GE

L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Transmission

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Saturated

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Density

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Frontal
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Orographic

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Nucleation

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Cirrus

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 1
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 0

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 1

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 1
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 0

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 0

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 B
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 E

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 C

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 B (mercury)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 E
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 A

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 E

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 E

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 D
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 D

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 Because air is highly compressible

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 E - no change

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 1 B (dew only)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 C

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 B

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t1 A

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t2 B
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 Geostrophic

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 convergence

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 monsoon

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 gravity
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 Tornadoes

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 Water

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 Dust

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t2 0
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t2 A

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 B (bright summer day)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 Increased

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t2 A
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 D (oceans to land)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 C (canada)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 C (cold and dry)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 B (hot and dry)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t2 B

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 A (evening, towards water)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 D (cP and mT)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 2 D (tornado)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 foraminifera

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 fractionation

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 Little Ice Age

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 glaciation
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 pollen

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 30

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 aphelion

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 South Pole
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 plants

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 hydrocarbon

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 0
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 0

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 1
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 0

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 1

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 A
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 41,000; D (obliquity)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 100,000; B (eccentricity)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 D (variable)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 A
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 A

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 D (5)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 A (troughs that filled with water)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 6 degrees
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 Tropical fossils

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 Antartic ice cores

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 A (900-1000m)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 B (100-200m)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t3 D

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 15,000 years

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 Sunspots

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 A (smaller contrast)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 A (doubled)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 3 B (less variation)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 D

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 542 mil years ago
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 D - 20 times

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 0

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 D

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 A
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 B

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 B (sun's energy and earth's rotation)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 C (21 Dec)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 C (21 March)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 A (June 21)

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 C (21 Dec)

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 D

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 B (near the poles)
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Nitrogen

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Earth's surface

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Dew point

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 C
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Warm clouds

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 D

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 B

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Torricelli
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 D (1013 mb)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 C (winds decrease)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 D

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t4 A
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 A (air mass weather)

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Warm and dry

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Cold

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 Stationary front
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 D (occluded front forms)

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 D (occluded front)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 A (ahead)

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L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 1 km
GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 4 B (warmer)

GE
L2
Fin
al
Par
t 5 Diversity

Habitat

Inexhaustible
water-stressed

billion

solar into electrical

few centuries
 85%

2045, 2080
Montreal

Methane

All are sources

C
a) Climate change, the nitrogen cycle,
and biodiversity loss.

Near-infrared

C (both)

1
GE
L
Ch
apt
er
1 steady state

10 minutes

1.Observe and gather data

2. Formulate a hypothesis
3. Test the hypothesis
4. Subject the hypothesis to peer
review
5. Formulate theory
6. Formulate a law or principle

GE
L
Ch
apt
er
2 internal energy
work

1st Law: Conservation and

Transformation
2nd Law: Efficiency and Entropy
3rd Law: Absolute Zero

Energy always changes from a more

useful, more concentrated form to a
less useful, less concentrated form.
(Entropy increases because energy is
degraded and becomes increasingly
dispersed and unavailable as it is used).

degradation
gamma rays

The core
The Radiative Layer
The Convective Layer
The Photosphere
The Chromosphere
The Corona

blackbody radiator

the amount of energy (or light) radiated

into space per unit of time.
geothermal energy

geothermal gradient

5300K (almost as hot as Sun's surface)

plate tectonics
radiogenic heat

accretionary heat

tidal heating

heat from the gravitational potential

energy of the dense core material
sinking into the center of the planet
plus heat released as the innermost
material solidified
 -Incoming solar radiation powers the
winds, rainfall, ocean currents, waves,
the rest of the hydrologic cycle, and
photosynthesis

Earth's internal heat energy drives the

tectonic cycle, causing the lithospheric
plates to shift, uplift mountains, cause
earthquakes and cause volcanic
eruptions
Earth loses energy by reflection
(albedo) and by degradation and
reradiation

40% of solar radiation is reflected by

the top of the atmosphere, clouds,
ocean surfaces, continents, and ice and
snow

Absorbed solar radiation undergoes

irreversible degradation through
transfer from reservoir to another and
conversion from one form to another,
eventually ending up as heat,
reradiated into space

-Fossil fuels
-Biomass energy
-Hydroelectric energy
-Nuclear energy

GE
L
Ch
apt
er
3 elements
atomic number

atomic mass

compound

molecule
core, mantle, crust

metallic iron solid inner core and liquid

outer core

8 km thick
mainly basalt, relatively dense

45km thick
consists of rocks with less density
oxygen and silicon

minerals

1. Crystal structure: the way the atoms

of the elements are packed together

2. Composition: the major chemical

elements that are present and their
proportions

1. Natural (formed geologically)

2. Inorganic (sic! mostly)
3. Solid
4. Possess an orderly internal structure
of atoms
5. Have a definite chemical composion
living organisms can create minerals
called biogenic minerals to emphasize
this special origin

Vertebrate bones (apatite) Oyster,

mussel, and clam shells (aragonite)

oxygen (O),
silicon (Si),
aluminum (Al),
iron (Fe),
calcium (Ca),
sodium (Na),
potassium (K),
magnesium (Mg)

1. Solidification from a melt

2. Precipitation from a solution
3. Solid-state Diffusion
4. Biomineralization
5. Precipitating directly from a gas

rock
minerals

formed from the cooling and

consolidation of magma or lava

Texture: the overall appearance of a

rock, resulting from the size, shape, and
arrangement of its mineral grains
Mineral assemblage: the kinds and
relative amounts of minerals present

Bowen's reaction series

 igneous

metamorphic

GE
L
Exa
m
2
(Pa
rt
5) -
ma
rtin
_b
urg
os snowline

glacier
compaction

temperate

fjords

moraines
permafrost

10

0
1

1
 0

C - mountain

10%
C

90%

D - 70,000
B

Surge

D
 30%

Fjord

Ablation

C
 Sept

GE
L
Exa
m
2
(Pa
rt
6) -
ma
rtin
_b
urg
os 1

1
C

E
D

B
A

C
GE
L
Exa
m
2
Par
t4
-
ma
rtin
_b
urg
os Water

perennial/ephemeral

braided

5; 50
silt

wetlands

1
0

0
C

30%
D

C
Colorado

D
C

E
 D

GE
L
Exa
m
2
(pa
rt
1) -
jan
eel
ee clastic

chemical

lithification
recrystallisation

conglomerate

stratigraphy

correlation
angular

stress

Greenschist

pyroclastic
0

1
0

1
A

200 C

D
Gneiss

marble

granite

A
B

Gneiss

A
D

B
 B

GE
L
Exa
m
2
(pa
rt
2) oceanic trench

passive
craton

positive

0
1

1
 1

B
B

B
D

B
200 mil

B
 A

GE
L
Exa
m
2
(pa
rt
3) elastic rebound

body waves

surface waves
focus

Richter

Seismic body

subduction zone
basaltic magma

higher;higher

stratovolcanoes

Ring of Fire
0

0
 0

stratovolcanoes

A
C

A
A

B
B

B
D

D
 C

GE
OL
12
2
Fin
al Doppler effect

Expanding Universe theory

Solar system

terrestrial

4.5 billion

13.7 bil
Nebula theory

accretion disk

planetisimal

protoplanet
stellar nucleosynthesis

differentiation

magnetic field lines

heliosphere
magnetosphere

thermosphere, mesosphere,
stratosphere, troposphere

Oort cloud

Kuiper belt
Cosmic rays

Comet

asteroid

habitable zone
surface water

bathymetry

topography

mid-ocean ridge
hypsometric curve

meteorite

Moho

Upper mantle; 400km

 Transition zone

Lower mantle

GE
OL
Re
qui
red
Qui
z 2 increased temp

b
C

B
 equant

divergent and transform

GE
OL
10
1L
Lab
1/C
ha
pte
r 1 thinner, denser
Earth's internal heat, external energy
from the Sun, pull from Earth's gravity

heat and/or gravity

150,000,000

145
 200,000

1.03

Geobaric gradient

ME
A
10
0 energy
 1

volcanic gas

wave

carboniferous
thermosphere

Mesosphere, Asthenosphere,
Lithosphere

CF, gravity, wind

differential heat distribution

seasonality

10%

30%
High GHG levels

negative

high albedo at equator

1
 0

100,000-400,000 years

terrestrial plant biomass

120m
 1

system stablity model

precession
Cenozoic

dentrification

geomagnetic storms
1C

dendrochronology

doubled
7m

CO2, CH4

bright winter day

genetic bottlenecks

immigration = extinction

Area effect

Distance effect
Exaptation

temperature and precipitation

biodiversity hotspot

fitness
 conservation

salinisation

ME
A
tes
t
#1 -(repeat)

NR
13
0
Exa
m
2 C
 60%

abyssal
 d

NR
13
0
Exa
m
3 A
B

precipitation

glacial period

Milankovitch cycles
 *Pollen studies show a very different
vegetation distribution than today
*Species were displaced in various
directions, forming new plant
communities

NR
13
0
Exa
m
4 0

1
0

0
B

D
 0

D
C

A
A

gaia

prokaryotes
primordial soup

black smoker

panspermia hypo

micronutrients
boreal

temperate rainforest

temperate deciduous forest

tropical deciduous forests

chaprral

extrinsic

intrinsic

logistic growth
competitive interactions

exploitative interactions

commensalism

species diversity
species richness

species evenness

100 billion

The collision with the Mars sized object

called Theia about 4.5 billion years ago,
which led to the formation of the Moon
 1

Unlike the Earth, the Moon has no

atmosphere to weather rocks or plate
tectonic activity to destroy rocks

planets should rotate in the same

direction as they revolve around the
Sun

atmospheric emissions of pollutants

global change

denser materials sink and less dense

materials rise to the surface

5 billion years

mercury
13.7 bil

blue

jupiter

The assignment of relative age to the

strata and
Younger rocks overlay older rocks
cretaceous

coarse

transform
occurs when a particular wavelength of sunlight passes through the atmosphere
unimpeded and unaltered, eventually reaching Earth's surface

When the number of molecules that evaporate (going from liquid to gas) equals the
number of molecules that condense (going from gas to liquid), the vapor is referred to
as

lifting occurs when warm, low-density air rises convectively and displaces cooler,
denser air.

lifting occurs when two flowing air masses of different density meet
lifting occurs when flowing air is forced upward as a result of passing
over a sloping terrain, such as a mountain range

The initial formation process of a droplet or an ice crystal is known as

clouds are the highest of the clouds in the troposphere

The secondary atmosphere of the Earth was dominated by greenhouse gases

Volcanoes are the only natural source of aerosols

Water vapour is a strong greenhouse gas

In the mesosphere, temperature decreases with increasing height

Ozone in the atmosphere creates a strong atmospheric blind in the UV region of the
Sun's radiation .
The melting of ice to form water releases heat.

