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1.

Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible


in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are
assumptions except for which one?
A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project
B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays
C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only
D. A predetermined budget of $125,000
2. Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the
project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that stakeholders
are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle. When does a
stakeholder exert the most influence over a project?
A. At the projects start
B. During the projects execution
C. During the projects planning phase
D. During the projects closing phase
3. You are the project manager of an industrial expansion in your city. Which one of
the following groups could be viewed as a negative stakeholder?
A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion
B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion
C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the community
D. The change control board for your project because they do not want changes to the
project scope
4. Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the
following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one?
A. The project manager
B. The project management team
C. Influencers
D. Government agencies
5. You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the
project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder management.
They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder management. Who
identifies project stakeholders and determines their requirements for the project?

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A. The project champion
B. The project team
C. Influencers
D. The project sponsor
6. A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your
organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of the
following is needed first for this quality improvement project?
A. A quality management plan
B. Quality control mechanisms
C. A project charter
D. A communications management plan
7. You are the project manager for your organization and youre working with
management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard project
charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?
A. To authorize the project
B. To identify the project manager
C. To determine the project budget and schedule
D. To launch the project
8. A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple
departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually charter this
project?
A. You, the project manager
B. The functional managers of each affected department
C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization
D. The project management team
9. You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is
refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the
following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. A project manager
B. A risk management plan
C. Project scope
D. A project charter
10. As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive
project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try to use
the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the project. Given
this, who should charter the project?

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A. The project manager
B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power
C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for authorizing the
projects funding
D. The primary customer affected by the projects outcome
11. Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and shes
working with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beths charter,
she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to be
approved. Which one does not need to be defined?
A. The project manager and the authority level
B. Anticipated quality standards
C. Summary milestones
D. A summary budget
12. The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope.
Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan details
how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the project?
A. The scope management plan
B. The change control system
C. The communications management plan
D. The requirements management plan
13. You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing
for another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements-
gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project. The
customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the building by
10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time schedule change. What
must happen next?
A. The project scope must be revised.
B. The project must be started over.
C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the WBS.
D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.
14. You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project
team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project, and
both of you realize that changes often happen in the fieldchanges that may be
different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning activity
is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in the blueprints
in the office. You want consistency between whats actually being constructed and what
the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process called? (Choose the best
answer.)

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A. Project management planning
B. Change assessment
C. Scope validation
D. Configuration management
15. In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their
impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire
project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled, changed,
and approved?
A. The change control system
B. The project management information system
C. The change management system
D. The scope management system
16. Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and hes
working with management and the project team to define the change control system. All
of the following activities should be planned as part of the change control system except
for which one?
A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)
B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes
C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes
D. A methodology to track team personnel changes
17. You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project.
Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on
creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is the
best answer to Marcys query?
A. A documented change control system is required by management.
B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.
C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve because the
impact of each change must be considered before it is approved.
D. A documented change control system allows the projects profitability to improve
because each change may affect the profit and loss of the project.
18. You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working
with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing
project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique?

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A. Influence diagrams
B. A network diagram
C. A process flowchart
D. Cause-and-effect diagrams
19. Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed
and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all but
one of the following. Which doesnt it include?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Root causes of risks
C. Updated risk categories
D. A list of potential responses
20. You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and youre working with your
project team to create the projects risk management plan. Which one of the following
items is NOT part of the risk management plan?
A. Budgeting
B. Risk categories
C. The risk register
D. Methodology
21. You are the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may
be unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to the risk
identification process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Pareto charts
C. The project scope statement
D. The risk management plan
22. Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project
risks. Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?
A. Control charts
B. Defect repair review
C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis
D. A product analysis
23. You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This
project will replace 128 network servers on your companys network. Your project
sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the quantitative
risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative risk analysis
technique?

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A. Risk categorization
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. A probability-impact matrix
D. A risk register
24. Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager
make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each variable?
A. Alternatives identification
B. The precedence diagramming method
C. The arrow diagramming method
D. A decision tree
25. Which risk diagramming technique can help predict project cost based on
probability and cost of risk?
A. Cost simulation
B. The Pareto chart
C. An Ishikawa diagram
D. A decision tree
26. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating
in a functional environment, youd like some compromise with your functional manager.
Which individual has the power in a functional organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager
27. Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your
project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which one of
the following?
A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet performance
objectives
B. Funds available to invest in a new project
C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed
D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested in a
savings account rather than in a project
28. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating

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in a strong matrix environment, youd like some compromise with your functional
manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager
29. Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. Shes working
with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the following
statements about the project plan is true?
A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.
B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.
C. Management must approve the project plan.
D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plans approval.
30. Why should the project manager and the project team invite the stakeholders to
participate in the project planning sessions?
A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project planning
because their presence may stifle creativity among the project team members.
B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the project
work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.
C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning sessions in case
the project team moves away from their requirements. This way they can correct the
discussion and keep the planning on track for their deliverables.
D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the
project plan.
31. Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders,
the project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting. What
is this type of meeting called?
A. A requirements-gathering meeting
B. A risk identification meeting
C. A kick-off meeting
D. A team development meeting
32. You are the project manager for your company and youve recently been
assigned to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting
happen?

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A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first time
B. When the project manager has approved the project plan
C. When management has approved the initial project plan
D. At the start of scope validation
33. You are the project manager for your company and youre managing a new
project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesnt want
to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.
B. It allows the project to begin.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the projects purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
34. Beth wants to host a project kick-off meeting for her new project. Which of the
following statement about the project kick-off meeting is false?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.
B. Only the project team should attend.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the projects purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
35. A project manager has added time between two activities. This is an example of
which one of the following?
A. Lag
B. Lead
C. Crashing
D. Fast-tracking
36. You are working with a vendor that is completing some of the project activities.
Some of the vendors activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following
statements about the critical path is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float.
C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.
D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.
37. You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning
project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a predetermined
date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the activity, the work will
take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team members to the work, the
task wont necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is because of which one of the
following?

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A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation
B. The law of diminishing returns
C. Parkinsons Law
D. Theory Z
38. You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. Youre
working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the project.
Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know when the
largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you tell the project
sponsor?
A. During the initiation processes
B. During the planning processes
C. During the execution processes
D. During the control processes
39. You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the
project plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the
walls to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls
are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the
critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem that
wont change the project end date?
A. Add lead time to the painting activity.
B. Add lag time to the painting activity.
C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.
D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between activities can
be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the project.
40. You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected
to add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on time.
This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Risk management
B. Time management
C. Crashing
D. Fast-tracking
41. You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project
is running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-to-
start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an example of
which one of the following?

