1. Why did environmental groups sue the U. S.

Forest Service and the Bureau of Land

Management in 1999 concerning the Northwest Forest Plan?
A. These agencies were not operating the timberland in a sustainable manner.
These agencies were responsible for the loss of many jobs in the Northwest
B.
U.S.
The U.S. Forest Service allowed logging of old growth forests in the
C.
Northwest U.S.
These agencies did not complete surveys of locally endangered and
D.
threatened species before logging began.

2. Which of these men was responsible for one of the first discussions of humans as
agents of global environmental change?
A. John Muir

B. Gifford Pinchot

C. George Perkins Marsh

D. Theodore Roosevelt

3. A utilitarian conservationist viewed forests in terms of:

A. their natural beauty

B. their value in scientific research

C. their usefulness for people

D. all of these

4. National monuments that had scientific, historic or prehistoric importance, such as

the Badlands of South Dakota, were preserved because of the:
A. General Revision Act

B. Antiquities Act

C. Clean Air Act

D. National Environmental Policy Act

5. The first national park in the United States was:
A. Yellowstone

B. Yosemite

C. Glacier

D. Rocky Mountains

6. Which environmentalist fought and lost the battle with San Francisco over its efforts
to dam a river in the Hetch Hetchy Valley?
A. Rachel Carson

B. Paul Ehrlich

C. Gifford Pinchot

D. John Muir

7. The result of publishing Silent Spring by Rachel Carson was:

A. heightened public awareness and concern about the dangers of pesticide use

B. increased media coverage on a number of environmental incidents

C. the restriction on the use of certain pesticides

D. all of these

8. On Earth Day 1990, how many people around the world celebrated the environmental
movement?
A. 20 million

B. 50 million

C. 100 million

D. 200 million
9. An environmental impact statement must include all but which of these?
A. the nature of the proposal and why it is needed
the environmental impacts of the proposal including short and long term
B.
effects and any adverse environmental effects

C. alternatives to lessen the adverse effects of the proposal

D. the total cost of the proposal

10. Which is a criticism by environmentalists of the National Environmental Policy Act

(NEPA)?
A. EISs are sometimes incomplete or are ignored when decisions are made.

B. EISs are prepared too hastily and often have loopholes.

C. EISs do not allow for public scrutiny of an anticipated project.

D. all of these

11. The process of evaluating and presenting to decision makers the relative benefits
and costs of various alternatives is:
A. full cost accounting

B. cost benefit analysis

C. utilitarian conservation

D. managerial accounting

12. The Federal Noxious Weed Act of 1974 is included in what category of federal
environmental legislation?
A. conservation of energy

B. conservation of wildlife

C. conservation of land
 D. air quality and noise control

13. Of 1498 contaminated sites listed on the Superfund National Priorities List in 2002,
how many sites are now cleaned up?
A. 149

B. 288

C. 846

D. 934

14. Both sources and sinks contribute to:

A. resource conservation

B. net domestic product

C. gross domestic product

D. natural capital

15. In an ideal accounting system, the economic cost of environmental degradation is

subtracted from a firm's:
A. external cost

B. internal cost

C. gross domestic product

D. net domestic product

16. Many economists, government planners, and scientists support the idea of replacing
GDP and NDP with a more comprehensive measure of national income accounting
that includes:
A. natural resource depletion

B. environmental costs of economic activities

 C. taxes levied on companies that pollute
both natural resource depletion and environmental costs of economic
D.
activities

17. From the perspective of economics, the failure to consider external costs in the
pricing of goods:
A. has resulted in increased costs of goods and services

B. has made the cost of air pollution outweigh the risk of air pollution

C. is one of the root causes of the world's pollution problem

D. all of these

18. The point at which the marginal cost of pollution equals the marginal cost of
pollution abatement is:
A. external cost