If a parcel of air raises adiabatically in the atmosphere according to the dry adiabatic
lapse rate, then the relative humidity will increase

Cirrus clouds often lead to precipitation

What two properties help a planet to retain its atmosphere?

The secondary atmosphere of the Earth was composed mainly of
a) Argon
b) Nitrogen and oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
e) Volcanic gases

Before the evolution of life produced the process of photosynthesis, small amounts of
oxygen were added to the Earth's atmosphere by the process of
a) Respiration
b) Volcanic eruptions
c) Photodissociation of water vapor
d) the formation of banded iron formations
e) latent heat release

If the carbon dioxide had not been removed from the early atmosphere, Earth's
climate would most closely resemble which planet's?
a) Mercury x
b) Mercury
c) Mars
d) Jupiter
e) Uranus

Which processes remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

a) Burial of silicate rock
b) Burial of carbonate formed by marine organisms and burial of silicate rock
c) Burial of carbonate formed by marine organisms
d) Burial of carbon-based organic matter
e) Burial of carbonate formed by marine organisms and burial of carbon-based
organic
matter
Which of the following lists is composed only of greenhouse gases?
a) Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, ozone and nitrous oxide
b) Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, oxygen and nitrous oxide
c) Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, nitrogen and nitrous oxide
d) Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, ozone and oxygen
e) Carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, ozone and nitrogen

Which of the following statements is false?

a) A kilogram of iron at 10 C has more heat than a kilogram of iron at 0 C
b) A kilogram of water at 10 C and 2 kilograms of iron at 10 C have the same average
kinetic energy
c) A kilogram of water at 10 C and a kilogram of iron at 0C have the same average
kinetic energy
d) A kilogram of water at 10 C has more heat than a kilogram of ice at 0 C
e) A kilogram of water at 10 C and a kilogram of ice at 0 C have the same amount of
heat

Which of the following gases is expected to have the fewest atmospheric blinds in the
infrared region?
a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Water vapor
d) Nitrous oxide
e) Molecular oxygen (O2)
Which of the following processes is responsible for the blue color of the sky?
a) Mie scattering
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) Absorption of UV light by the ozone layer
d) The greenhouse effect
e) Adiabatic cooling

b) Rayleigh scattering

Which of the following statements about the stratosphere is false?

a) Most ultraviolet light is absorbed by the stratosphere.
b) Most ozone is located in the stratosphere.
c) The stratosphere is between the troposphere and the mesosphere.
d) In the stratosphere, temperature decreases with height.
e) The stratosphere is stratified with the densest, coldest air at the bottom
Which of the following statements about the thermosphere is false?
a) The thermosphere is the least dense layer of the atmosphere.
b) The thermosphere is above the mesosphere.
c) Temperatures increase with height in the thermosphere.
d) The thermosphere is the highest and the coldest layer of the atmosphere.
e) There is very little total heat in the thermosphere.

Which statement best explains why 50% of the atmosphere is below 5.5 km and 99%
is below 32 km.

Which of the following selections would change the relative humidity of a parcel of
air but not its dew point?
a) The air is cooled and condensation occurs.
b) The air is heated and evaporation occurs.
c) The air is heated and condensation occurs.
d) The air is cooled and evaporation occurs.
e) The air is heated without a change in water vapor content.

If air is in contact with ground that has a lower temperature than the air's dew point,
what could be formed?
a) Frost only
b) Dew only
c) Dew and frost only
d) Aerosols and dew
e) Aerosols and frost
If a parcel of hot air rises adiabatically, which of the following statements is false?
a) The relative humidity of the air increases.
b) The temperature of the air decreases.
c) The total amount of heat in the parcel of air decreases.
d) The relative amount of oxygen stays the same.
If
e)aThe
parcel of hotdecreases.
pressure air rises adiabatically, which of the following statements is false?
a) The relative humidity of the air increases.
b) The temperature of the air decreases.
c) The total amount of heat in the parcel of air decreases.
d) The relative amount of oxygen stays the same.
e) The pressure decreases.

c) The total amount of heat in the parcel of air decreases.

When a parcel of air descends according to the dry adiabatic lapse rate, which of the
following is true?
a) Clouds are formed.
b) The relative humidity decreases.
c) The temperature decreases.
d) The pressure decreases.
e) The total amount of heat in the parcel of air increases.

If clouds are composed of water droplets, how do they remain suspended in the
atmosphere?
a) The cloud droplets are so small that air turbulence keeps them suspended.
b) A constant updraft of warm air is necessary.
c) The pressure of infrared radiation from the surface of the Earth keeps them
suspended.
d) Clouds only appear to be suspended; they are actually falling at a rate of 1 m a
second.
Which statement
e) The clouds best explains attracted
are magnetically the flat bottom
to the of some cumulus clouds?
ionosphere.
a) The flat base marks the level of condensation.
b) The flat base is the transition between liquid water droplets and ice crystals.
c) The flat base is formed by the greenhouse effect.
d) The flat base is defined formed by an increase in ultraviolet radiation going into the
cloud.
e) The flat base is formed when fog is lifted from the ground to form a cloud.

a) The flat base marks the level of condensation.

Which statement is false about stratus clouds?

a) Nimbostratus clouds are thick and dark.
b) Stratus clouds do not occur high (above 10 km) in the atmosphere.
c) Cirrostratus clouds occur in the middle (6 to 8 km) of the troposphere.
d) Stratus clouds occur in the upper (8 to 12 km) troposphere.
e) Stratus clouds form when air rises as a result of frontal lifting
Winds that result from a balance between pressure-gradient flow and the Coriolis
deflection are called __________ winds

The inward spiral flow in a cyclone causes ___________ , which leads to an upward
flow of air at the center of the low

A __________ is a seasonally reversing wind system

The flow of cold, dense air under the influence of _________ is called a katabatic
wind.
__________ are small features relative to the thunderstorms with which they are
associated

The surface of a polar desert, unlike the surfaces of warmer latitudes, is often
underlain by abundant __________ .

__________ storms are most frequent in the vast arid and semiarid regions of central
Australia, western China, Russian Central Asia, Kazakhstan, the Middle East, and
North
Africa.

Hurricanes originate as high-pressure centers over the Atlantic Ocean.

Midlatitude cyclones
a) Usually move across North America from west to east.
b) Are generally found over the ocean.
c) Generally bring clear skies and little precipitation.
d) Are short-lived events lasting a few hours.

When do you think a sea breeze would be the strongest?

a) During a bright winter day.
b) During a bright summer day.
c) At night during the summer.
d) At night during the winter

With decreasing surface friction, the Coriolis effect on wind is

a) Unchanged.
b) Decreased.
c) Increased.
d) Need more information.

In the northern hemisphere, the wind circulation in a midlatitude cyclone is

a) Counterclockwise, spiraling inward.
b) Clockwise, spiraling inward.
c) Clockwise, spiraling outward.
d) Counterclockwise, spiraling outward.
The Indian Monsoon winds in the summer
a) Flow from west to east.
b) Occur only on midlatitude west coasts.
c) Flow from land toward the ocean.
d) Move from the oceans to the land

The cP air mass of North America is usually associated with a source region in
a) Iceland.
b) Mexico.
c) Canada.
d) Aleutian's

The air in a cP are mass is generally

a) Hot and dry.
b) Warm and wet.
c) Cold and dry.

The air in a cT air mass is generally

a) Cold and dry.
b) Hot and dry.
c) Warm and wet.
The North American Midwest winter has a lot of precipitation. The precipitation is
due to
a) Orographic factors.
b) The interaction of cold and warm air masses near the subpolar low.
c) Friction of the air with rough surfaces.
d) All of these.

When does a land breeze usually form?

a) In the evening, flowing toward the water.
b) In the evening, flowing toward land.
c) In the day, flowing toward water.
d) In the day, flowing toward land.

What are the two types of air masses that have the greatest influence on weather
conditions across the United States?
a) mP and mT.
b) mP and cP.
c) cT and cP.
d) cP and mT.

Which of the following do you think should have the highest pressure gradient force?
a) Thunderstorm.
b) Midlatitude cyclone.
c) Midlatitude anticyclone.
d) Tornado.
Tiny sea creatures called ________ equilibrate with the water around them, thus
preserving a chemical record of past climatic changes.

The scientific term for the separation and differential concentration of isotopes of
slightly different mass is called __________ .

Throughout much of western Europe and adjacent islands, the __________ climate
was characterized by unusually cold, harsh conditions

During the last __________ , the climate of the northern middle and high latitudes
became so cold that a vast ice sheet formed over central and eastern Canada.
__________ studies show that in glacial times the vegetation distribution was quite
different from what we see today.

When all of the evidence is accounted for, it shows that for the Pleistocene Epoch,
about ___________ glacial ages occurred.

Eccentricity influences perihelion and _______, the points at which Earth is nearest
and farthest from the Sun.

Today, Earth's largest existing glacier is centered on the __________.

Under full-glacial conditions, ____________ that are currently limited to polar and
high-altitude regions could move into forests in northwestern Europe.

__________ molecules can become trapped by molecules of ice in sediment that is

near the freezing temperature of seawater.

Paleoclimatic evidence includes desert sand dunes now covered by vegetation and
channel systems of now-dry streams.

Measurements of oxygen isotopes in glacier ice enable scientists to determine the

time frame when the snow was accumulating
Trees and corals lay down annual growth rings, which can provide paleoclimate
information

The most recent Pleistocene glaciation started about 1 million years ago.

During the last glaciation, world sea level was about 120 meters lower than it is today.

Seafloor sediments provide a continuous historical record of climate change.