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A. Crashing
B. Fast-tracking
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Expert judgment
42. Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and hes using earned value
management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project has an
SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what?
A. The project is behind schedule.
B. The project is ahead of schedule.
C. The project is losing money.
D. The project is 80 percent complete.
43. A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has
identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes below
80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what?
A. Risk
B. The management horizon
C. Risk impact
D. The threshold
44. The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the
results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of the
first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following?
A. The kill point
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Project scheduling
45. Which of the following can best be used to determine the true progress of a
project?
A. Variance reports
B. Baselines
C. Change requests approved versus declined
D. Interviews with the project team
46. A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is
the most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?

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A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel the project.
B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the project
manager.
C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove the
project manager and replace him with a more experienced project manager.
D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the project
scope.
47. Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project
manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work. The
project manager is using which form of estimating?
A. Parametric
B. Analogous
C. Bottom-up
D. Expert judgment
48. Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational
process assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements
best defines quality assurance?
A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. If the
results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager applies root cause
analysis to determine the cause of the poor performance and then eliminates the cause.
B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the relevant quality
standards.
C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective actions are
applied to improve the product and the project.
D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own quality
procedures.
49. You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the
project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance?
A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation
B. Benefit cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Design of experiments
50. Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you
should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software. Thus,
you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In which
process is the make-or-buy analysis used?

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A. Contract closeout
B. Source selection
C. Purchase planning
D. Initiating
51. Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has
a risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and
omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Countermeasure
52. You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff
members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members are
no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the procured
project team members may be excused from the project?
A. The contract between your organization and the vendor
B. The staffing management plan
C. The scope management plan
D. The schedule management plan
53. You are hosting a bidders conference. Which one of the following is the best
approach for managing the session?
A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.
B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.
D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.
54. You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an
electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is
finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the following
must you do next in regard to the electrician?
A. Complete the invoice
B. Pay the invoice
C. Inspect the work results
D. Sign off on the work
55. The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and
deemed acceptable. The project has been completed and management wants to know

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exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project. Which of the
following is most likely to happen in this situation?
A. An audit of the project plan
B. An audit of the quality of the project
C. An audit of the procurement documents
D. An audit of the project team members work
56. You are the project manager for your organization and youre starting the project
process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example of a
screening system?
A. An organizational breakdown structure
B. An independent estimate
C. A requirement for the seller to have a PMP on staff
D. A weighted model
57. You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is
refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the
following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. The project manager
B. The risk management plan
C. The project scope
D. The project charter
58. You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the
project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the
resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the following
stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?
A. Functional managers
B. The project champion
C. Project team members
D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this structure.
59. Management says that your project is taking too long to complete. Which one of
the following is the best solution to this problem?

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A. Add lead time
B. Add lag time
C. Add qualified resources to the critical path
D. Fast-track the project
60. You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining
the physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will
be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following?
A. Resource selecting
B. Source selection
C. Resource planning
D. Resource process selection
61. David is a project manager for his company and hes reviewing the defined
change control processes as part of his companys enterprise environmental factors. In
his review, he sees that changes to the projects product are controlled by a particular
system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the projects product?
A. The scope configuration system
B. The change configuration system
C. The product scope
D. The configuration management system
62. You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the
project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She
believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she
proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable. This
change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent. Which one of
the following best describes the cost of the materials?
A. Gold plating
B. Cost of quality
C. The project management cost
D. Discretionary costs
63. You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several
OSHA guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the
safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate
reference to these guidelines?

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A. Constraints
B. Assumptions
C. Standards
D. Regulations
64. Finish this statement: _______________ is planned into a project, not inspected
in.
A. Quality
B. Safety
C. Control
D. Teamwork
65. Deans company uses ISO 9000 as part of its manufacturing environment. Dean
has been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO
9000?
A. A quality management system
B. A quality control system
C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects
D. A method of following procedures created internally by an organization
66. You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project
calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your project
team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in the customer
service support of the call center agents. You and the call center manager have set
operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the following is an operational
definition?
A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.
B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30 days.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.
D. All customer service reps will answer telephone calls with their name and a standard
greeting.
67. The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month
analysis of production in a manufacturers environment. The quality engineer now wants
to plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or
diagram that will best satisfy the request?

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A. A Pareto chart
B. An Ishikawa diagram
C. A control chart
D. A flowchart
68. Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to
the achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is
NOT an example of the cost of poor quality?
A. Rework
B. Corrective actions
C. Safety measures
D. A loss of customers
69. As a project manager and a PMP candidate, you should be able to discern
quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about quality
control is true?
A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project
deliverables.
B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in alignment
with the project scope.
C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the work.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.
70. Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans
are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in order to
track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the quality
management plans not dictate?
A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality improvement
D. Six Sigma programs
71. What is the difference between quality control and scope validation?

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A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been completed.
B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has been
completed according to the project scope.
C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control while
the project team does scope validation.
D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control without
the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.
72. You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project
team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system from as
part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which subsidiary
plan should be updated?
A. The risk management plan
B. The risk response plan
C. The procurement management plan
D. The scope management plan
73. Risks are identified, monitored, tracked, and responded to. One element which
must also be identified is a risk trigger. What is a risk trigger?
A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.
B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.
C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.
D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to occur.
74. You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks
within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will cost
your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency amount youll
need for this risk event?
A. $150,000
B. $30,000
C. $75,000
D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.
75. You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your
organizations sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each of
the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method of
dealing with the project risks?

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A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.
B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.
C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk event is
coming into the project schedule.
D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk events
overlap at any one time.
76. You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several
pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller
contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What stipulation
must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the project?
A. A deadline
B. It should not exceed specifications
C. The costs per hour
D. The total costs for the procured work
77. You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more
than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the project
is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the shopping
area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she is working on
that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk response you have
planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk response that Mary
should now implement is which one of the following?
A. A countermeasure
B. A mitigation
C. A transference
D. A contingency plan
78. Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved
through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance is an
example of which risk response?
A. Trigger
B. Threshold
C. Transference
D. Countermeasure
79. You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project
is scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a
new risk in your project. What must be updated?

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A. The risk response plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The scope statement
80. As a PMP, you should be familiar with the project management processes and
their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control?
A. The project management plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. Work performance data
81. Your project is moving toward closure and several risks that have been identified
did not come into fruition. What should be updated?
A. The historical records
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The risk response plan
82. Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has
not changed. Controlling risks also includes the proper and quick reaction to the risk
event should the events status change in the project. Which of the following is NOT a
valid reason for risk control?
A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid
B. To identify trends within risk identification
C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate
D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid
83. You and your project team have just completed the Warehouse Construction
Project. For the project to be officially complete, what must happen next?
A. Quality inspections
B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms
C. Scope validation
D. Contract closeout
84. Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team
and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When does
scope validation happen?

