Questions

CHAPTER 12
1.For statistical inference about the mean of a single population when the population standard deviation is
unknown, the degrees for freedom for the t-distribution equal n 1 because we lose one degree of
freedom by using the:
a. sample mean as an estimate of the population mean.
b. sample standard deviation as an estimate of the population standard deviation.
c. sample proportion as an estimate of the population proportion.
d. sample size as an estimate of the population size.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.12.01
NAT: BUSPROG.SFME.KELL.15.03 STA: DISC.SFME.KELL.15.06
KEY: Bloom's: Comprehension
2. Researchers determined that 60 Puffs tissues is the average number of tissues used during a cold. Suppose
a random sample of 100 Puffs users yielded the following data on the number of tissues used during a
cold: = 52 and s = 22. Suppose the test statistic does not fall in the rejection region at = 0.05. Which
of the following conclusions is correct?
a. At = 0.05, we do not reject H0. c. At = 0.05, we accept H0.
b. At = 0.05, we reject H0. d. Both a and c.
KEY: Bloom's: Application
3. A robust estimator is one that is:

a. unbiased and symmetrical about zero. c. efficient and less spread out.
b. consistent and is also mound-shaped. d. not sensitive to moderate nonnormality.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.12.01
4. A random sample of size 15 taken from a normally distributed population revealed a sample mean of 75
and a sample variance of 25. The upper limit of a 95% confidence interval for the population mean would
equal:
a. 77.77 c. 88.85
b. 72.23 d. 77.27
5. A major electronics store chain is interested in estimating the average amount its credit card customers
spent on their first visit to the chain's new store in the mall. Fifteen credit card accounts were randomly
sampled and analyzed with the following results: = $50.50 and s2 = 400. A 95% confidence interval for
the average amount the credit card customers spent on their first visit to the chain's new store in the mall
is:
a. $50.50 $9.09. c. $50.50 $11.08.
b. $50.50 $10.12. d. None of these choices.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.12.01
6. Researchers determine that 60 Puffs tissues is the average number of tissues used during a cold. Suppose
cold: = 52 and s = 22. Using the sample information provided, the value of the test statistic is:
a. t = (52 60) / 22 c. t = (52 60) / (22 / 1002)
b. t = (52 60) / (22 / 100) d. t = (52 60) / (22 / 10)
7. For a 99% confidence interval of the population mean based on a sample of n = 25 with s = 0.05, the
critical value of t is:
a. 2.7969 c. 2.4922
b. 2.7874 d. 2.4851
8. Based on sample data, the 90% confidence interval limits for the population mean are LCL = 170.86 and
UCL = 195.42. If the 10% level of significance were used in testing the hypotheses H0: = 201 vs. H1:
201, the null hypothesis:
a. would be rejected. c. would fail to be rejected.
b. would be accepted. d. would become H0: 201
9. The degrees of freedom for the test statistic for when is unknown is:
a. 1 c. n 1
b. N d. None of these choices.
10. Researchers determined that 60 Puffs tissues is the average number of tissues used during a cold. Suppose
cold: = 52 and s = 22. Suppose the alternative we wanted to test was H1: < 60. The correct rejection
region for = 0.05 is:
a. reject H0 if t > 1.6604. c. reject H0 if t > 1.9842 or Z < 1.9842.
b. reject H0 if t < 1.6604. d. reject H0 if t < 1.9842.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.12.01
CHAPTER 13
1.The expected value of the difference of two sample means equals the difference of the corresponding
population means when:
a. the populations are normally distributed.
b. the samples are independent.
c. the populations are approximately normal and the sample sizes are large.
d. All of these choices are true.
2. In testing the difference between the means of two normally distributed populations, the number of
degrees of freedom associated with the unequal-variances t-test statistic usually results in a non-integer
number. It is recommended that you:
a. round to the nearest integer.
b. change the sample sizes until the number of degrees of freedom becomes an integer.
c. assume that the population variances are equal, and then use df = n1 + n2 2.
d. None of these choices.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.13.01
3. The quantity is called the pooled variance estimate of the common variance of two unknown but equal
population variances. It is the weighted average of the two sample variances, where the weights represent
the:
a. sample variances. c. degrees of freedom for each sample.
b. sample standard deviations. d. None of these choices.
KEY: Bloom's: Knowledge
4. Two independent samples of sizes 20 and 30 are randomly selected from two normally distributed
populations. Assume that the population variances are unknown but equal. In order to test the difference
between the population means, , the sampling distribution of the sample mean difference, ,
is:
a. normal. c. Student-t with 48 degrees of freedom.
b. Student-t with 50 degrees of freedom. d. None of these choices.
5. Two independent samples of sizes 40 and 50 are randomly selected from two populations to test the
