in his/her mind when one
thinks about the easiest way to prepare for Unit-8.
Is this topic important keeping in mind CSIR-NET is in 2 months?
Which books to follow?
How many questions can I expect from this topic?
How to prepare in less time?
Topic-wise suggestion:
Is this topic important?

This Unit comprises of all the topics involved regarding Genetics and genetic principles. Needless to say
that it is a very exhaustive Unit with so many topics. Every year a substantial number of questions can be
expected from this Unit. In Part-B, around 3-4 questions can be seen. While in Part-C you can expect a
minimum of 4 questions from this Unit. This unit also is inter-related to some topics of Unit 12. So it is
implied that preparation of this Unit is very important.
How shall I start?

To start with such a huge Unit, you need to approach in the most concise way. To start with, I
would suggest you to go for topics related to Genes. Then you can follow that up with all the
concepts and topics related to DNA, and then proceed towards topics and sub-topics involving
chromosomes and their structures. These aforesaid sections, if dealt in the beginning only will
definitely help you to get a better grip over the rest of the topics of the Unit.
Which books to follow?
You can follow any standard Book for this Unit. For Additional reference, I will suggest the following
books:
Principles of Genetics by Eldon Gardner:

o This book features high-quality illustrations with stepped-out art to help readers
visualize complex processes. Human genetics and the role of the geneticist are
highlighted throughout.
Genetics-A conceptual Approach by Benjamin Pierce:
o This book provides a wonderful and comprehensive introduction to genetics.
Genes X by Lewin:
o This book gives a very detailed conceptual view of the Molecular Biology topics
involved in this Unit.
Time for this Unit:

In order to get thorough with this unit, an average of one hour a day for the next 60 days will
prove to be beneficial. The topics in this unit are all known for Life Science students. A detailed
concept review is thus very much recommended.
Prioritize the subtopics:
As I mentioned before, start this unit with topics related to Genes and DNA. Then follow it with
the concepts of chromosomes and chromosomal structure. Once you are thorough with these
topics you may proceed for the topics and sub-topics related to gene transfer to the next
generation i.e. basically process involved in Cell Division. Later you can start with the topics in
Mendelism. An approach like this will definitely give you an edge while preparing in such a
truncated time schedule.
Suggestions:
Do not expect direct questions from this unit.
The unit is inter-related with concepts of Molecular Biology and Biochemistry.
Thus you can expect to face questions consolidated from these 3 Sections together.
Topic-wise suggestion:
Mendelian Principles: This whole section is very important and all the topics and sub-topics
are to be dealt thoroughly leaving no scope to skip anything.
Concept of Gene: Same as the above Section, this section too demands to be read through
without leaving any topics.
Extensions of Mendelian Principles: Being one of the core topics for this Unit, this section
needs to be carefully handled. Questions from these topics are very common.
Gene Mapping: From this Section, the most important parts to be studied in order to gain
maximum marks are the following: Linkage Maps, Somatic Hybridization.
Extra Chromosomal Inheritance: This section is very simple to understand including basic
concepts. General studying through of these topics will be enough. Not many questions are asked
from this section very frequently.
Microbial Genetics: This is an important section. You can expect questions from this section
related to conjugation Mapping. Topics related to Transformation Maps are also very important.
Human Genetics: Topics like Pedigree Analysis and Genetic Disorders from this Section are to
be studied properly. These are the topics from which frequent questions are asked in this Unit.
Quantitative genetics: Simple concepts and topics to be followed in this Section. No need to stress
out with this section. Just go through thoroughly.
Mutation: Questions in Part-C can be expected from this very section of this Unit. The questions
wont be basic ones. Rather they will be conceptual, e.g. a condition of mutation will be given
and you will be asked to describe its effects and justify your answer.
Structural & numerical alterations: Questions from this section are mostly clubbed with those
of Mutation. Questions related to Diseases and disorders due to Structural changes can be
expected.
Recombination: This section is very much inter-related with the topics of linkage. Thus
preparing those topics related to Linkage will be preferred to cover up this section quickly.
Inheritance biology
Part B
1. A ratio of 12:3:1 is most characteristic of a cross involving __________.

a. 1 gene pair
b. 2 gene pairs
c. 3 gene pair
d. 4 gene pairs
2. A mother who is blood type AB has a child who is AB also. A potential father is blood type O. A
well-informed geneticist concludes that __________.
a. he cannot be the father
b. he might be the father, but it is unlikely
c. he is very likely to be the father
d. he or any other male of blood type O could be the father
3. The genotype of an individual is not always reflected in the phenotype. This may be due to which
of the following?
a. Epistasis
b. Dominance
c. incomplete dominance
d. All the answers suggest ways in which the genotype may not be observed in the phenotype.
4. A father with myotonic dystrophy has three daughters who are all carriers of the mutant allele
and two sons who are unaffected noncarriers. The three daughters have six sons of which four are affected
and two are not, and four daughters of which two are carriers and two are not. What type of mutation is
suggested from this description?
a. autosomal dominant
b. autosomal recessive
c. sex-linked dominant
d. sex-linked recessive
5. A gene is identified which confers great athletic ability. A family of 10 children is identified in
which all 10 children carry this gene. However, only three of the children exhibit great athletic ability, four
have slightly better than average athletic ability, and three have average athletic ability. What does this
tell you about the expressivity of this gene?
a. 100% expressivity
b. <100% expressivity
c. 1% expressivity
d. You cannot tell anything about the expressivity from this information.
6. Genetic anticipation refers to the phenomenon which shows __________.

a. dominant disorders that affect the victim later in life
b. an increase in severity of symptoms and a decrease in the age of onset as it is passed through the
family
c. a disorder that affects only individuals from a specific ethnic group
d. an increase in the number of mutations on a single chromosome over time
7. Some mutations have been found that are expressed differently depending on the sex of the
parent the gene is passed through. This is called __________.
a. sex-linked inheritance
b. Penetrance
c. Imprinting
d. sex influenced characters
8. A recessive mutation was discovered in a small island population (1,000 people). The mutation
was observed in the heterozygous state, but never in the homozygous state. What is a possible
explanation for this observation?
a. Only individuals with opposite alleles at this locus reproduced.
b. The recessive allele is lethal in a homozygous state
c. The heterozygous state is fixed in this population.
d. The population size is too small to give an explanation for this phenomenon
9. Red-green color blindness is X-linked in humans. If a male is red-green color blind, and both
parents have normal color vision, which of the male's grandparents is most likely to be red-green color
blind?
a. maternal grandmother
b. maternal grandfather
c. paternal grandmother
d. paternal grandfather
e. either grandfather is equally likely
10. When RFLP analysis is used to search for a human gene, the strategy is to first locate?
a. a known gene on the same chromosome
b. an homozygous individual with a simple RFLP pattern
c. a DNA sequence anywhere on the same chromosome
d. any DNA marker co-inherited with the genetic trait of interest
11. A couple has a female child with Tay Sachs disease, and three unaffected children. Neither parent
nor any of the four biological grandparents of the affected child has had this disease. The most likely
genetic explanation is that Tay Sachs disease is inherited as a(n) ______________ disease.
c. sex-linked recessive
d. sex-linked dominant
12. A human geneticist determined the pedigree shown in the diagram with filled symbols showing
the affected individuals. How is this pattern of inheritance described?
c. sex-linked recessive
d. sex-linked dominant
13. Diagnosis of chromosome aneuploidy of unborn children is normally done by a combination of

amniocentesis, cell culture, and _______________.
a. Enzyme assay.
b. RFLP analysis.
c. Pedigree analysis.
d. Karyotyping.
14. Which statement about Down's syndrome is false?

a. The frequency increases dramatically in mothers over the age of 40.
b. The cause is a non-disjunction when chromosomes do not separate during the first meiotic
division.
c. Affected individuals have an extra autosome.
d. None, all statements are true
15. A human male carrying an allele for a trait on the X chromosome is:
a. Heterozygous
b. Homozygous
c. Hemizygous
d. monozygous
16. Why would you predict that half of the human babies born will be males and half will be females?
a. Because of the segregation of the X and Y chromosomes during male meiosis.
b. Because of the segregation of the X chromosomes during female meiosis.
c. Because all eggs contain an X chromosome.
d. Because, on average, one-half of all eggs produce females..
17. A man who had purple ears came to the attention of a human geneticist. The human geneticist
did a pedigree analysis and made the following observations:
In this family, purple ears proved to be an inherited trait due to a single genetic locus. The man's mother
and one sister also had purple ears, but his father, his brother, and two other sisters had normal ears. The
man and his normal-eared wife had seven children, including four boys and three girls. Two girls and two
boys had purple ears. The purple-ear trait is most probably:
a. Autosomal, dominant
b. Autosomal, recessive
c. sex-linked, dominant
d. sex-linked, recessive
18. Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY) is an example of chromosomal aneuploidy that can be readily
diagnosed by:
a. Behavioral analysis
b. Somatic cell genetics
c. Karyotyping
d. Biochemical analysis
19. By examining a number of somatic-cell hybrid lines for enzyme activities and their human
chromosome constitution, scientists can determine
a. on which human chromosome the gene for a particular enzyme is located
b. the number of genes for enzymes in the human genome
c. the number of chromosomes in the human genome
d. the number of human chromosomes in each cell
20. Which is NOT a common method used in human genetic analysis?
a. pedigree analysis
b. karyotyping
c. RFLP analysis
d. test cross
21. Which of the following is a useful marker for genetic or physical mapping of human
chromosomes?
a. RFLPs, "restriction fragment length polymorphisms"
b. ESTs, "expressed sequence tags"
c. C STRPs, "short tandem repeat polymorphisms"
d. all of the above
22. Which of the following describes a type of polymorphism that occurs within the gene that causes
Huntington's disease?
a. RFLPs, "restriction fragment length polymorphisms"
b. ESTs, "expressed sequence tags"
c. STRPs, "short tandem repeat polymorphisms"
d. None of the above
23. In a cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and red-eyed male, what percent of the female
offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive)
a. 100%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 0%
24. A female Drosophila of unknown genotype was crossed with a white-eyed male fly, of genotype
(w = white eye allele is recessive, w+= red-eye allele is dominant.) Half of the male and half of the female
offspring were red-eyed, and half of the male and half of the female offspring were white-eyed. What was
the genotype of the female fly?
a. w+w+
b. ww
c. w+w
d. none of the above
25. In a cross between a pure bred, red-eyed female fruit fly and a white-eyed male, what percent of
the male offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive)
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 0%
26. A white-eyed female fruit fly is crossed with a red-eyed male. Red eyes are dominant, and X-
linked. What are the expected phenotypes of the offspring?
a. All of the females will have red eyes; half of the males will have red eyes, and half of the males
will have white eyes.
b. All of the females and all of the males will have white eyes.
c. All of the females will have red eyes; all of the males will have white eyes.
d. All of the females and all of the males will have red eyes.
27. Hemophilia in humans is due to an X-chromosome mutation. What will be the results of mating
between a normal (non-carrier) female and a hemophiliac male?
a. half of daughters are normal and half of sons are hemophilic.
b. all sons are normal and all daughters are carriers.
c. half of sons are normal and half are hemophilic; all daughters are carriers.
d. all daughters are normal and all sons are carriers
28. A human female "carrier" who is heterozygous for the recessive, sex-linked trait causing red-green
color blindness (or alternatively, hemophilia), marries a normal male. What proportion of their male
progeny will have red-green color blindness (or alternatively, will be hemophiliac)?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
29. Women have sex chromosomes of XX, and men have sex chromosomes of XY.Which of a man's
grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on his Y-chromosome?
a. Father's Mother.
b. Mother's Father.
c. Father's Father.
d. Mother's Mother, Mother's Father, and Father's Mother.
30. Women have sex chromosomes of XX, and men have sex chromosomes of XY. Which of womens
grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on either of her X-chromosomes?
a. Mother's Father.
b. Father's Mother.
c. Mother's Mother.
d. Father's Father.
31. A human female "carrier" who is heterozygous for the recessive, sex-linked trait red color
blindness, marries a normal male. What proportion of their female progeny will show the trait?
a. All
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 0
32. In pea plants, spherical seeds (S) are dominant to dented seeds (s). In a genetic cross of two plants
that are heterozygous for the seed shape trait, what fraction of the offspring should have spherical seeds?
a. None
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d.
33. A phenotypic ratio of 3:1 in the offspring of a mating of two organisms heterozygous for a single
trait is expected when:
a. the alleles segregate during meiosis.
b. each allele contains two mutations.
c. the alleles are identical.
d. the alleles are incompletely dominant.
34. In Mendel's "Experiment 1," true-breeding pea plants with spherical seeds were crossed with
true-breeding plants with dented seeds. (Spherical seeds are the dominant characteristic.) Mendel
collected the seeds from this cross, grew F1-generation plants, let them self-pollinate to form a second
generation, and analyzed the seeds of the resulting F2 generation. The results that he obtained, and that
you would predict for this experiment are:
a. 1/2 the F1 and 3/4 of the F2 generation seeds were spherical.
b. All of the F1 and F2 generation seeds were spherical.
c. 3/4 of the F1 and 9/16 of the F2 generation seeds were spherical.
d. All the F1 and 3/4 of the F2 generation seeds were spherical.
35. A genetic cross between two F1-hybrid pea plants for spherical seeds will yield what percent
spherical-seeded plants in the F2 generation? (Recall, spherical-shaped seeds are dominant over dented
seeds.)
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
36. A test cross is used to determine if the genotype of a plant with the dominant phenotype is
homozygous or heterozygous. If the unknown is homozygous, all of the offspring of the test cross have
the __________ phenotype. If the unknown is heterozygous, half of the offspring will have the
__________ phenotype.
a. dominant, incompletely dominant
b. recessive, dominant
c. dominant, epistatic
d. dominant, recessive
37. A genetic cross of inbred snapdragons with red flowers with in bred snapdragons with white
flowers resulted in F1-hybrid offspring that all had pink flowers. When the F1 plants were self-pollinated,
the resulting F2-generation plants had a phenotypic ratio of 1 red: 2 pink: 1 white. The most likely
explanation is:
a. Pink flower color is epistatic to red flower color.
b. pink flowers are the result of a blending of the red and white genotypes.
c. flower color is due to 2 or more complementary genes.
d. heterozygous plants have a different phenotype than either inbred parent because of incomplete
dominance of the dominant allele.
38. Human blood type is determined by codominant alleles. There are three different alleles, known
as IA, IB, and i. The IA and IB alleles are co-dominant, and the i allele is recessive. The possible human
phenotypes for blood group are type A, type B, type AB, and type O. Type A and B individuals can be either
homozygous (IAIA or IBIB, respectively), or heterozygous (IAi or IBi, respectively). A woman with type A
blood and a man with type B blood could potentially have offspring with which of the following blood
types?
a. type A
b. type B
c. type AB
d. all of the above
39. Manx cats are heterozygous for a dominant mutation that results in no tails (or very short tails),
large hind legs, and a distinctive gait. The mating of two Manx cats yields two Manx kittens for each
normal, long-tailed kitten, rather than three-to-one as would be predicted from Mendelian genetics.
Therefore, the mutation causing the Manx cat phenotype is likely a(n) __________ allele.
a. pleiotropic
b. codominant
c. epistatic
d. lethal
40. A pea plant is heterozygous for both seed shape and seed color. S is the allele for the dominant,
spherical shape characteristic; s is the allele for the recessive, dented shape characteristic. Y is the allele
for the dominant, yellow color characteristic; y is the allele for the recessive, green color characteristic.
What will be the distribution of these two alleles in this plant's gametes if the genes are linked?
a. 50% of gametes are Sy; 50% of gametes are sY
b. 25% of gametes are SY; 25% of gametes are Sy; 25% of gametes are sY; 25% of gametes are sy.
c. 50% of gametes are sy; 50% of gametes are SY
d. 100% of the gametes are SsYy
41. Which of the following genetic crosses would be predicted to give a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1?
a. SSYY x ssyy
b. SsYY x SSYy
c. SsYy x SsYy
d. SSyy x ssYY
42. The gametes of a plant of genotype SsYy should have the genotypes:
a. Ss and Yy
b. SY and sy
c. SY, Sy, sY, and sy
d. Ss, Yy, SY and sy
43. In a dihybrid cross, AaBb x AaBb, what fraction of the offspring will be homozygous recessive for
both traits?
a. 1/16
b. 1/8
c. 3/16
d.
44. If Mendel's crosses between tall, spherical-seeded plants and short, dented-seeded plants had
produced many more than 1/16 short, dented-seeded plants in the F2 generation, he might have
concluded that:
a. the dented seed and short traits are unlinked.
b. all traits in peas are linked.
c. all traits in peas assort independently of each other.
d. he would not have concluded any of the above
45. Two unlinked loci effect mouse hair color. CC or Cc mice are agouti. Mice with genotype cc are
albino because all pigment production and deposition of pigment in hair is blocked. At the second locus,
the B allele (black agouti coat) is dominant to the b allele (brown agouti coat). A mouse with a black agouti
coat is mated with an albino mouse of genotype bbcc. Half of the offspring are albino, one quarter are
black agouti, and one quarter are brown agouti. What is the genotype of the black agouti parent?
a. BBCC
b. BbCc
c. bbCC
d. BbCC
46. Two unlinked loci effect mouse hair color. AA or Aa mice are agouti. Mice with genotype aa are
albino because all pigment production is blocked, regardless of the phenotype at the second locus. At the
second locus, the B allele (agouti coat) is dominant to the b allele (black coat). What would be the result
of a cross between two agouti mice of genotype AaBb?
a. 4 agouti: 4 black: 8 albino
b. 9 agouti: 3 black: 3 albino: 1 grey
c. 9 agouti: 3 black: 4 albino
d. 8 agouti: 4 black: 4 albino
47. Mendelian inheritance may be difficult to analyze because of all of the following except
a. formation of Barr bodies
b. pleiotropic effects
c. continuous variation
48. The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is

a. YO
b. XXY
c. XYY
d. XO
49. The name for a chromosome map unit is

a. centimorgan
b. centistern
c. millimendel
d. decibar
50. Which of the following represents a testcross?

a. Ww x WW
b. ww x WW
c. Ww x Ww
d. WW x WW
51. A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be

a. homozygous
b. heteromologous
c. homologous
d. heterozygous
52. Which of the following represents a dihybrid?

a. WWSs
b. WwSS
c. WwSs
d. WWss
53. A genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele is

a. sickle-cell anemia
b. PKU
c. Tay-Sachs disease
d. Huntington's disease
54. In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If two
heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be homozygous dominant?
a. 3/4
b. 2/3
c. 1/2
d. 1/3
55. In humans pointed eyebrows are dominant to smooth eyebrows and widow's peak (downward
pointed frontal hairline) is dominant to continuous hairline. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in
the offspring from a cross between an individual heterozygous for both genes and an individual
homozygous recessive for both genes?
a. 9:3:3:1
b. 9:3:4
c. 1:1:1:1
d. 9:7
56. Hypertrichosis, hairiness of the pinna of the ear, is inherited as a Y-linked in humans. If a man with
hypertrichosis marries a normal woman, what types of children may they have?
a. All of their children of both sexes have hypertrichosis.
b. All the sons have hypertrichosis, but none of their daughters.
c. Half of their sons, but none of their daughters will have hypertrichosis.
d. All the daughters have hypertrichosis, but none of their sons.
57. Epistasis is a genetic condition in which certain alleles of one locus can alter the expression of
alleles of a different locus.
a. True
b. False
c. Cant determine
d. Both
58. One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.