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A. Only at the end of the project
B. At the end of each project phase
C. With each deliverable
D. As the customer sees fit
85. You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven
and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project
altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you
responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best
describes scope validation in this case?
A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were created up
to the point of the projects cancellation.
B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management canceled the
project due to circumstances outside of your control.
C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.
D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent complete.
86. Which one of the following is NOT a component of administrative closure?
A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion
B. Rework
C. Operational transfer of the projects product
D. Lessons learned
87. You are the project manager of the NHX Project. The project has several
vendors. Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract.
What should happen next?
A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Lessons learned
88. You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The
vendor is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their
demands. What is the likely outcome of this scenario?
A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Procurement audits
89. You are the project manager of a customer relationship management program
that will involve people from all parts of your organization. Your project team will include

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representatives of people from all parts of the company. Functional managers need to
know when their workers will be released from your project. Which one of the following
is the subsidiary project plan that documents this information?
A. The human resources management plan
B. The staffing management plan
C. The WBS
D. The cost control plan
90. Marcy is no longer needed on your project. You are the project manager in a
projectized organization operating under a PMO. How can Marcy be released from the
project team?
A. Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time through
project completion.
B. Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members stay on the
project until the project is completed.
C. The project manager may elect to remove Marcy.
D. The project manager should meet with the PMO to remove Marcy from the project
team.
91. Elizabeth is a project team member and she doesnt want to complete the
lessons learned documentation on this project. Elizabeth doesnt see the value in the
documentation or the process. What is the point of the lessons learned documentation?
A. It keeps the project manager focused on the project work.
B. It maintains communication with management.
C. It ensures that all of the project work is complete.
D. It allows other project managers to learn from this project.
92. Which process includes the documentation of the projects success or failure?
A. Configuration management
B. Administrative closure
C. Quality control
D. Scope validation
93. All projects should include a final project report thats archived as part of the
projects organizational process assets. Why should the final project report be archived?
(Choose the best answer.)

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A. In case the customer has a change to the project scope
B. In case the projects finances are ever called into question
C. In case the organization needs to update the projects product
D. In case future project teams need the projects information to help them complete
their project
94. Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict within a project?
A. Project priorities
B. Schedule
C. Personality conflicts
D. Quality
95. Which of the following is not an example of contributing to the project
management knowledge base?
A. Giving a lecture on project risk management
B. Writing articles on project management topics
C. Referring a friend to the PMI website for information on obtaining the PMP title
D. Publishing a book on project management methodologies
96. You have written a book on project management thats for sale in bookstores and
through websites. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. A conflict of interest if you are a PMP
B. A breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. An example of contributing to the project management knowledge base
D. An example of providing the public with information on the PMP career and
certification
97. You have created a newsletter for your company that provides monthly
information on PMP certification, project management methodologies, and how your
company is implementing project management. This is an example of which one of the
following?
A. Ensuring integrity
B. Contributing to the knowledge base
C. Applying professional knowledge
D. Balancing stakeholder interests
98. You are teaching a project management class for your project team members.
This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional
responsibility?

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A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. A contribution to the project management knowledge base
99. You are taking a project management class to help you better prepare to be a
project manager. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to
professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. Enhancing individual competence
100. You are a new project manager for your organization. Your company does not
have the resources to send you to a project management training class at this time.
Which one of the following is not a method you could use to enhance your individual
competence until you can complete formal training?
A. Do nothing. You cannot enhance your competence without formal training.
B. Read historical information from past projects.
C. Emulate successful project managers.
D. Serve as an assistant to another project manager.

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1. Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible
in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are
assumptions except for which one?
A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project
B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays
C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only
D. A predetermined budget of $125,000
D is the correct answer.
A predetermined project budget is a cost constraint. Planning on agreeable weather for
a construction project, allowing time for travel delays, and completing project work
during daylight hours are incorrect because these are assumptions.
2. Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the
project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that stakeholders
are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle. When does a
stakeholder exert the most influence over a project?
A. At the projects start
B. During the projects execution
C. During the projects planning phase
D. During the projects closing phase
A is the correct answer.
Stakeholders have the most influence on a projects success at the start of the project.
During the projects execution, during the projects planning phase, and during the
projects closing phase are incorrect because they are false statements.
3. You are the project manager of an industrial expansion in your city. Which one of
the following groups could be viewed as a negative stakeholder?
A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion
B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion
C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the community
D. The change control board for your project because they do not want changes to the
project scope
B is the correct answer.
Because the environmental group is opposed to your project, they are viewed as a
negative stakeholder. The finance department that will pay for the expansion, the city
council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the community, and the
change control board for your project because they do not want changes to the project
scope are incorrect because they are positive stakeholders.

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4. Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the
following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one?
A. The project manager
B. The project management team
C. Influencers
D. Government agencies
D is the correct answer.
Because government agencies are not key stakeholders on every project. The project
manager, the project management team, and influencers are incorrect because they are
key stakeholders on every project.
5. You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the
project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder management.
They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder management. Who
identifies project stakeholders and determines their requirements for the project?
A. The project champion
B. The project team
C. Influencers
D. The project sponsor
B is the correct answer.
The project team is responsible for identifying stakeholders and determining the
requirements for the project. The project champion, influencers, and the project sponsor
are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
6. A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your
organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of the
following is needed first for this quality improvement project?
A. A quality management plan
B. Quality control mechanisms
C. A project charter
D. A communications management plan
C is the correct answer.
All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. A quality management
plan, quality control mechanisms, and a communications management plan are
incorrect because none of them is needed first for a quality improvement project.
7. You are the project manager for your organization and youre working with
management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard project
charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?

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A. To authorize the project
B. To identify the project manager
C. To determine the project budget and schedule
D. To launch the project
A is the correct answer.
All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. The charter authorizes
the project. To identify the project manager, to determine the project budget and
schedule, and to launch the project are incorrect because they are not the primary
concern of a project charter.
8. A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple
departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually charter this
project?
A. You, the project manager
B. The functional managers of each affected department
C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization
D. The project management team
C is the correct answer.
All projects should be chartered and authorized external to the project and with the
power to execute decisions for resources and time. You, the project manager; the
functional managers of each affected department, and the project management team
are incorrect because none of them is to charter the project.
9. You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is
refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the
following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. A project manager
B. A risk management plan
C. Project scope
D. A project charter
D is the correct answer.
The functional manager is likely not allowing her employees to work on the project
because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A project manager, a risk
management plan, and project scope are incorrect because they are false statements.
10. As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive
project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try to use
the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the project. Given
this, who should charter the project?

