SCAN 1

6. FDI Two-Digit System

a. is a system of classification of oral cavity diseases
b. systematically marks the afflicted teeth surface
c. marks the individual teeth (the first number refers to the quadrant, the second one to the
tooth)
d. marks the individual teeth (the first number refers to the tooth, the second to the quadrant)

7. Which of the following belong to fillings

a. amalgam
b. crown
c. photo-composits
d. denture

8. Tooth decay
a. is an infectious disease
b. is a multi-factorial disease
c. includes congenital damage of dental hard tissues
d. causes acquired damage of dental hard tissues

9. Dental microbial plaque

a. can be mechanically removed
b. has the same composition on every tooth surface
c. is an aetiological factor of parodontopathy origin

10. Gingivostomatitis herpetica

a. blisters appear on the oral mucosa which rapidly lose their roof
b. erosion is not painful
c. is the manifestation of herpes simplex virus primary infection
d. does not belong among droplet infections

11. Micotic infections

a. candida albicans does not belong among oral cavity saprophyte
b. in mouth, candidiasis appears as acute pseudomembrane form of white plaques
c. during the treatment we indicate local antiviral drug in the form of a fluid or gel (illegible)

SCAN 2

1. Which of the following do not/ does not belong to dentistry subdiscipline

a. Periodontics
b. Orthodontics
c. Geronto-dentistry
d. Dental alveolar surgery
2. Cariogenic microorganisms
a. Metabolize low-molecular saccharides into organic acids
 b. Metabolize organic acids into low-molecular saccharides
c. Do not have metabolic activity in the oral cavity
d. Are part of the dental microbial plaque
3. For tooth brushing is true
a. We prefer horizontal method of tooth brushing
b. Adults are recommended the circular brushing method
c. Ordinary patient is recommended the tooth wipe method
d. The most appropriate is the use of electric toothbrush
4. Dental floss
a. Is used to clear the cervical part of teeth
b. Is used once a week
c. We do not use it normally
d. We clean the approximal tooth surfaces
5. Common X-ray projections are
a. Orthopantomogram
b. Intraoral X-ray
c. Bite-wing
d. Waters projection

SCAN 3

14. Xerostomia is caused by

a. reduced fluid intake
b. diarrhoea
c. pills
d. radiation therapy in the area of neck and head

15. Leukoplakia
a. belongs to precancer of the oral mucosa
b. is of bluish colour
c. is cause by Candida Albicans
d. there is not risk of later malignancy

16. The source of dental focal infection can be

a. tooth cured with amalgam filling
b. devital tooth
c. tooth with real periodontal pocket and purulent (illegible)
d. superfluous tooth

17. Obturator obturator prosthesis

a. are made at oroantral communication
b. are not made in dental prosthesis
c. are made for all patient with a complete substitution
d. in infant age are contraindicated

18. What is/are the clinical manifestation of AIDS in the oral cavity
a. oral hairy Leukoplakia
b. candida
c. Kaposis sarcoma
d. Kopliks spots

SCAN 4

22. Eruption of milk teeth is complete by the

a. 12th -14th month
b. 20th 30th month
c. 40th 50th month
d. 50th 60th month

23. What can be seen on orthopantomogram

a. sinus maxillaris
b. sinus frontalis
c. arcus zygomaticus
d. ramus mandibulae

24. Typical sing(s) of cup face, spectacle hematoma, extensive oedema of face is/are
a. alveolar protuberance fracture
b. numerous dental luxation
c. mandibular fracture
d. Le Fort fracture

25. Milk tooth mineralization begins

a. in the 5th week of i.u. life
b. in the 5th month of i.u. life
c. in the 5th week of postnatal life
d. in the 5th month of postnatal life

26. First molars teething usually takes place at the age of

a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9

27. Which of the following belong(s) to complications after tooth extraction

a. dry alveolus
b. postextraction bleeding
c. alveolitis sicca
d. development of oroantral communication

28. Permanent dentition is complete

a. when all the teeth are erupted, permanent molars as the first ones
b. when all the teeth are erupted including the permanent second molars
c. when all the teeth are erupted, including third molars
d. approximately by the age of 12-13

