MCQ on Biochemistry - Amino acids

1. Amino acids are

a) building blocks of carbohydrates
b) building blocks of nucleic acids
c) building blocks of lipids
d) building blocks of proteins

2. Amino acids has

a) both amino group and carboxyl group
b) both amino group and keto group
c) amino group only
d) carboxyl group only

3. The simplest amino acid is

a) Proline
b) methionine
c) glycine
d) serine

4. Which of the following amino acid is a -helix terminator

a) tryptophan
b) phenyl alnine
c) tyrosine
d) proline

5. The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is

a) Serine
b) Valine
c) Alanine
d) Methionine

6. Which of the following amino acid has buffering capacity

a) Tryptophan
b) cysteine
c) histidine
d) arginine

7. Which of the following is an imino acid

a) serene
b) threonine
c) valine
d) proline
8. The naturally occurring form of amino acid in proteins
a) L-amino acids only
b) D-amino acids only
c) both L and D amino acids
d) none of these

9. Sulphur containing amino acids are

a) Cysteine and methionine
b) Methionine and threonine
c) Cysteine and threonine
d) Cysteine and serine

10. Aromatic amino acids include

a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
b) Phenylalanine, serine and tryptophan
c) Threonine, tyrosine and tryptophan
d) Asparagine, tyrosine and tryptophan

11. Positively charged basic amino acids are

a) Lysine and arginine
b) Lysine and asparagine
c) Glutamine and arginine
d) Lysine and glutamine

12. Acidic amino acids include

a) Arginine and glutamate
b) Aspartate and asparagine
c) Aspartate and lysine
d) Aspartate and glutamate

13. Amino acids with hydroxyl groups are

a) serine and alanine
b) Alanine and valine
c) serine and threonine
d) Valine and isoleucine

14. The 21st amino acid is

a) hydroxy lysine
b) hydroxyl proline
c) selenocysteine
d) citrulline

15. Absorbance at 280nm exhibited by protein is due to

a) aliphatic amino acids
b) all amino acids
c) Non-polar amino acids
d) aromatic amino acids
Online Practice test on
Biomolecules / Biomacromolecules /Proteins / Amino acids
Answers
1-d
2-a
3-c
4-d
5-d
6-c
7-d
8-a
9-a
10-a
11-a
12-d
13-c
14-c
15-d

MCQ on Carbohydrates

1. The most abundant bio molecule on the earth

a) Nucleic acids
b) proteins
c) lipids
d) carbohydrates

2. The major functions of carbohydrates include

a) structural framework
b) storage
c) both a and b
d) none of these

3. The general formula of carbohydrate is

a) (CH2O)n
b) (C4H2O)n
c) (C6H2O)n
d) (C2H2O)n COOH

4. Carbohydrates are
a) polyhydroxy aldehydes and phenols
b) polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones
c) polyhydroxy ketones and phenols
d) polyhydroxy phenols and alcohols

5. Structural polysaccharides include

a) cellulose, hemicellulose and chitin
b) cellulose, starch and chitin
c) cellulose, starch and glycogen
d) cellulose, glycogen and chitin

6. Nutritional polysaccharides are

a) starch and glycogen
b) starch and chitin
c) starch and cellulose
d) starch and glucose

7. Glycogen in animals are stored in

a) liver and spleen
b) liver and muscles
c) liver and bile
d) liver and adipose tissue

8. Carbohydrates accounts
a) 30% in plants and 20% in animals
b) 30% in plants and 10% in animals
c) 30% in plants and 1% in animals
d) 50% in plants and 50% in animals

9. Smallest carbohydrates are trioses. Which of the following is a triose?

a) glucose
b) ribulose
c) ribose
d) glyceraldehyde

10. Which of the following is a reducing sugar

a) glucose
b) dihydroxyacetone
c) erythulose
d) none of these

11. Oligosaccharides linked to proteins are called

a) glycoproteins
b) glycolipids
c) galactosides
d) ganglioside

12. In polysaccharides, monosaccharaides are joined by

a) peptide bond
b) glucose bond
c) glycosidic bond
d) covalent bond

13. Sucrose is a
a) monosaccharide
b) disaccharide
c) polysaccharide
d) triose

14. Lactose is a disaccharide consists of

a) glucose and fructose
b) glucose and galactose
c) glucose and sucrose
d) glucose and ribose