B. national income

C. optimum amount of pollution

D. disruption of the environment

19. A type of incentive based tax to control pollution that is common in Europe is a(n):
A. emission charge

B. fuel consumption fee

C. command and control regulation

D. pollution abatement

20. Which of these statements is not true about the Western Worldview?
A. This view is anthropocentric and utilitarian.

B. It is also known as the expansionist worldview

 C. This view states that both human and nonhuman life has intrinsic value.

D. This view mirrors beliefs of the frontier attitude.

21. A person who believes in protecting nature because all life forms deserve respect
and consideration is called a _____________ .
A. utilitarian conservationist

B. holistic ecologist

C. biocentric preservationist

D. ecoventurist

22. Dominance over nature would be considered in line with a __________ worldview.
A. Deep ecology

B. Western

C. Holistic

D. Carsonian

1. A researcher who examines the connections between a fresh water lake and an alpine
meadow within a national park is studying what area of biology?
A. hydrology

B. landscape ecology

C. community ecology

D. limnology
2. Organs are organized into:
A. tissues

B. an entire organism

C. body sytems.

D. cells

3. In which of Earth's physical environments would you find an earthworm, a mole and
bacteria?
A. atmosphere

B. microsphere

C. hydrosphere

D. lithosphere

4. What type of energy is found within atomic nuclei?

A. electrical

B. nuclear

C. mechanical

D. chemical

5. A deer would be an example of a(n):

A. open system

B. herbivore

C. heterotroph

D. all of these

6. When a bird eats an insect, this food is digested in the bird's body. This illustrates:
 A. how energy can change from one form to another

B. a closed system

C. how thermal energy is converted to electrical energy

D. the concept of entropy decreasing over time

7. Why must plants photosynthesize and animals eat food?

A. They require a constant input of carbon dioxide.

B. They require a constant supply of chlorophyll.

C. They require a constant input of energy.

D. all of these

8. What materials are needed by plants in photosynthesis?

A. glucose, oxygen

B. carbon dioxide, water

C. glucose, water

D. carbon dioxide, oxygen

9. The first law of thermodynamics states:

the total energy content of an organism and its surroundings is always the
A.
same
some energy is changed to heat energy that is released into cooler
B.
surroundings
the amount of useable energy available to do work in the universe decreases
C.
over time

D. entropy is continuously increasing in the universe

10. In a hydrothermal vent ecosystem, bacteria living in the tissues of tube worms
extract energy from what compound to manufacture organic compounds?
A. carbon dioxide

B. glucose

C. hydrogen sulfide

D. copper sulfate

11. Which of these is not an important producer in the salt marsh ecosystem?
A. diamond back terrapin

B. cordgrass

C. algae

D. photosynthetic bacteria

12. In an ecosystem, which organisms form the second trophic level?

A. producers

B. primary consumers

C. secondary consumers

D. decomposers

13. Why are scientists concerned about thinning of the ozone layer over Antarctica?
A. The amount of ice pack is decreasing.

B. The baleen whale population has decreased.

C. Algal productivity has declined.

D. all of these

14. Inverted pyramids of numbers are often observed in what type of organisms?
 A. carnivores

B. marine mammals

C. grassland herbivores

D. parasites

15. Which of these statements is true about overfishing?

A. Fisherman are now relying on species that eat plankton or invertebrates.

B. Mostly top predators such as cod have been overfished.

C. Fish caught by today's fishermen are smaller, bonier, less valuable species.

D. all of these

16. Which ecosystem on land has the highest NPP or net primary productivity?
A. deciduous forests

B. tundra

C. tropical rain forest

D. grassland

17. Humans represent about 0.5% of the total biomass of consumers on Earth, but
humans use approximately what percentage of the annual NPP of land based
ecosystems?
A. 12

B. 32

C. 45

D. 51
18. A group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another in
the wild to produce fertile offspring is a(n):
A. species

B. sub-species

C. variety

D. clone

19. What type of aquatic community is the most complex and has the greatest number of
species?
A. fresh water lake

B. intertidal zone of ocean

C. coral reef

D. salt marsh

20. What kind of energy conversion occurs in photosynthesis?

A. light energychemical energy

B. chemical energythermal energy

C. mechanical energyelectrical energy

D. potential energykinetic energy

21. Which of the following statements concerning the Tilapia Hippopotamus

relationship is correct?
A. Tilapia feed on decaying Hippo carcasses.

