Sunteți pe pagina 1din 8

ME 509, Spring 2016, Final Exam, Solutions

05/03/2016

DON’T BEGIN UNTIL YOU’RE TOLD TO!

Instructions:

This exam is to be done independently in 120 minutes.

You may use 2 pieces of letter-sized (8.5 × 11”) paper with whatever you want on it (back and front, typed or handwritten or both).

No other books, notes or electronic materials are to be used in preparing your answers, including calculators, phones, laptops, etc.

Please make use of scratch paper for trial & error, then write down your solution steps

legibly on the exam.

If you need extra space, please attach an extra sheet of paper and don’t work on the back of any of the pages.

Name:

Problem 1

21 pts. (=

7 × 3 pts.)

True or False? (Also state why in only a few words.)

(a) The Reynolds number for characteristic velocity U and length L is Re = U/ gL.

Re = UL/µ.

T/ F :

(b) ψ · ∇φ = 0 is a relation satisﬁed by the streamfunction ψ and potential φ for an

ideal ﬂow in the plane.

/F:

ψ = (x ψ, ∂ y ψ) = (v, u), φ = (x φ, ∂ y φ) = (u, v), hence ψ · ∇φ = vu + uv = 0.

(c) All ﬂuid ﬂow ﬁelds v can be expressed in terms of a potential φ as v = φ.

T/ F :

v = φ if and only if ∇ × v = 0 (irrotational), which is a subset of all ﬂuid ﬂows.

(d) The equations of low Reynolds number (Stokes) ﬂow reduce to 2 ψ = 0.

T/ F :

Equations of Stokes ﬂow reduce to 4 ψ = 0, this could be true even if 2 ψ

= 0.

(e) The boundary layer equations are valid for both small and large Re.

T/ F :

In deriving the BL equations, we took the limit Re → ∞.

(f) Ideal ﬂows cannot satisfy all boundary conditions on a solid surface.

Ideal ﬂows can satisfy either penetration (v · n = 0).

v · n

=

0

or

v

·

t

=

0.

/F:

We require them to satisfy no

(g) The equations of lubrication theory are an exact form of Navier–Stokes.

T/ F :

The lubrication approximation requires both h 0 /L 1 and Re small. We dropped many terms. The equations are approximate.

Name:

Problem 2

16 pts. (= 4 × 4 pts.)

Consider the Cartesian velocity ﬁeld v(x, y, z, t) = (cos y, 0, sin y).

(a) Show that the vorticity vector ω of this given ﬂow ﬁeld is exactly equal to v.

ω =

ˆ

i

x

cos y

ˆ

j

y

0

ˆ

k

z

sin y

ˆ

ˆ

ˆ

= i(y sin y z 0) j(x sin y z cos y) + k(x 0 y cos y)

= i cos y + k sin y = cos y, 0, sin y v.

ˆ

ˆ

(b) The helicity (per unit volume) is deﬁned as h = v · (∇ × v). Compute h for the given

ﬂow ﬁeld v.

(a)

h = v · (∇ × v) = v · ω

=

v · v = cos 2 y + sin 2 y = 1.

Name:

(c) Show that the given ﬂow ﬁeld v satisﬁes conservation of mass for an incompressible ﬂuid in 3D.

∇ · v = x cos y + y 0 + x sin y = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0

(d) Compute p(x, y, z, t) such that the given ﬂow ﬁeld v satisﬁes Euler’s momentum equation(s) for inviscid incompressible ﬂow in the absence of body forces, i.e., Dv/Dt = −∇p.

Hence,

Dv

Dt

∂v

∂t

=0

+v · ∇v = cos y, 0, sin y · sin y

0

0

0 0

0

p = 0 p = const. (say, 0).

0

cos y = 0

0

Name:

Problem 3

32 pts. (=

4 × 8 pts.)

Consider ideal stagnation point ﬂow in the plane for y > 0 and −∞ < x < in the presence of a source of strength Q at (x, y) = (0, 0).

(a) Determine the potential function φ(x, y), in Cartesian coordinates, for the given ﬂow.

