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1.protocols are?
[A] Agreements on how communication components and DTE's are to communicate
[B] Logical communication channels for transferring data
[C] Physical communication channels sued for transferring data
[D] None of above
Answer: A. Agreements on how communication components and DTE's are to communicate
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2.Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link?
[A] Simplex
[B] Half-duplex
[C] Full duplex
[D] All of above
Answer: C. Full duplex
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3.The method of communication in which transaction takes place in both directions,but only in one
direction at a time, is called ?
[A] Simplex
[B] Four wire circuit
[C] Full duplex
[D] Half-duplex
Answer: D. Half-duplex
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4.In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as?
[A] Detectors
[B] Modulators
[C] Stations
[D] Transponders
Answer: D. Transponders
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5.Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by?
[A] Bit stuffing
[B] Cyclic redundancy codes
[C] Hamming codes
[D] Equalization
Answer: B. Cyclic redundancy codes
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6.Loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called?
[A] Attenuation
[B] Propagation
[C] Scattering
[D] Interruption
Answer: A. Attenuation
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7.The topology with highest reliability is ?
[A] Bus topology
[B] Star topology
[C] Ring Topology
[D] Mesh Topology
Answer: D. Mesh Topology
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8.Baud means?
[A] The number of bits transmitted per unit time
[B] The number of byted transmitted per unit time
[C] The rate at which the signal changes
[D] None of above
Answer: C. The rate at which the signal changes
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9.In OSI model dialogue control and token management are responsibilities of ?
[A] Session Layer
[B] Network layer
[C] Transport layer
[D] Data link layer
Answer: A. Session Layer
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10.Under mark parity,each parity bit is?
[A] Alternated between 0 and 1
[B] Always set to 0
[C] Always set to 1
[D] Not used
Answer: C. Always set to 1
11.How long is an IPv6 address?
[A] 32 bits
[B] 128 bits
[C] 128 bytes
[D] 64 bits
Answer: B. 128 bits
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
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12.You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected
to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the
server?
[A] 100 kbps
[B] 10 Mbps
[C] 1 Mbps
[D] 2 Mbps
Answer: B. 10 Mbps
Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.
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13.How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?
[A] Every 2 seconds
[B] Never
[C] Every 10 minutes
[D] Every 30 seconds
Answer: A. Every 2 seconds
Explanation:
Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.
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14.Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
[A] show all access-lists
[B] show access-lists
[C] show ip interface
[D] show interface
Answer: B. show access-lists
Explanation:
To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.
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15.What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?
[A] VLAN Trunking Protocol
[B] VLAN
[C] 802.1Q
[D] ISL
Answer: B. VLAN
Explanation:
VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information
across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL are used to configure trunking on a port.
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16.How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
[A] 1
[B] 12
[C] 5
[D] 2
Answer: B. 12
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.
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17.Which protocol does Ping use?
[A] TCP
[B] ARP
[C] ICMP
[D] BootP
Answer: C. ICMP
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.
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18.What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
[A] NCP
[B] HDLC
[C] X.25
[D] LCP
Answer: D. LCP
Explanation:
Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink.
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19.What is a stub network?
[A] A network that has only one entry and exit point.
[B] A network with only one entry and no exit point.
[C] A network with more than one exit point.
[D] A network with more than one exit and entry point.
Answer: A. A network that has only one entry and exit point.
Explanation:
Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Only default routes can be set on a stub
network or network loops may occur.
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20.Which of the following services use TCP?
[A] DHCP
[B] SMTP
[C] FTP
[D] TFTP
[E] HTTP
Answer: B. SMTP
Explanation:
SMTP, HTTP and FTP use TCP.
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21.Which of the following is private IP address?
[A] 192.168.24.43
[B] 168.172.19.39
[C] 172.15.14.36
[D] 12.0.0.1
Answer: A. 192.168.24.43
Explanation:
Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. Class B private address range is
172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through
192.168.255.255.
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22.Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
[A] Class A
[B] Class B
[C] Class C
[D] Class D
[E] Class E
Answer: C. Class C
Explanation:
A Class C network address has only 8 bits for defining hosts: 28 - 2 = 254.
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23.In dial up remote access a client uses the ---- to create a physical connection to a part on a
remote access server of the private network.
[A] Public telephone network
[B] Bank??s branch network
[C] Private network
[D] Public local network
Answer: A. Public telephone network
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24.Which of the following devices is a PC component that connects the computer to the network?
[A] Bridge
[B] NIC
[C] DNS Server
[D] Gateway
Answer: B. NIC
Explanation:
NIC (Network Interface Card) is a physical PC Component which is used to make an interface
between PC and Network using PCI Slots on Mother board.
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25.Which of the following devices modulates digital signals into analog signals that can be sent over
traditional telephone lines?
[A] Router
[B] Gateway
[C] Switch
[D] Modem
Answer: D. Modem
Explanation:
Modem is device that Modulate Digital Signals to Analog Signals that can be sent to telephone line.
