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Test - Chemistry and Biology Combined Sept 2017 For NEET / AIIMS Examination

Answer Key Dr. Geetendra Singh MBBS


Biomentors Classes Online MD, MPH M.Med.

Time: 60 Minutes
Max Marks - 360
Negative Marking Applied

1) What is true for uterine wall layers?

a) Perimetrium is outermost thin membranous layer


b) Myometrium is middle thick layer of smooth muscle
c) Endometrium is inner glandular layer
d) All of these

Answer is d. NCERT XII - Page no. 46

2) Human Ovary is filled with?

a) Solid mass of cells


b) Soft tissue stroma
c) muscular tissues
d) Specific fluid

Answer is b. NCERT XII - Page no. 44

3) What is correct sequence of Oviduct parts from ovary to uterus?

a) Isthmus - Ampulla - Infundibulum


b) Isthmus - Infundibulum - Ampulla
c) Infundibulum - Ampulla - Isthmus
d) Ampulla - Infundibulum - Isthmus

Answer is c. NCERT XII - Page no. 45,46

4) Which statement is correct? (I) Spermatogonia have Haploid number of chromosomes (II) All
spermatogonia undergoes into meiosis at a time.
a) Both I & II
b) Only I
c) Only II
d) None of these

Answer is d. NCERT XII - Page no. 47

5) Most gymnosperms are?

a) Tracheophyte with Xylem vessels


b) Spermatophyte with enclosed seeds
c) Ovulated without archegonia
d) None of these

Answer is d. Most of the gymnosperm lack xylem vessels, Not have ovary & have archegonia in ovule.

6) In gymnosperms pollination is exclusively by?

a) Animals
b) Wind
c) Water
d) Insects

Answer is b. All gymnosperms are Wind pollinated.

7) A typical gymnospermous plant has 24 chromosomes in leaf cells. What will be number of chromosomes
in the cells of its embryo?

a) 16
b) 24
c) 12
d) 48

Answer is b. Embryo & leaf cells both are diploid

8) A Chamber common to all types of canal system of sponges is called?

a) Paragastric cavity
b) Radial chamber
c) Excurrent canal
d) Incurrent canal

Answer is a. In Porifera, the pores lead directly or indirectly into the centralcavity known as Spongocoel (spongos,
sponge + koilos, cavity) or Paragastric Cavity. This cavity opens to the outside through a pore (or pores) known as
Osculum (or Oscula).

9) Canal system is a characteristic of?

a) Hydra
b) Sponge
c) Sea anemone
d) Sea urchin

Answer is b. The canal system which draws water current inside the sponge's body and maintains a continuous
uninterrupted flow of water, plays a vital role in the physiology of sponges, because it serves the various kinds of
functions.

10) Which of the following is a member of Phylum Porifera?

a) Sycon
b) Leucosolenia
c) Spongilla
d) All of them

Answer is d. All are sponges

11) Sponge's free swimming larva is called as?

a) Veliger
b) Trochophore
c) Parenchymula
d) Bipinnaria

Answer is c. In Porifera, the Fertilized eggs develop into ciliated free-swimming larvae called parenchymula larvae.

12) Amphiblastula and Parenchymula larval stages are found in the?

a) Coelenterata
b) Platyhelminthes
c) Porifera
d) None of these

Answer is c. Sponge larvae: solid parenchymella larvae and hollow amphiblastula larvae

13) The most distinctive character of sponge is?

a) Presence of choanocytes
b) Unicellular
c) Marine
d) Asexual reproduction

Answer is a. One group of specialized cells found within sponges is called choanocytes. These cells cover the inside
wall of the sponge and are comprised of a round cell body, a single whip-like flagellum, and a collar. The collar is
made of many microvilli and is why these cells are also referred to as collar cells.

14) (A) The biggest drawback of artificial classification system is that this separated the closely related
species. (R) Artificial classification system is based upon few characteristics.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. NCERT Page no. 29

15) Birth canal is made up of?

a) Cervix Only
b) Uterus & Oviduct only
c) Cervical canal with uterus
d) Cervical canal with Vagina

Answer is d. NCERT XII - Page no. 46

16) (A) Deuteromycetes is commonly known as imperfect fungi. (R) Only asexual or vegetative phase of
these fungi are known.
a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. NCERT Page no. 24

17) (A) Most fungi absorb soluble organic matter from dead substances (R) Most fungi have mycelium made
up of hyphae.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is b. NCERT Page no. 22