F

Q

(z) = Az 2 + 2π log z,

then take the real part, or start directly with

Q

φ(x, y) = A(x 2 y 2 ) + 2π ln x 2 + y 2 = A(x 2 y 2 ) + 4π ln x 2 +

Q

y 2 .

(b) Determine the velocity proﬁle v = u(x, y), v(x, y) , in Cartesian coordinates, for the

given ﬂow.

and

u(x, y) x φ = 2Ax +

v(x, y) y φ = 2Ay +

Qx

2π (x 2 + y 2 )

Qy

2π (x 2 + y 2 )

Name:

(c) This ﬂow has exactly one stagnation point (x s , y s ). Find x s and y s as functions of

the two parameters associated with ﬂow you deﬁned in (a). Verify that u(x s , y s ) = 0 and v(x s , y s ) = 0. [Hint: x s = 0; you’re allowed to use this fact to speed up your calculation.]

Using hint,

u(x s = 0, y s ) = 0 + 0 = 0

and

v(0,

Q

4πA ) =

Q

v(x s = 0, y s ) = 2Ay s + 2πy s = 0

0 is easily veriﬁed.

y s =

Q

4πA .

(d) Could we model ideal stagnation point ﬂow onto a “bump” using φ from (a)? Why

or why not? [Hint: a sketch and a key fact about solid walls in ideal ﬂows is enough.]

Plot shows streamlines and equipotential lines. Black is the streamline ψ(x, y) 1.57075. We can identify it as a solid wall. Thus, φ can model ideal stagnation point ﬂow onto a “bump”.

Name:

Problem 4

31 pts. (= 8 + 8 + 8 + 7 pts.)

Consider steady ﬂow, under the lubrication approximation [(h 0 /L) 2 Re 1], in a slot of non-uniform height h(x). Assuming the top wall is elastic, its deformation is proportional to the local ﬂuid pressure, speciﬁcally: h(x) = h 0 +αp(x), where α is a proportionality constant with appropriate units.

y = h ( x)
h
0
y
x

L

(a) Starting from the conservation of linear momentum under the lubrication approxi- mation, develop an expression for the horizontal (i.e., x-) velocity u(x, y), assuming no slip at y = 0 and y = h(x) = h 0 + αp(x).

∂p

∂x + µ 2 u

∂p

0 =

0

∂y 2 ,

= x

p

= p(y).

Solving ﬁrst eq. (once again, plane Poiseuille ﬂow), imposing BCs:

u(x, y) =

1

2µ

dx dp y[y h(x)].

Name:

(b) Given a constant ﬂow rate Q (at any x) and using your result in (a), ﬁnd an ODE

for p(x) as a function of Q, µ, h 0 and α. [Hint: the ODE will be nonlinear in p.]

Q = h(x)

0

u(x, y) dy =

2µ dx y 3

1

dp

3

h(x) y 2

2

h(x)

0

=

[h(x)] 3 dp

12µ

dx ,

which must hold at every x by conservation of mass. Then, using given h(x):

12µQ = [h 0 + αp(x)] 3 dp(x) dx

.

(c) If correct, the ODE in (b) is separable and can be immediately integrated. Find Q

as a (nonlinear) function of p(x) assuming the boundary condition p(x = L) = 0.

12µQdx = [h 0 + αp] 3 dp

1

12µQx + C = 4α [h 0 + αp(x)] 4 .

Using the BC p(L) = 0 gives C = 12µQL + 4α . Hence,

0

h

4

Q = [h 0 + αp(x)] 4 h 4 48αµ(L x)

0

.

(d) Carefully take the limit as α 0 to recover p(x) in terms of Q, µ, L, x and h 0 for a

(undeformed) slot of uniform height.

Using the binomial theorem (or Pascal’s triangle, or squaring the bracketed quantity

twice in a row

):

Q = [h 0 + αp(x)] 4 h 4 48αµ(L x)

0

=

h4 + 4h 0 αp(x) + 6h 0 α 2 [p(x)] 2 + 4h 0 α 3 [p(x)] 3 + α 4 [p(x)] 4

0

3

2

h

4

0

48αµ(L x)

,

Then canceling an α from top and bottom and taking α 0:

h
0 3 p(x)
Q =
p(x) = 12µQ (L − x).
3
12µ(L −
x)
h
0