B. Hippos feed on Tilapia

C. Tilapia feed on Hippo feces

D. Hippos provide important nutrients to the water

22. Peter Vitousek that while humans make up ____ of the Earth's consumer biomass,
they consume ______ of the annual land-based NPP.
A. 0.5 %; 32%

B. 0.5%; 65%

C. 1.0%; 50%

D. 3.2%; 65%

23. Which of the following is not one of the Earth's four realms?
A. atmosphere

B. lithosphere

C. geosphere

D. hydrosphere

1. Why can phosphorus sometimes be lost from biological cycles?

A. It evaporates from the atmosphere.

B. It forms deposits on the ocean floor.

C. It dissolves in fresh water of lakes and ponds.

D. all of these

2. The conversion of gaseous nitrogen to ammonia is called:

A. ammonification

B. nitrogen fixation

C. nitrification

D. assimilation

3. Hurricanes have wind speeds in what range?

 A. 43-60 kilometers per hour

B. 63-117 kilometers per hour

C. 118 kilometers per hour or greater

D. Every hurricane has different average wind speeds.

4. In volcanoes, rock melts and forms pockets of molten rock called:

A. plates

B. magma

C. lava

D. hot spot

5. What causes a rain shadow to form along the West Coast of North America?
Moisture laden air rises and cools, and it rains on the windward side of the
A.
mountain.
Low moisture air rises, warms and picks up moisture, and it rains on the
B.
leeward side of the mountain.
Moisture laden air rises and cools, and it rains on the leeward side of the
C.
mountain.
Low moisture air rises, warms and picks up moisture, and it rains on the
D.
windward side of the mountain.

6. A tropical cyclone is known as a(n)_____ in the Atlantic Ocean.

A. tornado

B. hurricane

C. hot spot

D. typhoon
7. An earthquake measuring 7 on the Richter scale is approximately ____ times more
powerful than a magnitude 6 earthquake.
A. 10

B. 100

C. 30

D. 300

8. Carbon compounds that are the end products of photosynthesis millions of years ago
are called:
A. biosynthetic chemicals

B. inorganic chemicals

C. biogeochemical products

D. fossil fuels

9. Which enzyme is used by Rhizobium bacteria to split atmospheric nitrogen and bond
nitrogen atoms to hydrogen atoms?
A. nitrogenase

B. ammonia

C. hydrogenase

D. carboxylase

10. Which of these is not a way that sulfur gases enter the atmosphere from natural
sources?
A. sea spray

B. volcanoes

C. photosynthesis

D. dust storms
11. Nitrogen oxides produced from fossil fuel combustion:
A. can form photochemical smog

B. help prevent acid deposition

C. cause global warming

D. can absorb excess carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

12. Clouds and, to a lesser extent, surfaces like ice and the ocean, reflect what
percentage of solar radiation falling on Earth?
A. 3%

B. 9%

C. 19%

D. 31%

13. Oxygen accounts for approximately what percentage of the atmosphere?

A. 1%

B. 21%

C. 55%

D. 78%

14. Weather, including turbulent wind, storms and most clouds, occurs in the:
A. troposphere

B. stratosphere

C. mesosphere

D. thermosphere
15. Because of the Coriolis effect, winds curve in which way in the southern
hemisphere?
A. upward

B. downward

C. to the right

D. to the left

16. In the ocean conveyor belt, the Pacific and Indian Oceans get their cold deep waters
from the:
A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Arctic Ocean

C. waters surrounding Antarctica

D. all of these

17. Which statement is true about Atacama Desert in Chile?

A. It is the driest place on Earth

B. It has the highest elevation in South America.

C. It is the wettest place on Earth.

D. It has the highest recorded wind speeds on Earth.

18. What is the difference between climate and weather?

1) Weather refers to the conditions in the atmosphere at a given place and time.
2) Climate is the average weather conditions occurring in a place over a period of
years.
3) Weather includes humidity and wind, but climate does not.
A. 1