The average length of a glacial-interglacial cycle over the past 800,000 years was
about 50,000 years

The earliest recorded glacial episode dates to about 2.4 billion years ago.

Humans emit more than 8 billion tons of carbon in the atmosphere every year
through fossil fuel burning alone

What is the Milankovitch Cycle?

A) A mathematical explanation of long term climate changes based on Earth-Sun

geometrical relationships.
B) a type of motor car used in the late 1800's for geological exploration
C) An explanation of climate changes on Earth based on Molecular cloud
D) An explanation of long term climate changes on Earth, based on human activity.
The ____ year cycle of the tilt of Earth's axis is called the

a) Motorcycle.
b) Eccentricity cycle.
c) Precession cycle.
d) Obliquity (tilt) cycle.

The ____ year cycle of the extent of Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun is called
the

a) Obliquity (tilt) cycle.

b) Eccentricity cycle.
c) Precession cycle.
d) Motorcycle.

Based on the study of past climate, we can conclude that future, long-term climates
will be

a) Nearly stable.
b) Continually colder.
c) Continually water.
d) Variable.

The Medieval Warm Period

a) Began before the Little Ice Age.

b) Persisted until the middle of the nineteenth century.
c) Lowered crop production significantly.
d) None of these.
Sunspots

a) May be one of the causes for global climate change.

b) Occur on a regular seven-year cycle.
c) Affect the orbit of the Earth around the Sun.
d) Are areas of much higher surface temperature than non-sunspot regions

How many climate groups are in the Kppen Climate Classification system?
a) Two.
b) Four.
c) Three.
d) Five

How were the Great Lakes of North America created?

a) By continental glaciers carving troughs that filled with water.

b) By continental glaciers that filled with loess.
c) By the movement of cirque glaciers.
d) All of these.

Temperatures increased by about how many degrees from the Pleistocene Epoch to
the Holocene Epoch?

a) 3 degrees Centigrade.
b) 6 degrees Centigrade.
c) 20 degrees Centigrade.
d) 1 degree Centigrade.
Which of the following discoveries in the subarctic is a strong indication that global
climates have changed?

a) Palms.
b) Prehistoric tundra.
c) Tropical fossils.
d) All of these.

Which of the following climate proxies provide the longest time frame of data?

a) Human records.
b) Deep-sea sediments.
c) Tree ring analysis.
d) Antarctic ice cores.

What is the difference between present and ice-age snowlines along western North
America?

a) About 900 to 1000 meters along the southern part of the transect.
b) About 1500 to 2000 meters along the southern part of the transect.
c) About 200 meters along the southern part of the transect.
d) About 3000 meters along the southern part of the transect.

During the warm Middle Cretaceous Period, about how much higher was sea level
versus today?

a) 50 to 75 meters.
b) 100 to 200 meters.
c) 500 to 600 meters.
d) 1000 to 1100 meters.
The obliquity cycle (the Earth's tilt) fluctuates between what angles during its 41,000
year cycle?

a) 20 to 22 degrees.
b) 25 to 27 degrees.
c) 23 to 26 degrees.
d) 21.5 to 24.5 degrees.

Earth has been relatively warm for about how many years?

a) 1000 years.
b) 1 million years.
c) 100,000 years.
d) 15,000 years.

Which of the following is considered a short-term external climate change factor

(versus a long-term climate change factor)?

a) Sunspots.
b) Changes in the Earth's orbit (eccentricity).
c) Changes in the Earth's tilt (obliquity).
d) Changes in the Earth's orientation (precession).

Which of the following would lead to a potential ice age?

a) Smaller contrast between winter and summer.

b) Larger contrast between winter and summer.
c) Neither of these
Since the start of the Industrial Revolution, the amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere has

a) Doubled.
b) Remained the same.
c) Decreased in half.
d) Quadrupled.

When the Earth's tilt is minimal, which would probably be true?

a) There will be greater seasonal variation between summer and winter.

b) There will be less seasonal variation between summer and winter.
c) There will be no seasonal variation between summer and winter.
d) None of these.

When did Earth's oxygen atmosphere appear?

A)Diatoms were the first algae to produce oxygen by photosynthesis, perhaps by 1.5
billion years ago.
B)Terrestrial plants were the first organisms to produce oxygen by
photosynthesis,perhaps by 500 million years ago.
C)Free oxygen has always been as abundant as it is today.
D)Cyanobacteria became the first microbes to produce oxygen by
photosynthesis,perhaps as long ago as 3.5 billion years ago and certainly by 2.7 billion
years ago.

Explosive diversification of life occurred __________________________________

A)1 billion years ago

B)250 million years ago
C)4 billion years ago
D)542 million years ago
Scientific studies have shown that atmospheric Carbon Dioxide in past eras had
concentrations ________________________________________________.

A)that were 2 times higher than the current concentration.

B)that were 100 times higher than the current concentration.
C)that were the same as the current concentration.
D)that were 20 times higher than the current concentration.

Tiny solid and liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere are collectively called
aerosols

Aerosols can be
A)only natural, solid and liquid
B)only anthropogenic, solid and liquid
C)natural or anthropogenic, only solid
D)natural or anthropogenic, solid and liquid

Why does atmospheric temperature increase with altitude in the stratosphere?

A)because of the presence of the ozone layer

B)because it is closer to the sun
C)because is it less dense than the troposphere
D)because it is under a lot of pressure7)
The Dry Adiabatic rate of change for unsaturated air is 10C/1000 m. What does
thismean?

A)Unsaturated air will get warmer as it rises and colder as it sinks.

B)Unsaturated air will get warmer as it sinks and colder as it rises.
C)Unsaturated air will get warmer or colder as it travels in any direction.
D)Unsaturated air will get warmer or colder as it travels north or south.

Two things energize the atmosphere:__________________________________

A)the space energy and the Earth's global atmospheric circulation

B)the Sun's energy and the Earth's rotation
C)the Sun's energy and the Earth's interior heating
D)the space energy and the Earth's magnetic field

Solar rays will strike the Tropic of Capricorn at an angle of 90 degrees on ________.

A)September 21
B)June 21
C)December 21
D)March 21

The fall equinox in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on this date.

A)December 21
B)June 21
C)March 21
D)September 21
The north end of Earth's axis is tilted 23.5 degrees toward the Sun on ________.

A)June 21 or 22
B)March 21 or 22
C)September 22 or 23
D)December 21 or 22
E)none of the above

On this date the length of daylight gets progressively longer going south from the
equator.

A)September 21
B)March 21
C)December 21
D)June 21

What causes seasons?

A)the elliptical orbit of the earth

B)differences in the amount of daylight
C)the changing tilt angle of the earth
D)the tilt of the Earth's rotational axis away or toward the sun as it travels through its
year-long path around the sun.
E)none of the above

The differences in summer and winter temperatures are greatest for

locations________.

A)near 60 degrees north or south latitude

B)near the Poles
C)near the equator
D)near the tropic of Cancer or Capricorn
E)The location does not affect the range of temperatures
Which of the following is the poorest absorber of solar radiation?

A)nitrogen
B)ozone
C)oxygen
D)water vapor

The atmosphere acquires most of its energy from ________.

A)wind
B)solar radiation
C)the Earth's surface
D)water vapor

Which of the following is the most useful measure of water vapor in the air?

A)relative humidity
B)air pressure
C)temperature
D)dew point
E)mixing ratio

Clouds can decrease the range of daily temperatures because ________.

A)the water vapor absorbs the heat from the earth and sends reflects it back to the
ground maintaining a uniform ground temperature during the day
B)the clouds diffuse the solar radiation so it is spread out over a larger area
C)the clouds reflect solar radiation back into space during the day
D)the clouds store heat and that helps to maintain a uniform temperature at nightand
during the day
The Coalescence-Collision Process applies to ________ .

A)coexisting ice and water droplets in a cloud

B)cold clouds
C)super cooled water vapor in a cloud
D)warm clouds

Where is one location advection fog commonly occurs?

A)On the surface of the earth at night, when the earth cools, producing warm air
above the surface which can mix with cold air closer to the surface
B)At the face of a mountain, where warm air is forced up over the mountain to where
there is more cold air
C)In extremely cold environments where water vapor sublimates to ice crystals
D)In the Pacific Coast, where warm air from the Pacific Ocean mixes with
coolertemperatures on land

How is the earth's rotation axis oriented relative to the revolution orbit?

A)It varies somewhat randomly over small angles, less than 23.5 degrees.
B)It is fixed and always points toward the North Star regardless of season.
C)It changes with time so that it is perpendicular in June and December.
D)We don't really know how much it varies because we have not been able to make
observations from space for more than about 60 years.

The mercurial barometer was invented by ________.

A)Torricelli
B)Newton
C)Wa t t
D)Galileo
Inches of mercury is something that would only be used in America. Elsewhere in
theworld, the mercury height would be in millimeters, or about 760mm (76cm).
Mercuryhas a density of about 13.56 g/cm3, or in other words, each cm of mercury
weighsabout 13,300 dynes. So 760mm of mercury weighs 1,013,000 dynes. 1 mb is
1dyne/cm2, so what is the air pressure in mb?

A)760 mb
B)1.013 mb
C)1,000,000 mb
D)1013 mb

A weather system is moving from west to east. You look at a weather map and see
that you are in an area of closely spaced isobars with the center just to your east, but
the spacing of the isobars increases away from you. What would you forecast for wind
conditions?

A)Winds will increase.

B)Winds will stay the same.
C)Winds will decrease.
D)Winds will increase then decrease.

Santa Ana (or Chinook or Foehn) wind is a ________.

A)wind that is common to the world's deserts

B)wind associated with a blizzard
C)cold, damp wind blowing off a snow field
D)very dry, warm wind flowing down a mountain slope

A sea breeze usually originates during the ________.

A)day and flows toward the land

B)evening and flows toward the land
C)day and flows toward the water
D)evening and flows toward the water
When an area is experiencing several consecutive days of rather constant weather, it
is probably ________.

A)air-mass weather
B)warm-front weather
C)cold-front weather
D)occluded front weather

A cT air mass is ________.

A)cold and humid

B)cold and dry
C)warm and dry
D)warm and humid

On a weather map, ________ fronts are shown by a line with triangular points on one
side.

