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It is well known that the gospel of John is considerably different than the other
three Gospels. One of the reasons that the Gospel of John seems so different is
that the three synoptic gospels are so similar. Because of the similarities
between Matthew, Mark, and Luke some theory of literary dependence must be
given to explain the close relationship.
For Kstenberger, the Fall of Jerusalem is the most important factor. I am sure
that the rise of Gnosticism is a major factor, but I am not sure that the success
of the Gentile mission is as much of a factor than sometimes assumed. John
wrote the gospel some thirty years after the death of Paul, from Ephesus, the
city where Paul had his most success among Gentiles. Yet the Gospel has very
little to say about Gentiles. The Samaritan Woman (John 4) is a possible
example, but Samaritans are a in many ways neither Jew nor Gentile. The
healing of the officials son in John 4:46-54 is sometimes offered as an example
of a Gentile who encounters Jesus, but if he is John certainly does not make this
explicit.
On the one hand, the Gospel is evangelistic. John wrote to Jewish readers
who might be open to Jesus as an alternative to the Temple and the festivals.
But there are a few stories which are could be described as drawing Gentiles to
Jesus. The story of the blind man who is healed in John 5 may show that Jesus
is superior to Asclepius, a Roman god of healing. Given the number of allusions
to the Hebrew Bible and the importance of the Jewish story of redemption, it is
clear that the main target of the Gospel is Jewish.
The Gospel of John is therefore a window into the end of the apostolic era.
Christianity was making progress against paganism, but needed to to develop a
theology of Jesus in the face of an internal challenge. Can we draw other
implications from the differences between John and the Synoptics?