difference between the population means . Assume the population variances are known. The
sampling distribution of the sample mean difference is:
a. normally distributed.
b. approximately normal.
c. Student t-distributed with 88 degrees of freedom.
6. Two independent samples of sizes 25 and 35 are randomly selected from two normal populations with
equal variances (assumed to be unknown). In order to test the difference between the population means,
the test statistic is:
a. a standard normal random variable.
b. approximately standard normal random variable.
c. Student t-distributed with 58 degrees of freedom.
d. Student t-distributed with 33 degrees of freedom.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.13.01
7. In testing the difference between two population means using two independent samples, we use the
pooled variance in estimating the standard error of the sampling distribution of the sample mean
difference if:
a. the sample sizes are both large.
b. the populations are normal with equal variances.
c. the populations are non-normal with unequal variances.
8. In testing the difference between two population means for which the population variances are unknown
and not assumed to be equal, two independent samples are drawn from the populations. Which of the
following tests is appropriate?
a. z-test c. unequal variances t-test
b. pooled-variances t-test d. None of these choices.
9. In testing the difference between the means of two normal populations using two independent samples
when the population variances are unequal, the sampling distribution of the resulting statistic is:
a. normal. c. approximately normal.
b. Student-t. d. approximately Student-t.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.13.01
10. In constructing a confidence interval estimate for the difference between the means of two independent
normally distributed populations, we:
a. pool the sample variances when the unknown population variances are equal.
b. pool the sample variances when the population variances are known and equal.
c. pool the sample variances when the population means are equal.
d. never pool the sample variances.
11. The t-test for the difference between the means of two independent populations assumes that the
respective:
a. sample sizes are equal. c. means are equal.
b. populations are normal. d. All of these choices are true.
12. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two independent populations with equal
variances, samples of n1 = 15 and n2 = 15 are taken, then the number of degrees of freedom is equal to
a. 13 c. 28
b. 14 d. 29
13. In testing for the differences between the means of two independent populations where the variances in
each population are unknown but assumed equal, the degrees of freedom is:
a. n1 + n2 c. n1 + n2 1
b. n1 + n2 2 d. None of these choices
14. Given the information: the number of degrees of freedom that should be
used in the pooled variance t-test is:
a. 40 c. 15
b. 38 d. 25
15. When testing vs. , the observed value of the z-score was found to be
2.15. Then, the p-value for this test would be
a. .0158 c. .9842
b. .0316 d. .9684
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.13.01
16. A political analyst in Hawaii surveys a random sample of registered Democrats and compares the results
with those obtained from a random sample of registered Republicans. This would be an example of:
a. independent samples.
b. dependent samples.
c. independent samples only if the sample sizes are equal.
d. dependent samples only if the sample sizes are equal.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.13.01
17. In testing for differences between the means of two independent populations the null hypothesis is:
a. c.
b. d.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.13.01; SFME.KELL.15.13.02
18. Suppose we randomly selected 250 people, and on the basis of their responses to a survey we assigned
them to one of two groups: high-risk group and low-risk group. We then recorded the blood pressure for
the members of each group. Such data are called:
a. observational. c. matched.
b. experimental. d. None of these choices.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
CHAPTER 14
1.The test statistic of the single-factor ANOVA equals:

a. sum of squares for treatments / sum of squares for error.
b. sum of squares for error / sum of squares for treatments.
c. mean square for treatments / mean square for error.
d. mean square for error / mean square for treatments.
2. In a single-factor analysis of variance, MST is the mean square for treatments and MSE is the mean
square for error. The null hypothesis of equal population means is rejected if:
a. MST is much larger than MSE. c. MST is equal to MSE.
b. MST is much smaller than MSE. d. None of these choices.
3. In one-way ANOVA, the amount of total variation that is unexplained is measured by the:
a. sum of squares for treatments. c. total sum of squares.
b. degrees of freedom. d. sum of squares for error.
4. In a one-way ANOVA, error variability is computed as the sum of the squared errors, SSE, for all values
of the response variable. This variability is the:
a. the total variation. c. between-treatments variation.
b. within-treatments variation. d. None of these choices.
5. Which of the following is not a required condition for one-way ANOVA?