15. In lactose, the linkage is

a) -1-4 linkage
b) -1-2 linkage
c) -1-4 linkage
d) -1-2 linkage

15. Maltose is a disaccharide consists of

a) glucose and fructose

b) glucose and galactose
c) glucose and sucrose
d) glucose and glucose

16. In maltose, the linkage is

a) -1-4 linkage
b) -1-2 linkage
c) -1-4 linkage
d) -1-2 linkage

17. Starch consists of

a) unbranched amylose and branched amylopectin
b) branched amylose and branched amylopectin
c) unbranched amylose and unbranched amylopectin
d) none of these

18. Cellulose is made up of repeating units of

a) -1-4 linkage between D-glucose units
b) -1-2 linkage between D-glucose units
c) -1-4 linkage between D-glucose units
d) -1-2 linkage between D-glucose units

19. Amylopectin has

a) -1-4 and -1-6 linkage
b) -1-2 linkage
c) -1-4 and -1-6 linkage
d) -1-2 linkage

20. Chitin consists of

a) N-acetyl muramic acid
b) N-acetyl glucosamine
c) D-glucose units
d) N-acetyl muramic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine

Answers

1-d
2-c
3-a
4-b
5-a
6-a
7-a
8-c
9-d
10-a
11-a
12-c
13-b
14-b
15-d
16-c
17-a
18-a
19-c
20-b
MCQ on Biochemistry - Lipids

1. Fats are abundantly found in

a) Reproductive tissue
b) Vegetative tissue
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

2. Natural lipids are readily soluble in

a) Oil
b) Mercury
c) Water
d) None of these

3. Which of the following is/are unsaturated fatty acids?

a) Linoleic acid
b) Oleic acid
c) Palmitoleic acid
d) All of these

4. Fats can be stored in the cell without disturbing their

a) Hygroxyl bond
b)Aleurone layer
c) Osmotic relations
d) None of these

5. Liquid form of triglycerides at ordinary room temperature are called

a) Oils
b)Solid
c) Fats
d) None of these

6. The synthesis of glucose from fat is called

a) Glycolysis
b)Krebs cycle
c) Saponification
d) Gluconeogenesis

7. Hydrolysis of fats by alkalies into fatty acids and glycerol is called

a) Coagulation
b) Saponification
c) Suspension
d) Colloidal
8. The fats and oils are respectively rich in
a) Unsaturated fatty acids
b) Saturated fatty acids
c) Saturated and unsaturated fatty acids
d) None of these

9. -oxidation takes place in

a) Mitochondria
b) cytoplasm
c) Chloroplasts
d) nucleus

10. Which is a phospholipid

a) Lecithin
b) Cholesterol
c) Sterol
d) Steroid

11. The number of double bonds in Arachidonic acid

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

12. Essential fatty acids are

a) Linoleic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Linolenic acid
d) All of these

13. The following is not a phospholipid

a) Sphingomyelin
b) Lecithin
c) Cephalin
d) Cerebroside

14. Examples of monounsaturated fatty acids are:

a) Oleic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Linolenic acid

15. High content of Triglycerides are seen in

a) LDL
b) HDL
c) VLDL
d) Chylomicrons

Answers:
1- a
2-d
3-d
4-c
5-a
6-d
7-b
8-c
9-a
10-a
11-d
12-d
13-d
14-a
15-d

Multiple Choice on Proteins

1. The repeating units of proteins are
a) glucose units
b) amino acids
c) fatty acids
d) peptides

2. Amino acids are joined by

a) peptide bond
b) hydrogen bond
c) ionic bond
d) glycosidic bond

3. The primary structure of protein represents

a) Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b) 3-dimensional structure of protein
c) helical structure of protein
d) sub unit structure of protein

4. Peptide bond is
a) rigid with partial double bond character
b) planar, covalent
c) covalent
d) all of the above

5. Enzymes are
a) proteins
b) carbohydrates
c) nucleic acids
d) DNA molecule

6. The first protein sequenced by Frederick Sanger is

a) Haemoglobin
b) myoglobin
c) insulin
d) myosin

7. A dipeptide has
a) 2 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
b) 2 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c) 2 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
d) 2 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds

8. The most common secondary structure is

a) -helix
b) -pleated sheet
c) -pleated sheet parallel
d) -pleated sheet non parallel

9. Myoglobin is a
a) protein with primary structure
b) protein with secondary structure
c) protein with tertiary structure
d) protein with quaternery structure

10. Fibrous protein such as silk fibroin consists of polypeptide chains arranged in
a) -helix
b) -pleated sheet
c) -helix
d) none of these

11. -helix has

a) 3.4 amino acid residues/turn
b) 3.6 amino acid residues/turn
c) 3.8 amino acid residues/turn
d) 3.0 amino acid residues/turn

12. Tertiary structure is maintained by

a) peptide bond
b) hydrogen bond
c) di-sulphide bond
d) all of the above

13. Haemoglobin has

a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternery structure

14. Disulphide bonds are formed between

a) cysteine residues that are close together
b) cystine residues that are close together
c) proline residues that are close together
d) histidine residues that are close together

15. The 3-D structure of protein can be determined by

a) Nuclear magnetic resonance
b) X-ray crystallography
c) both a and b
d) Spectroscopy

Answers
1-b
2-a
3-a
4-d
5-a
6-c
7-a
8-a
9-c
10-b
11-b
12-d
13-d
14-a
15-c

Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Function

1. A prosthetic group of a protein is a non-protein structure that is:
a) a ligand of the protein.
b) a part of the secondary structure of the protein.
c) a substrate of the protein.
d) permanently associated with the protein.
2. In the binding of oxygen to myoglobin, the relationship between the concentration of oxygen
and the fraction of binding sites occupied can best be described as:
a) hyperbolic.
b) linear with a negative slope.
c) linear with a positive slope.
d) sigmoidal.
3. Myoglobin and the subunits of hemoglobin have:

a) no obvious structural relationship.

b) very different primary and tertiary structures.
c) very similar primary and tertiary structures.
d) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures.

4. In hemoglobin, the transition from T state to R state (low to high affinity) is triggered by:
a) Fe2+ binding.
b) heme binding.
c) oxygen binding.
d) subunit association.

5. Which of the following is not correct concerning cooperative binding of a ligand to a protein?
a) It is usually a form of allosteric interaction.
b) It is usually associated with proteins with multiple subunits.
c) It rarely occurs in enzymes.
d) It results in a nonlinear Hill Plot.
6. The fundamental cause of sickle-cell disease is a change in the structure of:
a) blood.
b) capillaries.
c) hemoglobin.
d) red cells.
7. The proteins of the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) bind and display:
a) antigen fragments.
b) B cell fragments.
c) immunoglobin fragments.
d) macrophage fragments.
8. A monoclonal antibody differs from a polyclonal antibody in that monoclonal antibodies:
a) are labeled with chemicals that can be visualized.
b) are produced by cells from the same organism that produced the antigen.
c) are synthesized by a population of identical, or cloned, cells.
d) are synthesized only in living organisms.

9. The predominant structural feature in myosin molecules is:

a) a b structure.
b) an a helix.
c) the Fab domain.
d) the light chain.

10. During muscle contraction, hydrolysis of ATP results in a change in the:

a) conformation of actin.
b) conformation of myosin.
c) structure of the myofibrils.
d) structure of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Proteins
Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Purification Methods
Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Structure
Answers
1. d) permanently associated with the protein.
2. A) hyperbolic.
3. d) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
4. c) oxygen binding.
5. c) It rarely occurs in enzymes.
6. c) hemoglobin.
7. a) antigen fragments.
8. c) are synthesized by a population of identical, or cloned, cells.
9. b) an a helix.
10. B) conformation of myosin.