a. True
b. False
59. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB x IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how
many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
a. 2 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
b. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
c. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
d. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
60. A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected
individuals having at least one affected parent.
a. True
b. False
61. In a species that has five different alleles for a gene at a particular locus, how many different
alleles may be present in the somatic cells of one diploid individual?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
62. Which of the following diseases is caused by the lack of a functional gene responsible for a specific
enzyme?
a. Down Syndrome
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. Ricketts
d. Malaria
63. How many different genotypes are possible from the cross : AaBb AaBb ?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 16
64. When we cross plants with TtRr and TTrr genotypes, what will the no. of F2 plants having Tall and
white phenotype?
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 75%
d. 100%
65. Mendel ratios are not observed in all the cases in nature. What may be the reason for that?
a. Only mendel can do that, but he is not alive today
b. In mendelism linkage is involved, but in nature no linkage in most cases
c. In nature we find linkage, but in mendelism does not consider linkage
d. Nature has changed a lot due to global warming
66. How many chromosomes are present in human sperm cell? What type?
a. 44 + Y / X
b. 22 + Y
c. 22 + X
d. 22 + X/Y
67. You and your spouse have no children. You stand to inherit a sizeable fortune from your crazy
Uncle Irving if you can produce three daughters in your family of three children. What is the probability
of doing just that?
a. 1/7
b.
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
68. In peas (again), the stem length may result in a tall (T) or dwarf (t) plant. What proportion of the
offspring in the following cross would be expected to be tall, and what proportion dwarf?
TT x tt
a. tall and dwarf
b. All tall
c. All dwarf
d. tall and dwarf
69. Two babies in a maternity ward have lost their identity bands, and there is some confusion about
their footprint records. Baby #1 is type A; baby #2 is type B. If you are one of the mothers and your blood
type is O, which one of the following statements applies.
a. Neither baby could be yours
b. The type A baby is yours.
c. The type B baby is yours.
d. Either baby could be yours
70. Line A is a true-breeding line of brown rabbits. Line B is a true-breeding line of white rabbits. A
male from line A is crossed to a female from line B. The resulting F1 are all black. The F1 mate with each
other. The F2 have black, white, and brown rabbits.
a. incomplete dominance
b. sex-linkage
c. Linkage
d. Epistasis
71. How many different gametes can be formed by the following parental genotype
Aa BB cc DD
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
72. During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur.
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Telophase
d. Interphase
73. The purposes of Meiosis include:

a. The production of gametes in animals
b. The reduction of 1 diploid cell to 4 haploid cells
c. The joining of haploid cells to produce diploid cells
d. a and b.
74. What is the probability of rolling one six-sided die and obtaining number 2?
a. 1/3
b. 1/6
c. 2/3
d. 1/8
75. In a family of seven children, what is the probability of obtaining all the boys?
a. 1/32
b. 1/64
c. 2/64
d. 1/128
76. Fruit flies have a red eye colour that is determined by the gene RED. Allele R gives a red eye and
allele r gives a white eye. R is dominant over r. A single red eye parent and a single white eye parent were
mated. Only 50% of the resulting progeny had red eyes. With respect to the RED gene, which of the
following best describes the genotype of the red eyed parent?
a. rr
b. Rr
c. RR
d. Any of the above
77. HIV when infects a normal human being leads to the occurrence of AIDS. It is very difficult to cure
a person from HIV as the virus undergoes spontaneous mutation thus making it drug resistant. Which of
the following is the reason of spontaneous mutation in these viruses?
a. The genetic material replicating enzyme for AIDS virus makes large number of mistakes
b. The high accuracy rate & high rate of virus production makes it highly drug resistant
c. The low accuracy rate & low rate of virus production makes it highly drug resistant
d. The genetic material replicating enzyme for AIDS virus makes small number of mistakes
78. A white-eyed female fruit fly is crossed with a red-eyed male. Red eyes are dominant, and X-
linked. What are the expected phenotypes of the offspring?
a. All of the females will have red eyes; half of the males will have red eyes, and half of the males
will have white eyes.
b. All of the females and all of the males will have white eyes.
c. All of the females will have red eyes; all of the males will have white eyes.
79. Match the following

Column A Column B
P. Acridine orange a. base analog
Q. 5-BU b. Intercalation
R. EMS c. Deamination
S. HNO2 d. Alkylation
a. P-b, Q-d, R-a, S-c
b. P-b, Q-a, R-d, S-c
c. P-a, Q-d, R-d, S-c
d. P-a, Q-b, R-c, S-d
80. Using site-directed mutagenesis four mutation of a protein have been generated. Which of the
following missense mutation has the largest difference in terms of number of atoms between the wild
type and the mutant?
a. Ser cys
b. Tyr Phe
c. Lys Ala
d. Arg Lys
81. Probable cause of low fertility in plants is

a. Chromosomal irregularity
b. improper spindle formation
c. chemical pesticides
d. All of the above.
82. Mr. John cannot differentiate Red and green colour. He married a girl who can differentiate all
known colours accurately. They have a colour blind daughter. Now if you have draw a reciprocal cross of
this family, what would you predict about the phenotype of the children.
a. All girls normal and tall
b. All boys colourblind and girls normal
c. All girls colour blind and all boys normal.
d. of the girls normal and of boys colour blind.
83. In a Neurospora 8 asci are formed from the two mating type a+ and a. How do you expect to
obtain 8 asci spores from the mating of 2 gametes?
a. Mitosis followed by one meiosis
b. Mitosis followed by 2 cycles of meiosis
c. 2 cycles of meiosis followed by mitosis
d. Binary fission giving 8 asci from initial 2 gametes.
84. Is the formula genotype _ environment _ phenotype accurate?

a. Yes
b. No
c. May be
d. Cannot be determined
85. Peudo uridine is modified form of uridine and is present in tRNA. It plays major role in ensuring
the structure of tRNA. The modified bases give it different hydrogen bonding patterns, in turn different
secondary structures. Which of the following Bond is present between Ribose sugar and the peudo
uridine?
a. C-5 to ribose glycosidic bond
b. N-1 to ribose glycosidic bond
c. N-9 to ribose glycosidic bond
86. C-1 to ribose glycosidic bond Base Pairing in DNA In samples of DNA isolated from two unidentified
species of bacteria, X and Y, adenine makes up 32% and 17%, respectively, of the total bases. One of these
species was isolated from a hot spring (64 C). Suggest which species is the thermophilic bacterium.
a. X
b. Y
c. Both are from hot springs
d. Cannot be determined without further information about its nature.
87. Which of the following diagram indicated the correct form of U:A:U bonding?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
88. An E.coli strain lacking DNA polymerase I would be deficient in DNA

a. Repair
b. Methylation
c. Splicing
d. degradation
89. Two mutations arise in separate cultures of a normally red fungus (which has only one set of
chromosomes). The mutations are found to be in different genes. Mutation 1 gives an orange color, and
mutation 2 gives a yellow color. Biochemists working on the synthesis of the red pigment in this species
has already described the following pathway:
Colorless precursor enzyme A yellow pigment
enzyme B
orange pigment
Enzyme C
red pigment
Which enzyme is defective in mutant 1?
a. Enzyme A
b. Enzyme B
c. Enzyme C
d. Both A and C
90. Dominant gene epistasis ratio is

a. 9:3:3
b. 3:9:12
c. 1:3:12
d. 12:3:2
91. Assume that D, E, F, G, H, and I are Autosomal genes on different chromosomes. From the mating
DdeeFfGGHhIi x DdEEFFGgHhii:
What is the total no. of zygote produced by these parents?
a. 16
b. 32
c. 128
d. 256
92. In a DNA molecule, the linking number is 9 and write is -1. Then its twisting number will be
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 9
93. Pseudo hypertrophic muscular dystrophy is an inherited disorder that causes gradual
deterioration of the muscle. It is seen almost exclusively in boys born to apparently normal parents and
usually result in death in the early teens? The disease is
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex linked recessive
d. Sex linked dominant
94. In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with
the base-pairing rule?
a. A=G
b. A+G = C+T
c. A+T = G+T
d. G=T
95. The diploid number for fruit flies is 8, and the diploid number for grasshoppers is 46. If no crossing
over took place, would the genetic variation among offspring from a given pair of parents be greater in
fruit fly or grasshopper?
a. Fruit fly
b. Grasshopper
c. Both same
d. Cant determine
96. Linked genes

a. Reduce recombination
b. Increase recombination
c. Reduce parental combination
d. Increase parental combination
97. The Linkage concepts do not apply if,

a. Genes are on same chromosomes,
b. Genes are on either arms of a chromosome
c. Genes are on 2 tips of same chromosome
d. Alleles present in sister chromatids
98. In tigers, a recessive allele causes an absence of fur pigmentation and a cross-eyes condition. If 2
phenotypically normal tigers that are heterozygous at this locus are mated, what percentage of their
offsprings will be cross-eyed?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
99. Neither Tom nor Rhoda has Duchenne muscular dystrophy, but their firstborn son does have it.
What is the probability that a second child of this couple will have the disease?
a.
b.
c.
d. 1/16
100. Pseudohypertriphic muscular dystrophy is an inherited disorder that causes gradual

deterioration of the muscles. It is seen almost exclusively in boys born to apparently normal
parents and usually results in the death in early teens. The disorder is almost never seen in
girls. It may be due to
a. It is y linked gene
b. It is X linked recessive
c. It is X linked dominance
d. It needs testosterone hormone for gene expression, which is present only in males.
101. Determine the sequence of genes along a chromosome based on the following recombination
frequencies. A-B 8 mU; A-C 28 mU; A-D 25 mU; B-C 20 mU; B-D 33 mU .15-11
a. BACD
b. BADC
c. ABCD
d. DCBA
102. A plant with genotype AaBb is selfed. The 2 genes are linked and are 50 mu apart. What
proportion of the progeny will have the genotype aabb?
a.
b.
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
103. The base analog 2-amino purine pairs with thymine and can occasionally pair with cytosine,
the type of mutation induced by 2-aminopurine is
a. Transversion
b. Transition
c. Deletion
d. Nonsense
104. What kind of aneuploid gametes will be generated if meiotic non-disjunction occurs at first
division?
a. Only n+1 and n
b. Only n-1 and n
c. Both n+1 and n-1
d. Either n+1 or n-1
105. An oriental man with brown eyes married a European female with blue eyes. What will be the
colour of the eye of their children? ( Colour is X linked and Brown is dominant over blue)
a. one blue eyed, one brown eyed
b. all blue eyed
c. all brown eyed
d. three brown eyed, one blue eyed
106. Hypertrichosis is sex linked character associated with the

a. Y-chromosome
b. X-chromosome
c. XX chromosome
d. XY chromosome
107. An embryo resulting from the mating of two albino rabbits is transplanted into the uterus of a
brown rabbit. The phenotype of this transplant will most probably be
a. (brown
b. white
c. roan
d. none of these
108. Which one of the following is a correct pair ?

a. Polydactyly codominance
b. Shull heterosis
c. Straight hairs dominant
d. Brown eye colour recessive
109. Which condition is caused by mutations that involve entire chromosome rather than a single gene
?
a. Haemophilia
b. (b) Phenylketonuria
c. (c) Downs syndrome
d. (d) Sickle cell anaemia
110. The maximum number of Barr bodies in a cell from Downs syndrome female is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
111. A pregnant woman, who has done amniocentesis test, finds an extra Barr body in her embryo.
The syndrome likely to be associated with the embryo is
a. Pataus
b. Klinefelters
c. Downs
d. Edwards
112. In Downs syndrome each cell has how many chromosomes ?

a. 21st pair having one less.
b. 23rd pair with one less.
c. 45 chromosomes.
d. 47 chromosomes.
113. 44 + X in a person shows the syndrome

a. Pataus
b. Klinefelters
c. Turners
d. Edwards
114. Webbed neck is a characteristic of

a. Pataus
b. Klinefelters
c. Downs
d. Turners
115. The genetic event in Turners syndrome (XO) is probably

a. non-disjunction
b. parental imprinting
c. monoploidy
d. segregation
116. Which of the following have equal number of chromosomes ?

a. Klinefelters syndrome and Downs syndrome
b. Klinefelters syndrome and Turners syndrome
c. Turners syndrome and Downs syndrome
d. Turners syndrome and gynandromorphs
117. A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis. When a man with hairy ears marries a normal
woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears
a. (0%
b. 100%
c. 50%
d. 2.5%
118. Baldness is more common in men than in women. It could be explained on the basis that
a. it is due to male hormone and genes are not involved.
b. baldness genes are located on Y-chromosome.
c. genes of baldness are autosomal but influenced by androgens.
d. genes of baldness are located on X-chromosome only.
119. Father has blood group A and mother has B. Both are heterozygous. If they have identical twins,
the percentage probability of both twins having blood group A is
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 25%
120. How many Barr bodies will be expected in an extreme Klinefelters syndrome with XXXXY ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
121. The human disease inherited as a simple recessive trait is

a. Cancer
b. Diabetes
c. Alzheimers disease
d. Tay Sachs diseas
122. Father of human genetics is

a. Tijo
b. Mendel
c. Garrod
d. Hargobind Khorana
123. Which amino acid of beta chain of haemoglobin is changed when normal haemoglobin is changed
to sickle cell anaemia haemoglobin.
a. Leucine
b. Methinine
c. Valine
d. Glutamic acid
124. The autosomes of man has been classified in

a. 3 groups
b. 4 groups
c. 5 groups
d. 7 groups
125. Mother of a sickle cell anaemic child will always be

a. affected
b. normal
c. carrier
d. none of these
126. Metastasis
a. is the preneoplastic stage of cancer
b. transforms proto-oncogenes into oncogenes
c. is the invasion of cancerous cells to surrounding tissues
d. is a form of cancer that is induced by radiations only
127. Carcinoma refers to

a. malignant tumors of connective tissue.
b. malignant tumors of skin or mucus membrane.
c. malignant tumors of colon.
d. benign tumors of connective tissue.
128. Which of the following is not a cancer
a. sarcoma
b. carcinoma
c. leukemia
d. glaucoma
129. In cancerous tissues

a. glucose uptake remains normal.
b. glucose uptake increases.
c. glucose uptake decreases.
d. none.
130. Treatment of cancer by gamma rays is called

a. hormone therapy
b. chemotherapy
c. radiation therapy
d. all of these
131. During hybridization the children are superior to parents; it is

a. heterozygosity
b. heterosis
c. homozygosity
d. interbreeding
132. Lyon hypothesis deals with

a. centromere position
b. genetic compatibility
c. genetic incompatibility
d. number of Barr bodies
133. After the age of 40, the percentage of syndrome increased in the offspring of a lady, it is due to
a. lady becomes weak
b. oocytes can show disjunction
c. ovaries become weak
d. placenta becomes weak
134. Mental retardation is not related with

a. trisomy 21
b. phenylalanine hydroxylase
c. myelinization of neurons
d. additional Y-chromosome
135. Philadelphia chromosome is found in the patient suffering from

a. insomia
b. hepatitis
c. albinism
d. myelocytic anaemia
136. The person which does not involve any change in sex chromosome number of an organism
a. Downs syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Super male
d. Super female
137. A man has 6 daughters. What is the probability of next child being a son?
a. 10%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 75%
138. Except for identical twins, individuals are never alike in

a. asexually reproducing organisms
b. binary fission
c. parthenogenesis
d. sexually reproducing organisms
139. XXY condition is found in

a. Downs syndrome
b. Superfemales
c. Klinefelters syndrome
d. Turners syndrome
140. Trisomy of which chromosome is involved in Downs syndrome?

a. 8th
b. 13th
c. 21st
d. 23rd
141. In which type of colour blindness, colours are perceived as grey

a. Monochromasia
b. Dichromasia
c. Chromoasia
d. All the above
142. Phenylketonuria is referred as

a. acquired disease
b. congenital disease
c. Infectious disease
d. All of these
143. In which of the following disease, an extra X chromosome is present

a. Downs syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
d. Bleeders disease
144. Among the following, colour blindness is related with
a. Eye muscles
b. Rods
c. Cones
d. All
145. Phenlyketonuria, an inherited disease is characterized by

a. Decreased occurrence of phenylalanine in blood and urine
b. Increased occurrence of phenylalanine in blood and urine
c. Elimination of homogentisic acid in urine
d. Elimination of sugar in urine
146. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concerned with
a. Pattern baldness
b. (b) Colour blindness
c. (c) Facial hairs in males
d. (d) Night blindness
147. Albinism and Phenylketonuria are disorders due to

a. Recessive autosomal genes
b. Dominant autosomal genes
c. Recessive sex genes
d. Dominant sex genes
148. A man has enlarged breasts, sparse hairs on the body and sex complement as XXY. He suffers from
a. Downs syndrome
b. Klinefelters syndrome
c. Edwards syndrome
d. Turners syndrome
149. A hereditary disease is

a. Leprosy
b. Cataract
c. Blindness
d. Phenylketonuria
150. A human male is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B, and is also hemizygous for
haemophilic gene h. What proportion of his sperms will be abh?
a. 1/8
b. 1/32
c. 1/16
d. 1/4
151. Downs syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of
offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder ?
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 100%
d. 75%
152. Which of the following is a correct match

a. Downs syndrome 21st chromosome
b. Sickle cell anaemia X-chromosome
c. Haemophilia Y-chromosome
d. Parkinsons disease X and Y-chromosome
153. A person with 45 chromosomes and also the Y chromosome is absent, is suffering from
a. Downs syndrome
c. Turners syndrome
d. none of these
154. Sickle cell anaemia is due to

a. change of amino acid in alpha chain of haemoglobin.
b. change of amino acid in beta chain of haemoglobin.
c. change of amino acid in both alpha and beta chains of haemoglobin.
d. change of amino acid in either alpha or beta chains of haemoglobin.
155. In human beings, multiple genes are involved in the inheritance of

a. skin colour
b. PKU
c. colourblindness
d. sickle cell anaemia
156. Which kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related to chimpanzee than with other
hominoid apes ?
a. evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only.
b. comparision of chromosomal morphology only.
c. evidence from fossil remains and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone.
d. evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosome, autosome and mitochondria.
157. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are
a. starved of mutation
b. undergoing rapid division
c. difference in structure
d. non-dividing
158. Which of the following is a not a sexually transmitted disease?

a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. Common cold
159. Which one of the following condition though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from
all mosquito borne infectious disease
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Leukemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Sickle cell anaemia
160. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because
a. it is controlled by dominant genes.
b. it is controlled by recessive genes
c. it is not a fatal disease.
d. it provides immunity against malaria.
161. Parents are colourblind. What is the phenotype of grandsons in F2 generation?

a. 50% normal, 50% colourblind
b. all normal
c. all colourblind
d. all are carriers
162. Two dice are thrown having number 1 to 6. Maximum probability for getting sum of 4 will be
a. 4
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
163. Meiosis produces n+1, and n-1 gametes. The probable reason is
a. Non-disjunction during metaphase-I
b. Non-disjunction of during metaphase-II
c. Non-disjunction during metaphase-I and II
d. Non-disjunction during Anaphase I and II
164. In drosphila order of genes under investigation is as shown in figure.