A)occluded
B)warm
C)cold
D)stationary

In the Gulf Coast region of the United States cold fronts intense spring floods are
often associated with a phenomenon known locally as "training" where
thunderstorms form along a line and follow the same line for hours. This is a classic
example of severe weather along a ________.

A)cold front
B)stationary front
C)warm front
D)hurricane
When an active cold front overtakes a warm front, ________.

A)a stationary front is created

B)the fronts cancel one another out
C)cloud formation ceases
D)an occluded front forms

You are in mid-latitudes in winter. You experience heavy snow followed by a

dramaticdrop in temperature as a cold front passes, but for almost 24 hours the
weather is clear.Then, high clouds appear in the west, thicken to stratus clouds and
you receive a light new snowfall (aka snow flurries) but the temperature remains cold.
You have just seen the passage of ________.

A)a warm front

B)a stationary front
C)a second cold front
D)an occluded front

The precipitation associated with a warm front typically arrives ________ the actual
frontal boundary.

A)considerably ahead of
B)considerably behind
C)at about the same time as
D)none of these

If you were 200 kilometers ahead of the surface position of a warm front, you would
find the frontal surface at a height of about ________ km overhead.

A)2.0
B)0.5
C)1.0
D)1.5
The eye of a hurricane is ________.

A)the area of most intense rainfall

B)warmer than the rest of the storm
C)along the leading edge of the storm
D)the portion with the highest wind speeds

High __________ makes communities more resilient, more able to adapt to change,
and more likely to withstand major environmental upheavals

__________ diversity refers to the variety of habitat types available in an ecosystem.

Some resources are renewed on such a continuous basis that they might be referred
to as ___________ .
Hydrologists designate as __________ a country or region with annual renewable
water supplies of only 1000 to 2000 cubic meters per person.

The approximate world-use rate of barrels of oil is 30 __________ barrels a year.

A photovoltaic cell converts(see Elon Musk's solar batteries)

a) Solar energy into chemical energy.

b) Solar energy into electrical energy.
c) Heat energy into electrical energy.
d) Heat energy into chemical energy.

How long would you expect the United States' reserve of coal to be able to last (at its
present rate of consumption)?

a) A few years.
b) A few centuries.
c) A few decades.
d) A few thousand years.
In North America, what percentage of energy used is accounted for by fossil fuels (oil,
natural gas, and coal)?

a) 70%
b) 95%
c) 85%
d) 50%

Where, in the United States, are huge amounts of oil shale found?

a) Along the Mississippi flood delta.

b) Along the Green River formation(Colorado, Utah, and Wyoming).
c) Along the Hudson Bay.
d) Within the Appalachian Mountains.

Over the past few decades, air and water quality have improved.

As a result of measures to cut back on emissions of ozone-depleting substances,

stratospheric ozone levels are expected to return to 1980 levels by around
__________ in midlatitude regions and __________ in Antarctica.

a) 2080, 2045.
b) 2045, 2080
c) 2100, 2700
d) 2020, 2030
Which international agreement led to the phase out of the use of CFCs?

a) Kyoto Protocol of 1997.

b) Montreal Protocol of 1987.
c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Changeof 1988.

Which of the following greenhouse gases is the most efficient in absorbing infrared
radiation?

a) Methane.
b) Carbon dioxide.
c) Water vapor.

In different parts of the world, which of the following is a major source of water for
human consumption?

a) Desalinated water.
b) Groundwater.
c) Rainwater.
d) All are sources for human consumption.

Other than carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor, both __________ and
__________ are greenhouse gases.

a) Oxygen, nitrogen.
b) Oxygen, ozone.
c) Ozone, nitrous oxide.
d) Sulfate, carbonate.
According to scientists from the International Geosphere-Biosphere Program, three
boundaries of the planetary system have already been crossed. What are they?

a) Climate change, the nitrogen cycle, and biodiversity loss.

b) Biodiversity loss, ozone depletion, land-use change.
c) The nitrogen cycle, ocean acidification, biodiversity loss.
d) Climate change, global freshwater use, ozone depletion.

Plants use carbon dioxide and water to make their own food through the process of
photosynthesis. When they are doing a lot of photosynthesis, plants reflect light
strongly in which of the following wavelengths?

a) UV
b) Infrared
c) Near-infrared
d) Visible

What role do the oceans play in the carbon cycle?

A. They are a major source of carbon dioxide.

B. The are a major absorber (sink) of carbon dioxide.
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a nor b

Plants on land have taken in approximately a quarter of the carbon dioxide that
humans have put into the atmosphere over the last several decades.
when the flux of matter into a reservoir matches the flux out of the reservoir

The bathtub holds 50 liters of water. Water from the taps flows in 5 liters per minutes
and water drains out at 5 liters per minutes. What is the residence time of water
molecule in the bathtub?

steps - scientific method

the sum of different kinds of energy in a system

the addition or subtraction to the internal energy of a ssytem

3 Laws of Thermodynamics

2nd law - thermodynamics

the transformation of energy into a form that is less useful, or less available for work.
responsible for the tiny fraction of the Sun's energy that reaches the Earth (from Solar
flares)

Sun's 6 concentric layers

blackbody radiator

luminosity
heat energy drawn from the Earth's internal heat

The increase in temperature as you go deeper in the Earth

Temp - Earth's core

Convection is a very efficient way for the Earth to transfer heat from its interior to the
surface, and convective heat transfer provides the driving force behind
__________________
the main source, accounting for ~66% of interior heat flow, is produced by decay of
____ + name the type of heat

internal heat left over from the formation of the Earth by countless particles colliding
into each other and sticking together

heat generated by internal friction from the constant distortion of the planet

core formation - heat sources

energy in - 2 types

energy out - 3 ways

4 energy sources that have been extremely developed

are the most fundamental substances into which matter can be separated
number of protons in an atom

number of protons + neutrons

form when anions and cations form a bond

The smallest unit that retains all the properties of a compound

3 Major compositional layers in the Earth

core structure

oceanic crust - 3 characteristics

continental crust - 2 characteristics

Crust dominated by these elements
Continental crust

45km thick
consists of rocks with less density

Crust dominated by these 2 elements

Continental crust

45km thick
consists of rocks with less density

Crust dominated by these 2 elements

Continental crust

45km thick
consists of rocks with less density

Crust dominated by these 2 elements

building blocks in which the geosphere is made

2 characteristics that best allow the study of minerals (2 C's)

5 characteristics that classify a mineral

Unique class of minerals

8 elements that compose most rock-forming minerals are

New crystals can form in 5 ways

any naturally formed, nonliving, coherent aggregate mass of solid matter that
constitutes part of a planet, asteroid, moon, or other planetary object
most common building blocks of rocks

igneous rock formation

The two main features that best classify rocks are

shows the order of mineral crystallization

Influenced by crystal settling in the magma
type of rock - granite, basalt, pumice, obsidian

slate,marble, Gneiss

The altitude of the __________ and its horizontal position on the landscape typically
change from year to year depending on the weather.

A __________ is a persistent body of ice consisting largely of recrystallized snow.

As a result of __________ over the course of a year or more, accumulated snow
gradually becomes denser and denser until it is not longer permeable to air.

Ice throughout a warm glacier, more commonly called a __________ glacier, can
coexist in equilibrium with water.

Glacially carved __________ deeply indent the mountainous, west-facing coasts of

Norway, Alaska, British Columbia, Chile, and New Zealand.

Ridge-like accumulations of sediment called __________ form as sediment is

bulldozed by a glacier advancing across the land.
The most characteristic feature of periglacial regions is perennially frozen ground, also
known as __________ .

Each year, about __________ percent of the Arctic Sea ice moves south into the
Greenland Sea, where it eventually breaks up and melts away.

The cryosphere is the part of Earth's surface that is perennially frozen.

True
The crystal structure of snow is closed and dense.

In the northern hemisphere, almost 60% of the land area is covered by seasonal snow
and frozen ground during the winter.
The huge continental ice sheets of Greenland and Antarctica contain about 95% of
existing glacial ice

There is evidence of glacial-interglacial cycles as long as 2.4 billion years ago.

Till is a glacial sediment that occurs in unsorted and unstratified deposits.

Solifuction is a common mass-wasting process in which waterlogged regolith in a

thawed, active layer moves slowly downslope.
Approximately 75% of Earth's permanent ice cover is sea ice.

The North Pole is located in the Antarctic continent, covered by a vast, thick ice sheet.

Features such as cirques are associated with what type of glaciation? a) Fjords.
b) Valley glaciation.
c) Mountain glaciation.
d) Lowland glaciation.

Glaciers cover about how much of the land surface?

a) 5%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 10%
Where are most glaciers found?
a) Mid-latitude cold zones.
b) Lower latitudes on high mountains.
c) The high-latitude polar regions.
d) None of these.

What is frontal calving?

a) Breaking off of icebergs from the back of a glacier that terminates in shallow water.
b) Breaking off of icebergs from the front of a glacier that terminates in shallow water.
c) Breaking off of icebergs from the back of a glacier that terminates in deep water.
d) Breaking off of icebergs from the front of a glacier that terminates in deep water.

What percentage of an iceberg will be below the sea?

a) 90%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 75%

When did the most recent ice age begin?

a) About 10,000 years ago.
b) About 100,000 years ago.
c) About 50,000 years ago.
d) About 70,000 years ago.
How are icebergs formed?
a) By freezing seawater.
b) By pieces of glacial ice breaking off the glacier.
c) By pieces of intercontinental ice migrating toward the ocean. d) By river ice from
mountain zones flowing to the sea.

The zone of accumulation is generally characterized by

a) Striations.
b) Ablation.
c) Thick sediment.
d) The thickest development of glacial ice.

What is the sudden movement of a glacier due to a sudden addition of snow on ice
called?
a) Calving.
b) A surge.
c) Slipping.
d) Frosting.

When did the most recent ice age occur?

a) Mesozoic.
b) Precambrian.
c) Cambrian.
d) Pleistocene.
During the most recent ice age, about what percentage of glaciers covered the Earth's
land area?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

What will be the result of sea level rising, causing the ocean to fill a glacially carved
valley?
a) A surge.
b) A moraine.
c) A fjord.
d) A horn.