18) (A) Diatoms are considered chief producers in the oceans. (R) They float passively in water currents &
are photosynthetic.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is b. NCERT Page no. 20

19) (A) Slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium. (R) During unfavourable conditions,
Plasmodium formed than grow and spread.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is c. NCERT Page no. 21

20) (A) Euglena have isokont lateral flagella (R) Euglena mostly marine active phytoplanktons
a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is d. NCERT Page no. 21

21) (A) The life cycle of red algae is not as simple as green algae. (R) In red algae complex post fertilization
developments are seen

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. NCERT Page no. 34

22) (A) There is no zygotic meiosis in brown algae (R) The diploid zygote produces a diploid thallus

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. The zygote develops into diploid sporophyte thats why instead of meiosis, mitosis takes place.

23) (A) Taxonomy without phylogeny is like bones without flesh (R) Phylogeny may be important for
gauging the evolutionary potential of species

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is b. Phylogeny refers to the evolutionary history of a taxonomic group of organisms. It is essential in the
scientific study of the identification, classification, ecology, and evolutionary histories of organisms, which is
systematics. Phylogeny shows the relationships between groups of organisms (taxa) particularly the differences and
similarities among them. Phylogeny is represented by a tree diagram called phylogenetic tree. A closely related
branch of science that makes use of phylogenetic tree diagrams to study evolutionary histories and relatedness
among various groups of organisms is phylogenetics. The relatedness between taxa is usually demonstrated
through molecular sequencing data and morphological data matrices. Thus, phylogeny is essential in understanding
biodiversity, genetics, evolutions, and ecology among groups of organisms. Taxonomy without phylogeny is like
bone without flesh is a statement by Takhtajan. It provides the importance of phylogeny in the process of
classification.

24) (A) The mushrooms are not regarded plants now (R) Mushrooms are heterotrophic & lack plastids

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. Mushrooms are placed in kingdom fungi

25) (A) Adaptations have survival value (R) Adaptations make an organism to adjust well and suited to its
way of life.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. An adaptation is a physical or behavioral characteristic that has developed to allow an organism to
better survive in its environment.

26) "Venus flower basket " is the name of the dried skeleton of?

a) Euspongia
b) Euplectella
c) Spongilla
d) Leucosolenia

Answer is b. The Venus' flower basket (Euplectella aspergillum) is a hexactinellid sponge in the phylum Porifera
inhabiting the deep ocean.

27) What is found in a sponge?

a) Choanocytes
b) Nematocysts
c) Comb plates
d) Interstitial cells

Answer is a. One group of specialized cells found within sponges is called choanocytes. These cells cover the inside
wall of the sponge and are comprised of a round cell body, a single whip-like flagellum, and a collar. The collar is
made of many microvilli and is why these cells are also referred to as collar cells.

28) Which of the following is boring sponge?

a) Cliona
b) Euplectella
c) Chalina
d) Hyalonema

Answer is a. Cliona celata, occasionally called the boring sponge, is a species of demosponge belonging the family
Clionaidae.

29) Classification of Phylum Porifera is based on?

a) Nutrition
b) Spicules
c) Locomotion
d) Reproduction

Answer is b. Phylum porifera is classified mainly on the basis of skeleton . Sponges spicules plays a very important
role in classification of porifera.

30) Coelenterates are?

a) Acoelomate
b) Coelomate
c) Pseudocoelomate
d) None of these

Answer is a. Acoelomate animals are called acoelomates and they have no true body cavity. The acoelomate phyla
are Porifera , Cnidaria , Ctenophora & Platyhelminthes.Pseudocoelomate animals have a pseudocoelom. They have
a body cavity but it is not lined with mesodermal cells.
31) The phylum of comb jelly is?

a) Mollusca
b) Echinodermata
c) Coelenterata
d) Ctenophora

Answer is d. Ctenophora commonly known as comb jellies; is a phylum of invertebrate animals that live in marine
waters worldwide. They are notable for the groups of cilia they use for swimming (commonly referred to as "combs"),
and they are the largest animals that swim by means of cilia.

32) Mesogloea is present in the Phylum?

a) Porifera
b) Coelenterata
c) Annelida
d) Arthropoda

Answer is b. Mesoglea, also known as mesohyl, is the translucent, non-living, jelly-like substance found between the
two epithelial cell layers in the bodies of cnidarians

33) Flame cells present in?

a) Ctenoplana
b) Wucheraria
c) Bombyx
d) Fasciola

Answer is d. Flame cells are excreatory structures present in platyhelminthes.