Multiple Choice Questions on DNA

1. Who introduced the term Nucleic Acid?
a) Meisher
b) Robert Brown
c) Lipmann
d) Altmann

2. Hereditary information is indicated by

a) Sequence of nucleic acids
b) Position of nucleic acid
c) Number of nucleic acid
d) All of these

3. The strongest evidence that DNA is the genetic material comes from
a) The finding DNA is not present in the cytoplasm
b) The fact that chromosome are made of DNA
c) Studies of Bacterial transformation
d) The knowledge that DNA is present in the nucleus

4. Who among the following scientists developed cytochemical technique for the detection of
DNA?
a) Feulgen and Rossenbeck
b) Watson and Crick
c) Beadle and Tatum
d) Knoll and Ruska

5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that DNA A=T and G=C?
a) Griffth
b) Meselson and Stahl
c) Hershey and Chase
d) Chargaff

6. Which ratio is constant for DNA?

a) A+G / T+C
b) A + T / G+ C
c) A+ C/ U+G
d) A+ U/ C+G

7. The dye involved in Feulgen reaction to stain DNA is

a) Janus green B
b) Basic Fuchsin
c) Neutral Red
d) Haemoxylin

8. If 30% of an organisms DNA is thymine, then

a) 70% guanine
b) 20% is guanine
c) 30% adenine
d) both b and c

9. Hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine are

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

10. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by

a) Light microscope
b) Electron microscope
c) X-Ray crystallography
d) Ultracentrifuge

Answers

1. d) Altmann

2. a) Sequence of nucleic acids

3. c) Studies of Bacterial transformation

4. a) Feulgen and Rossenbeck

5. d) Chargaff

6. a) A+G / T+C

7. b) Basic Fuchsin

8. d) both b and c

9. c) 3

10. c) X-Ray crystallography

Learn more: MCQ on DNA

MCQ on Biochemistry - Nucleic acid (DNA)

1. A nucleoside is composed of
a) a base+ a sugar
b) a base+ a sugar+ phosphate
c) a base+ a phosphate
d) none of these
2. Genetic mutation occurs in
a) Protein
b) RNA
c) DNA
d) Nucleus

3. DNA is present in
a) nucleus only
b) nucleus, mitochondria and ER
c) nucleus, mitochondria and choloroplast
d) nucleus, mitochondria and RER

4. DNA is the genetic material in

a) viruses, prokaryote and eukaryote
b) prokaryote and eukaryote
c) only in eukaryotes
d) in some viruses, prokaryotes and eukaryotes

5. The two strands in a DNA double is joined by

a) Co-valent bond
b) Hydrogen bond
c) ionic bond
d) phosphodiester bond

6. Chromatin is composed of
a) nucleic acids and protein
b) nucleic acids only
c) proteins only
d) none of these

7. The basic repeating units of a DNA molecule is

a) nucleoside
b) nucleotide
c) histones
d) aminoacids

8. Adjacent nucleotides are joined by

a) covalent bond
b) phosphodiester bond
c) ionic bond
d) peptide bond

9. The length of one turn of DNA is

a) 3.4 Ao
b) 34 Ao
c) 20 Ao
d) 3.04 Ao

10. The type of sugar in DNA are

Nucleotide in DNA
a) triose
b) tetrose
c) pentose
d) hexose

11. The width of DNA molecule is

a) 15 Ao
b) 3.4 Ao
c) 20 Ao
d) 25 Ao

12. The length of DNA having 23 base pairs is

a) 78 Ao
b) 78.4 Ao
c) 78.2 Ao
d) 74.8 Ao

13. Left handed DNA

a) A-DNA
b) B-DNA
c) Z-DNA
d) C-DNA

14. Z-DNA have a

a) Double helical nature
b) Zig-Zag apperarance
c) uracil base
d) single stranded nature

15. A short length of DNA molecule has 80 thymine and 80 guanine bases. The total number of
nucleotide in the DNA fragment is
a) 160
b) 40
c) 320
d) 640
Answers
1-a
2-c
3-c
4-d
5-b
6-a
7-b
8-b
9-b
10-c
11-c
12-d
13-c
14-b
15-c

MCQ on Biochemistry - Nucleic acids (RNA)

1. RNA is the genetic material in
a) Viruses only
b) In some viruses and some prokaryotes
c) In some viruses and some prokaryotes and rarely in eukaryotes
d) Only in some viruses

2. RNA is

RNA
a) Single stranded
b) Double stranded
c) Triple stranded
d) Both a and b

3. The sugar in RNA is

a) Deoxyribose
b) Ribose
c) Hexose
d) Fructose

4. Nucleotides in RNA are joined by

a) 35 phosphodiester bond
b) 34 phosphodiester bond
c) 32 phosphodiester bond
d) 36 phosphodiester bond
5. Thymine in DNA is replaced by
a) Guanine in RNA
b) Adenine in RNA
c) Cytosine in RNA
d) Uracil in RNA