Which of the following terms refers to glacial melting below the snow line?
a) Ablation.
b) Calving.
c) Surging.
d) Plucking.

Where do crevasses form in glaciers?

a) Where a glacier is accumulating.
b) Where a glacier is melting.
c) Where a glacier is subjected to tension.
d) Any of these.
When will Arctic sea ice typically reach it minimum?
a) June.
b) September.
c) August.
d) December.

How deep do crevasses in glaciers extend down to?

a) About 1000 meters.
b) Zone of plastic flow.
c) Slightly through the continent.
d) The very bottom of the glacier.

Sea-surface temperatures a strongly related to latitude

Sediment inputs and outputs in shoreline systems are locally balanced

Where did most of Earth's surface water originate?
a) From natural springs.
b) Transpiration from plants.
c) Outgassing of volcanoes.
d) From lunar fragments.

Why is calcareous ooze rare or absent on the deepest parts of the ocean floor?
a) Below a certain depth, they will be eaten by bottom feeders.
b) Below a certain depth, the deposits will dissolve in the water.
c) Below a certain depth, there is not enough light to support the existence of the
deposits.
d) None of these.

Where does most of the heat supplied to the ocean originate? a) Large sea animals.
b) Hydrothermal vents.
c) Human activities.
d) The Sun.

What factors affect the depth of the photic zone (the photic zone is the depth that
sunlight travels down the water column)?
a) Salinity and temperature.
b) The intensity of solar radiation.
c) The amount of ocean mixing.
d) The amount of biological activity in the surface zone.
e) All of these.
What are the forces that cause the ocean to circulate? a) Gravity.
b) Coriolis force.
c) Wind.
d) All of these.

Explain the differences in winter temperatures at the same latitudes along the
Atlantic boundaries of England and Canada.
a) England receives cold air from the north and Canada receives warm air from the
south according to the North Atlantic gyre.
b) England is part of an island system and Canada is not.
c) There is no difference in winter temperatures.
d) None of these.

A drift bottle is tossed into the ocean off the coast of Peru. Three years later the
bottle is recovered on a beach in northern California. Describe the most likely path of
the bottle from Peru to California, assuming it to have been transported solely by
ocean surface currents.
a) Peru Current; South Equatorial Current; North Equatorial Current; Kuroshio Current;
North Pacific Current; California Current.
b) Peru Current; South Equatorial Current; North Equatorial Current; Gulf Stream
c) Peru Current; South Equatorial Current; Antarctic Circumpolar Current; South
Equatorial Current; Gulf Stream
d) Peru Current; South Equatorial Current; Antarctic Circumpolar Current; South
Equatorial Current; North Equatorial Current; California Current.

Along what type of coastline would a large estuary be most common?

a) Emergent.
b) Submergent.
c) Subduction zone.
d) Spreading center.
Deep ocean circulation is driving by variations in water temperature and salinity.
What is this called?
a) Thermohaline circulation.
b) Pycnocline circulation.
c) Halocline circulation.
d) Thermocline circulation.

Heating of the oceans leads to

a) Development of calcareous and siliceous ooze.
b) A variety of temperatures in different parts of the world. c) Circulation of air and
ocean.
d) All of these.

What are the top four ions in seawater, in their order of abundance?
a) Chloride, sodium, sulfate, potassium.
b) Chloride, sodium, sulfate, magnesium.
c) Sodium, chloride, magnesium, sulfate.
d) Sulfate, calcium, chloride, sodium.

About how long has Earth had liquid water on its surface?
a) 2 billion years.
b) 4.6 billion years.
c) 4 billion years.
d) 4 million years.
__________ is a key component of an array of biogeochemical cycles that control the
composition of the atmosphere and influence all living creatures on Earth.

Streams that have no base flow dry up seasonally and are said to be __________

A stream with many interlacing channels and bars is called a __________ stream.

The bed load generally amounts to between __________ and __________percent of

the total sediment load of most streams.
The muddy character of many streams results from particles of __________ and clay
carried in suspension.

__________ are surface water bodies that are intermittently or seasonally wet

The hydrologic cycle is not related to the rock cycle, rather, just to components of the
atmosphere and biosphere.

The hydrologic cycle is powered by the Sun's heat, and flow within the cycle is
controlled by gravity.
Floodplains result from the deposition of coarse sediment as a bed load overflows the
banks of a stream

A river is a body of inland water with an open surface, occupying a depression.

More than 1 percent of the fresh water in the hydrosphere is groundwater.

Water flows from areas where the water table is low toward areas where it's high.
If a stream water is red, which of the following would best describe why the water is
red?
a) The sediment load in the stream is rich in pollen.
b) The sediment load in the stream is rich in wind-blown dust from the desert.
c) The sediment load in the stream is rich in iron oxide (i.e., rust).
d) The sediment load in the stream is rich in red seaweed.

Assume you see a meandering stream. Which of the following statement regarding
the location of sediment along the bed?
a) The coarsest sediment is associated with the zone of highest velocity, which is on
the outside of the bend.
b) The coarsest sediment is associated with the zone of highest velocity, which is on
the inside of the bend.
c) The finest sediment is associated with the zone of highest velocity, which is on the
inside of the bend.
Assume you see a meandering stream. Which of the following is a correct
d) The finest sediment is associated with the zone of highest velocity, which is on the
outside of the bend.

What nation contains nearly half of the world's lakes?

a) The United States.
b) Canada.
c) Brazil.
d) China.

If there is a layer of sediment with all of the sediment being roughly the same size,
what is the approximate porosity of the layer?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%.
d) 50%
The United Nations estimates that by 2050 as many as 54 countries with a combined
total of _________________ people could face water stress.
a) 2 million.
b) 4 million.
c) 2 billion.
d) 4 billion.

The mighty Mississippi River flows into the Gulf of Mexico. The zone where the
Mississippi River enters in the Gulf is known as the "dead zone". Here, few (if any)
animals are able to live. Why is this?
a) The area has an overload of nutrients from the river, creating an algae bloom.
When the algae die, their breakdown causes oxygen depletion.
b) The area has an overload of pesticides from agriculture. The pesticides kill
everything in this zone.
c) The discharge of the river into the Gulf is so strong that animals are unable to leave
there.
d) All of these.

Where does the majority of precipitation go after it falls?

a) Base flow
b) Overland flow and storm flow.
c). Evaporation and transpiration.
d) Infiltration into groundwater

Where is the water table in a swamp?

a) Well above the surface.
b) Well below the surface.
c) At the surface.
d) Generally, 2 miles below the surface.
Which of the following rivers do not drain into the Mississippi River?
a) Ohio River.
b) Missouri River.
c) Arkansas River.
d) Red River.
e) Colorado River.

Which of the following would have the largest capacity to naturally remove sewage
pollutants from groundwater?
a) Granite.
b) Limestone.
c) A mixture of clay and sand.
d) Coarse gravel.

Which of the following generally constitutes the highest percentage of the annual
sediment load moved by a stream?
a) Bed load.
b) Suspended load.
c) Suspended and bed load equally.

How does deforestation effect the hydrologic cycle?

a) The lack of vegetation alters the porosity of the soil thereby effecting infiltration.
b) The removal of plants lessens transpiration thereby effecting water source.
c) The lack of vegetation alters the permeability of the soil thereby effecting
infiltration.
d) All of these.
What is the definition of a stream's base level?
a) temporary elevations to which streams can erode when they encounter a resistant
layer of rock
b) the highest elevation a stream can start eroding
c) the lowest limit to how deep a stream can erode
d) resistant layers of rock
e) sea level

The lowest base level for most streams is sea level.

Which of the following must result in a lower base level for rivers and streams?
a) sea level drops; land subsides
b) sea level rises; land subsides
c) sea level falls; land rises
d) sea level rises; land rises.

A dendritic (tree-like) drainage pattern develops in regions where the underlying

material is relatively uniform so the major control on the water movement is
________.
a) sediment load
b) climate
c) saturation
d) vegetation
e) slope
The Trellis drainage pattern shown below develops ________.
a) in areas of relatively uniform surface materials
b) on isolated volcanic cones or domes
c) on highly jointed bedrock
d) in areas of alternating weak and resistant bedrock
e) in areas of folded and fractured domes

________________ sediment is bits of broken rock and minerals that are moved as
solid particles.

_______________ sediment is formed when substances that have been dissolved are
transported in solution and then precipitated

The process by which sediment or regolith becomes rock is called ______________

Another way that lithification can occur is through _________________, in which
mineral grains that were once separate can grow to become interlocked.

To be classified as __________ , sedimentary rock must have clasts that are rounded
and larger than 2 mm in diameter.

The study of sedimentary strata is called __________ .

Stratigraphic __________ is the determination of equivalence in age of the

succession
of strata found in two or more different areas
An __________ unconformity implies that the older strata were deformed, uplifted,
and partially removed by erosion

When discussing metamorphic rock, scientists use the term __________ instead of
pressure

__________ has pronounced foliation and a very distinctive green color.

__________ rock is transitional between igneous and sedimentary.

Regolith is sediment that has undergone erosional transport and deposition.

The locations where clastic sediment is deposited are largely controlled by plate
tectonics.

Metamorphic rock is igneous or sedimentary rock that has been changed in

mineralogy and/or texture in the solid state

The metamorphic conditions characteristic of greenschist occur where the crust is

thickened by continental collision or heated by rising magma
Granite is an extrusive igneous rock.

Volcanic rock is characterized by large grain sized crystals

Fractional crystallization does not contribute to the diversification of igneous rock

types.

Denudation begins as soon as a mountain range is uplifted, and continues long after
active tectonic uplift has ceased.
The dinosaurs became extinct at the end of what Period?
a) Cretaceous.b) Jurassic.
c) Triassic.
d) Paleogene

The dinosaurs became extinct at the end of what Period?

a) Cretaceous.b) Jurassic.
c) Triassic.
d) Paleogene

If the rock pressure is about 1200 MPa, at about what temperature will high-grade
metamorphism begin to occur?
a) 100 degrees Centigrade. b) 200 degrees Centigrade.
c) 50 degrees Centigrade.
d) 400 degrees Centigrade.