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A. The project manager
B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power
C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for authorizing the
projects funding
D. The primary customer affected by the projects outcome
C is the correct answer.
The project should be chartered by an entity outside of the project organization that can
authorize the project funding. The project manager, the functional manager that is
perceived to have the most power, and the primary customer affected by the projects
outcome are incorrect because they are false statements.
11. Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and shes
working with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beths charter,
she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to be
approved. Which one does not need to be defined?
A. The project manager and the authority level
B. Anticipated quality standards
C. Summary milestones
D. A summary budget
B is the correct answer.
Anticipated quality standards are not part of the project charter requirements. The
project charter should define the project purpose, project objectives, high-level
requirements, assumptions and constraints for the project, risks, project boundaries,
milestones, budget, stakeholder list, approval requirements, project manager, and the
project sponsor. The project manager and the authority level, summary milestones, and
a summary budget are incorrect because they all need to be defined.
12. The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope.
Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan details
how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the project?
A. The scope management plan
B. The change control system
C. The communications management plan
D. The requirements management plan
D is the correct answer.
The requirements management plan defines everything when it comes to identifying,
documenting, and controlling project requirements. The scope management plan, the
change control system, and the communications management plan are incorrect
because they are false statements.

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13. You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing
for another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements-
gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project. The
customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the building by
10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time schedule change. What
must happen next?
A. The project scope must be revised.
B. The project must be started over.
C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the WBS.
D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.
A is the correct answer.
Revisions are a special type of project schedule change, and cause the project start
date and, more likely, the project end date to be changed. Revisions typically stem from
project scope changes. The project must be started over, nothing; the project manager
can add the 10,000 square feet to the WBS, and the change must be managed through
the cost control system are incorrect because they are false statements.
14. You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project
team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project, and
both of you realize that changes often happen in the fieldchanges that may be
different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning activity
is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in the blueprints
in the office. You want consistency between whats actually being constructed and what
the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process called? (Choose the best
answer.)
A. Project management planning
B. Change assessment
C. Scope validation
D. Configuration management
D is the correct answer.
This is an example of configuration management, which seeks consistency in tracking
and monitoring approved changes in a project. Project management planning, change
assessment, and scope validation are incorrect because they are false statements.
15. In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their
impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire
project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled, changed,
and approved?

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A. The change control system
B. The project management information system
C. The change management system
D. The scope management system
A is the correct answer.
The change control system seeks to control how deliverables are controlled, changed,
and approved. The project management information system, the change management
system, and the scope management system are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.
16. Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and hes
working with management and the project team to define the change control system. All
of the following activities should be planned as part of the change control system except
for which one?
A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)
B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes
C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes
D. A methodology to track team personnel changes
D is the correct answer.
Changes to the team personnel are not part of the change control system. Methods to
identify that a change has occurred (or must occur), the process for reviewing and
approving requested changes, and a method for documenting the impact of requested
changes are incorrect because each of them is part of the change control system.
17. You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project.
Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on
creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is the
best answer to Marcys query?
A. A documented change control system is required by management.
B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.
C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve because the
impact of each change must be considered before it is approved.
D. A documented change control system allows the projects profitability to improve
because each change may affect the profit and loss of the project.
C is the correct answer.
A change control system requires that each change request be evaluated and its impact
on the project considered before approving the change request. A documented change
control system is required by management, a documented change control system is
required by the project customer, and a documented change control system allows the

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projects profitability to improve because each change may affect the profit and loss of
the project are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
18. You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working
with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing
project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique?
A. Influence diagrams
B. A network diagram
C. A process flowchart
D. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B is the correct answer.
A network diagram does not help identify risks but is instead a tool used in activity
sequencing to identify precedents and dependencies. Influence diagrams, a network
diagram, and cause-and-effect diagrams are incorrect because they are all risk
diagramming techniques.
19. Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed
and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all but
one of the following. Which doesnt it include?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Root causes of risks
C. Updated risk categories
D. A list of potential responses
A is the correct answer.
Qualitative risk analysis is not contained in the risk register. Root causes of risks,
updated risk categories, and a list of potential responses are incorrect because they are
all included in the risk register.
20. You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and youre working with your
project team to create the projects risk management plan. Which one of the following
items is NOT part of the risk management plan?
A. Budgeting
B. Risk categories
C. The risk register
D. Methodology
C is the correct answer.
The risk register is not part of the risk management plan but rather the output of the risk
identification process. Budgeting, risk categories, and methodology are incorrect
because all are part of the risk management plan.

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21. You are the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may
be unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to the risk
identification process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Pareto charts
C. The project scope statement
D. The risk management plan
B is the correct answer.
While Pareto charts are useful for quality control, they are not specific inputs to the risk
identification process. Organizational process assets, the project scope statement, and
the risk management plan are incorrect because all are inputs to the risk identification
process.
22. Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project
risks. Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?
A. Control charts
B. Defect repair review
C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis
D. A product analysis
C is the correct answer.
This technique ensures examination of the project from each of the SWOT perspectives
to increase the breadth of considered risks. It is therefore an effective risk identification
technique. Control charts, defect repair review, and a product analysis are incorrect
because they are not tools or techniques for risk identification.
23. You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This
project will replace 128 network servers on your companys network. Your project
sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the quantitative
risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative risk analysis
technique?
A. Risk categorization
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. A probability-impact matrix
D. A risk register
B is the correct answer.
Expected monetary value analysis is a statistical concept that calculates the average
outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. Therefore, it
is a quantitative analysis technique. Risk categorization, probability-impact matrix, and a
risk register are incorrect because none of them is a quantitative analysis technique.

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24. Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager
make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each variable?
A. Alternatives identification
B. The precedence diagramming method
C. The arrow diagramming method
D. A decision tree
D is the correct answer.
This is a decision tree diagram that describes a situation and the implications of each of
the available choices with the costs and rewards of each choice. Alternatives
identification, the precedence diagramming method, and the arrow diagramming
method are incorrect because they are false statements.
25. Which risk diagramming technique can help predict project cost based on
probability and cost of risk?
A. Cost simulation
B. The Pareto chart
C. An Ishikawa diagram
D. A decision tree
A is the correct answer.
Through numerous iterations, this chart describes the cumulative distribution of results
from a cost simulation. The Pareto chart, an Ishikawa diagram, and a decision tree are
incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
26. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating
in a functional environment, youd like some compromise with your functional manager.
Which individual has the power in a functional organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager
C is the correct answer.
The functional manager has the power in a functional organization. The project
manager, the customer, and the program manager are incorrect because none of them
has the power in a functional organization.
27. Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your
project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which one of
the following?

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A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet performance
objectives
B. Funds available to invest in a new project
C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed
D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested in a
savings account rather than in a project
B is the correct answer.
Working capital is the money an organization has to run the business and invest in new
opportunitieswhich includes projects. Funds that have been invested into a project
that is failing to meet performance objectives, funds available to invest in a new project,
and the amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested in a
savings account rather than in a project are incorrect because they are false
statements.
28. You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a
functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating
in a strong matrix environment, youd like some compromise with your functional
manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix organization?
A. The project manager
B. The customer
C. The functional manager
D. The program manager
A is the correct answer.
The project manager has the power in a strong matrix organization. The customer, the
functional manager, and the program manager are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.
29. Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. Shes working
with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the following
statements about the project plan is true?
A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.
B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.
C. Management must approve the project plan.
D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plans approval.
C is the correct answer.
Management must approve all project plans. A project plan is not needed for all
projects, a project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation, and
customers have the final say regarding the project plans approval are incorrect
because they are false statements.