34) Which worm comes under Aschelminthes?

a) Silkworm
b) Earthworm
c) Tapeworm
d) Hookworm

Answer is d. Hookworm is Ancylostoma (Phylum - aschelminthes)


35) Which animal is a living fossil?

a) Locust
b) Limulus
c) Laccifer
d) Loligo

Answer is b. The horseshoe crab, Limulus polyphemus are considered to be "living fossils"

36) If a boy's father has haemophilia and his mother has no gene for haemophilia; what is the chance that
the boy will inherit the disease?

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 0%

Answer is d. XX is mother's genotype. Son always receive X chromosome from mother. Mother not have no gene
for hemophilia so son will be absolutely normal.

37) Carrier of gene of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) are present in?

a) Autosome of either mother or father


b) X chromosome of Mother
c) Y chromosome of Father
d) None

Answer is b. Carrier have normal phenotype but inherit disease. Mother may be carrier because have two X
chromosome. Father may be Normal or have Disease. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a severe type of
muscular dystrophy. The symptom of muscle weakness usually begins around the age of four in boys and worsens
quickly. Typically muscle loss occurs first in the upper legs and pelvis followed by those of the upper arms. This can
result in trouble standing up. Most are unable to walk by the age of 12. Affected muscles may look larger due to
increased fat content. Scoliosis is also common. Some may have intellectual disability. Females with a single copy
of the defective gene may show mild symptoms.The disorder is X-linked recessive.

38) Sickle cell anaemia is due to?

a) Malnutrition
b) Chronic worm infection
c) Mutation
d) Loss of blood due to trauma

Answer is c. Sickle cell anemia is due to Gene mutation. (Substitution gene mutation)

39) Colour blindness is caused by to?

a) Single dominant gene in woman


b) Single dominant gene in man
c) Single recessive gene in man
d) Single recessive gene in woman

Answer is c. The gene for colour blindness is recessieve - X linked & Man have hemizygous condition for it. So
single recessieve gene express itself in man.

40) A colourblind man has a colourblind sister but a normal brother than phenotype of its parents is? ??
???????? ????? ?? ?? ??? ???????? ?? ?? ?? ??? ??????? ?? ?? ?? ????? ?? ???? ???? ??????

a) Father colourblind and mother normal


b) Father normal and mother colourblind
c) Father and mother both are colourblind
d) Father and mother both are normal

Answer is a. Father must be colorblind & mother should be Carrier.

41) In his experiments on the chemistry of DNA, Chargaff estimated the base composition of a double
stranded DNA peice found that Purine that formed three hydrogen bond with a pyrimidine constituted 30%
So What will be the quantity of Cytosine in that DNA?

a) 30%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 70%

Answer is a. Three hydrogen bond present between G & C. Guanine is a purine which is 30% so it pairs with
Pyrimidine Cytosine.
42) Which most important molecule playing important role in protein synthesis by cell. Also have capability
to carry genetic message from nucleus to cytoplasm. It is?

a) Ribonucleotide
b) Amino acid
c) Nucleoside
d) RNA

Answer is d. RNA is a polymer of Nucleotides. It is the central molecule for protein synthesis. mRNA carry message
of DNA from nucleus to cytoplasm. (Transcription).

43) Which bond connects the nucleotides of one DNA strands to make it?

a) Phospho-di-ester bond
b) Glycosidic bond
c) Covalent bond
d) Hydrogen bond

Answer is a. Phosphodiester bond connects two nucleotides of DNA to form a DNA strand.

44) Pleurobrachia is a specific organism because it have?

a) Flame cells
b) Malpighian tubules
c) Radula
d) Comb plates

Answer is d. Pleurobranchia is a Ctenophora.

45) If in a double stranded DNA, total 40 nucleotides are present than?

a) Length of DNA is 6.8 nm


b) Two pitch or turn in DNA
c) 20 BP in DNA
d) All of these

Answer is d. 40 nucleotide in dsDNA means 20 nucleotide pair. 10 pair in one pitch so total 2 pitch in DNA. Length
of one pitch is 3.4 nm so for two pitch - 6.8 nm
46) In one ejaculate of a human male how many sperms are present?

a) Few hundreds
b) Few thousands
c) Few millions
d) Few hundred millions

Answer is d. NCERT XII - Page no. 48

47) What is essential for normal fertility in male?

a) Atleast Sixty percent sperm must have normal shape


b) Atleast fourty percent sperm must show high mobility
c) Atleast sixty percent sperms must have normal size
d) All of these