Which of the following properly lists low to medium to high grade metamorphic
rocks?
a) Gneiss, Phyllite, Slate.
b) Phyllite, Slate, Gneiss.
c) Gneiss, Slate, Phyllite.
d) Slate, Phyllite, Gneiss.

Stratification in a sedimentary rock

a) Is always horizontal.
b) Is generally vertical.
c) Is due to internal stresses from inside Earth.
d) Represents geologic, climatic, and biological conditions during the time of
deposition
A metamorphic rock formed from granite is
a) Slate.
b) Marble.
c) Gneiss.
d) Quartzite.

Which of the following metamorphic rocks is non-foliated?

a) Schist.
b) Gneiss.
c) Slate.
d) Marble.

Which rock is the intrusive equivalent of rhyollite?

a) Basalt.
b) Diorite.
c) Gabbro.
d) Granite.

Gabbro is coarser than basalt because

a) The magma that formed the gabbro cooled slower than the basalt magma.
b) Gabbro has contact metamorphism whereas basalt does not.
c) Gabbro contains much more silica than basalt.
d) Higher pressure formed the gabbro
What is obsidian?
a) An intrusive (plutonic) igneous rock.
b) An extrusive (volcanic) igneous rock
c) A piece of glass resulting from the melt of sediments.
d) A metamorphic form of shale

Intrusive igneous rocks are generally

a) Fine-grained.
b) Coarse-grained.
c) Vesicular.
d) None of these

Which rock is composed of alternating bands of light and dark minerals?

a) Gneiss.
b) Marble.
c) Phyllite.
d) Muscovite mica

If you have an original sediment that is cube in shape with a length, width, and height
of 1 unit each, then its overall exposed surface area will be 6 square units (1 square
unit x
6 sides). If you were to break this sediment into 8 equal cubes by physical weathering,
how much surface area would now be exposed?
a) 12 square units.
b) 15 square units.
c) 20 square units.
d) 30 square units
List the following sediments from largest to smallest:
a) Gravel, silty mud, sand.
b) Sand, gravel, silty mud.
c) Silty mud, gravel, sand.
d) Gravel, sand, silty mud

At the mouth of a rapidly flowing river, what type of sediment would you expect to
see along the bed of the mouth of the river?
a) Moderately sorted.
b) Poorly sorted.
c) Well sorted, with only the smallest clasts.
d) Well sorted, with only the largest clasts.

Which of the following areas has the highest sediment yields?

a) North Africa.
b) Central Australia.
c) Southeast Asia.
d) Northern Canada.

The era that covers the longest time span is

a) The Paleozoic.
b) The Precambrian.
c) The Cenozoic.
d) The Mesozoic.
What are the three most important kinds of metamorphism?
a) Contact, heat, pressure.
b) Contact, burial, and regional.
c) Burial, gravitational, contact.
d) Regional, gravitational, contact

Imagine you go hiking in the desert and happen upon large slabs of granite rock. All
around you the ground is a flat, desert floor, except for these few, large slabs of
granite.
What does that tell you about the geologic history of the area?
a) The area used to be geologically active, complete with volcanic activity.
b) The area used to be geologically inactive. The granite rock is a result of mass
movement due to wind and/or water.
c) The area used to be active with intrusive igneous processes. Over time, differential
erosion led to the exposure of the once-underground granite rock.
d) Need more information.

An __________ marks the place where oceanic-capped lithosphere sinks into the
asthenosphere.

The Atlantic Ocean margins of the Americas, Africa, and Europe are examples of
__________ continental margins.
A __________ is a stable core of very ancient rock.

__________ gravity anomalies result from concentrations of high-density rock under

the surface.

Continental Drift is a unifying theory that explains Earth's topography and integrates
our understanding of rock formation, mountain building, and terrain modification

In seafloor convergence, oceanic crust splits and moves away from spreading ridges.
When both plates of a converging pair are capped by low-density continental crust,
neither plate will undergo subduction.

Passive continental margins coincide with the geologically active edges of tectonic
plates

Oceanic crust is geologically old and preserves a long record of geologic activity.

If plate tectonics operated early in Earth history, it is likely that the plates were small,
rapidly moving, and constantly recycled back into the mantle.
Large mountain ranges are characterized by significant negative gravity anomalies
because of their deep, low-density roots.

Earth's climatic zones and the distribution of plant and animal communities are
fundamentally affected by the presence of modern orogens.

True

Where is active sea-floor spreading occurring today?

a) Lake Michigan
b) The Great Salt Lake.
c) The Red Sea.
d) The Mississippi River.

What type of plate boundary created Japan?

a) Convergent.
b) Divergent.
c) Transform.

What type of plate boundary created Iceland?

a) Convergent.
b) Divergent.
c) Transform.
Where are the youngest seafloor rocks found?
a) Nearest the continental margins.
b) Nearest the rift valleys of the mid-ocean ridges.
c) Within the deep sea trenches.
d) Evenly distributed over the ocean basins.

What was the first evidence that lead Alfred Wegener to suspect the continents were
once connected?
a) The clock-like ebb and flow of the tides.
b) The continents simply looked like they fit together, especially Africa and South
America.
c) The direction that the currents moved.
d) Alfred Wegener discovered marine sediments in the Himalaya Mountains.

Subduction zones can generally lead to

a) Deep trenches.
b) Island arcs.
c) Mountain ranges.
d) Any of these.

Along what type of plate boundary does sea-floor spreading occur?

a) Convergent.
b) Divergent.
c) Transform.
Which of the following statements is true for the asthenosphere?
a) The material that makes up the Himalaya Mountains.
b) A brittle layer of crust plus upper mantle.
c) The origination point for Earth's internal convection of energy.
d) Zone in the upper mantle that is a solid but capable of flowing like a liquid.

How does plate tectonics influence the composition of ocean water?

a) Submarine volcanoes along mid-ocean ridges lead to chemical reactions between
the ocean water and the hot rocks of the seafloor.
b) Material from the core seeps into the ocean via submarine volcanoes.
c) Oceanic trenches from subduction zones trap salts and minerals thereby changing
the overall ocean water composition.
d) None of these.

What does the flotation height of an object depend upon?

a) Mass and volume.
b) Mass and density.
c) Volume and density.
d) Size and shape.

An assemblage of cratons and orogens is called a

a) Continent.
b) Continental shield.
c) Ocean basin.
d) Subduction zone.
The break-up of Pangaea to form our modern-day continents started about how long
ago?
a) 100 million years ago.
b) 200 million years ago.
c) 300 million years ago.
d) 50 million years ago.

About how old is the oldest craton within the North American continental shield?
a) Greater than 2.5 billion years old.
b) About 2 billion years old.
c) About 1 billion years old.
d) Less than 1 billion years old.

About how old are the oldest known rocks on Earth?

a) 4.56 billion years old.
b) 2.98 billion years old.
c) 3.51 billion years old.
d) 2.57 billion years old.
e) 4.28 billion years old.

The volcanic mountain range of the Andes is defined as a

a) Volcanic island arc.
b) Continental volcanic arc.
c) Himalaya-like mountain zone.
d) Mini-supercontinent.
What is the Benioff Zone?
a) The contact zone where one slab of lithosphere subducts beneath another slab of
lithosphere.
b) The contact zone where one slab of lithosphere diverges from another slab of
lithosphere.
c) The contact zone where one slab of lithosphere moves adjacent to another slab of
lithosphere.
d) The oceanic zone where hydrothermal vents exist.

The __________ hypothesis suggests that some fault surfaces are rough so that the
rock masses on either side of the fault become locked against one another rather
than slipping easily past.

When an earthquake occurs, the elastically stored energy is carried outward from the
focus to other parts of Earth by vibrations called __________ .

seismic waves
__________ are seismic waves that pass through a rock mass by elastically deforming
the rock.

__________ travel around Earth rather than through it.

The point where energy is first released during an earthquake is called the
__________ .

__________ magnitude is calculated from the maximum recorded amplitudes of

seismic waves with a correction for distance from the epicenter

__________ occurs when the speed of a wave changes as it passes from one medium
to another, causing the wave path to bend.

refraction
__________ waves are reflected and refracted as they travel through the planet and
encounter materials with different physical properties.

The deepest and most powerful earthquakes occur in the __________ tectonic
environment.
_________ magma contains about 50% silicon dioxide and little dissolved gas.

Viscous magmas have __________ silica content than less viscous magmas and have
__________ dissolved-gas content.

__________ are steep conical mountains that consist of layers of both lava and
tephra.

The ring of andesitic volcanoes surrounding the Pacific Rim is called the __________.
Subduction zones tend to have only deep-seated (rather than shallow) earthquakes.

Viscous andesitic and rhyolitic magma have higher silica and dissolved-gas contents,
and erupt at lower temperatures than basaltic magma.

There are about 10,000 active volcanoes today, many of them in the circum- Pacific
region.

Plutons are bodies of magma that reach the surface.

Igneous rocks that cool and solidify at or near the surface are plutonic rocks.

What type of volcano is a result of thick, viscous magma (rather than fluid magma)?
a) Shield volcano
b) Stratovolcano
c) Both of these.
d) Neither of these.

What type of volcano is a result of thick, viscous magma (rather than fluid magma)?
a) Shield volcano
b) Stratovolcano
c) Both of these.
d) Neither of these.

b) Stratovolcano

What is one of the reasons why scientists believe the outer core is liquid?
a) P-wave shadow zone.
b) S-wave shadow zone.
c) Outer core fish fossils that have made their way to the surface.
d) Negative gravity anomalies.

The distance to an earthquake epicenter can be determined by measuring

a) The time difference of arrival of the first P-wave to S-wave.
b) The time difference of arrival of the first P-wave to Surface wave.
c) The time difference of arrival of the first S-wave to Surface wave.
d) Can't be determined
The majority of stratovolcanoes are
a) Rhyolitic.
b) Basaltic.
c) Andesitic.

The majority of shield volcanoes are

a) Andesitic.
b) Basaltic.
c) Rhyolitic.

A heavy cloud of hot gas and pyroclastic material which flows down the side of a
volcano is called a
a) Cumulus cloud.
b) Nuee ardente.
c) Strato cloud.
d) Gaseous lava flow.