6. The most abundant type of RNA in the cell is

a) rRNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) hnRNA

7. Which of the following RNA serves as adaptor molecule during protein synthesis
a) rRNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) hnRNA

8. rRNA is synthesised in
a) nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) RER
d) Nucleolus

9. cDNA is
a) complementary to mRNA
b) complementary to rRNA
c) complementary to tRNA
d) complementary to hnRNA

10. Amino acids are attached to the

a) acceptor arm of tRNA
b) anti-codon arm of tRNA
c) codon arm of tRNA
d) none of these

11. Ribozymes are

a) enzymes with catalytic activity
b) RNAs with catalytic activity
c) proteins with catalytic activity
d) nucleic acids with catalytic activity

12. RNA is primarily seen in

a) nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) RER
d) SER

13. Ribose sugar in RNA is

a) D-ribose
b) L-ribose
c) Both L and D form
d) None of these

14. Which of the virus has double stranded RNA as genetic material?
a) Tobacco mosaic virus
b) Influenza virus
c) Rous Sarcoma virus
d) Reoviruses

15. Ribosomes are composed of

a) DNA and RNA
b) RNA and proteins
c) DNA and Proteins
d) RNA only

Answers
1-d
2-a
3-b
4-a
5-d
6-a
7-c
8-d
9-a
10-a
11-b
12-b
13-a
14-d
15-b

MCQ on Enzymes
1. Enzymes are
a) Carbohydrate
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Fats
2. The term enzymes are coined by
a) Pasteur
b) Buchner
c) Urey Miller
d) Kuhne
3. The fastest enzymes is
a) Pepsin
b) Carbonic unhydrase
c) DNA gyrase
d) DNA polymerase
4. Fat is hydrolysed by the enzyme known as
a) Trypsin
b) Lipase
c) pepsin
d) Amylase
5. The term apoenzyme is applicable to
a) Simple enzyme
b) Protein part of conjugate enzyme
c) Organic cofactor of a conjugate enzyme
d) Inorganic cofactor of a conjugate enzyme
6. Enzymes
a) Do not require activation energy
b) Do not change requirement of activation energy
c) Increase requirement of activation energy
d) Lowest requirement of activation energy
7. Zymogen is
a) Enzyme poison
b) Enzyme modulator
c) Enzyme precursor
d) Enzyme inhibitor

8. Allosteric enzyme possesses

a) Active site and an allosteric site
b) Active site and two types of allosteric sites
c) Active site and three types of allosteric sites
d) Three types of allosteric sites
9. Enzyme generally have
a) Same pH and temperature optima
b) Same pH but different temperature optima
c) Different pH but same temperature optima
d) Different pH and different temperature optima
10. The enzyme which forms the peptide bond is known as
a) Carbonic unhydrase
b) Peptidase
c) Carbohydrase
d) Peptidyl transferase
11. The enzyme, tyrosinase, is activated by
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Zinc
d) Potassium
12. Lock and key theory of enzyme action was proposed by

Lock and Key Theory

a) Fischer
b) Koshland
c) Kuhne
d) Arrhenius
13. Trypsin are active in
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) neutral
d) None of these
14. Koshlands theory of enzyme action is known as

a) Reduced fit theory

b) Lock and key theory
c) Induced fit theory
d) Enzyme coenzyme theory

15. The enzymes involved in feedback inhibition are called

a) Allosteric enzymes
b) Holoenzymes
c) Apoenzymes
d) Coenzymes
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Enzyme Inhibition
Answers:
1. c) Proteins
2. d) Kuhne
3. b) Carbonic unhydrase
4. b) Lipase
5. b) Protein part of conjugate enzyme
6. d) Lowest requirement of activation energy
7. c) Enzyme precursor
8. b) Active site and two types of allosteric sites
9. a) Same pH and temperature optima
10. d) Peptidyl transferase
11. b) Copper
12. a) Fischer
13. b) Alkaline
14. c) Induced fit theory
15. a) Allosteric enzymes