b+ 5cM cm+ 10cM w+
if drosophila with genotype is test crossed, what would be the observed frequency of progenies with
genotype assuming zero interference?
a. 0.005
b. 0.5
c. 0.15
d. 1.5
165. A cross between hens with different comb was carried as shown in figure.
The conclusion which can be drawn is
a. Single gene is involved for comb shape
b. Two independent segregating genes are involved
c. Two genes are showing epistasis
d. 4 independent segregating alleles are involved.
166. Mendel during his experiment on garden pea observed F2 ratio of 3:1 on selfing round seed plants
where 3 were round and 1 was wrinkled. If all heterozygous round seed plants are selfed to raise the F3
generation the observed ration will be
a. Half the plants with round seed and rest with wrinkled seed
b. 3/4the of plants with round seed and with wrinkled seeds
c. All plants with round seeds
d. 1/3 of plants with round seeds and 2/3 of plants bearing round and wrinkled seeds.
167. Independent assortment of genes occurs due to orientation of chromosomes at

a. Metaphase of mitosis
b. Metaphase I of meiosis
c. Metaphase II of meiosis
d. Any phase of cell division
168. In a dihybrid cross AABB and aabb, F2 progeny with AABB,AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in the
ratio of
a. 1:1:1:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 1:2:2:1
d. 1:2:2:4
169. According to classical genetics, which of the following statements is true?

a. Recessive allels are detected by phenotype of the F1 generation
b. The closer the 2 genes are , more frequent they will recombine
c. Genes on different autosomes segregate independently
d. Genes on sex chromosomes segregate in same pattern as autosomes
170. Which of the following inheritance pattern in depicted in the figure below?
a. X-linked recessive
b. X-linked dominance
c. Sex limited recessive
d. Autosomal dominance
171. If only 2 segregating loci contribute to cob length, and we represent the parental cross as
AABB (9 inch cob length) x aabb (3-inch cob length) the fraction of the F2 expected to be 4.5
inch is
a. 1/8
b.
c. 1/16
d. 3/16
172. A normal couple has seven children ( 2 daughters and 5 sons). 3 of the sons suffer from a
hereditary disorder but none of the daughter is affected. It is due to
a. Sex limited recessive
b. Sex linked recessive
c. Sex linked dominance
173. A 12 year old boy develops a disorder seen in his father. No one else in the family, have the
disorder, it is likely due to
a. X-linked recessive
b. Y-linked
c. Autosomal recessive
174. The most common cause of Pleotropic effect is

a. Same gene product is involved in various metabolic pathways
b. The gene makes different products in different cell types
c. The DNA sequence of a gene varies depending on the cell type
d. The gene not functioning in some cells
175. In drosophila , sex is determined by

a. X and Y chromosomes
b. Ratio of pair of X-chromosomes to the pair of autosomes
c. Ratio of pair of X-chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
d. Whether the egg is fertilized or has developed parthenogenetically
176. Which of the following is not true about the genomic imprinting?
a. Epigenetic effect
b. Occurs as a result of acetylation of histone proteins
c. DNA methylation is responsible for imprinting
d. Paternal and maternal alleles have different pattern of methylation
177. Match the following:

List I
Inheritance pattern List II
Disorders
P. sex- linked 1. baldness
Q. sex- influenced 2. AIDS
R. Sex-limited 3. Klinefeilters syndrome
- 4. haemophilia
- 5. hypertrichosis
a. P-4; Q-1;R-5
b. P-5;Q-3; R-2
c. P-5; Q-1; R-3
d. P-4; Q-3; R-2
178. Match the following

List I List Ii
P. incomplete dominance 1. human skin colour
Q. codominance 2. Purple colour in maize due to anthocyanin
R. polygenes 3. human being belonging to AB blood group
S. Complementary genes 4. Pink flower in 4 Oclock plant
a. P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
b. P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
c. P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
d. P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
179. Two linked genes a and b , show 20% recombination. The individual of dihybrid cross
between ++/++ x ab/ab shall show gametes
a. ++80 : ab 20
b. ++ 50: anb 50
c. ++ 40 : ab 40: +a 10: +b 10
d. ++ 30: ab 30: +a 20 : +b 20
180. In a test cross of an individual heterozygous for each of the 3 linked genes, the most frequent
class of progeny ABc/abc and abC/abc, and the least frequent classes were ABC/abc and
abc/abc. What is the order of the genes?
a. ACB
b. ABC
c. BAC
d. CAB
181. An individual with cd genes was crossed with wild type ++ . on test crossing F1, the progeny
was +c 105; +d 115; cd 550; ++ 900. Distance between the cd genes is
a. 11 cM
b. 5.5 cM
c. 44 cM
d. 88 cM
182. Linkage map of X chromosome of fruit fly has 66 mU with yellow body genes(y)at one end
and bobbed gene(b) at the other. The recombination frequency between y and b would be
a. 66%
b. >50%
c. <50%
d. 100%
183. If a chiasma forms between the loci of genes A and B in 20% of the tetrads of an individual of
genotype AB/ab, the % of gametes expected to be Ab is
a. 40
b. 20
c. 10
d. 5
184. Which of the following is used as a genetic marker?

a. SNPs
b. RFLP
c. SINE
d. VNTR
185. Which of the following is true regarding the Maternal inheritance and maternal effect ?
a. There is no difference between the 2
b. Maternal effect is the genetic information carried by mRNAs deposited in the egg
c. Maternal inheritance is the genetic information carried by the mRNAs deposited in the egg
d. Chloroplasts only provide the genetic information that constitutes the maternal inheritance
186. Human disorders caused by mutated mitochondrial genome is
a. Are inherited from both parents
b. Are inherited from father alone
c. Are inherited from mother alone
d. Have no effect as mitochondrial gene mutations are complemented by nuclear genes
187. The DNA of bacteriophage T4 containsapproximately 2,00,000 nucleotide pairs. The rII region of
the T4 genome occupies about the 1% of its total genetic length. Sima found that about 300 sites are
seperable by recombination within the rII region. What will be average number of nucleotides in each
recon.
a. About 20
b. About 300
c. About 7
188. A culture of tetracycline-sensitive bacteria was infected by a phage that is delivered from the lysis
of a tetracycline-resistant bacterial strain. This results in developments of tetracycline-resistance in the
original culture. What phenomenon has occurred?
a. Conjugation
b. Recombination
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
189. One of the characteristic of Phenylketonuria (PKU) is

a. Elimination of genitisic acid in urine
b. Increased occurance of phenylalanine in blood and urine
c. Elimination of sugar in urine
d. Decrease in phenylalanine in blood and tissue
190. In bacteria, which enzyme binds single-stranded DNA, denatures double stranded DNA and
matches the single stranded DNA with complementary denatured DNA?
a. Rec A
b. RecBCD
c. UvrABC
d. UvrD
191. Genetic mosaics have

a. A highly methylated chromosome
b. An inactivated chromosome
c. An extra chromosome
d. During mitosis, prior to metaphase, it contains only one chromatid
192. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fragile X syndrome?

a. Trinucleotide repeats
b. Inherited mental retardation
c. Robertsonian translocation
d. Defect in FMR1 gene
193. Choose the mismatch :
a. Cri-du-chat syndrome 5p-
b. Patan syndrome 47, +13
c. Retinoblastoma 13q , 14
d. Edward syndrome 47, +21
194. Choose the wrong statement.

A. QTLs control polygenic traits
B. RFLP is used as marker QTL mapping
C. QTLs control a quantitative trait
D. QTLs are always present in single chromosome
a. P and Q
b. Q and R
c. P and S
d. Only S
195. In studying an E.coli strain containing a known frameshift mutation, you isolate a mutant in
which this frameshift is suppressed. You therefore expect to find which of the following
associated with the suppression? ( assume the frameshift has not been corrected in the coding
for the peptide)
a. Suppressor tRNAs encode an amino acid for a stop signal
b. Suppressor tRNAs encode a 2 nucleotide anticodon
c. Suppressor tRNAs encode a 4 nucleotide anticodon
d. Both b and c
196. If a mutation in a gene makes the product of the gene defective in binding to its ligand, which
of the following is the most appropriate explanation suits correct,
a. The genes codes for a receptor and the mutation is a gain-in-function mutation
b. The genes codes for a kinase and the mutation is a gain-in-function mutation
c. The genes codes for a receptor and the mutation is a loss-of-function mutation
d. The genes codes for a kinase and the mutation is a loss-of-function mutation
197. Which of the following is true?

P. Transversional mutations are more harmful than transitional mutations
Q. Frameshift mutations may lead to premature termination
R. Missense mutations are more deleterious than nonsense mutations
S. G C mutation is a transversional mutation
a. P only
b. P and R
c. Q and R
d. P,Q and S
198. A protein that is normally localized has been mutated in such a way that its localization is no
longer nuclear, but cytosolic instead. The functional pf the protien, however, is 99% of the
wild-type protein. Which of the following could be said about the mutation?
a. It is a frameshift mutation
b. It is a nonsense mutation
c. It is a silent mutation
d. It is a small deletion
199. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from, one linkage group to another is
a. Translocation
b. Inversion
c. Crossing over
d. Duplication
200. What is the form of chromosomal aberration that leads to the fusion of 2 formerly separate
non-homologous chromosomes into a single chromosome or to the separation of formerly
joined sections of a single chromosome into 2 chromosomes?
a. Reciprocal translocation
b. Isochromosome
c. Robertisonian translocation
d. Centromeric fusion
201. Which of the following does not participate during site specific recombination between
genome of lambda-phage bacterial chromosome?
a. Lambda-integrase protein
b. Integration host factor
c. attB and attP
d. RecBCD
202. Distance between 2 linked genes A and B is 20cM. on test cross of Ab//aB , how many
offsprings will have to genotype AB//ab?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 80%
203. In Neurospora crassa tetrad showed following result +:m::6:2. The phenomenon involved for
above result would be
a. Branch migration
b. Strand exchange
c. Holliday junction
d. DNA replication
204. A poky Neurospora was crossed with normal Neurospora and following results were
obtained.
Female poky x Male Normal all poky
Female Normal x male poky all normal
The mode of inheritance is
a. Maternal inheritance
b. Paternal effect
c. X-linked
d. Sex influenced
205. Among the following most variable stage of cell cycle is

a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
206. Type of mutation which is most suitable for study of regulation of cell like DNA replication is
a. Gain of function
b. Loss of function
c. Suppressor function
d. Condition mutation
207. Small amount of lethal mutations always tend to remain in population due to
a. Mutation selection balance
b. Frequency dependent selection
c. Positive selection
d. Negative selection
208. A gene consists of 2 introns and a 5 UTR region, the probable number of exon will be
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
209. Suppose a chromosomal aberration in a chromosome AB.CDEFG leads to AB.CDEFCDFEG.

The probable reason is
a. Duplication and followed by EF inversion
b. Duplication followed by pericentric inversion
c. Only duplication
d. Only inversion
210. Individuals with X chromosome and short arm of Y chromosome are male while individuals
having X chromosomes and long arm of Y chromosomes are female. This shows that
a. Genes of maleness are located on short arm of Y chromosome
b. Genes of maleness are located on long arm of Y chromosome
c. Genes of maleness are located on X chromosome
d. Genes determining sex are not located on Y chromosome
211. If a cell ahs c as the DNA content and n as no. of chromosomes, then just immediately
before the cell division in case of mitosis what would be value of c and n?
a. 2c and 4n
b. 4c and 2n
c. 4c and 4n
d. 2c and 2n
212. Genetic disorder xeroderma pigmentosa is due to error in

a. Base excision repair
b. Nucleotide excision repair
c. Direct DNA repair
d. DNA replication mechanism
213. In lederberg experiment, which one of the following option they have used to prove their
historical experiment?
a. One auxotroph and one prototroph
b. 2 auxotroph and 2 prototroph
c. 2 auxotroph
d. 2 prototroph
214. A plant with genotype r+h+ / r-h- was test crossed. Out of total 280 progeny 260 are r+h+/r-h- and
r-h-/r-h-. the recombination frequency will be
a. 92.8
b. 46.4
c. 7.2
d. 3.6
215. Genetic mapping reveals that distance between 2 genes A and B is 10 cM. what is the chance
of getting Aabb progeny if AaBb is test crossed?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 45%
d. 90%
216. Quantitative inheritance defines

a. Variation in phenotype
b. Variation in genotype
c. Variation in environment
d. Variation in gene
217. Determine the inheritance pattern in the following pedigree data.
b. X-linked recessive
c. X-linked dominant
d. Autosomal recessive
218. Yeast with petite colony when crossed with wild type generates no petite colonies. The most
probable mode of inheritance is
a. Chloroplast
b. Mitochondria
c. Episomal
d. Nuclear
219. A cross between a red eye male and white eyed female fly produces red eyed female and
white eyed male progenies. While reciprocal cross produces all offsprings with red eyes. The
trait for eye colour is
a. Sex linked trait
b. Sex influenced trait
c. Sex linked homogametic male
d. Sex linked heterogametic male
220. Which of the following disease is not caused by defect in the the mitochondrial DNA:
a. Leigh disease
b. Kearn-Sayer's syndrome
c. myotonic dystrophy
d. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
221. The following are true about mitochondrial DNA:

a. the sperm does not contain mitochondrial DNA
b. it accounts for 10% of total human DNA
c. it encodes protein needed for oxidate phosphorylation
d. the inheritance of mitochondrial disorder is similar to X-linked disorder
222. The following are true about the offsprings of a female carrier of an X-linked
Recessive disorder and a normal male:
a. half of their children will symptomatic
b. half of their daughters will be symptomatic
c. half of their sons will be asymptomatic carriers
d. half of their daughters will be carriers
223. Which of the following is true with regard to p53 tumour suppressor gene:
a. it is located on chromosome 17
b. it encodes 53 kDa protein
c. it holds the cell cycle in the G1 phase
d. All the above
224. Which of the following is not a diseases associated with HLA-B8 include:
a. Sjogren's syndrome
b. multiple sclerosis
c. myasthenia gravis
d. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
225. From the following list of disease, pick the oens with Chromosomal abnormalities
I. achondroplasia
II. myeloid leukaemia
III. sickle cell disease
IV. cri-du-chat disease
V. Patau syndrome
a. I- yes; II- No ; III No; IV Yes ; V- Yes
b. I- yes; II- yes ; III No; IV Yes ; V- Yes
c. I- No; II- yes ; III No; IV Yes ; V- Yes
d. I- No; II- No ; III No; IV Yes ; V- No
226. Which of the following is true With regard to the DNA structures?
I. adenine (A) and guanine (G) are purine bases
II. guanine (G) always pairs with thymidine (T) and adenine (A) with cytosine (C)
III. each DNA strands have a pentose-phosphate backbone with projecting bases
IV. there are 64 possible codons
V. each amino acids may be coded by more than one codon.
a. I- true; II- False; III- True ; IV True ; V True

b. I- true; II- True; III- True ; IV True ; V True
c. I- False; II- False; III- True ; IV True ; V True
d. I- true; II- False; III- True ; IV False ; V - True
227. Which of the following corneal conditions are due to autosomal recessive:
a. macular dystrophy
b. granular dystrophy
c. lattice dystrophy
d. Meesman's dystrophy
228. The following are true about the Y chromosome:

a. the long arm is referred to as the p arm
b. the long arm has variable length
c. it demonstrates fluorescence with quinacrine
d. the short arm contains gene for testicular formation
229. The following are true:

I. Turner's syndrome is usually due to non-dysjunction in the spermatozoon
II. half the daughters of Turner's syndrome are affected by the same condition
III. patients with XXY are infertile
IV. the recurrence rate for polygenetic conditions is 1-5%
230. Which of the following is false about the Heterochromatin?

a. contains a highly repetitive sequence of DNA
b. is the inert segment of the chromosome adjacent to the centromere
c. may be lost without harmful effect in Robertsonian translocation
231. Frequency of blood group O in population is 25%, remaining individuals of population have
equal number of blood group A and B. what would be the ratio of allele frequency between A,
b and O
a. 1:1:1
b. 3:2:2
c. 1:1:2
d. 3:3:1
232. Genes between related organism exhibits high variation. The variation would maximally occur in
a. Exons
b. Introns
c. Promoters
d. Polyadenylation sites
233. The possible kinds of gametes from AABbCCDdEe is

a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
234. Renaturation of human genome has revealed that it contains both repetitive and non-
repetitive sequences. Which statement is correct
a. Human have more unique sequences
b. Repetitive sequences are localized only to centromere
c. Repetitive sequences Renaturation fast
d. Unique sequences Renaturation fast
GENE INTERACTION
235. Epistasis is a type of gene interaction showing
a. Control of phenotype by many genes
b. Masking of the effect of a gene by a non-allelic locus
c. Producing a new character when two nonallelic genes happen together in an individual
d. Enhancing the effect of gene by a nonallelic gene
236. Epistasis differs from dominance in being

a. Polygenis
b. Non allelic
c. Pleiotropic
d. Multiple allelic
237. In Sweet Pea, individuality factor C or P produces white flower colour while together they form
purple flower colour. A self cross CcPp yields a progeny of
a. 9 :3 : 3: 1
b. 12 : 3: 1
c. 15 : 1
d. 9:7
238. Depending of purple flower character when two white flower strains of Sweet Pea are crossed, is
an example of
a. Multiple factor inheritance
b. Multiple allele inheritance
c. Supplementary genes and gene interaction
d. Complementary genes and gene interaction
239. Production of new trait by interaction of two independently expressing nonallelic genes is an
example of
a. Complementary genes
b. Supplementary genes
c. Epistatic genes
d. Hypostatic genes
240. HbA and Hbs alleles of normal and sickle cell hemoglobin are
a. Codominant alleles
b. Multiple alleles
c. Dominant-recessive alleles
d. Cumulative alleles
241. An example of pleiotropic gene is

a. HbS
b. HbA
c. IA
d. IB
242. Quantitative inheritance is

a. Cumulative effect of all genes
b. Quantitative affect of genes
c. Inheritance of many genes
d. Qualitative effect of genes
243. Polygenic inheritance in plants like tobacco was first studied by

a. Davenport
b. Nilsson-Ehle
c. Kolreuter
d. Galton
244. In F2 generation, a ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4: 1 is obtained instead of 9 : 3 : 3: 1, when two pairs of genes

are considered, it indicates
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Quantitative inheritance
c. Qualitative inheritance
d. Pleiotropic effect of genes
245. Polygenic traits include

a. Skin colour and weight in human beings
b. Kernel colour in Wheat
c. Cob size of maize
d. All of the above
246. Sickle cell anaemia (Its frequency is 1 out of 10 Negroes studied by Herrick - 1904) was developed
in Negroes as an adaptation again Maloria. It is due to substitution (Point mutation) in which
a. Instead of glutamic acid, valine comes at number 6th position in one chain of Hb
b. Instead of valine, glutamic acid is inserted at number 6th position of chain of Hb
c. Valine is inserted at number 6th position in chain Hb
d. Glutamic acid is substituted by valine at number 6th position of chain Hb
247. Sickle cell syndrome is an example of

a. Pleiotropism
b. Codominance
c. Sublethality
d. All of these
248. In a heterazygote of sickle cell anaemia (HbA HbS), blood shows

a. 1 % RBCS are sickle shaped
b. 50% RBCS become sickle shaped
c. All RBCS are normal biconcave
249. In a homozygous sickle cell anaemic person (HbS HbS)