B. 2

C. 3
 D. Both 1 and 2

19. An area where fresh water meets the ocean is a(n):

A. swamp

B. watershed

C. estuary

D. lagoon

20. The largest reservoir for nitrogen is the _________; while the largest reservoir for
phosphorus is the _________ .
A. ocean; atmosphere

B. ocean; soil

C. soil; atmosphere

D. atmosphere; soil

21. Albedo is a measure of ________ .

A. absorbance of solar energy

B. reflectance of solar energy

C. carbon emissions

D. troposphere thickness

22. There is confusion among scientists concerning the cause of global warming.
A. true

B. false
23. This layer contains UV absorbing ozone:
A. troposphere

B. stratosphere

C. mesosphere

D. thermosphere

24. Intact coastal mangrove forests have been shown to

A. cause ozone thinning

B. act as a barrier for storm surges

C. increase tourism for locals

D. prevent tsunamis

1. A desert typically has what amount of annual precipitation?

A. less than 25 cm

B. 30-45 cm

C. 50-60 cm

D. 65-70 cm

2. Which of these is a flowing water ecosystem?

A. lake

B. stream

C. wetland

D. estuary

3. Fishes, turtles, and whales are examples of:

A. phytoplankton

B. zooplankton
 C. nekton

D. benthos

4. Why are there few woody plant species living in the arctic tundra?
A. too high precipitation

B. permafrost

C. too long summers

D. hilly topography

5. Which is a characteristic of head water streams?

A. deep

B. cloudy from suspended particles

C. swiftly flowing

D. less oxygenated

6. In headwater streams up to 99% of the energy input comes from:

A. producers

B. herbivores

C. carnivores

D. detritus

7. Which zone is the most productive part of a lake?

A. littoral

B. limnetic

C. profundal
 D. intertidal

8. Boreal forests are also known as:

A. alpine tundra

B. taiga

C. chaparral

D. savannah

9. Which of these is not an ecosystem service?

A. recharging groundwater

B. cleaning water by trapping pollutants in soil

C. producing fossils fuels

D. providing wildlife habitat

10. The tropical equivalent of a salt marsh, covering about 70% of coastlines is a(n):
A. temperate estuary

B. mangrove forest

C. benthic environment

D. fringing reef

11. The Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan includes all but which of these?
The area's system of canals and levees will be reengineered to restore a
A.
more natural flow of water to the Everglades.
Sugar farmers will clean up their runoff so that less phosphorus enters the
B.
Everglades.
Excess water will be diverted to the Atlantic Ocean to promote urban
C.
growth.
 Some agricultural land will be bought and converted to marshes that will
D.
filter and clean agricultural runoff of remaining farmland.

12. Climate is based primarily on what two factors?

A. temperature and precipitation

B. precipitation and elevation

C. temperature and humidity

D. elevation and solar radiation

13. Which of these tree species would not be found in a temperate deciduous forest?
A. oak

B. Douglas fir

C. hickory

D. beech

14. How much of America's tallgrass prairie has vanished because of agriculture?
A. 60%

B. 70%

C. 80%

D. 90%

15. Temperate environments with mild winters and abundant rainfall combined with dry
summers are characteristic of what type of climate?
A. subtropical