Answer is d. NCERT XII - Page no. 48

48) What is not true for Androgens?

a) Stimulate the process of spermatogenesis


b) Produced in Sertoli cells by the induction of LH
c) Maintain functions of male sex accesory ducts & glands
d) All of these

Answer is b. NCERT XII - Page no. 48

49) Which Follicle has Fluid filled cavity "Antrum"?

a) Primary Follicle
b) Secondary Follicle
c) Tertiary Follicle
d) All of these

Answer is c. NCERT XII - Page no. 48

50) Major reason for rupture of Graafian follicle is?

a) Sudden high level of FSH


b) Low Progesterone level
c) Nutrition deficiency
d) LH surge

Answer is d. NCERT XII - Page no. 50

51) Which group dominates land at present?

a) Bryophyta
b) Pteridophyta
c) Gymnosperms
d) Angiosperms

Answer is d. Angiosperms are dominating flora on earth.

52) An angiosperm is different from a gymnosperm in the absense of?

a) Vascular tissue
b) Ovary
c) Seed
d) Naked ovule

Answer is d. Naked ovule characteristic of Gymnosperm.

53) Diploxylic or polyxylic vascular bundles are found in

a) Pinus
b) Dryopteris
c) Cycas
d) Funaria

Answer is c. Cycas have Polyxylic vascular bundles

54) Ptyxis in Cycas is?

a) Simple
b) Circular
c) Circinate
d) None of these
Answer is c. Circinate ptyxis present in Cycas

55) What nature does, acicular nature of Pinus needle depicts?

a) Mesophytic
b) Xerophytic
c) Hydrophytic
d) Sporophytic

Answer is b. Pinus needle (Needle like leaves) exhibit xerophytic adoptation

56) Which is Polyploid in angisperm?

a) Embryosac
b) Endothecium
c) Tapetum
d) Synergid

Answer is c. Tapetum is the inner most layer in anther wall. It is secreatory in nature & exhibit polypoidy.

57) Selaginella differs from Pteris(fern) in which of the following character?

a) Absence of seed
b) Absence of vessels in xylem
c) Need water for fertilization
d) Heterosporous condition

Answer is d. Fern are homosporous while selaginella shows heterospory.

58) Selaginella has the character of evolutionary importance. That character is?

a) Ligule
b) Seed
c) Heterospory
d) Strobilus

Answer is c. Heterospory considered as establishment of seed habit. (evolutionary step towards seed development.
59) Plasmids are?

a) Part of bacterial genome


b) Cell surface protein in bacteria
c) Extrachromosomal genome in bacteria
d) Cytoplasmic inclusions which are store house of energy

Answer is c. A plasmid is a small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell's chromosomal
DNA. Plasmids naturally exist in bacterial cells. Often, the genes carried in plasmids provide bacteria with genetic
advantages, such as antibiotic resistance.

60) Ashwagandha medicine obtained from which angiospermic family?

a) Liliaceae
b) Solanaceae
c) Fabaceae
d) Poaceae

Answer is b. NCERT XI page no. 80

61) When sodium and chlorine reacts then?

a) Energy is released and ionic bond is formed


b) Energy is released and a covalent bond is formed
c) Energy is absorbed and ionic bond is formed
d) Energy is absorbed and covalent bond is formed

Answer is a. Bond formation is always exothermic. Compounds of sodium are ionic.

62) From the following which group of elements easily forms cation?

a) F, Cl, Br
b) Li, Na, K
c) O, S, Se
d) N, P, As

Answer is b. Li, Na and K are alkali metals with low ionization energy and one electron in their outermost shell so
they will form cation easily.
63) Electrovalent compounds do not have

a) High M.P. and Low B.P.


b) High dielectric constant
c) High M.P. and High B.P.
d) High polarity

Answer is a. Electrovalent compounds generally have high M.P. and high B.P. due to stronger coulombic forces of
attractions.

64) In the transition of Zn atoms to Zn++ ions there is a decrease in the?

a) Number of valency electrons


b) Atomic weight
c) Atomic number
d) Equivalent weight

Answer is a. Ion is formed by gaining or losing electrons. To form cation electron are lost from the valency shell, so
Zn atoms to ions there is a decrease in the no. of valency electron.

65) Assertion (A) : Water is a good solvent for ionic compounds but poor one for covalent compounds.
Reason (R) : Hydration energy of ions releases sufficient energy to overcome lattice energy and break
hydrogen bonds in water, while covalent bonded compounds interact so weakly that even Vander Wall's
forces between molecules of covalent compounds cannot be broken.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. Solubility in water depends on hydration energy and lattice energy.