a. All RBCS become sickle shaped
b. 50% RBCS become sickle shaped
c. 10% RBCS remain biconcave
d. All RBCS become filamentous and do not pass through blood vessles.
250. In Dominant epistasis, epistatic gene is a dominant gene. In summer squash (Cucurbita pepo),
gene for white fruit colour (W) is epistatic over yellow (Y) which is dominant over green (y). What will be
the ratio of fruit colours in this cross
WwYyxWwy
(white) (white)
a. 6 white : 1 yellow : 1 green
b. 12 white : 3 yellow : 3 green
c. 12 white : 3 green : 1 yellow
d. 9 white : 7 Yellow
251. 12: 13 : 1 ratio is due to which type of gene interaction

a. Dominant epistasis
b. Recessive epistasis
c. Supplementary gene interaction
d. Complementary gene interaction
252. * Thalassemia is a genetic anaemia and resembles with

a. Sickle cell syndrome
b. Alkaptiburia
c. Phenlyketonuria
d. Albinism
253. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a change (substitution) in one base due to which a single
codon is changed causing defect in
a. chain of Haemoglobin
b. chain of Haemoglobin
c. Haemoglobin
d. Protein
254. Mr. Kapoor is heterozygous for one autosomal gene pair (Bb). He carries a recessive X-linked
gene d. What proportion of his sperms bd with be?
a. 0
b.
c.
d.
255. The gene which results in a nonviable progeny in homogygous condition is called
a. Duplicate gene
b. Linled gene
c. Lethal gene
d. Epistatic gene
e. Epistatic gene
256. Genes which have similar genotypic effect when present separately but together interact to
produce a different trait and a ratio of 9 : 7 in F2 generation are called
a. Supplementary genes
b. Complementary genes
c. Hypostatic genes
d. Epistatic genes
257. Albinism in corn is due to

a. Deficiency of light
b. Lethal gene
c. Deficiency of minerals
d. Pathogen
258. In rice plant the presence of genes. P causes its leaves to be coloured deep purple. But if the
gene I is present then the purple colour is inhibited and the leaf becomes normally green.
What is the ratio in F2 generation of green and purple plant?
a. 13 : 3
b. 12 : 3 : 1
c. 9:7
d. 9:6:1
259. The lack of pigmentation is called albinism. It is due to a recessive allele a. Two normal parents
have albino child. What will be the probability of the next child to be albino
a.
b.
c.
d. 0
260. Mating between black rates of identical genotype produced offspring 14 creamy, 47 black
and 19 albinos. What epistatic ratio is expected and what type of epostasis is operative
a. 9 : 3 : 4 recessive epistasis
b. 12 : 3 : 1 dominant epistasis
c. 1 : 2 : 1 incomplete dominance
261. Selection will not eliminate a lethal recessive gene from a large population because
a. There are always some heterozygote carriers of the allele
b. Gene fixation occurs in population
c. Heterazygotes are at a selective advantage
d. Rate of mutation to the lethal allele is high
262. In Sweet Pea, C and P genes are complementary and when come together produce purple
colour. What will be result of this cross CcPp x Ccpp?
a. 2 white and 6 purple flowers
b. 3 white and 5 purple flowers
c. 2 purple and 6 white flowers
d. 3 purple and 5 white flowers
263. The two diverse disciplines of cytology and genetics were correlated as cytogenetics by
a. Muller
b. Morgan
c. Bridges
d. Sturlevant
264. A modified dihybrid mendelian ratio of 9 : 3 : 4 shows

c. Lethal genes
d. Hypostatic genes
265. When a wheat variety of red kernels is crossed with white kerneled wheat, the F2 ratio would
be
a. 9:7
b. 1 : 10 : 4 : 1
c. 1 : 4 : 6: 4 : 1
d. 1 : 2 : 4: 2 : 4 : 1
266. Epistatic gene differs from dominant gene because of the fact that
a. Epistatic genes are nonallelic
b. Epistatic gene never express independently
c. Located at different loci
d. All correct
267. A gene which has quantitative effect on the inheritance of a trait is

a. Complimentary gene
b. Supplementary gene
c. Polygene
d. Recessive epistatic gene
268. A gene which suppresses the action of another gene not situated in the same locus on the same
chromosome is termed
a. Jumping gene
b. Epistatic gene
c. Supplementary gene
d. Hypostatic gene
269. In rat Grey coat colour (Agouti) shows epitasis and supplementary gene interaction both. In a
cross it produces a ratio of 9: 3: 4. It is due to
a. Dominant epistasis
b. Recessive epistasis
c. Dominant-recessive epistasis
d. Hypostatic gene
270. Epistasis was studied by Bateson in

a. Pisum sativum (garden pea)
b. Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet Pea)
c. Mirabilis jalapa (40 clock)
d. Antirrhinum cronitium (Synap dragon)
271. It is easier to study polygenic inheritance of character in plants than in animals because in the
plants.
a. Matings can be controlled and large number of offspring are obtained
b. Matings can not be controlled and large number of offspring are produced
c. Matings can be controlled and a small number of offspring are produced
d. Matings can not be controlled and a small number of offspring are produced
272. The experiment with wheat kernel colour by Nilsson-Ehle led to the founding of the principle of
a. Quantitative genes
b. Polugenic inheritance
c. Cumulative genes
d. All the above are correct.
273. In human beings, multiple genes are involved in the inheritance of

a. Colour blindness
b. Skin colour
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Phenyl ketonuria
274. Quantitative trait would be characterized by

a. Extreme phenotypes in homozygous condition
b. Grades of phenotypes in heterozygous condition
c. Both the above
275. From a mating of two dihybrids AaBb x AaBb, how many of the 16 zygotes, would expect to have
only two dominant genes
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 6
276. Skin colour in man is controlled by

b. Epistasis
c. Complimentary genes
d. Polygenes
277. Psuedoalleles are
a. Duplicate factors
b. Multiple alleles
c. Epostatic factors
d. Polygenes
278. Failure of one gene to express it in the presence of an non-allelic gene is known as
a. Codominance
b. Hypostasis
c. Incomplete dominance
d. Epistasis
279. Genes which have no phenotypic effect when present separately but interact to produce a
particular phenotype are called
a. Complementary genes
b. Polygenes
c. Supplementary genes
d. Epistatic genes
280. The homozygous and heterozygous individuals for a quantitative trait would have
a. Different phenotypes
b. The same phenotype
d. Epistatic genes
281. Who among the followings demonstrated and got fist experimental proof of polygenic
inheritance
a. Galton in height in men
b. Nilsson-Ehle in wheat Kernel colour
c. Davenport in skin colour in man
282. If a dihybrid for quantitative character is crossed to a deominant homozygous for the same
character, the phenotype ratio of the progeny would be
a. 1 : 1 :1 : 1
b. 3:1
c. 13 : 3
d. 1:2:1
283. If two dihybrids for the same quantitative traits crossed, the phenotypic ratio of the progeny
would be
a. 1 : 4: 6 : 4 : 1
b. 15 : 1
c. 9:7
d. 12 : 3 : 1
284. A Plant of 6 feet ht is crossed with a plant of 4 ft ht. In F1, we got 5 feet plants. Selfing of these
5 feet plants give 4 ft plants and 6 ft plant. How many pairs of polygenes are controlling this
trait?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6
285. If a negro marries a white skin female, the mulattoes are born. If such mulattoes intermarry,
progeny will show a gradual gradation of skin colour in ratio of
a. 9 : 3: 3 :1
b. 1 :4 : 6 : 4 : 1
c. 1 : 4 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 4 : 1
d. 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1
286. Symbol lac+ refers to the

a. Genotyoe
b. Phenotype
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of these
287. Cuneot crossed two yellow coloured mice which never breed true and received a ratio of 2 :1
(yellow, brown). It was due to
a. Cumulative genes
b. Epistatic gene
d. Lethal genes
288. In lathyrus the purple colour of flowers is controlled by two dominant non allelicgenes C
and P which are not able to express themselves alone. It is an example of
a. Supplementary gene
c. Duplicate factors
d. Pliygences
289. The height of a plant is under the control of polygenic inheritance, The genotype of a plant A1
A1A0A0 has 50cm and the height of plant a1a1a0a0 is 26 cm. What is the contribution of each
gene?
a. 30cm
b. 8.5cm
c. 15cm
d. 7.5cm
290. In the above cross what will be the height of he plant with genotype A1A1A0a0
a. 26 cm
b. 48.5cm
c. 56 cm
d. 22.5cm
291. Wife is PTC nontaster and husband is PTC taster. Their son is taster but daughters are non tasters.
This is not a sex linked trait. Which pedigree is correct?
a.
a.
b.
c.
d.
292. Predict from the following chart

a. Character is dominant and carried by X chromosome
b. Character is carried by Y chromosome
c. Character is sex linked recessive
d. Character is recessive Autosomal
293. In the following pedigree chart, the mutant trait is shaded black. The gene responsible for the trait
is
a. Dominant and sex linked
b. Dominant but autosomal
c. Dominant and sex linked
d. Recessive and autosomal
294. In the given pedigree indicate whether the shaded symbols indicate dominant or recessive allele.
a. Dominant
b. Recessive
c. Colominant
d. It can be recessive or dominant both
295. From the pedigree of a family given below, it is clear that trait is inherited as dominant autosomal
trait. What will be the genotype of mother and father?
a. Mother is aa and father is Aa
b. Father is AA and mother is aa
c. Father is Aa and mother is Aa
d. None of the above.
296. In a family, father had a particular trait but mother did not show it. Their two son are normal but
their daughter had that trait. The daughter was married to a normal person and her daughter had the
triat. It can be explained as
a. Aa x aa
Aa aa Aa Aa Aa
Aa aa
b. AA x aa
Aa AA Aa Aa aa
c. aa x AA
Aa aa AA Aa AA
d. aa x Aa
Aa aa AA Aa AA
AA aa
297. In the above case, the trait under study is

a. Sex linked
b. Sex influenced
c. Sex limited
d. Autosomal
298. In a family, father had a trait but mother did not. All their son and daughters had this trait. The
same trait was found in some granddaughters; through daughter were married to normal person.
a. Father is AA, mother is aa, husband are aa
b. Father is AA, mother is aa, and husband are AA
c. Father is aa, mother is Aa, husbands Aa
d. Father is AA, mother AA, one husband is Aa and second husband aa.
209 -303 MISSING
GENES AND CHROMOSOMES
304. Sum total of gene at any time in a unit of evolution is termed a

a. Genome
b. Gene pool
c. Genotype
d. Gene library
305. A gene when present in homozygous form cause the death of vearer and disturbsphenotypic ratio
from 3 : 1 to 0 : 2 : 1 (or simply 2 :1)
a. Lethal gene
b. Pleiortopic gene
c. Epistatic gene
d. Supplementary gene
306. The symptoms representing a particular disease due to chromosomal abnormalities are referred
to as
a. Sex mosaic
b. Pedigree
c. Syndrome
d. Lethal
307. Male honey bee has 16 chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in worker and queen
Honey bee?
a. N = 32
b. 2n = 32
c. N = 16
d. 2n = 16
308. Chiasmata are formed by exchange between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
These were reported by
a. Mc Clung
b. Janssens
c. Morgan
d. Altman
309. In human males, even some recessive sex linked alleles are able to express their effect because
a. There is single genome
b. Autosomes are single but sex chromosomes are two
c. There is only one X- chromosome
d. There is only one Y-chromosome
310. Phenomenon of linked genes being inherited together for two or more generations is known as
a. Continuous linkage
b. Complete linkage
c. Consistent linkage
d. All of the above
311. A child receives genes from his father to the extent of

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
312. Sex of the human child is due to

a. Size of egg
b. Size of sperm
c. Y-chromosome
d. X-chromosome
313. If an organism has 2n = 40 chromosomes, the linkage groups will be

a. 10
b. 30
c. 40
d. 20
314. The number of linkage groups in human female is

a. 23
b. 46
c. 24
d. 45
315. * The number of linkage group in man is

a. 23
b. 46
c. 24
d. 45
316. In linkage, two pairs of traits in coupling phase of linkage (Bateson and Punnetts coupling and
repulsion theory) are used. Which of the following combinations will you select
a. AbBb X aabb
b. AABB X aabb
c. AAbb X aaBB
d. AAbb X aabb
317. According to Chromosome Theory of Linkage of Morgan and Castle (1912)

a. Genes lie in a linear order in the chromosomes
b. Strength of linkage between two successive is inversely proportional to distance between two
genes
c. Linked genes are arranged in CIS or trans manner CIS arrangement A a brings
B b
Coupling i.e., parental combinations while trans arrangement A a being recombinations
(repulsions)
b B
d. All the above are correct.
318. An exception to Mendels law is

a. Linkage
b. Purity of gamete
c. Dominance
d. Independent assortment of factors
319. The traits controlled by genes located on X chromosome are called

a. Sex limited
b. Sex linked
c. Sex influenced
d. None of these
320. Gynandromorphs appear in Drosophila because of

a. Loss of X- chromosome
b. Autosomal loss
c. Mutation
d. Gain of Y- chromosome
321. Chromosome maps show linear sequence and relative distances between genes. First
chromosome map of a plant was of maize. It was prepared by
a. Emerson
b. Sturtevant
c. Bridges
d. Barbara Mc Clintok
322. In Bugs, cockroach and roundworms, the males possess

a. One chromosome less than the female
b. Two similar sex chromosomes
c. One chromosome different from rest
d. A Y Chromosome
323. Who proved that genes are located on chromosomes?

a. Sutton and boveri (1902)
b. Johanssen (1909)
c. Morgan (1910)
d. Muller (1927)
324. ZO ZZ type of sex determination is

a. Opposite of XX XO type
b. Opposite of XX XY
c. Opposite if ZZ ZW type
d. Gynander
325. One map unit corresponds to the physical length of the chromosome in which one cross-over
occurs in every
a. 100 meiosis
b. One meiosis
c. 10 meiosis
d. 50 meiosis
326. A parallelism of behaviour between chromosomes and Mendelian factors was suggested by
a. Sutton (1900)
b. Sutton and Boveri (1902)
c. Bridges (1912)
d. Morgan (1910)
327. In retroviruses, genetic material I

a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Hn RNA
d. Split gene
328. When two genes are located very close to each other on the same chromosome
a. Frequency of crossing over chromosome
b. Hardly any crossing over takes place.
c. No crossing over occurs
d. Only double cross over takes place.
329. Col plasmids in bacteria produce

a. Bactericidal and bacteriostatic chemicals
b. Fertility factor
c. Resistance to antibiotics
d. None of these
330. Chromosome theory of inheritance was put forward by

a. Fleming (1892)
b. Sutton and Boveri independently (1902)
c. Correns (1909)
d. Boveri (1887)
331. Organisms having more than 200 chromosomes are

a. Gorilla and chimpanzee
b. Amoeba, Ophioglossum and Geometrid moth
c. Chicken and dog
d. Silkworm, Pigeon and Radiolarians.
332. XX-X XO sex chromosome complement is found in

a. Honey Bee
b. Birds
c. Gorilla
d. Cockroach
333. The coupling and repulsion theory of Bateson and Punnett later on modified linkage and crossing
over b Morgan. Two completely linked genes show a dihybrid ratio of
a. 1:1
b. 3:1
c. 1:1:1:1
d. 9:3:3:1
334. A dihybrid test cross ratio for two linked genes in a hybrid is
a. 1:1
b. 1:1:1:1
c. 7:1:1:7
d. 1:7:7:1
335. The unit Morgan or centimorgan or morganoid is related to

a. Linkage map
b. Chromosome map
c. Genetic map
d. Any of these
336. Interference is
a. Decease in frequency age due to low supply of ATP
b. Increases with age
c. Remains unaffected
337. The chief advantage of the linear arrangement of ascospores in Neurospora is that in genetic
studies it allows
a. Accurate counting of spores
b. Easy collection of spores
c. Easy inference of orientation of chromatids during meiosis
d. Ready observation of mutant phenotypes.
338. In Neurospora ascus, 8 ascospores show 2A, 4A, 2a arrangement. It suggests

a. No crossing over between gens
b. I division segregation
c. II division segregation
d. Crossing over between gene & centromere
339. In the ascus of Neurospora crassa, which one of the following is fact?
a. The number of recombinants is directly proportional to the distance of gene from its centromere
b. The number of recombinants bears no relation to the distance of the gene form its centromere
c. Recombination and complementation determine the distance of gene from its centromere
d. Not recombination but complementation determines the distance of gene from centromere
340. If in Neurospora, the progenies of the cross between an orange colonial strain and Albino
spreading strain segregated into 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of Albino colonial, then the inference is that the traits
are controlled by
a. Single gene
b. Two gene
c. Three gene
d. 4 gene
341. A clone is a collection of genetically

a. Different individuals produced by sexual reproduction
b. Different individuals produced by vegetative reproduction
c. Identical individuals produced by sexual reproduction
d. Identical individuals produced by vegetative propagation
342. Crossing over occurs at four strand stage. This was proved by the observation that
a. Chiasmata are seen only at four strand stage
b. Usually two gemetes resulting from meiosis are recombinants
c. All the fours gametes resulting from meiosis are recombinants
d. Chiasmate are seen only at four strand stage
343. Assuming no linkage and no crossing over, segregation of Mendelian factors during meiosis
occurs at
a. Diplotene
b. Metaphase I
c. Anaphase I
d. Anaphase II
344. In Neurospara crassa (pink bread mould), genotype Aa is used for a study of segregation of 8
ascospores in ascus. Which of the following ordered arrangement does not represent second division
segregation?
a. Aaaa AAAA
b. AAaa AAaa
c. AA aaaa AA
d. aa AA AA aa
345. Tetrad analysis started by Dodge in Neturospora is helpful in knowing

a. Linkage group
b. Recombination frequencies
c. Interference
d. Sex ratio
346. In haploid organisms for one gene pair, after fertilization two contracting forms of a hybrid trait
segregate during zygotic meiosis to give a ratio of
a. 3:1
b. 1:1
c. 1:2:1
d. 0:3
347. The same haploid organism for two genepairs will show a ratio of other than 9:3:3:1. It is
a. 1:1:1:1
b. 1:1
c. 9:3:4
d. 15 : 1
348. A diploid with only one allele (e.g. man is for XY chromosomes) is know as
a. Homozygous
b. Hemizygous
c. Heterozygous
d. None of these
349. Jumping genes discovered by Nobel Laureate Mc clintock Barbara in maize are
a. Transposons
b. Plasmone
c. Genome
d. Cistron
350. Criss cross inheritance means

a. X chromosome from male will pass to a male of next generation
b. X chromosome from a male will pass to a female of next generation
c. X chromosome for female from female will pass to female of next generation
351. Criss cross inheritance was discovered by:

a. Morgan
b. Morgan and bridges
c. Muller
d. Bridges
352. A man carrying a sex linked gone on his Y chromosome will transmit this gene to :
a. his male offspring
b. his female off spring
c. All his female off spring
d. All his male off spring
353. What are the chances sons of a man with a rare X-linked disorder will inherit from him
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 400%
354. Criss cross inheritance in Drosophila led to the discovery of :-

