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Name: ________________________

Y13 AS RECAP XMAS WORK LIST Class: ________________________

Date: ________________________

Time: 317 minutes

Marks: 234 marks

Comments:

Page 1 of 79
(a) Describe how the structures of starch and cellulose molecules are related to their functions.
1 (5)

(b) Describe the processes involved in the transport of sugars in plant stems.
(5)
(Total 10 marks)

(a) What two measurements are needed to calculate an index of diversity?


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(b) A herbicide is a chemical used to kill weeds. Ecologists investigated the effect of a
herbicide on crop yield and the diversity of insects. They sprayed different fields with the
same volume of different concentrations of the herbicide. At harvest, the ecologists
determined the mean crop yield and the mean index of diversity of insects for fields that
had received the same concentration of the herbicide.

The figure below shows their results.

Concentration of herbicide sprayed on field / mg dm3

(i) Some fields acted as controls. They were sprayed with a solution that did not contain
the herbicide. Explain the purpose of these control fields.

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Page 2 of 79
(ii) Suggest an explanation for the relationship between the concentration of herbicide
and the mean crop yield.

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(iii) Explain the relationship between the concentration of herbicide and the mean index
of diversity of insects.

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(Total 8 marks)

Page 3 of 79
There are nine subspecies of giraffe. These subspecies evolved when populations of giraffe were
3 separated for long time periods. Each subspecies has distinct coloured skin markings. Some
biologists have suggested that up to six of these subspecies should be classified as different
species.

(a) Explain how different subspecies of giraffe may have evolved from a common ancestor.
Use information from the passage in your answer.

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(b) Biologists compared the mitochondrial DNA of the different subspecies of giraffe. They
used the results from comparing this DNA to conclude that six of the nine subspecies are
separate species.

Suggest how they came to this conclusion.

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(Total 7 marks)

Page 4 of 79
Lake Malawi in East Africa contains around 400 different species of cichlids which are small,
4 brightly coloured fish. All these species have evolved from a common ancestor.

(a) Describe one way in which scientists could find out whether cichlids from two different
populations belong to the same species.

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(b) During the last 700 000 years there have been long periods when the water level was
much lower and Lake Malawi split up into many smaller lakes. Explain how speciation of
the cichlids may have occurred following the formation of separate, smaller lakes.

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(c) Many species of cichlids are similar in size and, apart from their colour, in appearance.
Suggest how the variety of colour patterns displayed by these cichlids may help to maintain
the fish as separate species.

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(Total 8 marks)

Page 5 of 79
(a) (i) Why is the genetic code described as being universal?
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(ii) The genetic code uses four different DNA bases. What is the maximum number of
different DNA triplets that can be made using these four bases?

(1)

Transcription of a gene produces pre-mRNA.

(b) Name the process that removes base sequences from pre-mRNA to form mRNA.

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Page 6 of 79
(c) The figure below shows part of a pre-mRNA molecule. Geneticists identified two mutations
that can affect this pre-mRNA, as shown in the figure.

Base sequence coding Base sequence removed Base sequence coding


for amino acids from pre-mRNA for amino acids

Mutation 1, Mutation 2,
single base single base
deletion substitution

(i) Mutation 1 leads to the production of a non-functional protein.

Explain why.

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(ii) What effect might mutation 2 have on the protein produced?

Explain your answer.

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(Total 8 marks)

Page 7 of 79
Scientists investigated the presence of bacteria resistant to the antibiotic neomycin in turkeys,
6 chickens and the farmers who kept the turkeys and chickens. They looked for Escherichia coli (E.
coli) resistant to neomycin. At 46 farms, the scientists obtained samples of bacteria from faeces
of turkeys, turkey farmers, chickens and chicken farmers. The turkey farmers very often used
turkey food containing neomycin. The chicken farmers did not use chicken food containing
neomycin very often.

The bacteria were grown on nutrient agar in cultures. The nutrient agar contained neomycin. Any
resistant bacteria grew and divided to form visible colonies.

The results are shown in the table

Percentage of samples
of faeces containing E.
Samples taken from
coli resistant to
neomycin

Turkeys 81

Turkeys farmers 57

Chickens 24

Chicken farmers 8

(a) Suggest two hypotheses the scientists were testing in this investigation.

Hypothesis 1........................................................................................................

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Hypothesis 2........................................................................................................

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(b) (i) Describe what the results in the table show.

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Page 8 of 79
(ii) Suggest and explain one reason for the observed differences in percentage of
neomycin-resistant E. coli in turkeys and chickens.

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(c) The scientists followed strict safety guidelines when collecting samples of faeces. Apart
from the risk of contamination from E. coli this was especially important when collecting
samples from humans.

Explain why.

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(d) Use the information provided to identify and explain one way in which the scientists
increased the reliability of their method.