Multiple Choice Questions on Enzymes

16. Which one of the following is a group of proteolytic enzymes?
a) Bromelin and Papain
b) Callulase and myrosinase
c) Maltase and Diastase
d) Phosphatase and Chlorophyllase
17. Enzymes having slightly different molecular structures but performing identical activity are

a) holoenzymes
b)apoenzymes
c) isoenzymes
d) coenzymes

18. Which factor is responsible for inhibition enzymatic process during feed back?
a) Enzymes
b) End product
c) Temperature
d) Substrate
19. Which one of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to a
inhibitor protein
b) Non Competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
c) Non competitive efficiency inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
d) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site
on the enzyme
20. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the
a) Formation of the product
b) Km value
c) Molecular size of the enzymes
d) pH of optimum value
21. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free of a polynucleotide, is
a) Polymerase
b) kinase
c) exonclease
d) endonuclease
22. The enzymes enterokinase helps in the conversion of
a) Caseinogens into casein
b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
c) Pepsigenogen into pepsin
d) proteins into polypeptides
23. Which of the following is a typical example feedback inhibition?
a) Cyanide and cytochrome reaction
b) Sulpha drugs and folic acid synthesizer bacteria
c) allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose- 6 -phosphate
d) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
24. Some of the enzymes, which are associated in converting fats into carbohydrates, are present
in
a) liposomes
b) golgi bodies
c) glyoxysomes
d) microsomes
25. In which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator?
a) tyrosinase
b) Lactic dehydrogenase
c) Carbonic unhydrase
d) Trypsinase
Learn more
MCQ on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Enzyme inhibition
Answers
16. a) Bromelin and Papain
17. c) isoenzymes
18. b) End product
19. d) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active
site on the enzyme
20. b) Km value
21. c) exonclease
22. b) Trypsinogen into trypsin
23. c) allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose- 6 -phosphate
24. c) glyoxysomes
25. d) Trypsinase

Multiple Choice Questions on Enzyme Inhibition

26. Which of the statement is true regarding Km
a) It is the measure of the stability of the ES complex
b) It is the measure of the stability of the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate
c) A high Km indicates weak substrate binding
d) all of these

27. Any molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is called
a) Regulator
b) Repressor
c) Inhibitor
d) Moderator

28. Which of the following statements are true regarding enzyme inhibition?
a) It may be reversible or irreversible
b) Reversible can be competitive or non-competitive
c) both a and b
d) it is always reversible

29. Succinate is the substrate for succinate dehydrogenase that converts succinate to fumarate. In
the presence of reversible competitive inhibitor like malonate in place of succinate, the enzymes

a) Km increases and Vmax remains the same

b) both Km and V max increases
c) both Km and Vmax decreases
d) Km decreases and V max remains the same

30. Irreversible inhibitors often form covalent bonds with

a) any amino acid residues at or near the active site
b) Tryptophan and phenylalanine residues at or near the active site
c) positively charged residues at or near the active site
d) Ser or Cys residues at or near the active site

31. A reversible non-competitive inhibitor binds reversibly at a site other than the active site. This
binding lead to

a) increase in Km and Vmax remains constant

b) increase in Vmax and Km remains constant
c) decrease in Vmax and Km remains constant
d) no change in Vmax and Km

32. Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor

a) Di-isopropylphosphofluoridate (DIPF) with the enzyme acetylcholineesterase, involved in
nerve impulse transmission
b) Penicillin with glycopeptides transpeptidase enzyme involved in bacterial cell wall synthesis
c) Iodoacetamide, a cys residue modifier at the active sites
d) all of these

33. The effect of a reversible competitive inhibitor can be nullified by

a) increasing the product concentration
b) increasing the substrate concentration
c) increasing the temperature
d) none of these

34. The action of pepstatin on the enzyme rennin is an example of

a) competitive inhibition
b) reversible competitive inhibition
c) reversible non-competitive inhibition
d) irreversible inhibition

35. Enzymes are chemically

a) Proteins
b) Proteins and nucleic acids
c) Proteins and rarely ribonucleic acids
d) Proteins and rarely carbohydrates

Learn More:
Multiple Choice Question on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Enzymes
Multiple Choice Question on Protein Function
Multiple Choice Question on Protein Purification