The type of igneous rock that is a result of solidification of lava is

a) Extrusive igneous rock.
b) Intrusive igneous rock.
Mount Vesuvius is an example of what type of volcano?
a) Stratovolcano.
b) Shield Volcano.
c) Cinder cone volcano.
d) None of these.

Mount Saint Helens is an example of what type of volcano?

a) Flood basalt.
b) Shield Volcano.
c) Cinder cone volcano.
d) Stratovolcano.

Which magma type has the highest viscosity?

a) Andesitic.
b) Basaltic.
c) Rhyolitic.

Which type of lava flow has a smooth, ropy-looking texture?

a) Aa.
b) Pahoehoe.
Which of the following best describes Shiprock in New Mexico?
a) A recently active cinder cone volcano.
b) Exposed remains of a volcanic conduit.
c) An extinct shield volcano similar to Mauna Loa in Hawaii.
d) An extinct stratovolcano.

Approximately how fast can a tsunami in the open ocean travel?

What are800
a) Up to primary effects of earthquake damage (those that cause direct damage to
km/hour.
buildings,
b) Up to 400 km/hour. and the landscape)?
infrastructure,
a) Fires
c) Up toand
100tsunami.
km/hour.
b) Ground
d) Up to 950motion and landslides.
km/hour.
c) Surface rupture and liquefaction.
d) Ground motion and surface rupture.

d) Ground motion and surface rupture.

Hundreds of thousands of earthquakes occur every year. Fortunately, only one or two
are large enough and close enough to major population centers to cause loss of life.
During the past 800 years, there have been a handful of earthquakes that have
resulted in greater than 50,000 deaths. The earthquake that resulted in the greatest
number of deaths was in Shaanxi, China in 1556. It is estimated that 830,000 people
lost their lives! What type of plate boundary caused such a devastating earthquake?
a) Divergent boundary.
b) Subduction zone boundary.
c) Continental collision boundary.
d) Transform fault boundary.

What are seismic discontinuities?

a) Boundaries where the velocity of seismic waves changes smoothly rather than
suddenly.
b) Boundaries where the velocity of seismic waves changes suddenly rather than
smoothly.
c) Boundaries where the velocity of seismic waves increases then decreases rapidly.
d) Boundaries where the velocity of seismic waves decreases then increases rapidly.
Assume there a magnitude 5 earthquake occurs (Richter scale magnitude). How much
more energy will be released by a magnitude 8 earthquake?
a) 10 x 32 x 10 times more energy release.
b) 10 x 10 x 10 times more energy release.
c) 32 x 10 x 32 times more energy release.
d) 32 x 32 x 32 times more energy release.

What variable(s) is(are) associated with short-term earthquake prediction?

a) Understanding tectonic environments.
b) Shorter-term prediction and early warning are nearly impossible.
c) Determining patterns in recurrence intervals.
d) Identifying seismic gaps.

Along what type of plate boundary will shallow-focus earthquakes be the general
type of earthquake (i.e., rarely, will a deep-focus earthquake occur here)?
a) Divergent boundary
b) Continental collision boundary.
c) Subduction zone boundary.
d) None of these.

At atmospheric pressure (sea level) rocks begin to melt when heated to approximately
what temperatures?
a) 100 to 200 degrees Centigrade.
b) 500 to 700 degrees Centigrade.
c) 300 to 400 degrees Centigrade.
d) 800 to 1000 degrees Centigrade.
Where would basaltic pillow lavas generally accumulate?
a) Ocean-continental subduction zones.
b) Ocean-ocean subduction zones.
c) Mid-ocean ridges (oceanic divergent zones).
d) Continental rifts (continental divergent zones).

What type of magma is found at Yellowstone National Park?

a) Rhyolitic.
b) Andesitic.
c) Basaltic.

The phenomenon in which the frequency of wave energy appears to change when a
moving source of wave energy passes an observer.

The theory that the whole Universe must be expanding because galaxies in every
direction seem to be moving away from us. (page 22)
The theory that the whole Universe must be expanding because galaxies in every
direction seem to be moving away from us. (page 22)

Expanding Universe theory

Our Sun and all the materials that orbit it (including planets, moons, asteroids, Kuiper
Belt objects, and Oort Cloud objects).

Planets that are of comparable size and character to the Earth and consist of a
metallic core surrounded by a rock mantle.

Age of earth is ________ years old

Age of our universe is ________ years ago

The concept that planets grow out of rings of gas, dust, and ice surrounding a
newborn star.

disk made of material orbiting central star body

disk made of material orbiting central star body

accretion disk
Tiny, solid pieces of rock and metal that collect in a planetary nebula and eventually
accumulate to form a planet.

A body that grows by the accumulation of planetesimals but has not yet become big
enough to be called a planet.
The production of new, larger atomic nuclei from pre-existing nucleons, primarily
protons and neutrons, by fusion reactions in stars; the process generates more
massive elements that were not produced by the Big Bang

A process early in a planet's history during which dense iron alloy melted and sank
downward to form the core, leaving less-dense mantle behind.

The trajectories along which magnetic particles would align, or charged particles
would flow, if placed in a magnetic field.

A bubble-like region in space in which solar wind has blown away most interstellar
atoms
The region protected from the electrically charged particles of the solar winds by
Earth's magnetic field

atmosphere layers

A cloud of icy objects, left over from Solar System formation, that orbit the Sun in a
region outside of the heliosphere

A diffuse ring of icy objects, remnants of Solar System formation, that orbit our Sun
outside the orbit of Neptune.
Nuclei of hydrogen and other elements that bombard the Earth from deep space.

A ball of ice and dust, probably remaining from the formation of the Solar System,
that orbits the Sun

One of the fragments of solid material, left over from planet formation or produced
by collision of planetesimals, that resides between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

The region in the Solar System where the intensity of radiation is sufficient to allow
water to exist in liquid form on the surface of a planet.
Liquid or seasonally frozen water that resides at the surface of the Earth in oceans,
lakes, streams, and marshes.

Variation in depth

Varation in elevation

A 2-km-high submarine mountain belt that forms along a divergent oceanic plate
boundary.
A graph that plots surface elevation on the vertical axis and the percentage of the
Earth's surface on the horizontal axis.

A piece of rock or metal alloy that fell from space and landed on Earth

The seismic-velocity discontinuity that defines the boundary between the Earth's
crust and mantle. Named for Andrija Mohorovi&

The uppermost section of the mantle, reaching down to a depth of ___ km

The middle portion of the mantle, from ___ to ___ km deep, in which there are
several jumps in seismic velocity

The deepest section of the mantle, stretching from ___ km down to the core-mantle
boundary.

What is the agent of metamorphic change during contact metamorphism?

increased temperature
increased pressure
hydrothermal fluids
differential stress

Can the age of Earth be reliably estimated from sediment thicknesses?

a. Yes: sedimentation rates remain constant at any one locality throughout Earth's
history.
b. No: much of Earth's history is represented by unconformities between strata rather
than the strata themselves.
c. Yes: sedimentary rocks are rarely metamorphosed or melted.
d. No: sedimentary rocks make up only a small fraction of the rocks on Earth's
surface.
Concerning the relative ages of granite and sandstone, ________.
a. the granite must be older, according to the principle of components
b. the sandstone must be older, according to the principle of superposition
c. their relative ages cannot be determined from the information given
d. the granite must be older, according to the principle of superposition

A radiometric age for a mineral crystal within an igneous rock measures the amount
of time that has passed since the ________.
a. atoms within the crystal were part of a body of molten magma
b. partial melting occurred.
c. temperature of the crystal became equal to the Curie point for the mineral
d. temperature of the crystal reached the closure temperature.

Once an ancient mountain range is destroyed by erosion, what evidence can

geologists look for to learn of its past existence?
a. crust containing igneous activity, deformation, and metamorphism
b. high, rugged peaks
c. fossils of mountain-dwelling plants and animals
d. there is no detectable record of destroyed mountain ranges

Which of the following processes CANNOT occur in the formation of metamorphic

rock?
a. the realignment of minerals so that they develop a preferred orientation
b. complete remelting of the rock, followed by solidification to form a new rock
c. the solid-state rearrangement of atoms or ions to create a new assemblage of
minerals
d. the segregation of minerals into layers of different compositions
Differential stress will cause crystals to align in a preferred orientation unless the
crystals are ________.
equant
elongate
primarily mica
platy

As understood by modern geologists, the principle of uniformitarianism implies that

________.
a. the Earth has always had the same basic appearance that it has today
b. physical processes observed today (such as erosion and volcanic eruption) have
been occurring throughout Earth history at constant rates
c. igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks are uniformly mixed throughout the
crust
d. physical processes observed today (such as erosion and volcanic eruptions) have
been active in the past and are preserved in the rock record

Mid-ocean ridges are segmented and contain which two basic types of plate
boundaries linked together?
conformal and transvergent
divergent and convergent
convergent and transform
divergent and transform

Oceanic crust is both _____ and _____than the crust under the continents.
3 sources - Where does energy for the Earth System come from?

What drives most geologic processes?

Earth is ___________km from the Sun?

If all of geologic time was condensed to a single year, each second would represent
____ years.
Humans have only been around _____ years

The pull of gravity on the atmosphere creates a pressure of______kg/cm^2 at sea

level?

the rate at which lithostatic pressure increases. Along with the geothermal gradient,
plays a major role in determining what materials can exist at depth.

A good "working definition" for life might be: "A highly organized system that can
capture, store, and transmit _______
The main factors that influenced the evolution of the terrestrial planets shortly after
their formation were impact cratering, volcanism, proximity to the Sun, and absence
or presence of a biosphere.

The secondary atmosphere of the Earth was composed mainly of

Put simply, electromagnetic radiation can be described as any energy that moves in a
____.

geologic period where very high levels of terrestrial carbon was buried
Hottest atmospheric layer

Winds cause upwelling of deep sea carbon and nutrients that have direct impacts of
global primary productivity and the draw down of CO2 from the atmosphere.

The correct order of the zones of rock strength, from interior to the surface

3 forces - Force that cause the ocean to circulate

Major cause of climate variation on Earth

Climatic gradients are responsible for

Glaciers cover about how much of the land surface

Solar radiation has increased by how much since the Earth's birth?
What prevented the Earth from being in a deep freeze during its early years?