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(e) Suggest how the scientists could use DNA to investigate whether the neomycin-resistant
bacteria in farmers were identical to the strain of bacteria in the birds they kept.

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Page 9 of 79
(f) At one time, most animal feeds contained antibiotics that increased the rate of animal
growth. In the UK, fewer animal feeds now contain antibiotics.

Suggest reasons why.

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(Total 15 marks)

(a) Describe how you would test a piece of food for the presence of lipid.
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Page 10 of 79
The figure below shows a phospholipid.

X Y

(b) The part of the phospholipid labelled A is formed from a particular molecule. Name this
molecule.

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(c) Name the type of bond between A and fatty acid X.

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Page 11 of 79
(d) Which of the fatty acids, X or Y, in the figure above is unsaturated? Explain your answer.

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Scientists investigated the percentages of different types of lipid in plasma membranes


from different types of cell. The table shows some of their results.

Type of lipid Percentage of lipid in plasma membrane by mass

Cell lining ileum of Red blood cell of The bacterium


mammal mammal Escherichia coli

Cholesterol 17 23 0

Glycolipid 7 3 0

Phospholipid 54 60 70

Others 22 14 30

(e) The scientists expressed their results as Percentage of lipid in plasma membrane by
mass. Explain how they would find these values.

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Cholesterol increases the stability of plasma membranes. Cholesterol does this by making
membranes less flexible.

(f) Suggest one advantage of the different percentage of cholesterol in red blood cells
compared with cells lining the ileum.

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Page 12 of 79
(g) E. coli has no cholesterol in its cell-surface membrane. Despite this, the cell maintains a
constant shape. Explain why.

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(Total 10 marks)

Page 13 of 79
Malaria is a disease that is spread by insects called mosquitoes. In Africa, DDT is a pesticide
8 used to kill mosquitoes, to try to control the spread of malaria.

Mosquitoes have a gene called KDR. Today, some mosquitoes have an allele of this gene, KDR
minus, that gives them resistance to DDT. The other allele, KDR plus, does not give resistance.

Scientists investigated the frequency of the KDR minus allele in a population of mosquitoes in an
African country over a period of 10 years.

The figure below shows the scientists results.

Year

(a) Use the HardyWeinberg equation to calculate the frequency of mosquitoes heterozygous
for the KDR gene in this population in 2003.

Show your working.

Frequency of heterozygotes in population in 2003 ...................................


(2)

Page 14 of 79
(b) Suggest an explanation for the results in the figure above.

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The KDR plus allele codes for the sodium ion channels found in neurones.

(c) When DDT binds to a sodium ion channel, the channel remains open all the time.
Use this information to suggest how DDT kills insects.

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(d) Suggest how the KDR minus allele gives resistance to DDT.

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(Total 10 marks)

Page 15 of 79
The body markings of cheetahs vary, in particular the pattern of bands on their tails. Cheetahs
9 are solitary animals but the young stay with their mother until they are between 14 and 18
months old.

Scientists investigated the banding pattern on the tails of cheetahs living in the wild.

They drove a car alongside a walking cheetah and used binoculars to study the tail pattern.
They gave each cheetah a banding pattern score based on the width of the dark and light
bands on the end of the tail.
They scored the width of the bands on the right and left side of the tail using a 5 point scale
of width.

A typical pattern on the right side of one cheetahs tail is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1

Band number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Band width score 3 1 1 4 3 3 3

The scientists collected data from each cheetah on four separate occasions. Figure 2 shows the
data for one of the cheetahs.

Figure 2

Mean band width score ( standard deviation)


Side of
tail
Band 1 Band 2 Band 3 Band 4 Band 5 Band 6 Band 7

Right 3.00 1.00 1.00 3.75 2.75 3.00 3.00


( 0.82) ( 0.00) ( 0.00) ( 0.50) ( 0.50) ( 0.00) ( 0.00)

Left 3.75 3.25 2.00 3.00 2.00 2.50 3.00


( 0.50) ( 0.50) ( 0.50) ( 0.00) ( 0.00) ( 0.50) ( 0.50)

(a) The scientists only used data from cheetahs which were fully grown. Suggest why.

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Page 16 of 79
(b) The scientists estimated the width of the bands on the same cheetah on four separate
occasions. They did not always get the same score.

(i) Give two pieces of evidence from Figure 2 which show that the scientists sometimes
obtained different scores for the same band.

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(ii) The method the scientists used resulted in them getting different scores for the same
band. Suggest why.

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(c) What is the evidence from Figure 2 that the dark and light bands do not form rings of equal
width around the tail?

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Page 17 of 79
(d) The scientists found the difference in banding pattern between

offspring in the same family


cheetahs chosen randomly.