66) Assertion(A): The atoms in a covalent molecule are said to share electrons, yet some covalent
molecules are polar. Reason (R): In a polar covalent molecule, the shared electrons spend more time on the
average near one of the atoms.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. Polarity in covalent bond developed due to shifting of electrons towards one of the bonded atoms.

67) Assertion(A): Diborane is electron deficient. Reason (R) :There are no enough valence electrons to form
the expected number of covalent bonds.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. One of the reasons for the great interest in boranes is the fact that they possess structures different
from any other class of compounds. Because the bonding in boranes involves multicentre bonding, in which three or
more atoms share a pair of bonding electrons, boranes are commonly called electron-deficient substances.

68) Assertion (A): A resonance hybrid is always more stable than any of its canonical structures. Reason (R)
: This stability is due to delocalization of electrons

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. Since the ability to delocalize electrons increases the stability of a molecule, we can conclude that a
resonance hybrid is more stable

69) Assertion (A) : All F-S-F angle in Sulfur tetrafluoride greater than 90 degree but less than 180 degree.
Reason (R): The lone pair-bond pair repulsion is weaker than bond pair-bond pair repulsion.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is c. Sulfur tetrafluoride has 10 electrons around the central sulfur atom. This means there are five electron
pairs arranged in an trigonal bipyramidal shape with 102 F-S-F bond angles between the equatorialfluorine atoms
and 173 between the axial fluorine atoms.
70) The bond angle in ammonia is?

a) 180 degree
b) 103 degree
c) 107 degree
d) 99 degree

Answer is c. The NH3 molecular geometry (molecular shape) is trigonal pyramidal. The NH3 bond angles are 107
because the hydrogen atoms are repelled by the lone pair of electrons on the Nitrogen atom.

71) Four one-litre flasks are separately filled with the gases hydrogen, helium, oxygen and ozone at the
same room temperature and pressure. The ratio of total number of atoms of these gases present in the
different flasks would be

a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
b) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
c) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3
d) 3 : 2 : 2 : 1

Answer is c. According to Avogadro's hypothesis equal volumes of all gases under similar condition of temperature
and pressure contains equal number of molecules. Hence number of atom of H2, He, O2H2, He, O2 and O3O3 will
be in the ratio 2:1:2:3

72) What quantity of limestone (CaCO3) on heating will give 56 kg of CaO?

a) 1000 kg
b) 56 kg
c) 44 kg
d) 100 kg

Answer is d. 1 mole of limestone produces 1 mole of carbon dioxide and 1 mole of lime or calcium oxide. The molar
mass of limestone is 100 g (= mass of Ca + mass of C + 3 x mass of O = 40 + 12 + 3 x 16). Similarly, the molar
mass of lime is 56 g. Thus, we can also say that 100 g of limestone produces 56 g of lime. Or, 1 g of lime is
produced by 100/56 g limestone. Thus, 56 kg of lime will be produced by 100/56 x 56 kg = 100 kg. So, in order to
obtain 56 kg of lime, we need to heat 100 kg of limestone.

73) Which one of the following properties of an element is not variable ?

a) Valency
b) Atomic weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) All of the above

Answer is b. Atomic weight of an element is not variable.

74) What amount of bromine will be required to convert 2 g of phenol into 2,4,6-tribromophenol ?

a) 4
b) 6
c) 10
d) 20

Answer is c. 94 grams of phenol reacts with 480 gms. of Br2 than 2 gm. of phenol ? (480/94) x 2 = 10.22 gms

75) What is the normality of 1 M solution of H3PO4 (Phosphoric acid)?

a) 0.5 N
b) 1 N
c) 2 N
d) 3 N

Answer is d. Normality = mass/eq.mass x 1000/volume of solutions( ml); Morality = mass/ molar mass x 1000/
volume of solution (ml) and Eq. mass = Molar mass/ n factor or normality = Mass/molar mass/ n factor x 1000/
volume of solution (ml) = mass/molar mass x 1000/ volume of solution (ml) x n factor = molarity x n factor. For H3PO

4, n = 3 So normality = 1x3 = 3N

76) The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic
character of A B bond is?

a) 50%
b) 43%
c) 55.30%
d) 72.24%

Answer is d. By Hanny and Smith equation, % ionic character = 16( xA - xB) + 3.5 (xA - xB)2 Where xA and xB are
electronegativities of atom A and B respectively. % ionic character = [16( 4-1.2) + 3.5(4-1.2)2]; % ionic character =
44.8 + 27.44 = 72.24
77) Shape of BF3 (Boron trifluoride) molecule is?

a) Linear
b) Planar
c) Tetrahedral
d) Square Pyramidal

Answer is b. It shows SP2 hybridization so it is planar.