a. Law of dependent assortment
b. Extra chromonal inheritance
c. Lethal genes
d. Sex-linked inheritance
355. Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups does female Drosophila has
(Male Drosophila has 5 linkage groups)\
a. 4
b. 8
c. 3
d. 5
356. What would be segregation pattern of ascospores in Neturospora asci in case of crossing over of
the types giving below
A B A B
a b a b
a. Aa, ab,ab,ab,AB,AB,AB,AB
b. Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab, aB, aB, aB, aB
c. Ab, Ab, aB, aB, aB, aB, Ab, Ab
d. aB, aB, ab, ab, AB, AB, Ab, Ab
357. In the crosses involving linked genes who discovered that the assortment of genes during germ
cells formation is not random, in violation of Mendels second law?
a. Bateson and Punnett
b. Morgan
c. Sutton and Boberi
d. Sutton
358. Which of the following genetic event represents a case of incomplete linkage
a. Expression of heterozygous phenotype which is distinct form and often intermediate to that of
either parent
b. Inheritance between genes so that one gene prevents expression of other gene
c. A condition in which the phenotypic effect of a genes alleles are simultaneously expressed in the
heterozygote
d. Occasional separation of two genes on the some chromosome by a recombinant event.
359. This diagram shows the segregation pattern of ascospores in asci of Neurospora. Which of the
following crossing over type will lead to the segregation pattern
AB AB Ab AB ab ab aB aB
shown above in Fig 2 are
A B
a.
A B
a b
a b
A B
b.
A B
a b
a b
A B
c.
A B
a b
a b
A B
d.
A B
a b
a b
360. The present concept of linkage and crossing over is based on the presumption that genes are
arranged in a chromosome in
a. Random manner
b. Linear fashion
c. Spiral manner
d. Irregular manner
361. The segregation pattern of ascospores in ascus of Neurospora crossa as results of single crossing
over between the strands
A B
A B
a b
a b
shown in above diagram will be
1) AB AB Ab Ab aB aB ab ab
2) Ab Ab ab ab AB AB aB aB
3) Ab Ab Ab Ab ab ab aB aB
4) Ab Ab AB AB ab ab aB aB
362. A homozygous red eyed female was mated with white eyed male; a daughter from F1 generation
was also mated with white-eyed male. In the progeny form this second mating
a. All males and females have red eyes
b. All males and females have white eyes
c. All male have red eyes; all females have white eyes
d. Males and females have red eyes and white eyes in the ratio of 1 : 1
363. * In a cross Drosophila, the heterozygous animal with grey body (b+) and long wings (vg+) with
black body and vestigial wings, the progeny have the animals in the following ratio Grey vestigial 24: grey
long 126 ; black long 26: black vestigial 124. What is the frequency of recombinants in the population?
a. 15.8
b. 16.7
c. 17.5
d. 14.5
364. Which of the following radiation do not result in any mutational chang:-
a. X-ray
b. Gamma rays
c. Ultraviolet rays
d. Infrared rays
365. Rearrange of a groups of genes in a chromosome in such a way that their order in the
chromosomes is reversed, this rearrangement is referred to as
a. Inversion
b. Translocation
c. Interchange
d. Deficiency
366. A wild strain of a microorganism which is capable of growth on a defined minimal essential
medium (MEM) is termed as:-
a. Pleiotroph
b. Prototroph
c. Auxotroph
d. Permissive condition
367. Translocation occurs during spontaneous chromosomal aberrations. During translocation there is
a. An addition of a segment of a chromosome to another chromosome
b. Loss of a segment of a chromosome
c. Transfer of a segment of a chromosome to a different part of the same chromosome or different
chromosome
d. All of the above
368. In a given RNA segment AUG. ACC. UGG.ASS. CCA. UCA, if the first base gets mutated, the effect
of this on coding by this RNA segment will result in:
a. A change of the first animo acid only
b. A complete change in the types as well as the swquence of almost all amino acids
c. No change in the sequence of amino acids
d. One amino acid less in the protein chain
369. When two genes are located very close to each other in chromosomes
a. Any crossing over can hairdly be detected
b. Percentage of crossing over is very high
c. Only double crossing over can take place
d. No crossing over takes place
370. The first attempt to show linkage in plants was done b Bateson and Punnett in
a. Oenothers lamarckiana
b. Pisum sativum
c. Lathyrus odoratus
d. Zea maize
371. Father of Neurospora genetics (Haploid genetics) is

a. Lindegren
b. Dodge
c. Morgan
d. Muller
372. Evidence that crossing over occurs at four standed stage and not at two stranded stage of
chromosomes comes by the studies of Lindegren (1933) and Dodge (1929) from
a. 2 : 2 : 2 : 2 arrangement of ascospores in Neurospora
b. 4 : 4 arrangement of ascospores in Neruraparo
c. Studies of linkage map of chromosomes in Neruraparo
d. All offspring white eyed
373. In a linear chromosome map, distances between 4 loci is as follows; a b 10% ; a d 3% ; b c

4% and a c 6%. The cross over frequency between c and d is
a. 3%
b. 9%
c. 3 or 9%
d. 4 to 12%
374. In fruits fly genes for red, eosin and white eye color are allelic sex linked. Gene for yellow body is
linked with white eye with a cross over value of 1.5%. The probable cross over value between eosin and
yellow body allele would be then
a. 1.5%
b. 3%
c. 0.75%
d. Data insufficient
375. In rabbit, two recessive genes produce a solid body color and long hair in contrast to dominant
spotted body color and short hair. The result of a cross between heterozygous spotted short haired rabbit
to solid long haired rabbit gives spotted, shot haired 48, spotted long haired 5, spotted, short haired 7,
solid long haired 40, Total 100. In terms of cross over units, how far are these tow genes on the
chromosome?
a. 48 map units
b. 12 map units
c. 40 map units
d. 7 units
376. In drosophila, red eye color is dominant to white and is sex linked. What results would you expect
from a cross between a red eyed male and a white eyed male
a. All males and females red eyed
b. All females red eyed and male white eyed
c. All females white eyed and male red eyed
d. All offspring white eyed
377. The recombination frequency between q and r is 3.7%. Does it matter whether the linkage map is
represented
a. No
b. Yes
c. Can be made
d. Not at all unless a third gene is given
378. * If 5% is strength of linkage between two genes, then they are 5 map units apart no sane
chromosome.
a. It is false statement
b. It is true statement
c. Only (1) is correct
d. Only (2) is correct
379. Sex chromosomes X & Y were discovered by

a. Stevens and Wilson
b. Bridges
c. Mc Clung
d. Henking
380. Chromosome theory of sex determination was propounded by

a. Wilson and stevens
b. Bridges
c. Mcclung
d. Henking
381. Sex chromosome (X) was discovered in Bug by Henking. Who discovered X- O type of sex
determination in Hemiptera
a. Mc Clung
b. Stevens
c. Wilson
d. None of these
382. We have X-Y, X-O, Z-W, Z-O and haplo diploidy types of sex determination. Which group among
the following show all types of sex determination
a. Drosophila
b. Mammals
c. Arthropods
d. Mollusks & reptiles
383. According to Riddles theory of metabolic differentiation

a. Males have high metabolic ratio over female
b. Females have high metabolic ratio over male
c. Eunuchs have high metabolic rate
d. None of the above statement is correct
384. Select the correct matching

a. Ordered tertrad : yeast
b. Unordered tetrad : Neurospora
c. Ordered tetra : Neurospora
d. 8 tetrad : yeast
385. An individual with half body male and half body female is know as
a. Sterile
b. Free martin
c. Inter sex
d. Gynandromorphy
386. Which group of the chromosomes in Denver system has maximum chromosomes?
a. Group A
b. Group C
c. Group D
d. Group E
387. The pattern of inheritance of white eye color in Drosophila shows that the gene is
a. Located on the X- chromosome
b. Located on the Y-chromosome
c. Located on an autosome
d. Sex influenced
388. Quinacrine mustard produce produce stains

a. In region rich in A-A
b. In region rich in RNA
c. Region rich in A-T bases
d. Region rich in T-C bases
389. A haemophilic (hemophiliac Xh Y) man marries a normal homozygous (XX) woman. What is the
probability that their son will be haemophilic?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 0%
390. What is the probability that a haemophiliac (XhY) and a normal homozygous women (XX) produce
a haemophilic daughter
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 0%
391. Traits controlled by genes present on X-chromosomes are called

a. Sex influenced
b. Sex limited
c. Sex linked
d. Autosomal
392. Sex-linked characters are transmitted through

a. Y-chromosomes of male
b. X- chromosomes of female only
c. X- chromosomes of both male and female
d. X- chromosomes of male only
393. Haematoxylin, a red nuclear stain is obtained from the heart wood of Haematoxylo
campechianum. Where will you get Carmine dye
a. From cochineal insect
b. Chemi sty laboratory
c. Saffron
d. None of these
394. Which of the following is sex-linked in human beings?

a. Night blindness
b. Hepatitis
c. Color blindness
d. Malignancy
395. Average ratio of male to female individuals (based on XX-XY type of sex determination) in world
population is
a. 3:1
b. 1 :3
c. 1:2
d. 1:1
396. A male child will be borne if

a. Father is healthy
b. Mother is well fed during pregnancy
c. Genetic composition of child has XY set of chromosomes
d. Genetic composition of child has XX set of chromosomes
397. Some persons experience phenyl thio-carbamide (PTC) as bitter. Others find it tasteless. It is a
hereditary character. If T stands for dominant allele and t for recessive one, what shall be the genetic
makeup of a nontaster?
a. T,.T
b. tt
c. Tt
d. Non being an autosomal gene
398. A normal woman whose gather was haemophilc (XhY) marries a normal man (XY). The offspring
shall be
a. All normal
b. All sons haemophilic
c. All daughters haemophilic
d. Some sons are haemophilic
399. A color blind woman (XcXc) marries a normal man (XY). The progeny shall be
a. 50% color blind and 50% normal sons
b. Normal daughters and color blind sons
c. Carrier normal daughters and colors blinds sons
d. All daughter and sons are color blind
400. Color blindness is a disease in which the facto r is usually transmitted to children by women. It is
because the factor is located on
a. Autosome
b. X-chromosome
c. Y-chromosome
d. Both (2) and (3)
401. A holandric gene is known for hypertirchosis (long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears
marries a normal woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears
a. 100%
b. 0%
c. 50%
d. 25%
402. * A woman (whose father is color blind but mother is normal) marries a hemophiliac man with
hemophiliac man with hypertrichosis. What percentage of progeny will show genotypically any tow of the
traits out of the three mentioned above at a given time?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
403. Haemophilia hardly occurs in female as

a. They are heteogametic
b. They are homogametic
c. They have two X-chromosome
d. They do not have Y-chromosome
404. Which of the following is not caused due to gene error

a. Sickle cell
b. Anaemia
c. AKU
d. Acromegaly
405. A hereditary sex linked disease in which the blood fails to clot within 5 to 8 minutes but takes
much time is called
a. Anaemia
b. Erythroblastosis foetalis
c. Clolur blindness
d. Haemophila
406. Which one of the following in man is not a wholly genetic triat
a. Night blindness
b. Color blindness
c. Hole in heart
d. Achondroplasia
407. A recessive gene expresses only in homozygous condition. Some times, a single recessive gene
can express itself when it is
a. Autosome gene
b. Located on X-chromosome of female
c. Located on Y-chromosome of male
d. Located on Y-chromosome
408. Baldness is a trait which is
a. Sex linked
b. Sex influenced
c. Sex limited
d. Autosonal
409. Baldness is more common in men than in women. It could be explained on the basis that
a. Baldness genes are located on Y-chromosomes
b. Genes of baldness are autosomal but influcenced by androgens
c. It is due to male hormones and genes are not involved
d. Genes of baldness are located on X-chromosomes only
410. The expression of genes for the production of milk in only females is
a. Sex linked trait
b. Y-linked trait
c. Sex limited trait
d. Sex influenced trait
411. In sex linkage, the specialty is

a. Atavism
b. Reversion
c. Gene flow
d. Criss cross inheritance
412. When sex is determined before fertilization, it is called

a. Progamic
b. Syngamic
c. Epigamic
d. Environmental
413. The sex linked genes are generally located on

a. X-chromosome
b. Y-chromosome
c. X and Y-chromosome
414. In which of the following animals, sex is determined by environment?

a. Gypsy moth
b. Bonellia
c. Drosophila
d. Cattles
415. The determination of sex of a child depends upon

a. Nature of egg
b. Health of month
c. Age of mother
d. Nature of sperm
416. Sex is determined
a. At the time of ovulation or 59th day after fertilization
b. At the time of oogenesis
c. Soon after fertilization
d. At the time of birth
417. Of a normal couple, half of the sons are haemophilic and half of the daughters are carried
(heterozygous). The gene for this disease in the couple are located on
a. X-chromosome of both parents
b. Both chromosomes of mother
c. Only on one X-chromosome of mother
d. Y-chromosome of father.
418. A holandric gene in man causes hypertrichosis. It is a sex linked gene located on Y-chromosome.
When a man with hairy ears marries a normal woman.
a. The percentage of their sons would be 100% to have hairy ear
b. No daughter will have this trait
c. Ratio of hairy eared and normal child will be 1 : 1
d. All correct
419. A color blind daughter will be born when

a. Father is color blind
b. Both parents are color blind
c. Mother is carried and father is color blind
d. (a) and (b)
420. Red green color blindness appears due to

a. Excessive consumption of alcohol
b. Imbalance of adrenalin
c. Inheritance through X-chromosome
d. Deficiency of vitamin A
421. If both parents are normal, what are the chances of the male child being color blind?
a. It is impossible
b. It is possible only when both the parents are heterozygous for color blindness
c. It is possible if his mothers father was color blind
d. It is possible only if his fathers mother was color blind
422. A man is haemophilic. It indicates that he

a. Is carrying a blood parasite
b. Has got this condition from his mother
c. Has little amount of blood
d. Has inherited this from father
423. A cross between haemophilic man & carrier woman will result into
a. Haemophilic & carrier daughters & hemophiliac normal sons
b. All sons haemophiliac
c. All daughters haemophilic
d. All correct
424. A color blind man has a color blind sister but a normal brother. The phenotype its parents are
a. Father color blind & mother normal
b. Father normal & mother color blind
c. Both his parents are normal
d. Both his parents are color blind
425. Which one of the following comes in category of hemophilia?

a. Blindness
b. Night blindness
c. Color blindness
d. Oedema
426. A color blind girl can be born when

a. Her parents have normal visions but grandparents where color blind
b. Her mother is color blind & father is normal
c. Her mother is color blind & father normal but grandfather is color blind
d. Her father is color blind & mother normal but mothers father is color blind
427. A color blind man marries the daughter of the color blind lady. Then in the progeny
a. None of her daughters will be color blind
b. All her sons are color blind
c. All her daughters are color blind
d. Half her sons are color blind
428. Sex determination in honey bee is

a. XX-XY
b. XX-XO
c. ZW-ZZ
d. 2n-n
429. What will be the IQ of a person if his mental age is 20 years?

a. 75
b. 35
c. 90
d. 5
430. A six year old child has IQ 166.67. What is his mental age?
a. 10
b. 27
c. 3
d. 8
431. to find IQ of an individual, we

a. We multiply chronological age by mental age
b. Divide mental age by chronological age
c. Divide chronological age by mental age
d. Multiply mental age by age of parents
432. In human child, sex is determined by

a. Size & number of sperms in semen
b. Size of egg to be fertilized
c. Sex chromosome of father
d. Sex chromosome of mother
433. Two dominant non allelic genes are exactly 50 map units apart, it means that linkage is
a. CIS type
b. trans type
c. Complete
d. absent
434. One barr body is found in a man of genotype

a. XY
b. XXY
c. XX
d. XXXY
435. Which condition is caused by mutations that involve entire chromosome rather than a single
gene?
a. Sickle cell anaemia
b. PKU
c. Downs syndrome
d. Hemophilia
436. Barr body is inactivated X- chromosome. It was confirmed by

a. Barr & Bertram
b. Bertram
c. Lyon
d. Caperson
437. Diseases caused by pleiotropic genes are

a. Syndromes
b. Extremely rare
c. Corrected by gene therapy
d. Corrected by diet therapy
438. Ram is color blind but his wife is 100% normal. What is the chance his son will inherit this disease
from his father?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
439. Both father & mother have allele for PKU but are phenotypically normal. What is the probability
that their child will have the disease?
a. 0.25
b. 0.50
c. 0.75
d. 1.00
440. A cross of white eyed female & red eyed male Drosophila gives red eyed females & white eyed
males. Rarely this cross may give all white eyed females & red eyed males. This was found to be due to
a. Loss of sex chromosome
b. Non disjunction of X chromosomes in females
c. Mutations in female fly
d. Mutations in male fly
441. If husband & wife both are normal in vision but fathers of both were color blind, the probability
of their first daughter to be color blind is
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 0%
d. 25%
442. The hemophilia (bleeders or royal disease) is found in males of a family. A girl from this family
married a boy who suffered from this disease. They had two sons & two Daughters. the possibility of the
disease being passed on to the sons or daughters is
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 0%
d. 25%
443. Trisomic condition of downs syndrome arises due to

a. Triploidy
b. Crossing over
c. Non disjunction
d. Dicentric bridge formation
444. Foetal sex is determined by examining the cells from amniotic fluid looking for
a. Barr bodies
b. Chiasmata
c. Sex chromosomes
d. Drum sticks
445. Which cells are examined for drum sticks for female sex determination?
a. RBC
b. Neutrophiles
c. Basophiles
d. Epithelial cells
446. What will you call to this set up 2n 2 + 2?