a. The sample sizes must be equal.
b. The populations must all be normally distributed.
c. The population variances must be equal.
d. The samples for each treatment must be selected randomly and independently.
6. The analysis of variance is a procedure that allows statisticians to compare two or more population:
a. proportions. c. variances.
b. means. d. standard deviations.
7. The distribution of the test statistic for analysis of variance is the:

a. normal distribution. c. F-distribution.
b. Student t-distribution. d. None of these choices.
8. In the one-way ANOVA where there are k treatments and n observations, the degrees of freedom for the
F-statistic are equal to, respectively:
a. n and k. c. n k and k 1.
b. k and n. d. k 1 and n k.
9. In the one-way ANOVA where k is the number of treatments and n is the number of observations in all
samples, the degrees of freedom for treatments is given by:
a. n k c. n 1
b. k 1 d. n k + 1
10. In ANOVA, the F-test is the ratio of two sample variances. In the one-way ANOVA (completely
randomized design), the variance used as a numerator of the ratio is:
a. mean square for treatments. c. total sum of squares.
b. mean square for error. d. None of these choices.
11. In a completely randomized design for ANOVA, the numerator and denominator degrees of freedom are
4 and 25, respectively. The total number of observations must equal:
a. 24 c. 29
b. 25 d. 30
12. The number of degrees of freedom for the denominator in one-way ANOVA test involving 4 population
means with 15 observations sampled from each population is:
a. 60 c. 56
b. 19 d. 45
13. The value of the test statistic in a completely randomized design for ANOVA is F = 6.29. The degrees of
freedom for the numerator and denominator are 5 and 10, respectively. Using an F table, the most
accurate statements to be made about the p-value is that it is:
a. greater than 0.05 c. between 0.010 and 0.025.
b. between 0.001 and 0.010. d. between 0.025 and 0.050.
14. In one-way ANOVA, the term refers to the:

a. weighted average of the sample means.
b. sum of the sample means divided by the total number of observations.
c. sum of the population means.
d. sum of the sample means.
15. Which of the following is a required condition for ANOVA?

a. The populations are normally distributed.
b. The population variances are equal.
c. The samples are independent.
d. All of these choices are required conditions for ANOVA.
16. In the one-way ANOVA where k is the number of treatments and n is the number of observations in all
samples, the number of degrees of freedom for error is:
a. k 1 c. n k
b. n 1 d. n k + 1
17. One-way ANOVA is applied to independent samples taken from three normally distributed populations
with equal variances. Which of the following is the null hypothesis for this procedure?
a. 1 + 2 + 3 = 0 c. 1 = 2 = 3 = 0
b. 1 + 2 + 3 0 d. 1 = 2 = 3
18. How does conducting multiple t-tests compare to conducting a single F-test?
a. Multiple t-tests increases the chance of a Type I error.
b. Multiple t-tests decreases the chance of a Type I error.
c. Multiple t-tests does not affect the chance of a Type I error.
d. This comparison cannot be made without knowing the number of populations.
19. In one-way analysis of variance, between-treatments variation is measured by the:

a. SSE c. SST
b. SS(Total) d. standard deviation
20. One-way ANOVA is applied to independent samples taken from four normally distributed populations
with equal variances. If the null hypothesis is rejected, then we can infer that
a. all population means are equal. c. at least two population means are equal.
b. all population means differ. d. at least two population means differ.
21. Consider the following partial ANOVA table:
Source of Variation SS df MS F
Treatments 75 * 25 6.67
Error 60 * 3.75
Total 135 19
The numerator and denominator degrees of freedom for the F-test (identified by asterisks) are
a. 4 and 15 c. 15 and 4
b. 3 and 16 d. 16 and 3
22. Consider the following ANOVA table:
Treatments 4 2 2.0 0.80
Error 30 12 2.5
Total 34 14
The number of treatments is