78) The single, double and triple bond lengths of carbon in carbon dioxide are respectively?

a) 1.15, 1.22 and 1.10


b) 1.22, 1.15 and 1.10
c) 1.10, 1.15 and 1.22
d) 1.15, 1.10 and 1.22

Answer is b. We know that single, double and triple bond lengths of carbon in carbon dioxide are 1.22, 1.15 and
1.10 respectively

79) The bond angle in ethylene is?

a) 109
b) 120
c) 180
d) 90

Answer is b. In ethylene both Carbon atoms are SP2- hybridised so 120 degree .

80) The bond angle in PH3 (hydrogen phosphide) is?

a) Much less than NH3


b) Equal to NH3
c) Much greater than NH3
d) Slightly greater than NH3

Answer is a. In fifth group hydride bond angle decreases from top to bottom NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3

81) Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of Haemoglobin is approximately
67200. The number of iron atoms (at. wt. of Fe = 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin is
a) 6
b) 1
c) 4
d) 2

Answer is c. Percentage of Fe = 0.33% molecular weight of haemoglobin; Weight of Fe present = (0.33/100)


67200 = 221.8; one Fe weighs 55.8 g; Therefore, 221.8/55.8 = 4; Hence, 4 atoms of iron are present in one
molecule of haemoglobin.

82) A 100 mL solution of 0.1 N HCl was titrated with 0.2N NaOH solution.The titration was discontinued after
adding 30mL of NaOH solution . The remaining the titration was completed by adding 0.25 N KOH solution
.The volume of KOH required for completeting the titration is

a) 70 mL
b) 32 mL
c) 35 mL
d) 16 mL

Answer is d. For HCl, KOH and NaOH normality = molarity ; moles HCl = 0.100 L x 0.1 N = 0.01 ; Moles OH neeed
= 0.01 ; moles NaOH added = 0.030 x 0.2 = 0.006 ; moles KOH needed = 0.01 - 0.006=0.004 ; V =
0.004/0.25=0.016 L => 16 mL

83) % age of Se in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5% by weight (at wt. = 78.4) then minimum molecular
weight of peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is

a) 15680
b) 1568
c) 156.8
d) 21360

Answer is a. Atomic mass of selenium = 78.4 ; Minimum molecular mass =(100 x 78.4)/0.5 = 78400/5 = 15680

84) A molecule which contains unpaired electrons is?

a) Carbon mono oxide


b) Molecular nitrogen
c) Molecular oxygen
d) Hydrogen peroxide
Answer is c. Molecular oxygen contains unpaired electron so it is paramagnetic (according to MOT).

85) XeF2 (Xenon difluoride) Molecule is?

a) Linear
b) Triangular planar
c) Pyramidal
d) Square planar

Answer is a. XeF2 molecule is Linear because Xe is sp hybridised

86) Assertion (A) : The equilibrium constant is fixed and is the characteristic of any given chemical reaction
at a specified temperature. Reason (R) : The composition of the final equilibrium mixture at a particular
temperature depends upon the starting amount of reactants.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is c. Read NCERT

87) Assertion (A) : NaCl solution can be purified by passage of hydrogen chloride through brine. Reason (R)
: This type of purification is based on Le-Chaterlier's principle.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is c. Read NCERT

88) Assertion (A) : Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant
for the reaction in the forward direction. Reason (R) : Equilibrium constant depends upon the way in which
the reaction is written.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct statements, Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not explanation for Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

Answer is a. Read NCERT

89) Reaction between silver nitrate and sodium chloride goes to completion because?

a) The reaction is instantaneous


b) Silver nitrate insoluble in water
c) silver chloride is sparingly soluble in water
d) solubility of silver nitrate increases with sodium chloride

Answer is c. silver chloride is sparingly soluble in water

90) Variable valency shown by?

a) Nitrogen
b) Sodium
c) Fluorine
d) Oxygen

Answer is d. oxygen show variable valency. The products formed as a result of reaction with the different valency
atoms differ in their properties. For example, ferrous oxide is nonmagnetic whereas ferric oxide has magnetic
character.

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