B. tundra

C. Mediterranean
 D. desert

16. Which of these human activities has altered North American deserts?
A. increased groundwater consumption

B. driving four-wheel-drive vehicles

C. poaching of rare cacti and tortoises

D. all of these

17. Which is not an adaptation of desert plants to their environment?

A. buttresses on trees

B. reduced leaves or no leaves

C. stems that store water

D. spines, thorns or toxins to resist grazing

18. Savanna has wide expanses of grasses interrupted by occasional trees such as the:
A. magnolia

B. western arborvitae

C. acacia

D. hickory

19. Which is the most widely distributed sea grass along North American coasts?
A. turtle grass

B. eel grass

C. manatee grass

D. cord grass
20. Which of the following is not a type of coral reef?
A. barrier

B. atoll

C. pelagic

D. fringe

21. A day at the beach would find you swimming in the _________ .
A. oceanic province

B. euphotic zone

C. headwaters

D. chaparral

22. Thermal stratification occurs in which season?

A. spring

B. summer

C. fall

D. winter

23. The Chesapeake Bay is the largest source of what organisms in the world?
A. striped bass

B. blue crabs

C. oysters

D. shad

1. Which event took place during the first urban revolution?

 A. People moved into cities for the first time.
Modern cities developed as commerce replaced farming as the main way to
B.
make a living.
The greatest population growth is taking place in cities in developing
C.
countries.

D. City dwellers moved from urban areas to rural areas.

2. Compared to rural areas, city populations generally have:

A. a larger proportion of older people

B. greater heterogeneity with respect to race, religion and socioeconomic status

C. equal proportions of males and females

D. all of these

3. Megacities are cities with more than how many inhabitants?

A. 4million

B. 8 million

C. 10 million

D. 12 million

4. Which of these is true of cities in developing countries?

A. Trains are the most common form of transportation.

B. Approximately half of all cities have areas that police consider dangerous.

C. One in every ten urban households lives in poverty.

D. About two thirds of all cities do not treat their sewage.

5. In a city, economic policies, method of government and social hierarchy make up its
 A. population

B. organization

C. environment

D. technology

6. Which of these is an effect from prolonged exposure to noise?

A. muscle contraction

B. increase in heart rate

C. dilation of pupils

D. all of these

7. A solution to urban growth where land is used efficiently and residential buildings are
close to shopping, jobs and transportation is:
A. gentrification

B. compact development

C. technology

D. agglomeration

8. Which of these can increase the number of thunderstorms and contribute to the
buildup of pollutants in a city?
A. runoff

B. dust dome

C. heat island

D. brownfield

9. Which city was chosen by Money Magazine as America's most livable city in 2000?
 A. Dallas, Texas

B. Chicago, Illinois

C. Atlanta, Georgia

D. Portland, Oregon

10. In a city, which area typically pays the highest taxes?

A. central business district

B. residential buildings surrounding the central business district

C. land intensive businesses on the outskirts of the city

D. suburbs

11. Which of these is not true about a smart growth plan?

A. It incorporates compact development.

B. It converts open space and farm land to parks and recreational areas.

C. It creates communities in which it is easy to walk from place to place.

D. It promotes growth in areas that could be helped by growth.

12. Separate industrial parks, shopping centers and apartment districts are largely the
result of:
A. zoning

B. smart growth

C. suburban sprawl

D. all of these

13. In a sustainable city, green space

 A. is used to grow crops

B. provides habitat for wildlife

C. is a recycling area for yard wastes

D. is another name for a greenhouse

14. According to projections for 2015, which world city will have the largest
population?
A. Sao Paulo, Brazil

B. Mexico City, Mexico

C. Tokyo, Japan

D. Delhi, India

15. Cities have grown at the expense of rural populations because:

A. fewer farmers support an increased number of people

B. people in rural settings have fewer employment opportunities

cities have traditionally provided more jobs because of industry and
C.
economic development

D. all of these

16. Why are squatter settlements often built on floodplains or steep slopes?
A. Settlements near rivers give people a potential means of transportation.

B. These areas are typically recreational areas that are open to the public.

C. These areas are unsuitable for regular housing.

D. Materials to build houses are often found there.

17. In the Lewis Center at Oberlin College, how is the sun's energy collected?
 A. earth-coupled heat pump

B. photovoltaic cells

C. living machine

D. geothermal wells

18. From what material are acoustic panels in the Lewis Center composed?
A. recycled carpet

B. landscape plants

C. wood from nearby forests

D. agricultural straw wastes

19. In the 1920's average car commutes to work were about ___ miles. Today, because
of suburban sprawl, commutes of ____ or more miles are commonplace.
A. 1.5; 5

B. 1.5; 20

C. 5; 15

D. 20; 50