Explain how scientists could use this information to show that some variation in tail banding
was genetic.

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(Total 8 marks)

(a) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is used during translation to form polypeptides.


10 Describe how mRNA is produced in the nucleus of a cell.

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Page 18 of 79
(b) Describe the structure of proteins.

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(c) Describe how proteins are digested in the human gut.

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(Total 15 marks)

Page 19 of 79
Scientists used fossil leaves from one species of pine tree to investigate whether changes in the
11 concentration of carbon dioxide in the air over long periods of time had led to changes in the
number of stomata in the leaves.

Their method is outlined below.

They selected sites of different ages.


They collected between 11 and 24 fossil leaves from each site.
They found the mean number of stomata per mm 2 on the leaves from each site.
They estimated the age of each sample by dating organic remains around the leaves at
each site.

They compared results from the fossil leaves with leaves from the same species of pine tree
growing today.

They knew the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air at different times in the past.

Their results are shown in the table.

Concentration of Mean number of stomata


Age of sample
carbon dioxide in the per mm2
/ years
air / % ( standard deviation)

present day 0.0350 92 (2)

5000 0.0270 87 (4)

10 000 0.0250 95 (2)

15 000 0.0205 108 (6)

20 000 0.0195 115 (4)

25 000 0.0188 118 (6)

30 000 0.0190 130 (6)

(a) The concentration of carbon dioxide in the air has changed with time. Use the data to
describe how.

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Page 20 of 79
(b) The scientists calculated the mean number of stomata per mm2 and the standard deviation.

What does the standard deviation show?

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(c) The scientists found the age of the fossil leaves by dating the organic remains around
them.
Would this have affected the accuracy of their data? Explain your answer.

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(d) 30 000 years ago the mean number of stomata per mm2 on the lower epidermis of pine tree
leaves was much higher than it is today. This would have enabled the plant to grow faster
when the carbon dioxide concentration of the air was low.

Explain why.

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Page 21 of 79
(e) A student who saw these results concluded that as the carbon dioxide concentration of the
air had increased the number of stomata per mm2 in leaves had decreased.
Do the results support this conclusion?

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(f) The leaves of plants that grow in dry areas usually have a low number of stomata per mm2.
Use your knowledge of leaf structure to suggest three other adaptations that the leaves
might have that enable the plants to grow well in dry conditions.

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(3)
(Total 12 marks)

Page 22 of 79
The figure below represents a capillary surrounded by tissue fluid.
12 The values of the hydrostatic pressure are shown.

Arteriole Venule
end direction of blood flow end

Hydrostatic pressure = 4.3 kPa Hydrostatic pressure = 1.6 kPa

Tissue fluid
Hydrostatic pressure = 1.1 kPa

(a) Use the information in the figure above to explain how tissue fluid is formed.

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(b) The hydrostatic pressure falls from the arteriole end of the capillary to the venule end of the
capillary. Explain why.

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(c) High blood pressure leads to an accumulation of tissue fluid. Explain how.

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Page 23 of 79
(d) The water potential of the blood plasma is more negative at the venule end of the capillary
than at the arteriole end of the capillary. Explain why.

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(Total 9 marks)

Read the following passage.


13
During the course of a day, we come into contact with many poisonous substances. These
include industrial and household chemicals. The skin acts as a barrier and prevents many
of these substances entering and harming the body.

The skin is one of the largest organs in the body. It is composed of several layers of
5 tissue. The outer layer consists of dead cells packed with keratins. Keratins are a group of
proteins that differ from each other in their primary structure. Each keratin molecule
consists of several polypeptide chains, each individual chain wound into a spiral or helix.
The polypeptide chains include many sulphur-containing amino acids and these help to
give the keratin molecules their characteristic strength.

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the questions.

(a) What is the evidence from the passage that keratin molecules have a quaternary structure?

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Page 24 of 79
(b) Explain how sulphur-containing amino acids help to give keratin molecules their
characteristic strength (lines 89).

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(c) Explain why differences in primary structure result in keratins with different properties
(line 6).

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(d) The skin prevents poisonous substances entering and harming the body (line 3). Explain
why these substances are unable to pass through the outer layer of skin cells by active
transport.

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Page 25 of 79
(e) Skin cells may be studied with a transmission electron microscope or an optical
microscope. Explain the advantages and limitations of using a transmission electron
microscope to study cells.

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(Total 14 marks)

Page 26 of 79
Nicotine is the addictive substance in tobacco. When nicotine reaches the brain, it binds to a
14 specific protein. This causes the release of chemicals that give a feeling of reward to the smoker.
This reward is part of the reason why people find it difficult to stop smoking.

Scientists have developed a vaccine against nicotine to help people stop smoking.
They set up an investigation, which involved a large number of volunteers. Once a month for 5
months, one group of volunteers was given the vaccine and the other group was given a
placebo.