a. Nullisomy
b. Nullisomic tetrasomy
c. Double nullisomy
d. Double tetrasomy
447. How many barr bodies this Klinefelter syndrome (XXYY) has?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
448. In barr body (sex chromatin) of a normal female

a. One of the X-chromosome of maternal side becomes inactive & form barr body near nuclear
membrane
b. Heterochromatin condense near centre of nucleus
c. One of the X chromosome of paternal side becomes inactive to form barr body
d. Y chromosome form barr body
449. Turner syndrome is caused by

a. Autosomal aneuploidy
b. Sex chromosome aneuploidy
c. Polyploidy
d. Trisomy
450. Color blindness is Caused by a single

a. Dominant autosomal gene in woman
b. Autosomal recessive gene in woman
c. Recessive sex chromosomal gene in woman
d. Recessive sex chromosome in man
451. Chromosomal pattern of turners syndrome is

a. 2A + XXY
b. 2A + XXX
c. 2A + X
d. 2A + Y
452. Downs syndrome of mongoloid idiocy (Mongolism) is due to

a. Trisomy of X chromosome
b. Trisomy of 21st chromosome
c. Nullisomy of a chromosome
d. Monosomy of an autosome
453. The chronic granulocytic leukemia is due to

a. Deletion of 5th chromosome
b. Deletion Of 22nd chromosome
c. Deletion Of 18th chromosome
d. Deletion Of 22nd chromosome & its addition to 9th chromosome
454. When the karyotype of a human female has only one X chromosome, it is
a. Downs syndrome
b. Feminism
c. Klinfelters syndrome
d. Turners syndrome
455. In general sex-chromosomes are described as

a. Autosomes
b. Allosomes
c. Informosomes
d. Alleles
456. A gene located on Y chromosome & hence transmitted from father to son directly is known as
a. Digenic gene
b. Diandric gene
c. Holandric gene
d. Hologenic gene
457. Chromosome of klinefelter syndrome has

a. One X
b. XXY
c. 2X
d. No Y
458. Barr body seen in saliva test in Olympic games is associated with
a. Y chromosome
b. X chromosome
c. Autosomes
d. male sex
459. in testicular agenesis ( Gynecomastia), number of barr bodies & Y spots will be
a. 0 &1
b. 1&1
c. 0&2
d. 1& 2
460. Percentage of syndrome increases in offspring of a woman of the age above 40 years because
a. She is now weak
b. Menopause is about to occur
c. Fat deposition is more around sex organs
d. Oocytes grow older with age
461. Genetic constitution of klinefelter syndrome is

a. 44 + XXY
b. 44 + XO
c. 44 + XXXX
d. 44 + XX
462. Genetic constitution of super female is

a. 44 + XX
b. 44 + XXX
c. 44 + XXY
d. 44 + XYY
463. Monosomy of X chromosome is called

a. Turners syndrome
c. Edward syndrome
d. Cri du chat syndrome
464. A person who is monosomic for X chromosome is

a. Downs syndrome
b. Pataus syndrome
c. Turners syndrome
d. Edward syndrome
465. Downs syndrome is often found in children born to mother/parents if

a. Father is about 49 years
b. Mother is 35 year old & above
c. Both parents are below 18 years of age
d. All of the above
466. The number of barr bodies in normal male & normal female is
a. 1,0
b. 1,1
c. 0,1
d. 0,2
467. 44 + X in a person shows

a. Turners syndrome
c. Pataus syndrome
d. Edward syndrome
468. Turners syndrome is

a. 44 + XO
b. 44 + OY
c. Both correct
d. Only one
469. Nullisomic in aneuploidy is represented by

a. 2n + 1
b. 2n 1
c. 2n 2
d. 2n + 2
470. Persons having supernumerary chromosome 21 are known to suffer from

a. Pataus syndrome
b. Edward syndrome
c. Downs syndrome
d. Turners syndrome
471. In Monosomy
a. All chromosomes form bivalents
b. One of the chromosomes remain univalent
c. One chromosome forms trivalent
d. None of these
472. If haploid number is 10, what will be the number of chromosomes in Turners syndrome and
Klinefelters syndrome
a. 19 in Turners syndrome & 21 in Klinefelters syndrome
b. 11 in Turners syndrome & 12 in Klinefelters syndrome
c. 9 in Turners syndrome & 11 in Klinefelters syndrome
d. All the above are incorrect
473. Downs syndrome is an example of

a. Aneuploidy
b. Polyteny
c. Polyploidy
d. Monoploidy
474. Webbed neck is a characteristic of

a. Turners syndrome
b. Downs syndrome
d. Super female
475. Barr body in normal female is inactivation of

a. Maternally derived X chromosome
b. Paternally derived X chromosome
c. Extra chromosome
d. Either maternal or paternal X chromosome
476. Carrier organism refers to an individual which carries a

a. Recessive gene that is not expressed
b. Dominant gene that is not expressed
c. Recessive gene that is expressed
d. Dominant gene which is expressed
477. Calculate the expected frequency of live births of individuals with an autosomal recessive
disorder, given that one percent of population are heterozygous for the defect and assuming random
mating
a. 1 in 10000
b. 1 in 20000
c. 1 in 40000
d. 1 in 100000
478. Hemophilia shows sex-linked inheritance. A normal woman, whose father is hemophilic, marries
a normal man. They have 4 children ( 2 boys & 2 girls). What is the probability of hemophilia among these
children?
a. 1/16
b. 1/8
c. 1/4
d. 1/2
479. A woman has hemophilic brother and normal parents. She wants to marry a man who has no
history of hemophilia in his family. What is the possibility of her children having this disease?
a. 50% of the sons may be hemophilic
b. 50% of the of total generation is hemophilic
c. All are hemophilic
d. None of them will be haemophilic
480. Assuming that hemophilic jaundice is due to a dominant gene but only 10% of the people actually
develop the disease. If a hetero-zygous man marries a homozygous normal woman, what proportion of
the children would develop hemolytic disease?
a. 1/5
b. 1/10
c. 1/20
d. 1/2
481. The grand sons of a color blind male having the following probability of being color blind
a. 0
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 12.5%
482. If frequency of a dominant phenotype in a stable population is 75%, the frequency of recessive
allel in that population would be
a. 37.5%
b. 75%
c. 9.4%
d. 50%
483. According to the operon concept the regulator gene regulates chemical reaction in the cell by
a. Inactivating synthesis of mRNA
b. Inhibiting synthesis of mRNA
c. Interfering with the substrate
d. Inactivation of the process of translation
484. In the frequency of a gene D in population is 0.8%, the frequency of its allele d would be
a. 0.4
b. 0.8
c. 0.2
d. 1.6
GENETIC VARIATIONS
549. Cytoplasmic inheritance is also called as maternal inheritance. It is controlled by plasma genes
present in cytoplasm. Who was first to show this inheritance in plastids of Mirabilis
a. Correns
b. Sonneborn
c. Ruthsanger
d. Darlington
550. Result of R cross are different in

a. Polygenic inheritance
b. Cytoplasmic inheritance
c. Monogenic inheritance
d. Multiple allelism
551. Plasmids are inherited

a. Paternally
b. Maternally
c. Microbially
d. Symbiotically
552. The inheritance of characters not located in the gens but the young one resembling only the
female parent is due to
a. Plastid inheritance
b. Epigenesis
c. Chromosomal inheritance
d. Cytoplasmic inheritance
553. Cytoplasmic inheritance always shows

a. Maternal characters
b. Paternal characters
c. Paternal characters
d. Little paternal & more maternal characters
554. The total hereditary material outside the chromosome is called

a. Plasmon
b. Genome
c. Kinetosome
d. Cyton
555. Extra chromosomal bodies in paramecium are

a. Plasmids
b. Lamda particles
c. Kappa particles
d. Episomes
556. Example of extra chromosomal (cytoplasmic) inheritance is shown by

a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Basal bodies
d. All of these
557. In Mirabilis, normal leaves (A) & variegated leaves (B) occur in different plants. If (B) male is
crossed with (A) female, normal leaves occur in hybrid. But if (A) male is crossed with (B) female,
variegated leaves occur. This is an instance of
a. Cytoplasmic inheritance
b. Epistasis
c. Polygenic inheritance
d. Mendelian inheritance
558. Which is an example of cytoplasmic (extra nuclear) inheritance?

a. Streptomycin resistance in chlamydomonas
b. Plastic inheritance
c. Male sterility in maize
d. All of the above
559. The geneticist not related to cytoplasmic inheritance

a. Correns
b. Sonneborn
c. Rhoades
d. Hugo De Vries
560. When female albino plant of maize is crossed with male green plant, all progeny is Albino. It is
because
a. Plastid inheritance
b. Albino is dominant trait
c. Mutation in green plastids
561. Which is not an example of cytoplasmic inheritance?

a. Milk factor
b. Kappa particles
c. Plastids
d. Shell coiling
562. A physical mutagen is

a. pH
b. temperature
c. X-rays
d. All of these
563. Mutation theory was given by

a. Hugo De Vries
b. Lamarck
c. Darwin
d. Mendel
564. Most of the crop plants are
a. Allopolyploidal origin
b. Auto polyploidy origin
c. Heterozygous origin
d. Polyphyletic origin
565. The chance of purine by purine or pyrimidine by pyrimidine is called

a. Translation
b. Transcription
c. Transition
d. Magnesium sulphate
566. A cell has 2n=4. What is the probability of a sperm to have all 4 maternal chromosomes
a. 1 in 2
b. 1 in 4
c. 1 in 8
d. 1 in 16
567. If we ignore the effect of crossing over, how many different haploid cells arise by meiosis in a
diploid cell having 2n=12?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64
568. During fertilization, human beings can produce a total possible combinations of
a. 3 x 106
b. 8.6 x 106
c. 70 x 1012
d. 4
569. In a plant with 2n=6, how many combinations of chromosomes in the pollen grains can be formed
a. (2)3
b. (2)1
c. (2)2
d. (6)2
570. Gene mutations is produced by

a. Change in its position on chromosome
b. Change in size of gene
c. Change in sequence of nitrogenous bases
571. A sudden change in structure or position or action of a gene is called

a. Mutation
b. Variation
c. Allele
d. Linkage
572. Mutation is a
a. Continuous change in genetic set up
b. Discontinuous genetic changes
c. Phenotypic changes
d. Changes due to variations
573. In high yielding hybrid crop varieties, to exploit hybrid vigour, the farmers used to purchase fresh
hybrid seeds every year because
a. They are not allowed to grow their own seeds
b. The hybrid vigour is lost due to inbreeding
c. Our government has accepted Dunkels proposal
d. It is cheaper to purchase fresh seeds
574. The best way to increase the yield of wheat in India is

a. To use tractors to till the soil
b. To sow the seeds of improved varieties
c. To remove weeds from wheat field
d. To reduce the quantity of ratio consumers
575. Many groups of insects have developed resistance to DDT & other insecticide as result of
a. Hybrid vigour
b. Genetic mutations
c. Genetic recombination
d. Variation occurring due to sexual reproduction
576. If the polynucleotide has the sequence of bases, GAG, GCC, CAG, CCA, GCC, GGA, we can definitely
say that it is segment of
a. mRNA
b. DNA
c. tRNA
d. data insufficient
577. mutations reported by Hugo De Vries in oenothera lamarckiana (evening primrose) plant were
mostly
a. autotetraploids
b. allopolyploids
c. true mutations
d. cross overs
578. mutations limited to substitution of one nucleotide pair of another is called

a. deletion
b. insertion
c. inversion
579. point mutation
separation of chromosome segment and its union to a non homologous chromosome is called
a. Chiasmata formation
b. Crossing over
c. Illegitimate crossing over
d. All of these
580. Deletion is common in chromosomes

a. A centric chromosomes
b. Centric chromosomes
c. Giant chromosomes
d. All correct
581. Inversion in one chromosome suppresses

a. cross overs
b. duplications
c. translocations
d. mutations
582. aneuploidy arises through

a. disjunction
b. nondisjunction
c. c mitosis
d. brachymeiosis
583. mutations occur in cell due to

a. chromosome breaking
b. modified genes
c. rearrangement of genes
d. any of the above
584. all alleles originate from

a. mutation
b. cross overs
c. gene flow
d. genetic drift
585. a change in gene is called as

a. mutation
b. variation
c. chromosomal aberration
d. any of these
586. organic evolution through large discontinuous variations was proposed by

a. Darwin
b. Lamarck
c. Hugo De Vries
d. Von Baer
587. Another mutation occurring in an already mutated gene gives rise to

a. Multiple genes
b. Multiple alleles
c. Polygenes
d. Pleiotropic genes
588. Mutations are

a. Stable
b. Jerky & inheritable
c. Discontinuous
d. All of these
589. which is an example of induced mutation?

a. Sharbati Sonora of wheat
b. Reimei of rice
c. Aruna of castor
d. All of these
590. Which of the following is not heritable?

a. Point mutation
b. Chromosomal mutation
c. Gene mutation
d. Somatic mutation
591. Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for mutation studies, because
a. Haploids can easily be cultured
b. In haploids mutations can be induced
c. Dominant mutations express immediately
d. Recessive mutations express immediately
592. Which of the following is non ionizing radiation?

a. UV rays
b. Rays
c. Rays
d. Rays
593. Which of the following is a base analogue radiation?

a. HNO2
b. Colchicine
c. Caffeine
d. 5-BU
594. X-rays induce mutations by

a. Transition
b. Transversion
c. Frame shift
d. Chromosome breakage
595. New varieties are created due to

a. Internal causes
b. Environmental conditions
c. External conditions
d. Introduction
596. Mutations are also called

a. Saltations & sports
b. Discontinuous variations
c. Polymorphism
d. All of these
597. 23 pairs of chromosome can combine to form how many types of gametes
a. (2)23
b. 8.6 x 106
c. 8.6 million
598. All of these

Random fertilization of gametes in man can produce how many types of combinations?
a. 8.6 x 106 x 8.6 x 106
b. (2)23 x (2)23
c. 70 x 1012
d. All of these
599. A segment of DNA that takes part in mutation is called

a. Cistron
b. Muton
c. Recon
d. Mutagen
600. 5 - Bromouracil is a base analogue of

a. U
b. A
c. G
d. T
601. All alleles originate from

a. Mutations
b. Cross overs
c. Gene flow
d. Non disjunctions
Part C
602. Albinism is a condition that results from the lack of normal pigmentation. In humans, individuals
with two recessive alleles at the ALBINO (aa) locus are albino. Attached earlobes result from two recessive
alleles at the (ee) EARLOBE locus. An albino man with non-attached earlobes marries a pigmented woman
with non-attached earlobes. They have 20 children, (the F1) none of them twins. All of their children are
pigmented with non-attached earlobes.
What is the most likely genotype of the man?
a. AAee
b. aaEE
c. AaEe
d. AAEE
603. HIV when infects a normal human being leads to the occurrence of AIDS. It is very difficult to cure
a person from HIV as the virus undergoes spontaneous mutation thus making it drug resistant. Which of
the following is the reason of spontaneous mutation in these viruses?
a. The genetic material replicating enzyme for AIDS virus makes large number of mistakes
b. The high accuracy rate & high rate of virus production makes it highly drug resistant
c. The low accuracy rate & low rate of virus production makes it highly drug resistant
d. The genetic material replicating enzyme for AIDS virus makes small number of mistakes
604. Two genes are located on the same chromosome and are known to be 12 map units apart. An
AABB individual is crossed to an aabb individual to produce AaBb offspring. The AaBb offspring are then
crossed to aabb individuals. If this cross produces 1000 offsprings. What are the predicted no. of offsprings
with each of the 4 genotypes: AaBb, aaBb and aabb?
a. 60 Aabb, 440 aaBb, 440 AaBb and 60 aabb
b. 0 Aabb, 0 aabb, 440 AaBb and 440 aabb
c. 440 Aabb, 440 aaBb, 60 AaBb and 60 aabb
d. 60 Aabb, 60 aaBb, 440 AaBb and 440 aabb
605. In a haploid organism, the C and D loci 8 map unit apart. From a cross Cd/cD, give the proportion
of each of the following progeny classes. P-CD; Q-cd; R-Cd, S-all recombinant.
a. P-4%, Q-4%, R-46%, S-8%
b. P-46%, Q-46%, R-4%, S-4%
c. P-46%, Q-4%, R-46%, S-4%
d. P-4%, Q-4%, R-8%, S-8%
606. If E.coli are grown on lactose free medium for 20 generation under pressence of constant
mutagen which produces the lac- mutants as well as lac+ revertants in equal amount. At the end it will be
observed that
a. Equal no.of Lac- and lac revertants.
b. More no.of Lac revertants at the end
c. More no.of Lac- at the end of experiment.
d. Cannot be predicted
607. Genes a, b, and c are widely spaced in the bacterial genome. Transducing phage from an a+ b+
c+ bacterium were used to infect a culture of a b c cells, and b+ transductants were selected. Which
of the following best describes the predicted genotypes of these transductants?
a. Mostly a b+ c
b. Mostly a b+ c+
c. Mostly a+ b+ c+
d. Mostly a+ b+ c
608. A homozygous male fruit fly with black body colour and curved wing is crossed with a virgin
homozygous female fruit fly with yellow body colour and flat wings. All the offspring of this cross display
yellow body colour and flat wings. If a virgin female selected from these offspring is mated to a
homozygous male fruit fly with black body colour and curved wings, 4 types of offspring will occur. Which
of the following conclusion can be drawn about the nature of inheritance on the basis of these data?
a. Black body colour and curved wings are dominant over yellow body colour and flat wings
b. The results do not fit the typical 9:3:3:1 ratio, making this an example of multiple allelic
inheritance rather than a normal dihybrid cross
c. Recombinant types of offspring, as in this case, appear more frequently than do parental types.
d. These genes for body colour and wings shape are not linked
609. In Drosophila melanogaster, cherub wings(ch) black cody (b) and cinnabar eye(cn) are recessive
to their corresponding allels (represented as ch+, b+ and cn+, respectively) and are all located on
chromosome 2 . homozygous wild type flies was mated with cherub, black and cinnabar flies and the
resulting F1 female were test crossed with cherub, black and cinnabar males. The following progeny were
produced from the test cross:
Ch b+ cn 110
Ch+ b+ cn+ 780
Ch+ b cn 70
Ch+ b+ cn 6
Ch b cn 769
Ch b+ cn+ 60
Ch+ b cn+ 111
Ch b cn+ 9
Total 1915
Of these three genes, which one is in the middle?

a. The locus that determines cherub wings
b. The locus that determines cinnabar eyes
c. The locus that determine black body
d. Cannot be determined from the given data.
610. Two different triats affecting pod characteristics in garden pea plants are encoded by genes found
on chromosome 5. Narrow pod is recessive to normal pod; yellow pod is recesiive to green pod. A true
breeding plant with narrow, green pods was crossed to a true-breeding plant with normal, yellow pods.
The F1 offsprings were then crossed to plant with narrow, yellow pods. The following results were
obtained 144 normal green pods, 150 normal yellow pods, 11 narrow yellow pods, 9 normal green pods.
How far apart these two genes?
a. 1 mu
b. 12mu
c. 6.4 mu
d. 32.4 mu
611. The DNA from the bacteriophage X174 has a base composition of 25% A, 33% T, 24% G, and
18% C. Which of the following best explains this observation?
a. In viral genomes, the base pairing does not follow the standard Watson-Crick rules, and allows G-
A and C-T base pairs
b. In viral genomes, the base pairing does not follow the standard Watson-Crick rules, and allows G-
T and C-A base pairs.
c. Viral genomes are linear and tolerate base- pair mismatches
d. The genome of bacteriophage X174 is single-stranded
612. If A/A B/B is crossed with the a/a b/b and the F1 is test crossed. What % of the test cross progeny
will be a/a b/b if the two genes are
P. unlinked
Q. completely linked (no crossing over at all)
R. 10 map unit apart
S. 24 map unit apart
a. P-0%; Q-0% ; R-38% ; S-45%
b. P-25%; Q-50%, R-45%, S-38%
c. P-0%, Q-25%, R-45%, S-38%
d. P-25%, Q-0%, R- 38%, S-45%
613. In rabbit, spotted pattern is dominant over solid colour and short hair over angora. A F1 between
true breeding spotted short hair strain and solid colour angora was back crossed to solid coloured angora.
The cross produced 26 spotted angora, 144 solid coloured angora, 157 spotted short haired and 23 solid
coloured short haired. What is the recombinant percentage between the genes?
a. 12%
b. 24%
c. 14%
d. 28%
614. A Neurospora cross involving two pairs of genes A-a and T-t produced the following types of asci
in the given frequency-
i. AT AT AT AT at at at at = 41
ii. at at at at AT AT AT AT= 38
iii. At At At At aT aT aT aT = 42
iv. aT aT aT aT At At At At = 43
what can you say about the location of the two genes on the chromosome.
a. The genes are 23.5 mu apart.
b. The recombination frequency is 0.5
c. The genes are on chromosome no 3
d. The genes do not follow Mendelism.
615. The CFTR is chloride channel present in all over the body elementary canal and genital tract. It can
have up to 80 different types of mutations in CFTR coding gene, causing improper ion transport. Mutation
can be mild on only one copy of gene per cell or severe affecting both the copies. What do expect about
a genitalia of male who is having a certain mutation in his both copies of CFTR allele on chromosome 7,
a. He will become sterile due to improper chloride channel in testicles, resulting in hydrocele.
b. He will produce sterile off springs
c. He becomes infertile due to block of Vas deference
d. He becomes infertile due to non production of sperm.
616. Choose the incorrect statement(s)