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30. Why should the project manager and the project team invite the stakeholders to
participate in the project planning sessions?
A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project planning
because their presence may stifle creativity among the project team members.
B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the project
work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.
C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning sessions in case
the project team moves away from their requirements. This way they can correct the
discussion and keep the planning on track for their deliverables.
D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the
project plan.
D is the correct answer.
Stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the project
plan. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project planning
because their presence may stifle creativity among the project team members; the
project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the project work, so
they should be involved in the planning sessions; and the project stakeholders must be
present to monitor the planning sessions in case the project team moves away from
their requirements. This way they can correct the discussion and keep the planning on
track for their deliverables; are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this
question.
31. Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders,
the project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting. What
is this type of meeting called?
A. A requirements-gathering meeting
B. A risk identification meeting
C. A kick-off meeting
D. A team development meeting
C is the correct answer.
A project kick-off meeting gets the project moving and identifies the individuals involved
in the project. A requirements-gathering meeting, a risk identification meeting, and a
team development meeting are incorrect because they are false statements.
32. You are the project manager for your company and youve recently been
assigned to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting
happen?

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A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first time
B. When the project manager has approved the project plan
C. When management has approved the initial project plan
D. At the start of scope validation
C is the correct answer.
The project kick-off meeting happens after the initial project plan has been approved.
When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first time, when the
project manager has approved the project plan, and at the start of scope validation are
incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
33. You are the project manager for your company and youre managing a new
project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesnt want
to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.
B. It allows the project to begin.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the projects purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
C is the correct answer.
The project kick-off meeting happens so that the participants can all understand the
projects purpose. It allows all the stakeholders to meet, it allows the project to begin,
and it builds morale for all of the stakeholders are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.
34. Beth wants to host a project kick-off meeting for her new project. Which of the
following statement about the project kick-off meeting is false?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.
B. Only the project team should attend.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the projects purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
B is the correct answer.
All of the key stakeholders should attend the project kick-off meeting, not just the project
team. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another, ensures that all of the
participants understand the projects purpose, and it builds morale for all of the
stakeholders are incorrect because they are NOT false statements.
35. A project manager has added time between two activities. This is an example of
which one of the following?

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A. Lag
B. Lead
C. Crashing
D. Fast-tracking
A is the correct answer.
Lag time is waiting time. When a project manager adds time between activities, he is
adding lag. Lead, crashing, and fast-tracking are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.
36. You are working with a vendor that is completing some of the project activities.
Some of the vendors activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following
statements about the critical path is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float.
C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.
D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.
B is the correct answer.
The critical path is the path with zero float. The critical path is the path with the most
activities, the critical path is the path with the least lag, and the critical path is the path
with critical activities are incorrect because they are not true statements with regard to
the critical path.
37. You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning
project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a predetermined
date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the activity, the work will
take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team members to the work, the
task wont necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is because of which one of the
following?
A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation
B. The law of diminishing returns
C. Parkinsons Law
D. Theory Z
B is the correct answer.
The law of diminishing returns affects the yield of work in relation to work duration. The
law of diminishing returns, Parkinsons Law, and Theory Z are incorrect because they
are not valid choices for this question.
38. You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. Youre
working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the project.
Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know when the

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largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you tell the project
sponsor?
A. During the initiation processes
B. During the planning processes
C. During the execution processes
D. During the control processes
C is the correct answer.
The largest percentage of the project budget will be spent during the project execution
processes. During the initiation processes, during the planning processes, and during
the control processes are incorrect because they are false statements.
39. You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the
project plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the
walls to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls
are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the
critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem that
wont change the project end date?
A. Add lead time to the painting activity.
B. Add lag time to the painting activity.
C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.
D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between activities can
be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the project.
D is the correct answer.
Because the critical path cannot be expanded, the only logical choice is to attempt to
move the activities to later in the project. The project team should focus on other
activities while the primer cures. Add lead time to the painting activity, add lag time to
the painting activity, and change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure
faster are incorrect because they are false statements.
40. You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected
to add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on time.
This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Risk management
B. Time management
C. Crashing
D. Fast-tracking
C is the correct answer.
Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to an activity to complete it
faster. This does not always work because some activities have a fixed duration. Risk

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management, time management, and fast-tracking are incorrect because they are not
valid choices for this question.
41. You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project
is running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-to-
start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an example of
which one of the following?
A. Crashing
B. Fast-tracking
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Expert judgment
B is the correct answer.
Fast-tracking changes the relationships of activities so the project may finish sooner
than expected. Crashing, rolling wave planning and expert judgment are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
42. Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and hes using earned value
management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project has an
SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what?
A. The project is behind schedule.
B. The project is ahead of schedule.
C. The project is losing money.
D. The project is 80 percent complete.
A is the correct answer.
A schedule performance index of .80 means the project is behind schedule. The closer
to 1 the SPI is, the better the project. The project is ahead of schedule, the project is
losing money, and the project is 80 percent complete are incorrect because they are
false statements.
43. A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has
identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes below
80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what?
A. Risk
B. The management horizon
C. Risk impact
D. The threshold
D is the correct answer.
The 80 percent mark is known as a threshold. Risk, the management horizon, and risk
impact are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.

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44. The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the
results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of the
first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following?
A. The kill point
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Project scheduling
A is the correct answer.
Based on the end result of a phase, management or the customer may elect to kill a
project. Progressive elaboration, rolling wave planning, and project scheduling are
incorrect because they are false statements.
45. Which of the following can best be used to determine the true progress of a
project?
A. Variance reports
B. Baselines
C. Change requests approved versus declined
D. Interviews with the project team
B is the correct answer.
Baselines can be used to compare what is actual against what was predicted. Variance
reports, change requests approved versus declined, and interviews with the project
team are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
46. A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is
the most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?
A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel the project.
B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the project
manager.
C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove the
project manager and replace him with a more experienced project manager.
D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the project
scope.
B is the correct answer.
When a project is going badly, operating beyond its budget, or off schedule, changes
may be made to reduce the project scope or to add quality activities to ensure the
product is correct. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to
cancel the project, the project is not performing well, so a change request is made to
remove the project manager and replace him with a more experienced project manager,
and the project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the project
scope are incorrect because they are false statements.