At regular intervals, the scientists measured the concentration of antibodies to nicotine in the
blood of each group of volunteers. They also calculated the percentage of volunteers who had
stopped smoking from months 2 to 6 of the investigation.

(a) (i) In this investigation, neither the volunteers nor the scientists knew if a particular
volunteer was receiving the vaccine or a placebo.

Suggest two reasons why this made the scientists results more reliable.

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(ii) The scientists measured the concentration of nicotine in the blood of two volunteers
who smoked the same number of cigarettes per day.

Suggest two reasons why the concentration of nicotine in the blood of these smokers
might be different.

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Page 27 of 79
(b) (i) Suggest how this vaccine could help people to stop smoking.

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(ii) Some people have suggested that this vaccine should not be given free to smokers
on the National Health Service (NHS). Evaluate this suggestion.

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The scientists measured the concentration of antibodies to nicotine in the blood of the volunteers
for 12 months after the first vaccination. As a result of these measurements, they divided the
volunteers who received the nicotine vaccine into three groups:

high antibody responders


medium antibody responders
low antibody responders.

The figure below shows their results.

The scientists also recorded the number of volunteers who had stopped smoking from months 2
to 6 of the investigation.

Page 28 of 79
The table below shows these results.

Month when vaccine or placebo was given

Page 29 of 79
Percentage of volunteers
Group who had stopped smoking from
months 2 to 6 of the investigation

High antibody responders 56.6

Low antibody responders 38.1

Medium antibody responders 32.1

Placebo 31.3

(c) A journalist reported that this vaccine is a major breakthrough in helping people to stop
smoking. Do these data support this statement? Explain your answer.

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(Total 15 marks)

Page 30 of 79
Many sports drinks contain water, sodium chloride and carbohydrates. The manufacturers of the
15 sports drinks claim that carbohydrates provide an energy boost. The sodium chloride is used to
increase absorption of glucose in the small intestine.

Scientists investigated the effect of a sports drink on the performance of runners in 5 km races.
They recruited 100 runners who had previously run a 5 km race in similar times. During this race,
Race 1, they had water they could drink.

The scientists divided the runners into two equal groups, P and Q. Both groups ran a second
5 km race, Race 2. During this race:

group P had water available


group Q had the sports drink available.

The scientists recorded the mean time for each group to complete this race.

The following figure shows their results.

(a) Use the figure to calculate the percentage decrease in the mean time taken for group Q to
complete Race 2 compared with Race 1.

Show your working.

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Page 31 of 79
(b) One of the runners concluded that the sports drink improved performance.

Do these data support his conclusion?

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(c) The runners were matched for the time taken to run the first race.

Give three other factors for which they should have been matched.

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Page 32 of 79
(d) The sports drink contains sodium chloride. Sodium chloride increases uptake of glucose in
the small intestine.

Explain how.

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(Total 12 marks)

(a) Describe how DNA is replicated.


16 (6)

(b) The graph shows information about the movement of chromatids in a cell that has just
started metaphase of mitosis.

Page 33 of 79
(i) What was the duration of metaphase in this cell?

minutes

(1)

(ii) Use line X to calculate the duration of anaphase in this cell.

minutes

(1)

(iii) Complete line Y on the graph.


(2)

(c) A doctor investigated the number of cells in different stages of the cell cycle in two tissue
samples, C and D. One tissue sample was taken from a cancerous tumour. The other was
taken from non-cancerous tissue. The table shows his results.

Percentage of cells in each


stage of the cell cycle

Stage of the Tissue sample Tissue sample


cell cycle C D

Interphase 82 45

Prophase 4 16

Metaphase 5 18

Anaphase 5 12

Telophase 4 9

(i) In tissue sample C, one cell cycle took 24 hours. Use the data in the table to calculate
the time in which these cells were in interphase during one cell cycle. Show your
working.

Time cells in interphase ...................................... hours


(2)

Page 34 of 79
(ii) Explain how the doctor could have recognised which cells were in interphase when
looking at the tissue samples.

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(iii) Which tissue sample, C or D, was taken from a cancerous tumour?


Use information in the table to explain your answer.

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(2)
(Total 15 marks)

Page 35 of 79
(a) Explain how the structure of DNA is related to its functions.
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(6)

Page 36 of 79
Scientists investigated three genes, C, D and E, involved in controlling cell division.
They studied the effect of mutations in these genes on the risk of developing lung cancer.

The scientists analysed genes C, D and E from healthy people and people with lung cancer.

If a person had a normal allele for a gene, they used the symbol N.
If a person had two mutant alleles for a gene, they used the symbol M.

They used their data to calculate the risk of developing lung cancer for people with different
combinations of N and M alleles of the genes. A risk value of 1.00 indicates no increased risk.
The following table shows the scientists results.