I. Intercalating agents cause primary frame shift.
II. Luria-Delbruck fluctuation test provided the first experimental evidence supporting the
hypothesis that mutation occur spontaneously
III. Tautomer is an alternative isomeric form of a base due to the movement of one hydrogen atom
from one position to other.
IV. Mis sense type of mutation results when a base substitution in a codon leads to the formation of
another codon calling for the insertion of different amino acids.
V. Suppressor mutation cause the reversion of a mutant phenotype to the wild type even thought
they are not back mutation
a. 1 and 2
b. Only 4
c. 4 and 5
d. None
617. Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf ones. The F1 plants were all tall. When these F1 plants
were selfed to produce F2 generation, he got a 3: 1 tall to dwarf ratio in the offspring. What is the
probability that out of three plants (of F2 generation) picked up at random at least 2 would be tall?
a. 27/32
b. 3/4
c. 27/64
d. 1/16
618. Genes X, Y and Z are located on one chromosome. Cross-over frequency Cross over Frequency
between three genes is:
Cross over Frequency Gene pairs
36% X-Z
10% Y-Z
26% X-Y
Which one of the following best represents the gene location on the chromosome?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
619. Champa is trying to characterize a gene s4, which has be previously implicated in early
development in mice. Her attempts to characterize the phenotype failed because embryos from crossed
homozygous mutant parents did not survive. However, she was able to get some viable homozygous
embryos when heterozygous parents were crossed. Which of the following can explain this observation?
a. s4 is a critical gene for early development and is maternally required
b. s4 is a critical gene for early development and is an imprinted gene
c. Both a and b
620. Genetic sequence data were used to construct the following evolutionary tree relating Mus
muculus, Rattus rattus and Homo sapiens.
Which of the following is NOT true?

a. Mice are descended from the last common ancestor of humans and rats.
b. Rats are descended from the last common ancestor of humans and mice
c. Humans are descended from the last common ancestor of rats and mice
d. Humans, mice, and rate have a common ancestor
621. Papaya plants have XY genotype for male and XX for female. Following double fertilization, what
would be the genotype of the endosperm and embryo?
a. 50% of seeds would have XXX endosperm and XX embryo; other 50% would have XXy endosperm
and XY embryo
b. All the seeds would have XXX endosperm and XY embryo
c. All seeds would have XXX endosperm, and 50% of them would have XX embryo while other 50%
would have XY embryo
d. All seeds would have XXX endosperm and XX embryo.
622. Number of Barr bodies in human female suffering from Downs syndrome is
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0
623. Philadelphia chromosome is due to

a. Chromosomal deletion in chromosome 22
b. Chromosomal translocation between chromosome 22 and 9
c. Inversion of chromosome between chromosome 9
d. Duplication of chromosome between chromosome 22
624. In P1 phage mediated recombination crosses, an antibiotic resistance marker, X, co-transduced

with A,B and C genes with a frequency of 80%, 50% and 20% in E.coli. if these tranductants were first
selected fro the antibiotic resistance and then screened for the phenotypes of A,B or C, the orientation of
these genes and the antibiotic resistance markers in the genome is
a. ABXC or ABCX
b. BAXC or CAXB
c. BCXA or BXCA
d. CXBA or ACXB
625. The X-linked recessive disorder, red-green color blindness, affects 1/10 males. The frequency of
female affected with this disorder will be:
a. 1/100
b. 1/50
c. 1/5
d. 0
626. Which one of the following frequencies TT, Tt, tt satisfy the hardy-Weinberg principle?
a. 0.64, 0.32 , 0.04
b. 0.36, 0.55, 0.09
c. 0.29, 0.42, 0.29
d. 0.64, 0.27, 0.09
627. Genes A and B are necessary for normal hearing. A deaf man marries a deaf woman and all their
children have normal fearing. The genotype of the parents are
a. AAbb and AAbb
b. Aabb and aaBb
c. AAbb and aaBB
d. aaBB and aaBb
628. Consider the following pedigree tree
What is the mode of inheritance in the above diagram?

c. Sex linked dominant
d. Sex linked recessive
629. In a family of five children, what is the probability that two are males and three are females?
a. 5/24
b. 2/11
c. 5/48
d. 20/35
630. Because you have some basic knowledge of genetics, a young woman (A, below) has come to you
for help. She has a brother, who is mentally retarded, but her parents and all of her husband's family is
normal. She has a two-year-old daughter who shows the retardation of her brother. She is now pregnant
and is considering a therapeutic abortion because of her fear that the next child will also be retarded.
What is the probability that her second child will be mentally retarded boy?
a.
b.
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
631. A dominant gene, A, causes yellow color in rats. The dominant allele of another independent
gene, R, produces black coat color. When the two dominant genes occur together (A-R-), they interact to
produce grey coat color. Rats of the double recessive genotype are cream-colored. If a grey male and a
yellow female are mated and produce approximately 3/8 yellow, 3/8 grey, 1/8 cream, and 1/8 black, what
were the genotypes of the parents?
a. Aarr and aaRR
b. aaRR and aaRR
c. AArr and AArr
d. AaRr and Aarr
632. Genes A and B are located 20 map units apart on the X chromosome in humans. Thus they are X-
linked. The two genes show simple dominance to their recessive alleles, a and b, respectively. Given the
following genotypes for the parents:
XAB//Xab x XAb//Y
What will be the frequency of offspring that are male and show both dominant traits (A and
B)?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 80%
d. 50%
633. In the fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, crossing over is absent in the males. Suppose you are
interested in the relationship between two linked genes on chromosome 2. The genes are for black body
(b) and for curved wings (c), each of which is recessive to the normal (B) body color and normal (C) wing
shape. In your laboratory, females that are heterozygous at the body color and wing shape loci are mated
with a black-bodied male with curved wings. The offspring of these matings were counted, with the
following results:
367 normal body, curved wing
131 normal body, normal wing
139 black body, curved wing
363 black body, normal wing
What is the cross-over frequency between these two loci?
a. 25%
b. 26%
c. 27%
d. 14%
634. To detect mutation (GAG GTG) allele specific hybridization method is used. Four members of an
affected family are investigated. DNA isolated from blood samples of parents and two offsprings are
spotted on a membrane after appropriate processing and probed with either
TGACTCCTGAGGAGAAGTC (first probe) or
TGACTCCTGTGGAGAAGTC (second probe) after labeling. While probed with first oligonucleotide,
signals are obtained for the positions where DNA are spotted from parents and offspring II. When
probed with second oligonucleotide, signals are obtained at position where DNA from the parents
and offspring I are spotted. Results are shown below:
On the basis of the result, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Parents are affected (b) Offspring I is affected
(c) Offspring II is carrier (d) Offspring II is affected
635. The trait represented in the following pedigree is expressed only in the males of the family. Is the
trait Y linked?
a. Yes, it is Y linked
b. No, it is X linked dominant
c. Yes, it is Y linked recessive
d. No, it is X linked recessive
636. In some sheep, the presence of horns is produced by an Autosomal allele that is dominant in
males and recessive in females. A horned female is crossed with a hornless male. One of the resulting F1
females is crossed with a hornless male. What proportion of the male and female progeny from this cross
will have horns?
1. of male and of females
2. of males and of females
3. of males and none of females
4. of males and none of females
637. Imagine that a newly discovered, recessively inherited disease is expressed only in individuals with
type O blood, although the disease and blood group are independently inherited. A normal man with type
A blood and normal woman with type B blood have already had one child with the disease. The woman is
now pregnant for a second time. What is the probability that the second child will also have the disease?
Assume that both parents are heterozygous for the gene that causes the disease.
a.
b. 1/16
c. 1/8
d. 1/64
638. A wild type fruit fly( heterozygous for gray body color and red eyes) is mated with a black fruit fly
with purple eyes. The offspring are wild type, 721; black-purple 751; gray-purple 49; black red 45; what is
the recombination frequency between these genes for body colour and eye colour?
a. 5%
b. 16%
c. 185
d. 45%
639. A biochemist isolates, purifies and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for
replication. When she adds some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs but, each DNA molecules consists
of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotide long. What has she
probably left out of the mixture?
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA ligase
c. Nucleotides
d. Okazaki fragments
e. Primase
640. The ABO blood type locus has been mapped on chromosome 9. Father who has type AB blood
and a mother who has type O blood have a child with trisomy 9 and type A blood. This is due to
a. Mendelism
b. Gene mutation
c. Linkage
d. Non disjunction
641. Mitochondrial genes are critical to the energy metabolism of cells, but mitochondrial disorder
caused by mutations in these genes is generally not lethal. Why not?
a. Mutated mitochondria gene have complementary copies in nuclear genome
b. Mutated mitochondria is destroyed by lyzozymes
c. Every cell has got some normal mitochondria which can compensate the mutated mitochondria
d. Mutated mitochondria can revert back to normal type.
642. Redgreen color blindness is a human X-linked recessive disorder. Jill has normal color vision, but
her father is colorblind. Jill marries Tom, who also has normal color vision. Jill and Tom have a daughter
who has Turner syndrome .What is the probability that the girl is colourblind?
a.
b. 1/3
c. 2/5
d. 1/8
643. Bacteria often acquire genes by the process of lateral or horizontal transfer. Such 'foreign' genes,
if acquired in recent past, may be identified by their atypical GC content, as compared to 'native'
genes. Suppose the genomic GC content of a bacterium is 40%. Gene A of this organism contains 1000
bases with 225 G and 215 C. Another gene B of length 800 bases contains 160 G and 140 C. Which one of
the following would be the most acceptable hypothesis (given that x2= 3.841 at 0.05 significance level)?
a. A: native, B: Foreign
b. A: Foreign, B: Native
c. A: Foreign, B: Foreign
d. A: Native, B: Native
644. In human, protein coding genes are mainly organized into exons and introns. There are Intergenic
regions that transcribe into various types of non-coding RNA . Some introns may harbor also transcription
units, which are
a. Always other protein coding genes
b. Protein coding genes and RNA coding genes
c. Always RNA coding genes
d. Pseudogenes
645. the following figure depicts the relationship between a genetic map for 4 genes , A,B,C and D and
their corresponding physical map.
The following statements are made to explain this relationship
A. More number of recombination events occur between A and B as compared to b and C

B. Lesser number of recombination events occur between C and D as compared to B and C
C. Although the physical distance between A and B is less than that between C and D, the region
between A and B is more recombinogenic.
D. Although the physical distance between C and D is more than that between B and C, the region
between C and D is more recombinogenic.
Which statement are correct?
a. A and B
b. C and E
c. D and F
d. A,C and B
646. Consider the following crosses involving gery( wild type) and yellow body colour true breeding
Drosophila:
Cross F1 progeny F2 progeny
Cross 1 Grey female x yellow male
All males; grey
All female : grey Grey female: 98
Yellow male; 45
Grey male: 49
Cross 2 Yellow females x grey males All males: yellow
All female: grey ?
Assuming 200 F2 offsprings are produces in cross2, which one of the following outcome is expected?
a. 97 grey males, 54 yellow females, 49 grey males
b. 102 yellow males, 46 yellow female, 52 grey females
c. 52 grey males, 49 yellow males, 48 yellow females, 51 grey females
d. 98 grey males, 94 yellow females, 2 yellow males, 6 grey females
647. The ABO blood type in human is under control of Autosomal multiple alleles. Colour blindness is
recessive X-linked trait. A male with a blood type A and normal vision marries a female who also has blood
type A and normal vision. The couples first child is male who is colourblind and has O blood group. What
is probability that their next female child has normal vision and O blood group?
a.
b.
c. 1/8
d. 1
648. in E.coli 4 Hfr strains donate the following genetic markers in the order shown below:
Strain 1: L Q W X Y
Strain 2: M T A D Y
Strain 3: E C M T A
Strain4: W Q L E C
Which of the following depicts the correct order of the markers?
a. LQWXYDATMCE
b. LWXQYDATCEM
c. LQWXYADTMCE
d. LQWXYDXYCEMT
649. In tomato, the following genes are located on chromosome 3:

+ Tall plants + normal leaves + smooth fruit
d dwarf plants m mottled leaves p pubescent fruit
result of the cross : +++ / dmp x dmp/dmp were
a. +mp / d++
b. ++p / dm+
c. +m+ / d+p
d. +++/dmp
650. In a cross in Neurospora involving 2 alleles B and b, the following tetrad patterns were observed:
Tetrad pattern number
BBbb 36
bbBB 44
BbBb 4
bBbb 6
BbbB 3
bBBb 7
what will be the distance between the genes and the centromere
a. 10 cM
b. 40 cM
c. 15 cM
d. None
651. 2 structures of Neurospora crosses, one mutant for gene a the other mutant for gene b are
crossed. Results are shown below. Determine the linkage relation between these 2 genes?
Strains % of asci Spores
- - 1+2 3+4 5+6 7+8
A 77 aB aB Ab Ab
B 15 aB AB ab Ab
C 7 aB ab AB Ab
D 1 aB Ab aB Ab
a. 11 cM
b. 15 cM
c. 25 cM
d. 50 cM
652. An investigator isolates two recessive wing mutants of Drosophila melanogaster. The flies differ
in wing vein pattern. The investigator wanted to check whether the mutations that causes these variants
allelic. To verify allelism, the investigator created a heterozygote of the two mutations by either mating
the flies, if they are of opposite sexes, or breeding each mutant into a separate stock for new matings.
Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from his results?
a. If the heterozygotes are of the wild-type, then it is allelic
b. If the heterozygotes are of wild type, then it is not allelic
c. If the heterozygotes are of mutant type, then it is not allelic
d. If the heterozygotes are of mutant type, then it is allelic.
653. A nonsense suppressor is isolated and shown to involve a tyrosine transfer RNA. When this mutant
transfer RNA is sequenced, the anticodon turns out to be normal, but a mutation is found in the
dihydrouridine loop. What does this finding suggest about how a transfer RNA interacts with the
messenger RNA?
a. tRNA binds to mRNA by dihydrouridine loop
b. Ribosomes cannot use the dihydrouridine loop and hence it gets mismatched
c. The mutated dihydrouridine does not allow for correct orientation of anticodon loop and hence
causes misreading
d. The error in DNA sequencing
654. Two chemically induced mutants, x and y, are treated with the following mutagens to see if
revertants can be produced: 2-amino purine (2AP), 5-bromouracil (5BU), acridine dye (AC), hydroxylamine
(HA), and ethylmethanesulfonate (EMS). In the following table, + means revertants and - means no
revertants. For each mutation, determine the probable base change that occurred to change the wildtype
to the mutant.
a. x+ x is AT GC ; y+ to y is GC AT
b. x+ x is GC AT ; y+ to y is GC AT
c. x+ x is AT GC ; y+ to y is AT GC
d. x+ x is GC TA ; y+ to y is GC AT
655. A Drosophila worker isolates four eye-color forms of the fly: wild-type, white, carmine, and ruby.
(The worker does not know that white, carmine, and ruby are three separate loci on the X chromosome.)
A new mutant, eosin, is isolated. Whatcrosses should be carried out to determine that eosin is an allele of
white?
a. When eosin flies are crossed in a similar fashion, daughters will be wild-type except when the
parents were eosin and white. In that case, daughters will be mutant, showing the lack of
complementation and hence that the mutations are alleles.
b. When eosin flies are crossed in a similar fashion, daughters will be mutants except when the
parents were eosin and white. In that case, daughters will be wild type, showing the lack of
complementation and hence that the mutations are alleles.
c. Cannot be determined unless we know they are in cis/trans configuration
d. When eosin flies are crossed in a similar fashion, All males will be wild-type In that case, males
will be mutant, showing the lack of complementation and hence that the mutations are alleles.
656. You have isolated a new histidine auxotroph, and, despite all efforts, you cannot produce any
revertants. What probably happened to produce the original mutant?
a. A deletion of the gene, making it impossible to gain the function
b. A translocation of the gene, thus it is missing its some components.
c. A duplication event, which may be suppressing the mutation
d. A frameshift mutation, which cannot reform the loast allele.
657. Seven arginine-requiring mutants of E. coli were independently isolated. All pairwise matings
were done (by transduction) to determine the number of loci (complementation groups) involved. If a (+)
in the following figure indicates growth and a (-) no growth on minimal medium, how many
complementation groups are involved?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
658. In yeast, the his5 locus is a gene for an enzyme in the synthesis pathway for the amino acid
histidine, and the lys11 locus is a gene for an enzyme in the synthesis pathway for the amino acid lysine.
A haploid wild-type strain (his5+ lys11+) is crossed with the double mutant (his5- ys11-). The diploid is
allowed to undergo meiosis, and 100 asci are scored with the following results:
What are the linakge distance between the 2 genes?

a. 12 mU
b. 15 mU
c. 23 mU
d. 42 mU
659. A particular human enzyme is present only in clone B. The human chromosomes present in clones
A, B, and C appear as pluses in the following table. Determine the probable chromosomal location of the
gene for the enzyme.
a. Chromosome 1
b. Chromosome 2
c. Chromosome 4
d. Chromosome 6
660. A wild-type strain of B.subtilis is transformed by DNA from a strain that cannot grow on galactose
(gal +) and also needs biotin for growth (bio +). Transformants are isolated by exposing the transformed
cells to minimal medium with penicillin, killing the wildtype cells. After the penicillin is removed, replica-
plating is used to establish the genotypes of 30 transformants:
What is the relative co-occurance of these genes?

a. 0.11
b. 0.12
c. 0.57
d. 0.98
661. A gal- bio- att- strain of E.coli is transduced by P22 phages from a wild-type strain. Transductants
are selected for by growing the cells with galactose as the sole energy source. Replica-plating and testing
for lysogenic ability gives the genotypes of 106 transformants: what is the middle gene?
a. Gal+
b. Bio +
c. Att
d. Cant be determined
662. A geneticist studying the pathway of synthesis of phenylalanine in Neurospora isolated several
mutants that require phenylalanine to grow. She tested whether each mutant would grow when provided
additives that she believed were in the pathway of phenylalanine synthesis (see table); a plus indicates
growth and minus indicates the lack of growth in the three mutants tested. Where in the pathway to
phenylalanine synthesis does each of the additives belong, if at all?
a. Phenylpyruvate prephenate chorismate Phenylalanine

b. Phenylpyruvate chorismate prephenate Phenylalanine
c. Chorismate prephenate phenylpyruvate phenylalanine
d. Phenylpyruvate prephenate chorismate Phenylalanine
663. Mendel self-fertilized a dihybrid plant that had round, yellow peas. In the offspring generation:
What is the probability that a pea picked at random will be round and yellow? What is the probability that
five peas picked at random will be round and yellow?
a. 9/16 ; 0.031
b. 3/16 ; 0.31
c. 2/3 ; 0.58
d. 1/16 0.031
664. On a chicken farm, walnut-combed fowl that were crossed with each other produced the
following offspring: walnut-combed, 87; rose-combed, 31; peacombed, 30; and single-combed, What
hypothesis might you have about the control of comb shape in fowl? Do the data support that hypothesis?
a. inheritance of comb type is by two loci, and that dominant alleles at both result in walnut combs,
a dominant allele at one locus and recessives at the other result in rose or pea combs, and the recessive
alleles at both loci result in a single comb.
b. inheritance of comb type is by single loci
c. inheritance of comb type is by two loci, and the recessive alleles at both result in walnut combs,
a dominant allele at one locus and recessives at the other result in rose or pea combs, and the recessive
alleles at both loci result in a single comb.
665. In an experimental population of Tribolium (flour beetles), the body length shows a continuous
distribution with a mean of 6 mm. A group of males and females with body lengths of 9 mm are removed
and interbred. The body lengths of their offspring average 7.2 mm. From these data, calculate the
heritability in the narrow sense for body length in this population.
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 30%
d. 25%
666. In the inherited form of retinoblastoma, an affected child is heterozygous for an rb mutation,
which is either passed on from a parent or has newly arisen in the sperm or the oocyte nucleus that gave
rise to the child. The heterozygous RB/rb cells are nonmalignant, however. The RB allele of the
heterozygote must be knocked out in the developing retinal tissue to create a tumorous cell. Such a
knockout can occur through an independent mutation of the RB allele or by mitotic crossing-over such
that the original rb mutation is now homozygous. If retinoblastoma is passed on to other siblings as well,
could we determine whether the original mutation was derived from the mother or the father? How?
a. RFLP
b. RAPD
c. Genetic councelling
d. Gene sequencing
667. Which of the following statement is false about the Rb gene?