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47. Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project
manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work. The
project manager is using which form of estimating?
A. Parametric
B. Analogous
C. Bottom-up
D. Expert judgment
B is the correct answer.
Because the project manager is using another similar project to predict the duration of
the current project, he is using the analogous method. Parametric, bottom-up, and
expert judgment are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
48. Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational
process assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements
best defines quality assurance?
A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. If the
results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager applies root cause
analysis to determine the cause of the poor performance and then eliminates the cause.
B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the relevant quality
standards.
C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective actions are
applied to improve the product and the project.
D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own quality
procedures.
B is the correct answer.
Quality assurance maps to an organizations quality policy and is typically a managerial
process. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. If the
results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager applies root cause
analysis to determine the cause of the poor performance and then eliminates the cause;
the project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective actions are applied
to improve the product and the project; and it is an international standard that helps
organizations follow their own quality procedures are incorrect because they are false
statements.
49. You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the
project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance?

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A. Herzbergs Theory of Motivation
B. Benefit cost analysis
C. Flowcharting
D. Design of experiments
A is the correct answer.
Herzbergs Theory of Motivation is based on motivating agents and hygiene agents and
is not applied to quality assurance. Benefit cost analysis, flowcharting, and design of
experiments are incorrect because they are tools that can be used with quality
assurance.
50. Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you
should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software. Thus,
you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In which
process is the make-or-buy analysis used?
A. Contract closeout
B. Source selection
C. Purchase planning
D. Initiating
C is the correct answer.
You are creating a make-or-buy analysis to determine the need to complete the work in-
house or send the work to a vendor. At this point in the project, you are completing
procurement planning. Contract closeout, source selection, and initiating are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
51. Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has
a risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and
omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Countermeasure
B is the correct answer.
Purchasing insurance as a response to a risk is transference. Mitigation, avoidance, and
countermeasure are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
52. You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff
members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members are
no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the procured
project team members may be excused from the project?

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A. The contract between your organization and the vendor
B. The staffing management plan
C. The scope management plan
D. The schedule management plan
A is the correct answer.
The contract will determine how long the project team members will be allowed to, or
are required to, stay on the project. The staffing management plan, the scope
management plan, and the schedule management plan are incorrect because they are
not valid choices for this question.
53. You are hosting a bidders conference. Which one of the following is the best
approach for managing the session?
A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.
B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.
D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.
B is the correct answer.
Vendors should have ample time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session, allow
vendors time to negotiate the pricing, and allow the contract manager to negotiate with
the bidders are incorrect because they are false statements.
54. You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an
electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is
finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the following
must you do next in regard to the electrician?
A. Complete the invoice
B. Pay the invoice
C. Inspect the work results
D. Sign off on the work
C is the correct answer.
Once the vendor reports that the work is complete, the project manager should inspect
the work. This inspection can be done firsthand, if the project manager is qualified, or by
another qualified person or group. Complete the invoice, pay the invoice, and sign off on
the work are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
55. The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and
deemed acceptable. The project has been completed and management wants to know
exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project. Which of the
following is most likely to happen in this situation?

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A. An audit of the project plan
B. An audit of the quality of the project
C. An audit of the procurement documents
D. An audit of the project team members work
C is the correct answer.
Management will likely want to complete an audit of the procurement records. An audit
of the project plan, an audit of the quality of the project, and an audit of the project team
members work are incorrect because they are false statements.
56. You are the project manager for your organization and youre starting the project
process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example of a
screening system?
A. An organizational breakdown structure
B. An independent estimate
C. A requirement for the seller to have a PMP on staff
D. A weighted model
C is the correct answer.
The requirement for the vendor to have a PMP on staff can be used as a screening
system to filter out vendors that do not have the proper qualifications. An organizational
breakdown structure, an independent estimate, and a weighted model are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
57. You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is
refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the
following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance?
A. The project manager
B. The risk management plan
C. The project scope
D. The project charter
D is the correct answer.
The functional manager likely isnt allowing her employees to work on the project
because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. The project manager, the
risk management plan, and the project scope are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.
58. You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the
project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the
resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the following
stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?

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A. Functional managers
B. The project champion
C. Project team members
D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this structure.
A is the correct answer.
The functional managers in a weak matrix will have to approve the project schedule.
The project champion, project team members, and no one are incorrect because they
are not valid choices for this question.
59. Management says that your project is taking too long to complete. Which one of
the following is the best solution to this problem?
A. Add lead time
B. Add lag time
C. Add qualified resources to the critical path
D. Fast-track the project
C is the correct answer.
When there are unused resources that can help, the project manager should add these
resources to the critical path to reduce the duration of the activities. Add lead time, add
lag time, and fast-track the project are incorrect because they are not valid choices for
this question.
60. You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining
the physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will
be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following?
A. Resource selecting
B. Source selection
C. Resource planning
D. Resource process selection
C is the correct answer.
Resource planning considers the resource pool, resource availability, resource costs,
and resource calendars against the project calendar, scheduled activities, and overall
need for particular resources to determine what is the best resource for a given activity.
Resource selecting, source selection, and resource process selection are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
61. David is a project manager for his company and hes reviewing the defined
change control processes as part of his companys enterprise environmental factors. In
his review, he sees that changes to the projects product are controlled by a particular
system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the projects product?

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A. The scope configuration system
B. The change configuration system
C. The product scope
D. The configuration management system
D is the correct answer.
The configuration management system controls changes to the functional and physical
characteristics of a product or component. The scope configuration system, the change
configuration system, and the product scope are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.
62. You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the
project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She
believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she
proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable. This
change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent. Which one of
the following best describes the cost of the materials?
A. Gold plating
B. Cost of quality
C. The project management cost
D. Discretionary costs
B is the correct answer.
The cost to quality is the best choice. The expense of the better materials is attributed to
the better product the project will create. Gold plating, the project management cost,
and discretionary tools are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this
question. A is incorrect. Gold plating is the act of adding work, additional materials, or
more-expensive-than-needed materials to drive up the project cost for personal gain. C
is incorrect. This is not an example of project management costs. D is incorrect. These
are not discretionary costs but costs attributed to the cost of the quality as demanded by
the customer.
63. You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several
OSHA guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the
safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate
reference to these guidelines?

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A. Constraints
B. Assumptions
C. Standards
D. Regulations
D is the correct answer.
OSHA guidelines are requirements your project must meet. Constraints, assumptions,
and standards are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
64. Finish this statement: _______________ is planned into a project, not inspected
in.
A. Quality
B. Safety
C. Control
D. Teamwork
A is the correct answer.
Quality is planned into a project from the start. Inspections prove its existence. Safety,
control, and teamwork are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
65. Deans company uses ISO 9000 as part of its manufacturing environment. Dean
has been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO
9000?
A. A quality management system
B. A quality control system
C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects
D. A method of following procedures created internally by an organization
D is the correct answer.
ISO 9000 is not a quality system, but a method of following procedures created
internally by an organization. A quality management system, a quality control system,
and a management approach to implement quality on customer projects are incorrect
because they are false statements.
66. You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project
calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your project
team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in the customer
service support of the call center agents. You and the call center manager have set
operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the following is an operational
definition?