a. 13 c. 3
b. 5 d. 12
23. In one-way analysis of variance, within-treatments variation is measured by:

a. sum of squares for error. c. total sum of squares.
b. sum of squares for treatments. d. standard deviation.
24. Consider the following ANOVA table:
Treatments 128 4 32 2.963
Error 270 25 10.8
Total 398 29
The total number of observations is:

a. 25 c. 30
b. 29 d. 32
25. In one-way analysis of variance, if all the sample means are equal, then the:
a. total sum of squares is zero.
b. sum of squares for treatments is zero.
c. sum of squares for error is zero.
d. sum of squares for error equals sum of squares for treatments.
26. Which of the following components in an ANOVA table is not additive?

a. Sum of squares c. Mean squares
b. Degrees of freedom d. All of these choices are additive.
27. In which case can an F-test be used to compare two population means?
a. For one tail tests only. c. For either one or two tail tests.
b. For two tail tests only. d. None of these choices.
28. The F-test statistic in a one-way ANOVA is equal to:
a. MST/MSE c. MSE/MST
b. SST/SSE d. SSE/SST
29. The numerator and denominator degrees of freedom for the F-test in a one-way ANOVA are,
respectively,
a. (n k) and (k 1) c. (k n) and (n 1)
b. (k 1) and (n k) d. (n 1) and (k n)
30. Which of the following statements is true?

a. F = t2
b. The F-test can be used instead of a two tail t-test when you compare two population
means.
c. Doing three t-tests is statistically equivalent to doing one F-test when you compare three
population means.
CHAPTER 16
1. The regression line has been fitted to the data points (4, 8), (2, 5), and (1, 2). The sum of the
squared residuals will be:
a. 7 c. 8
b. 15 d. 22
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
2. If an estimated regression line has a y-intercept of 10 and a slope of 4, then when x = 2 the actual value of
y is:
a. 18 c. 14
b. 15 d. unknown.
3. Given the least squares regression line :

a. the relationship between x and y is positive.
b. the relationship between x and y is negative.
c. as x decreases, so does y.
4. A regression analysis between weight (y in pounds) and height (x in inches) resulted in the following least
squares line: . This implies that if the height is increased by 1 inch, the weight, on average, is
expected to:
a. increase by 1 pound. c. increase by 5 pounds.
b. decrease by 1 pound. d. increase by 24 pounds.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
5. A regression analysis between sales (in $1000) and advertising (in $100) resulted in the following least
squares line: . This implies that if advertising is $800, then the predicted amount of sales (in
dollars) is:
a. $4875 c. $487,500
b. $123,000 d. $12,300
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
6. A regression analysis between sales (in $1,000) and advertising (in $1,000) resulted in the following least
squares line: . This implies that:
a. as advertising increases by $1,000, sales increases by $5,000.
b. as advertising increases by $1,000, sales increases by $80,000.
c. as advertising increases by $5, sales increases by $80.
7. Which of the following techniques is used to predict the value of one variable on the basis of other
variables?
a. Correlation analysis c. Covariance
b. Coefficient of correlation d. Regression analysis
8. The residual is defined as the difference between:

a. the actual value of y and the estimated value of y
b. the actual value of x and the estimated value of x
c. the actual value of y and the estimated value of x
d. the actual value of x and the estimated value of y
9. In the simple linear regression model, the y-intercept represents the:

a. change in y per unit change in x. c. value of y when x = 0.
b. change in x per unit change in y. d. value of x when y = 0.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
10. In the first order linear regression model, the population parameters of the y-intercept and the slope are
estimated, respectively, by:
a. b0 and b1 c. 0 and b1
b. b0 and 1 d. 0 and 1
11. In the simple linear regression model, the slope represents the:
a. value of y when x = 0. c. value of x when y = 0.
b. average change in y per unit change in x. d. average change in x per unit change in y.
12. In regression analysis, the residuals represent the:

a. difference between the actual y values and their predicted values.
b. difference between the actual x values and their predicted values.
c. square root of the slope of the regression line.
d. change in y per unit change in x.
13. In the first-order linear regression model, the population parameters of the y-intercept and the slope are,
respectively,
a. b0 and b1 c. 0 and b1
b. b0 and 1 d. 0 and 1
14. In a simple linear regression problem, the following statistics are calculated from a sample of 10
observations: . The least squares estimates of the
slope and y-intercept are, respectively,
a. 1.5 and 0.5 c. 1.5 and 2.5
b. 2.5 and 1.5 d. 2.5 and 5.0
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
15. In the least squares regression line , the predicted value of y equals:
a. 1.0 when x = 1.0 c. 2.0 when x = 1.0
b. 2.0 when x = 1.0 d. 1.0 when x = 1.0
16. The least squares method for determining the best fit minimizes:
a. total variation in the dependent variable c. sum of squares for regression
b. sum of squares for error d. All of these choices are true.
CHAPTER 17
1.The adjusted coefficient of determination is adjusted for the:

a. number of independent variables and the sample size.
b. number of dependent variables and the sample size.
c. coefficient of correlation and the significance level.
d. number of regression parameters including the y-intercept.
2. In a multiple regression analysis, if the model provides a poor fit, this indicates that:
a. the coefficient of determination will be close to zero.
b. the standard error of estimate will be large.
c. the sum of squares for error will be large.
3. Suppose a multiple regression analysis involving 25 data points has and SSE = 36. Then, the
number of the independent variables must be:
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
4. In a multiple regression model, the mean of the probability distribution of the error variable is assumed
to be:
a. k, where k is the number of independent variables included in the model.
b. 1.0
c. 0.0
5. In a multiple regression model, the standard deviation of the error variable is assumed to be:
a. 0. c. constant.
b. 1.0. d. None of these choices.
6. In multiple regression analysis, the ratio MSR/MSE yields the:

a. t-test statistic for testing each individual regression coefficient.
b. F-test statistic for testing the validity of the regression equation.
c. coefficient of determination.
d. adjusted coefficient of determination.
7. In a multiple regression analysis involving 6 independent variables, the total variation in y is 900 and SSR
= 600. What is the value of SSE?
a. 300 c. 0.67
b. 1.50 d. None of these choices.
8. In a multiple regression analysis involving k independent variables and n data points, the number of
degrees of freedom associated with the sum of squares for error is:
a. k 1 c. n 1
b. n k d. n k 1
9. In order to test the validity of a multiple regression model involving 5 independent variables and 30
observations, the numerator and denominator degrees of freedom for the critical value of F are,
respectively,
a. 5 and 30 c. 5 and 24
b. 6 and 29 d. 6 and 25
10. A multiple regression model involves 5 independent variables and a sample of 10 data points. If we want
to test the validity of the model at the 5% significance level, the critical value is:
a. 6.26 c. 9.36
b. 3.33 d. 4.24
11. A multiple regression model involves 10 independent variables and 30 observations. If we want to test at
the 5% significance level whether one of the coefficients is = 0 (vs. 0) the critical value will be:
a. 2.228 c. 1.729
b. 2.093 d. 1.697
12. A multiple regression model has the form . As x3 increases by one unit, with x1 and
x2 held constant, the y on average is expected to:
a. increase by 1 unit. c. decrease by 4 units.
b. increase by 12 units. d. decrease by 16 units.
13. A multiple regression model has the form: . As x2 increases by one unit, holding x1
constant, then the value of y will increase by:
a. 7.25 units c. 2 units
b. 6 units on average d. None of these choices
14. To test the validity of a multiple regression model, we test the null hypothesis that the regression
coefficients are all zero by applying the:
a. F-test c. z-test
b. t-test d. None of these choices.
15. A multiple regression analysis involving three independent variables and 25 data points results in a value
of 0.769 for the unadjusted coefficient of determination. Then, the adjusted coefficient of determination
is:
a. 0.385 c. 0.591
b. 0.877 d. 0.736
16. The coefficient of determination ranges from:

a. 1.0 to .
b. 0.0 to 1.0.
c. 1.0 to k, where k is the number of independent variables in the model.
d. 1.0 to n, where n is the number of observations in the dependent variable.
17. For a multiple regression model, the following statistics are given: Total variation in y = 500, SSE = 80,
and n = 25. Then, the coefficient of determination is:
a. 0.84 c. 0.3125
b. 0.16 d. 0.05
18. A multiple regression model has:

a. only one independent variable. c. more than one dependent variable.
b. only two independent variables. d. more than one independent variable.
19. For a multiple regression model the following statistics are given: Total variation in y = 250, SSE = 50, k
= 4, and n = 20. Then, the coefficient of determination adjusted for the degrees of freedom is:
a. 0.800 c. 0.840
b. 0.747 d. 0.775
20. If all the points for a multiple regression model with two independent variables were right on the
regression plane, then the coefficient of determination would equal:
a. 0.
b. 1.
c. 2, since there are two independent variables.
21. In a multiple regression model, the following statistics are given: SSE = 100, R2 = 0.995, k = 5, and n =
15. Then, the coefficient of determination adjusted for degrees of freedom is:
a. 0.992 c. 0.955
b. 0.900 d. 0.855
22. In a multiple regression model, the error variable is assumed to have a mean of:
a. 1.0 c. 1.0
b. 0.0 d. None of these choices.
23. For the following multiple regression model: , a unit increase in x1, holding x2 and
x3 constant, results in:
a. a decrease of 3 units on average in the value of y.
b. an increase of 8 units in the value of y.
c. an increase of 3 units on average in the value of y.
24. For a multiple regression model, the total variation in y can be expressed as:
a. SSE SSR. c. SSR + SSE.
b. SSR SSE. d. SSR / SSE.
25. In a multiple regression model, the probability distribution of the error variable is assumed to be:
a. normal. c. positively skewed.
b. non-normal. d. negatively skewed.
26. In a multiple regression analysis involving 40 observations and 5 independent variables, the following
statistics are given: Total variation in y = 350 and SSE = 50. Then, the coefficient of determination is:
a. 0.8408 c. 0.8469
b. 0.8571 d. 0.8529
27. In testing the validity of a multiple regression model in which there are four independent variables, the
null hypothesis is:
a. . c. .
b. . d. .

28. A multiple regression equation includes 5 independent variables, and the coefficient of determination is
0.81. The percentage of the variation in y that is explained by the regression equation is:
a. 81% c. 86%
b. 90% d. about 16%
29. For the multiple regression model: , if x2 were to increase by 5, holding x1 and
x3 constant, the value of y will:
a. increase by 5. c. decrease on average by 5.
b. increase by 75. d. decrease on average by 75.
30. In a multiple regression analysis, there are 20 data points and 4 independent variables, and the sum of the
squared differences between observed and predicted values of y is 180. The standard error of estimate will
be:
a. 9.000 c. 3.464
b. 6.708 d. 3.000
31. In a multiple regression model, the value of the coefficient of determination has to fall between
a. 1 and +1. c. 1 and 0.
b. 0 and +1. d. None of these choices.

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CHAPTER 12

3. A robust estimator is one that is:

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

1.The test statistic of the single-factor ANOVA equals:

5. Which of the following is not a required condition for one-way ANOVA?

7. The distribution of the test statistic for analysis of variance is the:

14. In one-way ANOVA, the term refers to the:

15. Which of the following is a required condition for ANOVA?

19. In one-way analysis of variance, between-treatments variation is measured by the:

21. Consider the following partial ANOVA table:

22. Consider the following ANOVA table:

The number of treatments is

23. In one-way analysis of variance, within-treatments variation is measured by:

24. Consider the following ANOVA table:

The total number of observations is:

26. Which of the following components in an ANOVA table is not additive?

30. Which of the following statements is true?

3. Given the least squares regression line :

8. The residual is defined as the difference between:

9. In the simple linear regression model, the y-intercept represents the:

12. In regression analysis, the residuals represent the:

1.The adjusted coefficient of determination is adjusted for the:

6. In multiple regression analysis, the ratio MSR/MSE yields the:

16. The coefficient of determination ranges from:

18. A multiple regression model has:

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: SFME.KELL.15.17.02

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