The methane haze climate feedback loop is which kind

The Snowball Earth was caused by what circumstance

The Mesozoic Era was warmer than temperatures today

More O18 in an ocean rock sample means that climate was warmer when the rock
was deposited

Within the context of Milankovitch cycles, orbital eccentricity acts on a scale of

between ________

Which of the Pleistocene climate feedback loops is negative

Sea level fell by about how many meters during the last ice age?
Orbital Precession controls the length of "seasons

Summer insolation is the least important factor in determining polar yearly

temperatures and snow retension

This is the name of the model that describes the amount of forcing needed to move
form one point in a system to another

Which of the Milankovitch processes acts on the 26,000 year cycle?

In which era do we see human evolution?

Process of converting nitrate to nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide

Life decreases the albedo effect

Increased sunspot activity can cause which hazard to our communication systems
Over the past 150 years, since the instrument-based temperatures have been
established, mean annual temperatures on Earth have risen by about

The East side of Antarctica is gaining ice volume

Technique of establishing a date using tree rings

Since the start of the Industrial Revolution, the amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere has
If all of the ice trapped on the Greenland ice sheet melts, sea level will rise ______
meters

This greenhouse gas helped the Earth from becoming too cold during the early stages
of its life, whereas this greenhouse gas likely helped the Earth from becoming too
hot.

Ozone acts like an electric blanket, both keeping in heat from below and transmitting
heat below from vibrations

When is the sea breeze the strongest

Sharp reduction to a population due to external environmental factors

What is the equilibrium of Island Biogeography?

___ effect - States that the greater the area is of an island, the better chance it has to
survive extinction

___ effect - States that immigration and emigration of an island is influenced by the
distance of the island from a colony source. The farther it is away from the source the
less likely it will receive immigrant species.
Shift in the function of a trait during evolution

2-What is short-term climate variables?

A biogeographic area that contains at least 0.5% of vascular plants in the world

The measure of the success and/or competitiveness of a species or individual within a

certain environment
the conscientious management of natural heritage and resources

When soils in arid and semiarid environments are over irrigated

The most important variable to erosion is

a. ice
b. wind
c. running water
d. wave motion
In the northern hemisphere, almost percent of the land area is covered by seasonal
snow and frozen ground during the winter
a. 30%
b. 10%
c. 60%
d. 80%

What are large boulders deposited by glaciers called?

a. Drifts
b. Drumlins
c. Moraines
d. Tills

A deep, glacially cared valley submerged by the sea is a_______.

a. Moraine
b. Cirque
c. Fjord
d. Cavern

The lowermost water of the ocean constitutes the________ zone

a. pelagic
b. abyssal
c. photic
d. benthic
A_________ is a water wave that is characterized by strong winds
a. hurricane
b. tropical storm
c. el nino
d. Tsunami

Coastal erosion can be devastating to communities and ecosystems along the

coastline. There are a number of ways to prevent-- or at least slow down-- this
erosion. Which of the following is not one of those ways?
a. retreat
b. hard stabilization
c. medium stabilization
d. soft stabilization

From the following, where are the lowest ocean surface salinities found?
a. in areas where there is a lot of ice generation
b. in areas where there is a lot of sea ice
c. In areas where there is a lot of sea ice melt
d. not enough information provided

Sunspots
a. May be one of the causes for global climate change.
b. Occur on a regular seven-year cycle.
c. Affect the orbit of the Earth around the Sun.
d. Are areas of much higher surface temperature than non-sunspot regions.
The highest rates of evaporation typically occur over
a. deserts
b. tropical oceans
c. polar regions
d. midlatitudes

the process by which condensed water gathers into droplets or particles and falls
under the pull of gravity

an interval of time when earth's global ice cover greatly exceeded that of today

the combined influences of astonomical factors that produce changes in earth's

climate
2 things that happened in the Pleistocene Epoch (pollen; species)

Some of the ecosystems (but not all) in a particular geographic region form an
ecozone.
True or False

There are six kingdoms in the systems of taxonomic classification.

True or False

Speciation requires that a population be reproductively immersed within other

groups of the same species.
The most ancient known fossils are 4.6 billion years old, found in rocks from the
Archaen Eon.
True or False

About 1.4 billion years ago, the aerobic eukaryotes emerged.

True or False

The 600 million year old Ediacaran fauna is one of the oldest animal fossils.
True or False

Most of the major modern groups of marine

organisms emerged during the Archean Eon.
True or False
Which era was dominated by the dinosaurs?
a.Cenozoic
b. Mesozoic
c. Paleozoic
d. Precambrian

In which era do we see the earliest fossils?

a. Paleozoic
b. Mesozoic
c. Cenozoic
d. Precambrian

Of the six kingdoms now recognized

a. Two are for prokaryotes and four are for eukaryotes
b. Four are for prokaryotes and two are for eukaryotes
c. Three are for prokaryotes and three are for prokaryotes
d. One is for prokaryotes and five are for eukaryotes

Which of the following groups of organisms became the dominant land plant at the
end of the Cretaceous Period?
a. Algae
b. Gymnosperms
c. Fungi
d. Angiosperms
Heterotrophs, the primary producers, are the first trophic level.
True
False

Organisms that live on land are fundamentally the same as organisms that live in
aquatic environments.

There are 5 major groups of aquatic biomes.

True
False

What are the 4 major classes of Earth's terrestrial biomes?

a. Tundra, rainforest, savanna, and desert.
b. Temperate rainforest, deciduous forest, rainforest and savanna.
c. Tundra, grasslands, desert and savanna.
d. Tundra, forest, grasslands and desert.
In which zone would you find coral reefs?
a. Abyssal zone
b. Bathyal zone
c. Neritic zone
d. None of these

The major reservoir for phosphorus is

a. Bacteria
b.The ocean
c. The atmosphere
d. Soil and rocks

The combination of decreasing yields and increased stream sediment load leads to
a. Soil erosion
b. Deforestation
c.Aquifer contamination
d.Acid rain

Which of the following is not a natural resource?

a. Rivers.
b. Soil
c. Minerals
d. Fish
Which of the following best defines a renewable resource?
a. Raising fish in enclosures set to the edge of water bodies.
b. A resource that can be replaced, such as flora and fauna.
c. The natural system that creates a renewable supply of freshwater through
evaporation.
d. A resource that cannot be replenished once it is used up, such as oil.

What is the "Panspermia" hypothesis?

a. that the chemistry of life arrived to earth from some other part of the solar system
b. that the chemistry of life was derived from the core of the earth
c. that the chemistry of life was derived from the bottom of the ocean
d. that chemistry of life was derived from hydrothermal vents

The_________ hypothesis states that life has altered the environment at a global
scale throughout life's history on earth and continues to do so
a. panspermia
b. black smoker
c. primordial soup
d. gaia

cells that do not have a true nucleus

Hypothesis in the 1950s
Experiment by Harold Urey and Stanley Miller: boiling H2O with methane, ammonia,
hydrogen PLUS lightening = carbon was converted into organic forms Shortcoming:
the resulting compounds were not truly "alive"

1977 discovery of submarine hydrothermal vents First organic molecule formed on

pyrite grains Reactions formed first cells Highly speculative Pro: energy source around
hydrothermal vents

Organic molecules arrived from other parts of the solar system

Pros: Astronomers have demonstrated that small organic molecules exists in
interstellar space Some extraterrestrial material falling to Earth contained organic
molecules Highly speculative

elements required in small amounts by all life in moderate amounts by some forms of
life
type of forest - -Cold winters, short growing seasons, and low precipitation
-coniferous trees dominate
-largest biomes
-also called taiga
-to the south of the tundra

type of forest - Winters are milder than the north

Precipitation is high, so forests are thick and tall

type of forest - Northeast Us, Europe, and eastern China

Characterized by seasonal changes

consist of broad-leaved deciduous trees
soils rich in organic material and well-suited to agriculture

type of forest -equatorial

also called tropical seasonal forests or monsoon forests
main seasonal variation is precipitation
hot, dry summer, cool, wet winter
low, scrubby evergreen bushes and short trees
surrounds the Mediterranean sea, SW US, parts of Australia, Africa, and south
america

Factors that are not inherent, acting from the outside

Examples: climate change, forest fires, and predators

Factors that are not dependent on external conditions, inherent, located within
Examples: reproductive rate, niche requirements (food, living space, light)

___ growth - populations can follow this, where growth is exponential when
population is small but levels off when populations get larger
___ interactions - Individuals compete for a limiting resource
this is often one of the main factors that controls population size

___ interactions - One individual benefits at the direct expense of the other

one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected

number of species that live in specific ecosystems

number of species in an ecosystems or community

the relative abundance of individuals within each species

Our solar system is part of the Milky Way Galaxy. About how many galaxies do
astronomers believe exist?

What is believed to be the reason for Earth's tilt relative to the plane of the ecliptic?
In most places on the Earth, how many oceanic tides are there per day ( i.e., number
of high tides)?

If the ages of the Earth and the Moon are nearly identical, as believed, why are most
rocks found on the Moon so much older that rocks found on Earth?

According the the nebular hypothesis: (rotation of planets)

Which of the following is the most cause of human influence on biogeochemical

cycles?
The term that describes the changes produced in the Earth system as a result of
human activities is:

Differentiation is a process by which

The Sun is massive enough to keep burning on the Main Sequence for another

Which is the smallest planet in the solar system?

What is the widely accepted age of the universe?

Which color stars have the highest surface temperature?

largest planet

What are the major attributes of "superposition"?

The dinosaurs became extinct at the end of what Period?

Intrusive igneous rocks are generally ___ grained

What type of plate boundary is associated with the San Andreas Fault in California?
a) Massive and rapid rotation
b) Massive and cold
c) Cold and rapid rotation
d) Low gravity and rapid rotation
e) Low gravity and cold
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Flat base marks the level of condensation

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Stopped here
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100,000 (old), 40,000

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A Milankovitch cycle is a cyclical movement
related to the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
There are three of them: eccentricity, axial
tilt, and precession
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Check TB
Check TB
passive?
Plutons are intrusive igneous rock.
or summer? CHECK TB
Check TB

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Check TB