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A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.
B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30 days.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.
D. All customer service reps will answer telephone calls with their name and a standard
greeting.
C is the correct answer.
A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute is an example
of an operational definition because it has a given metric. All customer service reps will
complete the required training, all customer service reps will complete the required
training within 30 days, and all customer service reps will answer telephone calls with
their name and a standard greeting are incorrect because they are false statements.
67. The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month
analysis of production in a manufacturers environment. The quality engineer now wants
to plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or
diagram that will best satisfy the request?
A. A Pareto chart
B. An Ishikawa diagram
C. A control chart
D. A flowchart
C is the correct answer.
A control chart will allow the quality engineer and the project manager to plot out the
results to find assignable causes for variances. A Pareto chart, an Ishikawa diagram,
and a flowchart are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
68. Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to
the achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is
NOT an example of the cost of poor quality?
A. Rework
B. Corrective actions
C. Safety measures
D. A loss of customers
C is the correct answer.
Safety measures are a cost of the conformance to quality. If the measures are not
taken, accidents may happen and the project may then be stopped for investigation,
rework, and other measures. Rework, corrective actions, and a loss of customers are
incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
69. As a project manager and a PMP candidate, you should be able to discern
quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about quality
control is true?

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A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project
deliverables.
B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in alignment
with the project scope.
C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the work.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.
D is the correct answer.
Quality control is focused on the correctness of the work. Quality control is the process
of the project customer accepting the project deliverables, quality control is the process
of ensuring the project deliverables are in alignment with the project scope, and quality
control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the work are incorrect
because they describe scope validation, not quality control.
70. Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans
are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in order to
track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the quality
management plans not dictate?
A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality improvement
D. Six Sigma programs
D is the correct answer.
Not all companies will use a quality management program like Six Sigma. Quality
control, quality assurance, and quality improvement are incorrect because they are not
valid choices for this question.
71. What is the difference between quality control and scope validation?
A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been completed.
B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has been
completed according to the project scope.
C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control while
the project team does scope validation.
D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control without
the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.
D is the correct answer.
Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, while scope validation is
concerned with the customer accepting the work. Quality control is done by the
customer after the project has been completed, scope validation is done by the project
team to ensure that the project has been completed according to the project scope, and

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both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control while the
project team does scope validation are incorrect because they are false statements.
72. You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project
team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system from as
part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which subsidiary
plan should be updated?
A. The risk management plan
B. The risk response plan
C. The procurement management plan
D. The scope management plan
B is the correct answer.
Responses to risks are identified and documented in the risk response plan. The risk
management plan, the procurement management plan, and the scope management
plan are incorrect because they are false statements.
73. Risks are identified, monitored, tracked, and responded to. One element which
must also be identified is a risk trigger. What is a risk trigger?
A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.
B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.
C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.
D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to occur.
D is the correct answer.
These are warning signs or symptoms that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. A
risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk, a risk trigger is a risk that causes a
residual risk, and a risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events are incorrect because
they are false statements.
74. You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks
within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will cost
your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency amount youll
need for this risk event?
A. $150,000
B. $30,000
C. $75,000
D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.
B is the correct answer.
The risk has a 20 percent chance of happening and will cost the project $150,000.
Twenty percent of $150,000 is $30,000the expected amount of contingency.

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$150,000, $75,000, and zero; the risk is not real until it occurs are incorrect because
they are not valid choices for this question.
75. You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your
organizations sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each of
the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method of
dealing with the project risks?
A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.
B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.
C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk event is
coming into the project schedule.
D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk events
overlap at any one time.
A is the correct answer.
Risk owners can monitor, respond to, and communicate on risk events. Buy insurance
for each of the identified risks, the project manager will need to travel to each of the
sites as the risk event is coming into the project schedule, and the project manager will
need to schedule the risk events so that no risk events overlap at any one time are
incorrect because they are false statements.
76. You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several
pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller
contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What stipulation
must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the project?
A. A deadline
B. It should not exceed specifications
C. The costs per hour
D. The total costs for the procured work
B is the correct answer.
A time and materials (T&M) contract needs a Not to Exceed (NTE) stipulation. A
deadline, the costs per hour, and the total costs for the procured work are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
77. You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more
than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the project
is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the shopping
area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she is working on
that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk response you have
planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk response that Mary
should now implement is which one of the following?

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A. A countermeasure
B. A mitigation
C. A transference
D. A contingency plan
D is the correct answer.
Contingency planning requires additional funding and time set aside for the risk event. A
countermeasure, a mitigation, and a transference plan are incorrect because they are
not valid choices for this question.
78. Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved
through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance is an
example of which risk response?
A. Trigger
B. Threshold
C. Transference
D. Countermeasure
C is the correct answer.
Transference transfers the risk to someone else. Trigger, threshold, and
countermeasure are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
79. You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project
is scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a
new risk in your project. What must be updated?
A. The risk response plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The scope statement
C is the correct answer.
When a new risk has been identified, the risk register must be updated. The risk
response plan, the work breakdown structure, and the scope statement are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question. .
80. As a PMP, you should be familiar with the project management processes and
their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control?

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A. The project management plan
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. Work performance data
B is the correct answer.
The WBS is not an input to risk monitoring and control. The project management plan,
the risk register, and work performance data are incorrect because they are all inputs to
risk control.
81. Your project is moving toward closure and several risks that have been identified
did not come into fruition. What should be updated?
A. The historical records
B. The work breakdown structure
C. The risk register
D. The risk response plan
C is the correct answer.
When a risk has been identified, it is documented in the risk register. The risk is then
tracked through the risk register. The historical records, the work breakdown structure,
and the risk response plan are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this
question.
82. Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has
not changed. Controlling risks also includes the proper and quick reaction to the risk
event should the events status change in the project. Which of the following is NOT a
valid reason for risk control?
A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid
B. To identify trends within risk identification
C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate
D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid
D is the correct answer.
The contract type is determined as part of the procurement process. To determine if
project assumptions are still valid, to identify trends within risk identification, and to
determine if the contingency reserve is adequate are incorrect because they are all valid
reasons for risk control.
83. You and your project team have just completed the Warehouse Construction
Project. For the project to be officially complete, what must happen next?