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26.Which of the following devices takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to all
devices on the network regardless of the intended recipient?
[A] DNS Server
[B] Switch
[C] Hub
[D] Gateway
Answer: C. Hub
Explanation:
Hub is a basic Network Device that sent data from one network device and sent to all devices
because Hub is a broadcasting device.
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27.Which of the following devices takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to the
destination node based on MAC address?
[A] Hub
[B] Switch
[C] Gateway
[D] Modem
Answer: B. Switch
Explanation:
The Answer is Switch because it is an unicasting device and sent data to particular another device
according to MAC address. Switch Include memory to store all MAC address of connected devices.
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28.Although they've fallen out of favor, which of the following devices is used to connect different
network segments and manage the traffic between them?
[A] Bridge
[B] Hub
[C] Gateway
[D] Repeater
Answer: A. Bridge
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29.Which of the following devices direct network traffic based not by MAC addresses but by
software-configured network addresses?
[A] Router
[B] Hub
[C] Bridge
[D] NIC
Answer: A. Router
Explanation:
First of all Router is a software based deviced that can be configure Network Address According to
requirements. This can be connect two diffrent networks.
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30.Which of the following network devices/systems translates data from one format to another?
[A] Hub
[B] DHCP Server
[C] Gateway
[D] NIC
Answer: C. Gateway
31.Which of the following terms is used to describe a hardware- or software-based device that
protects networks from outside threats?
[A] NIC
[B] Gateway
[C] Firewall
[D] Hub
Answer: C. Firewall
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32.Which of the following devices assigns IP address to devices connected to a network that uses
TCP/IP?
[A] DHCP Server
[B] NIC
[C] Gateway
[D] Hub
Answer: A. DHCP Server
Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to provide Ip Address to all connected devies
dynamicaly that uses TCP/IP.
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33.Which of the following devices translates hostnames into IP addresses?
[A] DNS Server
[B] Hub
[C] DHCP Server
[D] Firewall
Answer: A. DNS Server
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34.Switch is a Device of _________ Layer of OSI Model.
[A] Network Layer
[B] Data Link Layer
[C] Application Layer
[D] Session Layer
Answer: B. Data Link Layer
Explanation:
Switches Operate On The Second Layer of OSI Model That is Data Link Layer.
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35.HUB is a _________ Device and Switch is a ________ Device.
[A] Unicast, Multicast
[B] Malticast, Unicast
[C] Broadcast, Unicast
[D] None of Above
Answer: C. Broadcast, Unicast
Explanation:
Hub is a Broadcasting Device and Switch is a Unicasting Device because Switch have Memory
Element to Store MAC Address.
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36.Star Topology is Based On a Central Device that can be __________ ?
[A] HUB
[B] Switch
[C] Only A
[D] Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B
Explanation:
HUB and Switch are used in Star Type Networks.
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37.The data on a DVD is held in the form of ....... on the disc.
[A] small pits and bumps
[B] small bits
[C] small bytes
[D] None of These
Answer: A. small pits and bumps
1. How long is an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits
B. 128 bytes
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
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2. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to
connect to the global Internet?
A. NAT
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D. PAT
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.
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3. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
Standard
IEEE
Extended
Specialized
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router.
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C. config mem
D. wr mem
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-
config.
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5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the
switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?
A. 100 kbps
B. 1 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 10 Mbps
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.
B. B
C. G
D. N
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the 2.4GHz range, with a
top speed of 54Mbps.
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7. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188
255.255.255.192 resides?
A. 192.168.168.129-190
B. 192.168.168.129-191
C. 192.168.168.128-190
D. 192.168.168.128-192
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
256 - 192 = 64. 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the
valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190.
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9. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. HDLC
D. LCP
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the packet.
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10. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A. line telnet 0 4
B. line aux 0 4
C. line vty 0 4
D. line con 0
Answer: Option C
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this
connectionless service.
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12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
B. Physical layer
D. Application layer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.
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14. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?
A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates.
B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates.
15. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router.
11. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this
connectionless service.
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12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
B. Physical layer
D. Application layer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.
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14. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?
A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates.
B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates.
15. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router.
16. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?
A. Never
B. Every 2 seconds
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 30 seconds
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.
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17. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.
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18. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
A. Set the Telnet password.
19. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.
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20. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A and B
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.
21. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
You should have only one root bridge per network.
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22. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP
B. HDLC
C. LCP
D. X.25
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink.
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24. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide
the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
C. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are
B.
allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
27. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.
28. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.
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29. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?
A. sh pvc
B. show interface
D. show run
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface.
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30. Which protocol does Ping use?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.
31. Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?
A. copy tftp run
C. config net
32. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A. erase startup
B. erase nvram
C. delete nvram
D. erase running
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.
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B. 3 and 4
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information across a
trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL are used to configure trunking on a port.