Roll No. . DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B./Vth Sem./2015-16/ET/L.o.Prop.

I
Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70
November-2015
Law of Property-I
Note: I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section A and Section B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt any four questions from section-A and any two from section-B.
III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. What do mean by the substantial complied with condition precedent as mentioned in Section 26
of the Transfer of the Property Act? Justify whether this compliance is fulfilled in the following
cases-
(i) Raju transfers Rs five lakh to Mohan on the condition that he shall marry with the consent of
Puranchand, Ghumanchand and Rosy. Raju marries in the life time of all these three but with
the consent of Puranchand and Rosy only.
(ii) Babloo transfers Rs. two lakh to Chanchal on condition that he shall go to London with the
consent of his father, mother and elder brother. Chanchal goes to London without their
consent, but obtains their consent after reaching there.
(iii) Jacob transfers a house located at Lucknow, worth Rs. twenty lakh to Irani on the condition
that she shall marry with the consent of Ramlal, Pannalal and Hiralal. Hiralal dies. Irani
marries with the consent of Ramlal and Pannalal.
2. What are the precautions necessary under the T.P.A when a property is transferred to U.B.P.? Mikel
transfers a Kothi located in Sahashtradhara, Dehradun for life to Albert Dsouza, then to Anthony
for life and then to the unborn child of Britney for life (first child). Examine the nature of transfer
of this property and decide whether it is a valid or a void transfer.
3. Explain the doctrine of Nemo dat quo non habet and how this doctrine is applicable in Section
41, T.P.A? Do you agree that the Benami Transaction Act, 1988 protects the honest and bonafide
transferee from transferor? Discuss in the light of two factual examples/decided case law and latest
position in this regard.
4. What are the consequences of non registration of sale deed? A is the owner of a piece of land
entered into agreement for its sale at Rs. twenty lakh, with B. On payment of Rs. five lakh as the
advance amount, he handed over the possession to B but failed to execute a sale deed in favour of
the vendee. B constructed a boundary wall, but this land was encroached upon by the trespassers on
behest of A. Advice B for further course of action. Discuss also the entitlements and liabilities of
the seller before and after the sale.
5. Discuss the doctrine of feeding the grant by estoppels. What are the impacts of the doctrine on
purchasers rights against vendors imperfect title? Discuss the relevant statutory provisions with
decided cases.
6. Discuss the doctrine of part-performance as incorporated in the T.P.A. How is it different from
English equitable doctrine of part-performance? Support your answer with the help of relevant
case-laws.
(SECTION B) (05X02)
7. Write short note on legal incidents of the property.
8. Differences between vested interest and contingent interest
9. Differences between Condition precedent and Condition subsequent
10. Differences between Indian law and English law on doctrine of election
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Roll No DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B./Vth Sem./2015-16/E.T./Ban. Law

Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70

November - 2015
Banking Law
Note: - I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section - A and Section - B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt 4 (four) questions from Section- A and 2 (two) questions from Section-B.
III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. What were the reasons for the nationalization of banks in India? Outline the argument for
and against the nationalization of banks in the light of the Bank Nationalization Case.
2. Discuss the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 with regard to:
(a) Licensing of Banks in India and branch expansion
(b) Moratorium and Amalgamation of banks.
3. Bankers obligation to maintain the secrecy of customers account is not absolute.
Discuss.
4. Explain the quantitative and qualitative methods employed by the Reserve Bank of India
in order to make its credit policy effective.
5. Discuss the composition and powers of Debt Recovery Tribunals constituted under the
Recovery of Debt due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act 1993? Support your answer
with the help of case law.
6. 'Banking Ombudsman' was created for quick and honest redressal of grievances of
customers. How effective is the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 in redressing the
grievances of the customers? Discuss the procedure for filing complaint to and redressal
of grievances by the Banking Ombudsman.

(SECTION B) (02X05)
7. Reforms in banking sector are in tune with liberalization. Discuss
8. Describe the formalities to be observed and the precautions to be taken in the opening of
accounts of partnership firms and Trust.
9. Discuss the functions undertaken by NABARD and its role in the development of banks
in India.
10. Discuss the law laid down in Mardia Chemicals Ltd v Union of India in light of
SARFAESI ACT, 2002.

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 Roll No. DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B./V th Sem./2015-16/E.T/C.L.-I

Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70

November-2015
Corporate law- I
Note: - I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section - A and Section - B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt 4 (four) questions from Section-A and 2 (two) questions from Section-B.