Risk of
Gene C Gene D Gene E developing
lung cancer

N N N 1.00

M N N 1.30

N N M 1.78

N M N 1.45

N = at least one copy of the normal allele is present


M = two copies of the mutant allele are present

(b) What do these data suggest about the relative importance of the mutant alleles of genes C,
D and E on increasing the risk of developing lung cancer? Explain your answer.

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(3)

Page 37 of 79
Chemotherapy is the use of a drug to treat cancer. The drug kills dividing cells.
The figure below shows the number of healthy cells and cancer cells in the blood of a patient
receiving chemotherapy. The arrows labelled F to I show when the drug was given to the patient.

Time / days

(c) Calculate the rate at which healthy cells were killed between days 42 and 46.

.............. cells killed per unit volume of blood per day


(1)

Page 38 of 79
(d) Describe similarities and differences in the response of healthy cells and cancer cells to the
drug between times F and G.

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(3)

(e) More cancer cells could be destroyed if the drug was given more frequently.

Suggest why the drug was not given more frequently.

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(2)
(Total 15 marks)

Page 39 of 79
Read the following passage.
18
In a human, there are over 200 different types of cell clearly distinguishable from each
other.
What is more, many of these types include a number of different varieties. White blood
cells,
for example, include lymphocytes and granulocytes.

Although different animal cells have many features in common, each type has adaptations.
5 associated with its function in the organism. As an example, most cells contain the same
organelles, but the number may differ from one type of cell to another. Muscle cells contain
many mitochondria, while enzyme-secreting cells from salivary glands have particularly
large
amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

The number of a particular kind of organelle may change during the life of the cell. An
10 example of this change is provided by cells in the tail of a tadpole. As a tadpole matures
into
a frog, its tail is gradually absorbed until it disappears completely. Absorption is associated
with an increase in the number of lysosomes in the cells of the tail.

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the following questions.

(a) Explain the link between.

(i) mitochondria and muscle cells (lines 6 - 7);

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(3)

(ii) rough endoplasmic reticulum and enzyme-secreting cells from salivary glands
(lines 7 - 8).

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(2)

Page 40 of 79
(b) Use information in the passage to explain how a tadpoles tail is absorbed as a tadpole
changes into a frog.

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(2)

(c) Starting with some lettuce leaves, describe how you would obtain a sample of undamaged
chloroplasts. Use your knowledge of cell fractionation and ultracentrifugation to answer this
question.

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(6)
(Total 13 marks)

Page 41 of 79
(a) ATP is useful in many biological processes. Explain why.
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(4)

Page 42 of 79
(b) Describe how ATP is made in mitochondria.

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(6)

Page 43 of 79
(c) Plants produce ATP in their chloroplasts during photosynthesis. They also produce ATP
during respiration. Explain why it is important for plants to produce ATP during respiration
in addition to during photosynthesis.

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(5)
(Total 15 marks)

Page 44 of 79
Read the following passage.
20
Straw consists of three main organic substances cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin.
Cellulose molecules form chains which pack together into fibres. Hemicellulose is a small
molecule formed mainly from five-carbon (pentose) sugar monomers. It acts as a cement
holding cellulose fibres together. Like hemicellulose, lignin is a polymer, but it is not a
5 carbohydrate. It covers the cellulose in the cell wall and supplies additional strength. In
addition to these three substances, there are small amounts of other biologically important
polymers present.

The other main component of straw is water. Water content is variable but may be
determined
by heating a known mass of straw at between 80 and 90C until it reaches a constant
mass.
10 The loss in mass is the water content.

Since straw is plentiful, it is possible that it could be used for the production of a range of
organic substances. The first step is the conversion of cellulose to glucose. It has been
suggested that an enzyme could be used for this process. There is a difficulty here,
however.
The lignin which covers the cellulose protects the cellulose from enzyme attack.

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the following questions.

(a) (i) Give one way in which the structure of a hemicellulose molecule is similar to the
structure of a cellulose molecule.

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(1)

(ii) Complete the table to show two ways in which the structure of a hemicellulose
molecule differs from the structure of a cellulose molecule.

Hemicellulose Cellulose

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(2)

(b) Name one biologically important polymer, other than those mentioned in the passage,
which would be found in straw.

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(1)

Page 45 of 79
(c) Explain why the following steps were necessary in finding the water content of straw:

(i) heating the straw until it reaches constant mass (line 9);

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(1)

(ii) not heating the straw above 90C (line 9).

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(2)

(d) A covering of lignin protects cellulose from enzyme attack (line 14). Use your knowledge of
the way in which enzymes work to explain why cellulose-digesting enzymes do not digest
lignin.