Answers:
26. d) all of these
27. c) Inhibitor
28. c) both a and b
29. a) Km increases and Vmax remains the same
30. d) Ser or Cys residues at or near the active site
31. c) decrease in Vmax and Km remains constant
32. d) all of these
33. b) increasing the substrate concentration
34. c) reversible non-competitive inhibition
35. c) Proteins and rarely ribonucleic acids

Multiple Choice Questions on Cell division

MCQs on Cell Division
1. Meiosis takes place
a) Only in haploid individuals
b) Only in diploid individuals
c) Both in haploid and diploid individuals
d) None of these
2. In one of the following stages of cell division, the DNA content is doubled. It is

a) G1 phase
b) G2 phase
c) Metaphase
d) S phase
3. Amitosis is the usual process of cell division in
a) Meristematic cells
b) Prokaryotic cells
c) Eukaryotic cells
d) Spore mother cells
4. During synapsis the number of thread (Chromonemata) in each chromosome is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) Many
5. Homologous chromosomes are

a) Morphologically and genetically similar

b) Morphologically similar
c) Those which pair during synapsis
d) None of these
6. Cell division of mitosis is a normal process in a living cell but sudden and abnormal mitosis in
an organ will some time result in

a) Cancer
b) New organ
c) Zygote
d) Gastrula
7. Synapsis is characteristic of

a) Leptotene
b) Diplotene
c) Zygotene
d) Pachytene
8. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity in mitosis is
a) Having of chromosome number between the two new cells
b) Formation of cells with 8 chromosomes
c) Formation of two daughter cells
d) Formation of two cells with identical kind of DNA
9. During meiosis crossing over occurs at
a) Diplotene
b) leptotene
c) Pachytene
d) Diakinesis
10. How many generations of mitotic division must occur in a cell of root tip to form 256 cells?
a) 8
b) 32
c) 64
d) 128
Answers:
b) Only in diploid individuals
d) S phase
b) Prokaryotic cells
a) 2
c) Those which pair during synapsis
a) Cancer
c) Zygotene
d) Formation of two cells with identical kind of DNA
a) Diplotene
a) 8
Learn more: MCQ on Cell Cycle

Multiple Choice Questions on Cell Division - Meiosis

1. Which statements best explains the evolutionary advantage of meiosis?
a) Meiosis is necessary for sexual reproduction
b) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from generation to generation
c) The same genetic system is passed on from generation to generation
d) Genetic recombination are possible from generation to generation
2. Meiotic division occurs in

a) vegetative cells
b) meristematic cells
c) conductive cells
d) reproductive cells
3. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is equational division due to

a) Crossing over
b) Separation of chromatids
c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
d) Disjunction of homologous chromosomes

4. Meiosis II performs
a) Separation of sex chromosomes
b) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
c) Separation of homologous chromosomes
d) Separation of chromatids
5. Segregation of Mendelian factor (Aa) occurs during
a) Diplotene
b) Zygotene/ Pachytene
c) Anaphase I
d) Anaphase II
6. Synapsis occurs between
a) mRNA and ribosomes
b) Spindle fibres and cetromere
c) a male and a female gamete
d) Two homologous chromosomes
7. In Meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to
a) Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
b) Segregation and crossing over
c) Independent assortment and crossing over
d) Segregation and independent assortment
8. During which stage of prophase I of the crossing over takes place ?

a) Leptotene
b) Pachytene
c) Zygotene
d) Diplotene
9. Continuous variations are attributed to
a) Polyploidy
b) Mutation
c) Crossing over
d) Chromosomal aberrations
10. When parental and maternal chromosomes change their materials with each other in cell
division this event called
a) synapsis
b) Crossing over
c) Dyad forming
d) Bivalent forming
Learn more
MCQ on Cell Cycle
Practice Test on Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis (Set 1)
Practice Test on Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis (Set 2)
Answers
1. d) Genetic recombination are possible from generation to generation
2. d) reproductive cells
3. b) Separation of chromatids
4. d) Separation of chromatids
5. c) Anaphase I
6. d) Two homologous chromosomes
7. a) Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
8. b) Pachytene
9. c) Crossing over
10. b) Crossing over