III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. Doctrine of 'constructive notice' and 'indoor management' are conflicting doctrines.
Examine the two doctrines in the light of the above statement. Also state the exceptions,
if any, to the above doctrines.
2. What is the meaning of preference share capital of a company? Explain the various
kinds of preference shares a company is allowed to issue, stating the necessary
provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 and the rules framed thereunder.
3. "Majority has its own way but minority has its say". Critically examine the above
statement in the light of the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
4. 'Buyback of shares, though reduces the share capital, is still allowed under the company
law'. Explaining the rationale of allowing buyback of shares, discuss in detail the
provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 regarding buyback of shares.
5. Define 'charge' and bring out the characteristics of fixed and floating charge. Also
explain the effect of non-registration of a charge distinguishing between the provisions
of the Companies Act, 1956 and the Companies Act, 2013.
6. Explain the importance of corporate governance in the present business scenario. How
is the concept of corporate governance assimilated in the Indian Companies Act, 2013?

(SECTION B) (02X05)
7. 'A company cannot issue shares at a discount'. Examine the statement with exceptions,
if any.
8. What are the conditions to be fulfilled for making an Initial Public Offering?
9. Comment on the binding nature of memorandum of association and articles of
association.
10. Write a note on the nature of debenture and various kinds of debenture a company can
issue.

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Roll No.. DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B./Vth Sem./2015-16/ET/.Cr.P.C.

Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70

November - 2015
Criminal Procedure Code
Note: - I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section - A and Section - B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt 4 (four) questions from Section-A and 2 (two) questions from Section-B.
III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. What is the role and object of the code of criminal procedure in the administration of
criminal justice? Explain.
2. What do you mean by arrest? Who can arrest? Explain the rights of the person
arrested.
3. Explain the provisions regarding suspension, remission and commutation of sentences
under the Criminal Procedure Code.
4. Explain types of appeals in criminal cases along with differences between review,
reference and revision.
5. How does the scheme for granting prayer for concessional treatment made by
accused pleading guilty voluntarily overcome the objection and apprehension
entertained by those who doubt the feasibility of the concept? Comment.
6. Write a detailed note on the victims rights to information, participation and
protection in criminal proceedings.
(SECTION B) (02X05)
7. A and B assisted C to kill Z by providing C the weapons which was used to
kill Z. Can A, B and C be charged jointly or separately for the same offence.
Advice.
8. How is probation different from suspended sentence and parole?
9. Find out the distinction between issue-estoppels or res judicata and double jeopardy or
autrefois acquit.
10. A teacher raped his student twice and threatened her not to disclose it to anybody.
After three months, she complained stomachache to her mother and on medical
examination it was found that she was pregnant. After this an FIR was lodged. Can
the delay in filing FIR be condoned? Give reasons.

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Roll No. . DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B./Vth Sem./2015-16/ET/I.O.S. (A)
Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70
November-2015
Interpretation of Statutes
Note: - I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section - A and Section - B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt 4 (four) questions from Section-A and 2 (two) questions from Section-B.
III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. What do you understand by retrospective operation of a statute? Is the legislature empowered to enact a law
with retrospective effect? To what extent can the penal and fiscal statues operate retrospectively?
2. What are internal and external aids to interpretation of statues? Explain and assess the importance of
following in Interpretation of Statues
(i) Parliamentary History
(ii) Definition clause
(iii) Reference to other statues
3. For interpreting the words vegetable and green vegetable in clauses providing for exemption from tax
liability under various Sales Tax legislations, the Indian courts including the Supreme Court of India were
having various choices in interpreting these terms ranging from botanical, dictionary and ordinary meaning
of the said words. Clearly bring out which rule of interpretation was adopted by the Supreme Court of India
while interpreting these words, meaning given to them and the rationale behind such interpretation.
4. Mr. Balwinder was an attorney in Kashmir. In 1953, after suffering four heart attacks by age 43, his doctor
advised him to spend winters in a warm climate. The taxpayer and his family immediately moved to
Bangalore, where they resided for the ensuing three months in an apartment rented for Rs500 per month.
The taxpayer claimed the rental payment as a deduction for a medical expense under S.213.
Section 213 has been in the Code for a long, long time. It grants a deduction for amounts paid for the
diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease.
The question for the Court: Was the taxpayer entitled to the deduction? The IRS stipulated that the
taxpayers sojourn in Bangalore was medically necessary. So, the only remaining statutory interpretation
question was whether the term amounts paid for the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of
disease included lodging at a place to which the taxpayer had travelled for mitigation of disease.
5. Sections 16 and 17 of the Recreational Land Act are:
S. 16. No interference with enjoyment of land: When land has been designated by the minister for use as a
picnic area or for any other use, all other existing use of land must cease.
S. 17 Designation of land: The Minister is hereby authorised to designate land for the purpose of Section
16.
Chitter is the Minister responsible for administering S. 16 and S. 17 of the Recreational Land Act. On 26
January Chitter designated some land known as Wild Scrub for use by Aborigines as camp sites and for
hunting and gathering. At the time this order was made, Panama Main Ltd was engaged in underground
mining of coal under Wild Scrub pursuant to mining leases. Advise Panama Main whether it must cease
mining. Would your answer be any different if S. 17 was not in the Act?
6. What are mandatory provisions? How do they differ from directory provisions? Explain with the help of
decided cases.