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(2)

Page 46 of 79
(e) Describe the structure of a cellulose molecule and explain how cellulose is adapted for its
function in cells.

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(6)
(Total 15 marks)

Page 47 of 79
Mark schemes
(a) Starch (max 3)
1 1. Helical/ spiral shape so compact;
2. Large (molecule)/insoluble so osmotically inactive;
Accept: does not affect water potential/.
3. Branched so glucose is (easily) released for respiration;
Ignore: unbranched.
4. Large (molecule) so cannot leave cell/cross cell-surface
membrane;

Cellulose (max 3)
5. Long, straight/unbranched chains of glucose;
6. Joined by hydrogen bonding;
Note: references to strong hydrogen bonds disqualifies this mark
point.
7. To form (micro/macro)fibrils;
8. Provides rigidity/strength;
5 max

(b) 1. (At source) sucrose is actively (transported) into the phloem/sieve element/tube;
Accept: sugar/s for sucrose but reject other named sugars e.g.
glucose.
Accept: co-transport (with H+ ions).
2. By companion/transfer cells;
3. Lowers water potential in phloem/sieve element/tube and
water enters by osmosis;
4. (Produces) high (hydrostatic) pressure;
Accept: pressure gradient.
5. Mass flow/transport towards sink/roots/storage tissue;
Accept: sieve element/tube.
6. At sink/roots sugars are removed/unloaded;
Accept: at sink/roots sugars are used in respiration/stored.
5 max
[10]

(a) 1. Number of (individuals of) each species;


2
Accept: population for number

2. Total number of individuals / number of species;


Accept: species richness
MP2 allows for other types of diversity index
2

Page 48 of 79
(b) (i) (Shows) results are due to the herbicide / are not due to another factor / (to)
compare the effect of using and not using the herbicide / shows the effect of
adding the herbicide;
Neutral: allows a comparison
Neutral: ensures results are due to the independent variable
Reject: insecticide
Accept: pesticide
1

(ii) 1. (More) weeds killed so more crops / plants survive / higher yield / less
competition;

2. High concentrations (of herbicide) harm / damage / kill / are toxic to crops
/ plants;
Accept: pesticide
Neutral: insecticide
Accept: use of figures (eg 400+)
2

(iii) 1. Reduced plant diversity / fewer plant species / fewer varieties of plant;
Accept: weed for plant
Neutral: fewer plants
Accept: only one crop species remains

2. Fewer habitats / niches;


Q Neutral: fewer homes / shelters

3. Fewer food sources / varieties of food;


Neutral: less food
3
[8]

Page 49 of 79
(a) 1. No interbreeding / gene pools are separate / geographic(al) isolation;
3
Accept: reproductive isolation as an alternative to no interbreeding.
2. Mutation linked to (different) markings/colours;
3. Selection/survival linked to (different) markings/colours;
4. Adapted organisms breed / differential reproductive success;
Note: passed on to offspring on its own is not sufficient for
reproduction.
5. Change/increase in allele frequency/frequencies;
5

(b) 1. (Compare DNA) base sequence / base pairing / (DNA)


hybridisation;
Ignore: compare chromosomes / genetic make-up.
Accept: (compare) genes / introns / exons.
Note: reference to only comparing alleles is 1 max.
2. Different in six (species) /different in different species / similar in
three (subspecies) /similar in same species/subspecies;
Ignore: compare chromosomes / genetic make-up.
Reject: same alleles/ same DNA bases in three
species/subspecies.
Note: mark point 2 can be awarded without mark point 1.
2
[7]

(a) breed together;


4 if fertile offspring, then same species;
2

(b) isolation of two populations;


variation already present due to mutations;

different environmental conditions / selection pressures leading to


selection of different features and hence different alleles;
different frequency of alleles;
separate gene pools / no interbreeding;
4

(c) selection of mate dependent on colour pattern;


prevents interbreeding / keeps gene pools separate;
2
[8]

(a) (i) (In all organisms / DNA,) the same triplet codes for the same amino acid;
5
Accept codon / same three bases / nucleotides
Accept plurals if both triplets and amino acids
Reject triplets code for an amino acid
Reject reference to producing amino acid
1

(ii) 64;
1

Page 50 of 79
(b) Splicing;
Ignore deletion references
Accept RNA splicing
1

(c) (i) 1. (Mutation) changes triplets / codons after that point / causes frame shift;
Accept changes splicing site
Ignore changes in sequence of nucleotides / bases

2. Changes amino acid sequence (after this) / codes for different amino
acids (after this);
Accept changes primary structure
Reject changes amino acid formed / one amino acid changed

3. Affects hydrogen / ionic / sulfur bond (not peptide bond);

4. Changes tertiary structure of protein (so non-functional);


Neutral 3-D structure
3 max

(ii) 1. Intron non-coding (DNA) / only exons coding;