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A. Quality inspections
B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms
C. Scope validation
D. Contract closeout
C is the correct answer.
Scope validation is the process of obtaining formal acceptance. Quality inspections, you
must sign off on the project mechanisms, and contract closeout are incorrect because
they are not valid choices for this question.
84. Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team
and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When does
scope validation happen?
A. Only at the end of the project
B. At the end of each project phase
C. With each deliverable
D. As the customer sees fit
B is the correct answer.
Scope validation is the assurance that the project deliverables have met the project
scope. Only at the end of the project, with each deliverable, and as the customer sees
fit are incorrect because they are false statements.
85. You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven
and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project
altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you
responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best
describes scope validation in this case?
A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were created up
to the point of the projects cancellation.
B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management canceled the
project due to circumstances outside of your control.
C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.
D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent complete.
A is the correct answer.
Although the project has been canceled, scope validation should take place for the
deliverables up to the point the project was canceled. Scope validation should be
deemed successful because management canceled the project due to circumstances
outside of your control, scope validation is not needed because the scope was never
fulfilled, and scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent
complete are incorrect because they are false statements.
86. Which one of the following is NOT a component of administrative closure?

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A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion
B. Rework
C. Operational transfer of the projects product
D. Lessons learned
B is the correct answer.
Rework is not an output of administrative closure. If rework is needed, the project or
phase cannot be closed. Activities needed to satisfy project completion, operational
transfer of the projects product, and lessons learned are incorrect because they are not
valid choices for this question.
87. You are the project manager of the NHX Project. The project has several
vendors. Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract.
What should happen next?
A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Lessons learned
A is the correct answer.
The terms of the contract should be followed here since they may have provisions for an
audit, payment procedures, and forms that the vendor may have to complete to be paid.
Scope validation, project closure, and lessons learned are incorrect because they are
not valid choices for this question.
88. You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The
vendor is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their
demands. What is the likely outcome of this scenario?
A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Procurement audits
A is the correct answer.
Unresolved claims may result in litigation. Scope validation, project closure, and
procurement audits are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
89. You are the project manager of a customer relationship management program
that will involve people from all parts of your organization. Your project team will include
representatives of people from all parts of the company. Functional managers need to
know when their workers will be released from your project. Which one of the following
is the subsidiary project plan that documents this information?

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A. The human resources management plan
B. The staffing management plan
C. The WBS
D. The cost control plan
B is the correct answer.
The staffing management plan will account for the employees time on the project. The
human resources management plan, the WBS, and the cost control plan are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
90. Marcy is no longer needed on your project. You are the project manager in a
projectized organization operating under a PMO. How can Marcy be released from the
project team?
A. Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time through
project completion.
B. Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members stay on the
project until the project is completed.
C. The project manager may elect to remove Marcy.
D. The project manager should meet with the PMO to remove Marcy from the project
team.
D is the correct answer.
When a project team member is no longer needed on a project team in a projectized
structure, the project manager should follow the operations of the PMO if it exists.
Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time through project
completion, Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members stay
on the project until the project is completed, and the project manager may elect to
remove Marcy are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
91. Elizabeth is a project team member and she doesnt want to complete the
lessons learned documentation on this project. Elizabeth doesnt see the value in the
documentation or the process. What is the point of the lessons learned documentation?
A. It keeps the project manager focused on the project work.
B. It maintains communication with management.
C. It ensures that all of the project work is complete.
D. It allows other project managers to learn from this project.
D is the correct answer.
Lessons learned are documents used for future reference. They allow other project
managers to learn from the current project. It keeps the project manager focused on the
project work, it maintains communication with management, and it ensures that all of
the project work is complete are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this
question.

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92. Which process includes the documentation of the projects success or failure?
A. Configuration management
B. Administrative closure
C. Quality control
D. Scope validation
B is the correct answer.
Administrative closure includes the creation of the final project report. Configuration
management, quality control, and scope validation are incorrect because they are not
valid choices for this question.
93. All projects should include a final project report thats archived as part of the
projects organizational process assets. Why should the final project report be archived?
(Choose the best answer.)
A. In case the customer has a change to the project scope
B. In case the projects finances are ever called into question
C. In case the organization needs to update the projects product
D. In case future project teams need the projects information to help them complete
their project
D is the correct answer.
Current project records become future historical information. In case the customer has a
change to the project scope, in case the projects finances are ever called into question,
and in case the organization needs to update the projects product are incorrect
because they do not adequately answer the question asked.
94. Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict within a project?
A. Project priorities
B. Schedule
C. Personality conflicts
D. Quality
D is the correct answer.
There are seven common conflicts within a project: project priorities, schedule,
resources, cost, administrative procedures, technical issues, and personality conflicts.
Project priorities, schedule, and personality conflicts are incorrect because they are all
sources of conflict within a project.
95. Which of the following is not an example of contributing to the project
management knowledge base?

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A. Giving a lecture on project risk management
B. Writing articles on project management topics
C. Referring a friend to the PMI website for information on obtaining the PMP title
D. Publishing a book on project management methodologies
C is the correct answer.
Referring a friend to PMIs website for info on the PMP certification is helpful, but it is
not an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base. Giving a
lecture on project risk management, writing articles on project management topics, and
publishing a book on project management methodologies are incorrect because they
are all ways of contributing to the project management knowledge base.
96. You have written a book on project management thats for sale in bookstores and
through websites. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. A conflict of interest if you are a PMP
B. A breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. An example of contributing to the project management knowledge base
D. An example of providing the public with information on the PMP career and
certification
C is the correct answer.
Writing and publishing a book on project management is an example of contributing to
the project management knowledge base. A conflict of interest if you are a PMP, a
breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, and an example of
providing the public with information on the PMP career and certification are incorrect
because they are not valid choices for this question.
97. You have created a newsletter for your company that provides monthly
information on PMP certification, project management methodologies, and how your
company is implementing project management. This is an example of which one of the
following?
A. Ensuring integrity
B. Contributing to the knowledge base
C. Applying professional knowledge
D. Balancing stakeholder interests
B is the correct answer.
Although this may be a small, limited contribution, it is still a reference for others on
project management methods and application. Ensuring integrity, applying professional
knowledge, and balancing stakeholder interests are incorrect because they are not valid
choices for this question.

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98. You are teaching a project management class for your project team members.
This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional
responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. A contribution to the project management knowledge base
D is the correct answer.
You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. Informing
others about project management principles, helping the profession grow into a
respectable career track, and a conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
are incorrect because they are not valid answers with regard to the question asked.
99. You are taking a project management class to help you better prepare to be a
project manager. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to
professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. Enhancing individual competence
D is the correct answer.
You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. Informing
others about project management principles, helping the profession grow into a
respectable career track, and a conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
are incorrect because they are not valid answers with regard to the question asked.
100. You are a new project manager for your organization. Your company does not
have the resources to send you to a project management training class at this time.
Which one of the following is not a method you could use to enhance your individual
competence until you can complete formal training?
A. Do nothing. You cannot enhance your competence without formal training.
B. Read historical information from past projects.
C. Emulate successful project managers.
D. Serve as an assistant to another project manager.
A is the correct answer.
This is not an acceptable answer. Read historical information from past projects,
emulate successful project managers, and serve as an assistant to another project
manager are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.

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