a. It is a tumor suppressor gene acting in homozygous recessive condition
b. It is a tumor suppressor gene which binds to E2F proteins , thus blocking cell cycle.
c. This gene acts in recessive homozygous condition at cellular level, but shows Autosomal dominant
inheritance pattern
668. In corn, purple kernels are dominant over yellow kernels, and full kernels are dominant over
shrunken kernels. A corn plant having purple and full kernels is crossed with a plant having yellow and
shrunken kernels, and the following progeny are obtained:
purple, full 112
purple, shrunken 103
yellow, full 91
yellow, shrunken 94
What can you conclude about the likely genotypes of parents and progeny?
a. the progeny do appear in the 1:1:1:1 ratio predicted by our genetic explanation
b. the progeny do not appear in the 1:1:1:1 ratio predicted by our genetic explanation
c. the progeny do appear in the 1:1:1:1 ratio which does not fit our genetic experiment
d. the progeny do not appear in the 1:1:1:1 ratio predicted by our genetic explanation
669. A fruit fly has XXXYY sex chromosomes; all the Autosomal chromosomes are normal. What sexual
phenotype will this fly have?
a. Metamale
b. Metafemale
c. Normal female
d. Super female
670. Chickens, like all birds, have ZZ-ZW sex determination. The bar-feathered phenotype in chickens
results from a Z-linked allele that is dominant over the allele for non-bar feathers. A barred female is
crossed with a non-barred male. The F1 from this cross are intercrossed to produce the F2. What will the
phenotypes and their proportions be in the F1 and F2 progeny?
a. barred female : barred male: non barred female: non barred male
b. All non barred female: barred male
c. barred female : non barred female:
d. female : male are barred and other are not viable.
671. Joanna has short fingers (brachydactyly). She has two older Brothers who are identical twins; they
both have short fingers. Joannas two younger sisters have normal fingers. Joannas Mother has normal
fingers, and her father has short fingers. Joannas paternal grandmother (her fathers mother) has short
Fingers; her paternal grandfather (her fathers father), who is now deceased, had normal fingers. Both of
Joannas maternal Grandparents (her mothers parents) have normal fingers. Joanna marries Tom, who
has normal fingers; they adopt a son named Bill who has normal fingers. Bills biological parents both have
normal fingers. After adopting Bill, Joanna and Tom produce two children: an older daughter with short
fingers and a younger son with normal fingers. What is the most likely mode of inheritance for short
fingers in this family?
c. X-linked dominance
d. X-linked recessive
672. Concordance values for a series of traits were measured in monozygotic twins and dizygotic twins;
the results are shown in the following table. Which of the following conclusion is wrong?
a. Coffee drinking is in influenced by environment and there is very little genetic influence
b. Coffee drinking shows high concordance, means it has high degree of genetic influence
c. ABO blood group shows high concordance in monozygotic twins, thus it is influenced by
environment.
d. Smoking also is influenced by environment.
673. In guinea pigs, white coat (w) is recessive to black coat (W) and wavy hair (v) is recessive to straight
hair (V). A breeder crosses a guinea pig that is homozygous for white coat and wavy hair with a guinea pig
that is black with straight hair. The F1 are then crossed with guinea pigs having white coats and wavy hair
in a series of testcrosses. The following progeny are produced from these testcrosses:
black, straight 30
black, wavy 10
white, straight 12
white, wavy 31
Are the genes that -determine coat color and hair type assorting Independently?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cant be predicted
d. Genes are on different chromosomes and hence they are linked
674. A panel of cell lines was created from mousehuman somaticcell fusions. Each line was examined
for the presence of human chromosomes and for the production of human haptoglobin (a protein). The
following results were obtained
a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 14
c. Chromosome 16
d. Chromosome 21
675. DNA from a strain of bacteria with genotype a+b+ c+ d+ e+ was isolated and used to transform a
strain of bacteria that was a- b- c- d- e-. The transformed cells were tested for the presence of donated
genes. The following genes were co-transformed.
A+and d_
B+and e_
C+and d_
C+and e_
What is the order of genes a, b, c, d, and e on the bacterial Chromosome?

a. adceb
b. adbce
c. bdcab
d. eabcd
676. Consider three genes in E. coli: thr_ (the ability to synthesize threonine), ara_ (the ability to
metabolize arabinose), and leu_ (the ability to synthesize leucine). All three of these genes are close
together on the E. coli chromosome. Phages are grown in a thr_ ara_ leu_ strain of bacteria (the donor
strain). The phage lysate is collected and used to infect a strain of bacteria that is thr_ ara_ leu_. The
recipient bacteria are then tested on medium lacking leucine. Bacteria that grow and form colonies on
this medium (leu_ transductants) are then replica plated onto medium lacking threonine and medium
lacking arabinose to see which are thr_ and which are ara_. Another group of recipient bacteria are tested
on medium lacking threonine. Bacteria that grew and formed colonies on this medium (thr_
transductants) were then replica plated onto medium lacking leucine and medium lacking arabinose to
see which are ara_ and which are leu_. Results from these experiments are as follows:
How are the loci arranged on the chromosome?

a. thr-leu-ara
b. leu-ara-thr
c. ara-thr-leu
d. cant determine
677. The mutations produced by the following compounds are reversed by the substances shown.
What conclusions can you make about the nature of the mutations originally produced by compound 1?
a. Compound 1 appears to causes single-base substitutions that generate T A but not G C base
pairs.
b. Compound 1 appears to causes double-base substitutions that generate T A but not G C base
pairs.
c. Compound 1 appears to causes single-base substitutions that generate G A but not G C base
pairs.
d. Compound 1 appears to causes double-base substitutions that generate T A but not A T base
pairs.
678. A physician examines a young man who has a progressive muscle disorder and visual
abnormalities. A number of the patients relatives have the same condition, as shown in the adjoining
pedigree. The degree of expression of the trait is highly variable among members of the family: some are
only slightly affected, whereas others developed severe symptoms at an early age. The physician
concludes that this disorder is due to a mutation in the mitochondrial genome. Do you agree with the
physicians conclusion?
a. Yes
b. No
c. May be
d. Cant predict
679. Suppose that a new organelle is discovered in an obscure group of protists. This organelle contains
a small DNA genome and some scientists are arguing that, like chloroplasts and mitochondria, this
organelle originated as a free-living eubacterium that entered into an endosymbiotic relation with the
protest. How would you conclude is it an example of endosymbiotic theory?
a. If the organelle shows, characteristic of eukaryotic DNA, then it is not an endosymbiont
b. We can compare the genomic data with its homolog found in eubacteria
c. If the organelle shows, characters of eubacteria DNA, then it supports endosymbiosis
d. Can be predicted by fossil records.
680. Seed weight in a particular plant species is determined by pairs of alleles at two loci (a+a- and b+
b-) that are additive and equal in their effects. Plants with genotype a-a-b-b- have seeds that average 1 g
in weight, whereas plants with genotype a+a+b+b+ have seeds that average 3.4 g in weight. A plant with
genotype a-a-b-b- is crossed with a plant of genotype a+a+b+b+. What are the predicted weight of seeds
in F1 generation?
a. 1.2 g
b. 2.2g
c. 5g
d. 1g
681. In a certain plant, height varies from 6 to 36 cm. When 6-cm and 36-cm plants were crossed, all
F1 plants were 21 cm. In the F2 generation, a continuous range of heights was observed. Most were
around 21 cm, and 3 of 200 were as short as the 6-cm P1 parent. What is the mode of inheritance and
how many gene pairs are involved?
a. Polygenic inheritance; 3 pairs are involved
b. Monogenic inheritance; 3 pairs are involved
c. Polygenic inheritance; 4 pairs involved
d. Polygenic inheritance; 1 pair is involved
682. The mean and variance of corolla length in two highly inbred strains of Nicotiana and their
progeny are shown in the following table. One parent (P1) has a short corolla, and the other parent (P2)
has a long corolla. What can you conclude form the given data?
a. indicates that about 91 percent of the variation in corolla length is due to genetic influences
b. indicates that about 50 percent of the variation in corolla length is due to genetic influences
c. indicates that about 91 percent of the variation in corolla length is due to environmental factor
d. indicates that about 50 percent of the variation in corolla length is due to environmental factor
683. The base analog 2-amino purine (2-AP) substitutes for adenine during DNA replication, but it may
base-pair with cytosine. The base analog 5-bromouracil (5-BU) substitutes for thymidine, but it may base-
pair with guanine. Follow the double-stranded trinucleotide sequence shown here through three rounds
of replication, assuming that, in the first round, both analogs are present and become incorporated
wherever possible. Before the second and third round of replication, any unincorporated base analogs are
removed. What final sequences occur?
a. 2 normal dsDNA and 2 mutated dsDNA

b. All mutated dsDNA
c. All normal dsDNA
d. 3 mutated dsDNA and 1 normal dsDNA
684. A rare dominant mutation expressed at birth was studied in humans. Records showed that six
cases were discovered in 40,000 live births. Family histories revealed that in two cases, the mutation was
already present in one of the parents. Calculate the spontaneous mutation rate for this mutation
a. 5 x 10-5
b. 5 x 10+5
c. 5 x 10-2
d. 5 x 10+2
685. Consider the following estimates:

(a) There are 5.5 x 109 humans living on this planet.
(b) Each individual has about 30,000 (0.3 x 105) genes.
(c) The average mutation rate at each locus is 10-5.
How many spontaneous mutations are currently present in the human population? Assuming that these
mutations are equally distributed among all genes, how many new mutations have arisen in each gene in
the human population?
a. 11 x 105 mutations per gene in the population
b. 11 x 1019 mutations per gene in the population
c. 11 x 104 mutations per gene in the population
d. 11 x 10-4 mutations per gene in the population
ANSWER KEYS:
INHERITANCE BIOLOGY
Part B
1.a
2.a
3.d
4.d
5.b
6.b
7.d
8.b
9.e
10.d
11.b
12.a
13.d
14.e
15.c
16.a
17.b
18.c
19.a
20.d
21.d
22.c
23.d
24.c
25.d
26.c
27.b
28.c
29.c
30.d
31.d
32.d
33.a
34.d
35.b
36.d
37.b
38.d
39.b
40.a
41.a
42.d
43.a
44.d
45.b
46.c
47.a
48.d
49.a
50.b
51.a
52.c
53.d
54.d
55.c
56.b
57.a
58.a
59.d
60.b
61.b
62.b
63.d
64.a
65.c
66.d
67.c
68.b
69.d
70.d
71.a
72.d
73.d
74.b
75.d
76.b
77.a
78.c
79.b
80.c
81.d
82.b
83.c
84.a
85.a
86.b
87.a
88.a
89.d
90.b
91.c
92.a
93.c
94.b
95.b
96.a
97.c
98.a
99.a
100.b
101.a
102.d
103.b
104.c
105.a
106.a
107.b
108.a
109.c
110.b
111.b
112.d
113.c
114.c
115.a
116.a
117.a
118.c
119.d
120.d
121.d
122.c
123.d
124.d
125.c
126.c
127.a
128.d
129.b
130.c
131.b
132.d
133.b
134.d
135.d
136.a
137.b
138.d
139.c
140.c
141.b
142.b
143.c
144.b
145.b
146.b
147.a
148.b
149.d
150.d
151.a
152.a
153.c
154.b
155.a
156.d
157.b
158.a
159.d
160.d
161.c
162.a
163.d
164.a
165.b
166.b
167.b
168.d
169.c
170.a
171.b
172.b
173.a
174.a
175.c
176.b
177.a
178.a
179.c
180.a
181.a
182.c
183.d
184.c
185.b
186.c
187.c
188.d
189.b
190.a
191.d
192.c
193.d
194.d
195.d
196.c
197.d
198.d
199.a
200.a
201.d
202.a
203.b
204.a
205.a
206.d
207.a
208.b
209.a
210.a
211.b
212.b
213.c
214.c
215.a
216.a
217.d
218.b
219.d
220.c
221.c
222.d
223.d
224.b
225.c
226.a
227.a
228.a
229.II
230.d
231.c
232.b
233.b
234.c
GENE INTERACTION
235.b
236.b
237.d
238.d
239.b
240.a
241.a
242.b
243.c
244.b
245.d
246.a
247.d
248.a
249.b
250.a
251.a
252.a
253.b
254.c
255.c
256.b
257.c
258.a
259.a
260.a
261.a
262.d
263.c
264.a
265.c
266.d
267.c
268.b
269.b
270.b
271.a
272.d
273.b
274.c
275.d
276.d
277.a
278.b
279.a
280.a
281.b
282.d
283.a
284.a
285.d
286.a
287.d
288.b
289.d
290.b
291.a
292.c
293.d
294.a
295.a
296.a
297.d
298.a
GENE INTERACTION & CHROMOSOME
304.b
305.a
306.c
307.b
308.b
309.c
310.b
311.b
312.c
313.d
314.a
315.c
316.b
317.d
318.a
319.b
320.a
321.a
322.c
323.a
324.d
325.b
326.a
327.b
328.a
329.b
330.b
331.d
332.b
333.a
334.a
335.d
336.c
337.d
338.c
339.a
340.d
341.d
342.b
343.a
344.b
345.b
346.b
347.a
348.b
349.a
350.b
351.a
352.d
353.a
354.d
355.a
356.b
357.a
358.d
359.a
360.b
361.d
362.d
363.b
364.d
365.d
366.b
367.c
368.a
369.a
370.c
371.b
372.a
373.c
374.a
375.a
376.b
377.b
378.d
379.c
380.a
381.a
382.a
383.c
384.a
385.c
386.d
387.b
388.a
389.c
390.d
391.d
392.c
393.c
394.a
395.c
396.d
397.c
398.b
399.d
400.c
401.b
402.b
403.c
404.c
405.d
406.d
407.a
408.c
409.b
410.b
411.c
412.d
413.a
414.a
415.b
416.d
417.c
418.c
419.d
420.d
421.c
422.c
423.b
424.a
425.c
426.d
427.d
428.c
429.a
430.a
431.b
432.c
433.b
434.b
435.c
436.c
437.a
438.a
439.a
440.b
441.c
442.b
443.c
444.a
445.b
446.b
447.a
448.a
449.b
450.d
451.c
452.b
453.d
454.d
455.b
456.c
457.b
458.b
459.b
460.d
461.a
462.b
463.a
464.c
465.d
466.c
467.a
468.c
469.c
470.c
471.b
472.a
473.a
474.a
475.a
476.a
477.c
478.c
479.a
480.c
481.b
482.d
483.b
484.b
GENETIC VARIATIONS
549.a
550.b
551.b
552.d
553.a
554.a
555.c
556.d
557.a
558.d
559.d
560.a
561.a
562.d
563.a
564.a
565.a
566.c
567.d
568.c
569.a
570.c
571.a
572.b
573.b
574.b
575.b
576.d
577.a
578.d
579.c
580.a
581.a
582.b
583.d
584.a
585.a
586.c
587.b
588.d
589.d
590.d
591.d
592.a
593.d
594.d
595.a
596.d
597.d
598.d
599.b
600.d
601.a
part C
ANSWER KEYS:
602.b
603.a
604.d
605.a
606.b
607.a
608.d
609.b
610.c
611.d
612.b
613.c
614.b
615.c
616.d
617.a
618.b
619.c
620.d
621.c
622.c
623.b
624.a
625.a
626.a
627.c
628.b
629.a
630.b
631.d
632.a
633.c
634.b
635.d
636.d
637.a
638.a
639.a
640.d
641.c
642.b
643.d
644.d
645.d
646.c
647.c
648.a
649.d
650.c
651.a
652.a
653.c
654.a
655.a
656.a
657.c
658.c
659.d
660.c
661.c
662.c
663.a
664.a
665.a
666.a
667.d
668.a
669.b
670.a
671.a
672.b
673.a
674.c
675.a
676.a
677.a
678.a
679.b
680.b
681.a
682.a
683.a
684.a
685.c

Unit 8

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Unit 8

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2.3.

Is this topic important keeping in mind CSIR-NET is in 2 months?

Which books to follow?

How many questions can I expect from this topic?

How to prepare in less time?

Is this topic important?

How shall I start?

Principles of Genetics by Eldon Gardner:

o This book provides a wonderful and comprehensive introduction to genetics.

Time for this Unit:

Prioritize the subtopics:

Do not expect direct questions from this unit.

The unit is inter-related with concepts of Molecular Biology and Biochemistry.

1. A ratio of 12:3:1 is most characteristic of a cross involving __________.

6. Genetic anticipation refers to the phenomenon which shows __________.

13. Diagnosis of chromosome aneuploidy of unborn children is normally done by a combination of

14. Which statement about Down's syndrome is false?

48. The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is

49. The name for a chromosome map unit is

50. Which of the following represents a testcross?

51. A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be

52. Which of the following represents a dihybrid?

53. A genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele is

58. One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.

73. The purposes of Meiosis include:

79. Match the following

81. Probable cause of low fertility in plants is

84. Is the formula genotype _ environment _ phenotype accurate?

88. An E.coli strain lacking DNA polymerase I would be deficient in DNA

90. Dominant gene epistasis ratio is

96. Linked genes

97. The Linkage concepts do not apply if,

100. Pseudohypertriphic muscular dystrophy is an inherited disorder that causes gradual

106. Hypertrichosis is sex linked character associated with the

108. Which one of the following is a correct pair ?

112. In Downs syndrome each cell has how many chromosomes ?

113. 44 + X in a person shows the syndrome

114. Webbed neck is a characteristic of

115. The genetic event in Turners syndrome (XO) is probably

116. Which of the following have equal number of chromosomes ?

121. The human disease inherited as a simple recessive trait is

122. Father of human genetics is

124. The autosomes of man has been classified in

125. Mother of a sickle cell anaemic child will always be

127. Carcinoma refers to

129. In cancerous tissues

130. Treatment of cancer by gamma rays is called

131. During hybridization the children are superior to parents; it is

132. Lyon hypothesis deals with

134. Mental retardation is not related with

135. Philadelphia chromosome is found in the patient suffering from

138. Except for identical twins, individuals are never alike in

139. XXY condition is found in

140. Trisomy of which chromosome is involved in Downs syndrome?

141. In which type of colour blindness, colours are perceived as grey

142. Phenylketonuria is referred as

143. In which of the following disease, an extra X chromosome is present

145. Phenlyketonuria, an inherited disease is characterized by

147. Albinism and Phenylketonuria are disorders due to

149. A hereditary disease is

152. Which of the following is a correct match

154. Sickle cell anaemia is due to

155. In human beings, multiple genes are involved in the inheritance of