Context is the intron
Do not mix and match from alternatives
Neutral references to introns removed during splicing
1.and 2. Ignore ref. to code degenerate and get same / different
amino acid in sequence

2. (So) not translated / no change in mRNA produced / no effect (on protein)


/ no effect on amino acid sequence;
Accept does not code for amino acids

OR

3. Prevents / changes splicing;

4. (So) faulty mRNA formed;


Accept exons not joined together / introns not removed

5. Get different amino acid sequence;


2 max
[8]

Page 51 of 79
(a) 1. Type of feed affects (antibiotic) resistant bacteria (in animals);
6
Accept: null hypotheses
Accept predictions, for example
More antibiotic resistant bacteria form in animals fed with antibiotics
in their food
2. (Antibiotic) resistant resistant infect /are passed on to
animals/farmer / resistant resistant are passed between animals;
Accept: bird to bird/bird to human/human to human
Accept: a link (exists) between (antibiotic) resistance in animals and
their keepers/farmers as lowest level QWC
3. Incidence of (antibiotic) resistant resistant differs in chickens and
turkeys;
Accept: a comparison, eg more resistant bacteria in chickens than
turkeys'
4. Incidence of (antibiotic) resistant resistant differs in chicken farmers
and turkey farmers;
Accept: a comparison, eg more resistant bacteria in chickens than
turkeys'
Max 2

(b) (i) 1. Large(r) percentage of resistant bacteria in


turkeys/low(er) percentage of resistant bacteria in
chickens;
Accept: E coli for bacteria
Ignore: number, eg. ignore more/fewer turkeys/chickens
2. Large(r) percentage of resistant bacteria in turkey
farmers/low(er) percentage of resistant bacteria in chicken
farmers;
2

(ii) 1. (More) antibiotic in turkey feed kills (more) non-resistant


bacteria / resistant bacteria survive;
Accept: antibiotic creates selection pressure
Survive must be explicit, not implied by reproduce
2. (Resistant bacteria) reproduce / pass on gene for resistance;
2

(c) (Human) faeces contain pathogens;


Accept: harmful organisms
1

(d) 1. Large number of farms / farmers (surveyed) / 46;


Reliable is used in the question stem
2. So results are (likely to be) representative / can identify anomalous
results;
Ignore: reproducible / accurate / valid / reliable
Accept valid explanation of replicates minimising effects of chance
2

Page 52 of 79
(e) 1. (DNA) hybridisation (of gene for resistance in bacteria taken
from bird and farmer);
2. (Identical) strands separate at high(est) temperature;

OR

3. Compare base/nucleotide sequence (of gene for resistance in


bacteria taken from bird and farmer);
4. (Identical strains) have identical/same base sequences
Mark in pairs, do not mix and match.
Accept: bacteria in bird and farmer/both types of bacteria have
identical base sequences = 2 marks
2

(f) 1. (Antibiotic use has) increased cases of bacterial resistance;


Accept: number
2. Transfer/horizontal transmission of (resistance) gene to
pathogens/harmful bacteria;
Accept: conjugation
3. (Antibiotic) resistant bacteria cause harm / medical treatments less
effective;
Accept: superbug
4. Avoids side effects on animals;
5. Increased demand for organic food;
6. Antibiotic/resistant bacteria could be present in human food;
7. High cost of antibiotics;
8. Legislation has controlled antibiotic use;
Accept: EU/government guidelines
4 max
[15]

(a) 1. Dissolve in alcohol, then add water;


7 2. White emulsion shows presence of lipid.
2

(b) Glycerol.
1

(c) Ester.
1

(d) Y (no mark)


Contains double bond between (adjacent) carbon atoms in hydrocarbon chain.
1

(e) 1. Divide mass of each lipid by total mass of all lipids (in that type of cell);
2. Multiply answer by 100.
2

(f) Red blood cells free in blood / not supported by other cells so cholesterol helps to
maintain shape;
Allow converse for cell from ileum cell supported by others in
endothelium so cholesterol has less effect on maintaining shape.
1
Page 53 of 79
(g) 1. Cell unable to change shape;
2. (Because) cell has a cell wall;
3. (Wall is) rigid / made of peptidoglycan / murein.
2 max
[10]

(a) 0.32.
8
Correct answer = 2 marks
Accept 32% for 1 mark max
Incorrect answer but identifying 2pq as heterozygous = 1 mark
2

(b) 1. Mutation produced KDR minus / resistance allele;


2. DDT use provides selection pressure;
3. Mosquitoes with KDR minus allele more likely (to survive) to reproduce;
4. Leading to increase in KDR minus allele in population.
4

(c) 1. Neurones remain depolarised;