(SECTION B) (02X05)
7. Under the Official Secrets Act, 1920, it was an offence to obstruct a member of the armed forces 'in the
vicinity' of a prohibited place. The defendant was actually in the prohibited place, rather than 'in the
vicinity' of it, at the time of obstruction. Advice.
8. Write a short note on doctrine of pith and substance.
9. Explain the rule of casus omisus?
10. Differentiate between ejusdem generis and noscitur-a-socii

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Roll No. . DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B./Vth Sem./2015-16/ET/I.O.S. (B)
Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70
November-2015
Interpretation of Statutes
Note: - I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section - A and Section - B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt 4 (four) questions from Section-A and 2 (two) questions from Section-B.
III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. A statute is to be construed according to the intent of the makers. However, this is not done by simply discovering
the intent of the makers from the legislative history rather the meaning is to be given by using the rules and
principles of interpretation. In case of ambiguity, resort to legislative history is permissible but an interpretation is
not wrong merely because it rejects the original narrative of the legislative history. Critically examine the nature
of the phrase intention of the makers in the light of the given statement.
2. Write a detailed note on the journey of Hansard as an external aid to interpretation of statutes in England and
India.
3. (A) Noscitur a Sociis is a rule wider than the rule of ejusdem generis; rather the latter rule is only an application (7.5)
of the former. Explain the given statement with the help of suitable illustrations. Marks
(B) Explain the rationale behind the acceptance of challenge to the constitutionality of death penalty in India by (7.5)
the Supreme Court of India in Jagmohan Singh v. State of U.P., 1973 and Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab, Marks
1980, despite the fact that the framers of the Indian Constitution have explicitly recognised death penalty as a
punishment in Article 72 of the Constitution.
4. (A) Statutes can be interpreted progressively, keeping in mind the social, economic and political realities of the (7.5)
time. How does the Supreme Court then decide in some cases that a particular relief can only be given by Marks
resorting to a provision like Article 142 of the Constitution of India and not by way of progressive
interpretation of statutes?
(B) Distinguish between an adjudicatory issue from a non-adjudicatory issue. (7.5)
Marks
5. A a Hindu boy aged 24 years files a suit in the civil court seeking share in the property of his putative Hindu
father B as per section 16(3) of the Hindu Marriage Act, which gives the right to the child of a void or voidable
marriage in the property of the parents. His mother never married his father who was already married at the time
when A was begotten. B opposes the suit on the ground that A was not born out of a void or voidable
marriage, as he never married the mother of A and hence section 16 (3) is not applicable. He further argues that
in any case, he does not have any self acquired property and section16 (3) only applies to self acquired property
and not to ancestral property. A has come to you seeking help. Suggest A some cogent arguments that he can
advance in the court.
6. 18 MLAs of a ruling political party jointly write to the Governor of the State withdrawing their support to the
Government headed by the leader of their own legislative party and the Chief Minister of the State alleging
rampant corruption and nepotism. The Chief Minister files a petition before the Speaker of the Legislative
Assembly seeking disqualification of these 18 MLAs from the Legislative Assembly under 2(1) (a) of the Tenth
Schedule of the Constitution of India on the ground that by writing such a letter to the Governor, they have
voluntarily given up their membership of the political party which is a ground for disqualification. MLAs in
their defense argue that they have no intention to desert their political party. Step into the shoes of the Speaker and
decide the fate of the petition.
(SECTION B) (02X05)
Short answer type questions:
7. Why is precision in statutory provisions not always desirable?
8. Explain the rule of reddendo singula singulis.
9. Declaratory laws are to be interpreted retrospectively. Explain.
10. What are the effects of repeal of an enactment under the General Clauses Act, 1897?

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Roll No. DR. RMLNLU, LKO B.A.LL.B. Vth Sem./2015-16/ET/L. Evid.
Time - 03 Hours Max-Marks :- 70

November-2015
Law of Evidence
Note: - I. The question paper is divided in 2 parts i.e. Section - A and Section - B.
II. The Examinee is required to attempt 4 (four) questions from Section - A and 2 (two) questions from Section - B.
III. Figures in the margin indicate the marks.

(SECTION A) (04X15)
1. Discuss the relevance of similar facts evidence.
2. Critically analyze relevance of opinion of the third party. Also discuss its evidentiary value.
3. Discuss and illustrate the best evidence rule. Differentiate between primary and secondary
evidence.
4. A client cannot be compelled and a legal adviser cannot be allowed to disclose
communication passing between them in professional confidence. Explain with the help of
relevant cases.
5. Section 112 of the Evidence Act, 1872, deals only with the presumption of legitimacy and not
paternity. Explain.
6. Section 102 of the Evidence Act, 1872 embodies a test for ascertaining on which side the
burden of proof lies. Discuss in detail with exceptions and recent cases.

(SECTION B) (02X05)
Explain/Comment:-
7. Evidence has to be weighed and not counted.
8. Cross Examination.
9. Presumption of Death.
10. (Sec. 118)
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