SCAN 5

30. A new-born baby may have

a. congenital teeth
b. eruption cysts
c. congenital epulis
d. inflammatory radicular cysts

31. Which of the following represent(s) radiotherapy complications in orofacial region

a. osteoradionecrosis
b. radicular mucositis
c. xerostomia
d. periodontitis

32. Prosthetic dentistry

a. deals only with the replacement of missing teeth in the dental ridge
b. deals also with temporomandibular joint disease
c. its treatment has tertiary preventive effect on residual teeth
d. replaces missing teeth, or all teeth leading to the improvement in and restoration of
chewing function

33. Gaps between milk teeth are considered to be

a. physiological
b. disgnative
c. very rare
d. there are no gaps

34. Crowns are indicated

a. when there is a tooth decay or when the teeth are damaged, and it is not possible to
reconstruct the tooth filling due to the extent and localization of the defect
b. as a protection of teeth against tooth decays
c. they do not provide protection of the dental pulp of fractured permanent or milk teeth
d. they provide reconstruction or renewal of denture chewing surfaces

35. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis

a. is caused by the anaerobic fuso spirochaete plaque in the flora
b. affects patients mainly above the age of 50
c. in case it is not treated, it may lead to a chronic disease
d. a bad smell from mouth is present

36. Before the making of prosthetic dentures

a. X-ray examination is not important
b. X-ray examination is needed
c. we always have to evaluate the teeth condition
d. dental hygiene is not important while carrying out the clinical examination

37. Exogenous causes of disgnations are

a. hormonal defects
b. early loss of milk teeth

SCAN 6

38. In fixed prosthetics we use the transfer of chewing force

a. dental
b. dento-mucosal
c. mucosal
d. mixed

39. Contraindications of tooth extraction are

a. compensated diabetes mellitus
b. the period of 6 month after the myocardial infarction
c. 1st and 3rd trimester of gravidity
d. gingivitis chronica

40. For permanent teeth it is true that

a. rudiments of permanent teeth are formed during i.u. life
b. rudiments of permanent teeth are formed post-natally
c. mineralization of permanent teeth is in the prenatal period
d. mineralization of permanent teeth is in the postnatal period

41. Dentogenous inflammation from a tooth may spread

a. via migratory trombophlebitis into the orbit
b. to mediastinum
c. to sinus cavernosus
d. to parapharyngeal region

42. Ranula:
a. is a retention cyst of a small salivary gland
b. occurs mainly in the lower lip due to the biting of mucosa
c. results from plugged sublingual salivary gland
d. can be one of the causes of difficult food intake in new-borns

43. Sudden teeth swaying, toothache and change in the position of teeth may be caused by
a. gingivitis chronic
b. radicular cyst
c. ranula
d. sarcoma

44. Exulceration of floor of the mouth may lead to the suspicion of

a. chronic prosthesis traumatization
b. specific inflammation
c. carcinoma
d. ameloblastoma

45. Complete dentures

a. are indicated after a complete tooth loss
b. provide dentomucosal transfer of chewing force
c. belong to partially removable dentures
d. provide only mucosal transfer of chewing force

SCAN 7

46. Concerning patients with malignancy of orofacial region

a. we extract indicated teeth before the radiotherapy takes place or 1 year after the
radiotherapy is completed
b. we extract indicated teeth immediately after the radiotherapy is completed
c. we extract indicated teeth during the radiotherapy
d. we do not extract teeth at all

47. During the conduction anaesthesia, anaesthetic is deposited

a. intradentally in the area of the planned surgery
b. into sulcus gingivalis
c. near the nerve entry or exit of the bone leading to the anaesthetization of the tissues
(illegible)
d. in the form of a gel onto the surface of the mucosa

48. The aim of the gnathic orthopaedic therapy is

a. to maintain the full number of teeth
b. to replace a missing tooth
c. to achieve mandibular laterodeviation
d. to change disgnation to eugnation
49. A removable partial denture
a. uses the patients residual teeth to ensure retention
b. uses the patients residual teeth to ensure stability
c. uses the patients residual teeth to ensure the transfer of chewing force
d. does not use the patients residual teeth at all

50. Milk teeth

a. there are 20 of them
b. there are 24 of them
c. there are 2 molars per quadrant
d. there are 2 premolars per quadrant