2. So no action potentials / no impulse transmission.
2

(d) 1. (Mutation) changes shape of sodium ion channel (protein) / of receptor


(protein);
2. DDT no longer complementary / no longer able to bind.
2
[10]

(a) Banding pattern changes as cheetah gets older / difficult to judge as tail is short / fluffy;
9 1

(b) (i) Mean not (always) a whole number;


Standard deviation not (always) zero;
2

(ii) Movement of tail / angle of sight / confused it with another band / subjective
estimation;
Accept reference to Figure 1
E.g. Bands 2 and 3 have same thickness but look different
1

(c) Band width not the same on both sides of tail;


1

(d) Offspring of the same family will be more similar genetically;


As have same mother (and father) / parent;
Expect to see more differences in randomly chosen cheetahs;
3
[8]

Page 54 of 79
(a) 1. Helicase;
10 2. Breaks hydrogen bonds;
3. Only one DNA strand acts as template;
4. RNA nucleotides attracted to exposed bases;
5. (Attraction) according to base pairing rule;
6. RNA polymerase joins (RNA) nucleotides together;
7. Pre-mRNA spliced to remove introns.
6 max

(b) 1. Polymer of amino acids;


2. Joined by peptide bonds;
3. Formed by condensation;
4. Primary structure is order of amino acids;
5. Secondary structure is folding of polypeptide chain due to hydrogen bonding;
Accept alpha helix / pleated sheet

6. Tertiary structure is 3-D folding due to hydrogen bonding and ionic / disulfide
bonds;
7. Quaternary structure is two or more polypeptide chains.
5 max

(c) 1. Hydrolysis of peptide bonds;


2. Endopeptidases break polypeptides into smaller peptide chains;
3. Exopeptidases remove terminal amino acids;
4. Dipeptidases hydrolyse / break down dipeptides into amino acids.
4
[15]

(a) 1. The more recent the sample the greater the concentration;
11
Accept converse
This could be expressed by reference to time e.g. concentration
has increased since 25 000 years ago

2. Increases most in last 5000 years / more or less constant / slight increase
between 30 000 and 15 000 years ago;
2

(b) 1. Variation in data / spread of data;


Reject references to range e.g. range of data

2. Around the mean;


Both marks are possible in the context of using the data
2

(c) 1. Yes as pine leaves not in organic matter of the same age;

2. No as organic matter would be the same age as the pine leaves;


Accept either approach
1 max

Page 55 of 79
(d) Can get more CO2 for photosynthesis;
More CO2 enters leaf is insufficient.
Accept light-independent (reaction) as equivalent
1

(e) Any three from:

1. (Overall data show) negative correlation;


Do not allow description of correlation because in question stem

2. Little change in number of stomata in last 10 000 years;

3. Small sample size;

4. Only one species studied;

5. Other factors / named factor may have affected number of stomata;

6. Evidence does not support the conclusion between 30 000 and 25 000 years
ago / between 5000 years ago and present day;
Accept reference to either one of these age ranges

7. Appropriate reference to standard deviations (in comparing means);


E.g. no overlap between 15 000 and 10 000 years ago
3 max

(f) Any three from :

1. Thick cuticle;

2. Small leaves / low surface area;


Accept other ways of describing small, e.g. needle-like

3. Hairy leaves;

4. Sunken stomata;

5. Rolled leaves;
3 max
[12]

(a) 1. (Overall) outward pressure of 3.2 kPa;


12 2. Forces small molecules out of capillary.
2

(b) Loss of water / loss of fluid / friction (against capillary lining).


1

(c) 1. High blood pressure = high hydrostatic pressure;


2. Increases outward pressure from (arterial) end of capillary / reduces inward
pressure at (venule) end of capillary;
3. (So) more tissue fluid formed / less tissue fluid is reabsorbed.
Allow lymph system not able to drain tissues fast enough
3

Page 56 of 79
(d) 1. Water has left the capillary;
2. Proteins (in blood) too large to leave capillary;
3. Increasing / giving higher concentration of blood proteins (and thus wp).
3
[9]

(a) Several / more than one polypeptide chain in molecule;


13
Evidence must only relate to 4 structure
1

(b) Chemical bonds formed between sulphur-containing groups /


R-groups / form stronger disulphide bonds;
Bind chain(s) to each other;
2

(c) Different number / sequences of amino acids;


Bonds in different places which gives different shape;
2

(d) Outer layer of skin cells are dead / do not respire


Do not contain mitochondria / do not produce ATP / release energy;
Cells do not have required proteins / carriers;
3

(e) Advantages:

1 Small objects can be seen;

2 TEM has high resolution as wavelength of electrons shorter;


Accept better

Limitations:

3 Cannot look at living cells as cells must be in a vacuum;

4 must cut section / thin specimen;

5 Preparation may create artefact

6 Does not produce colour image;


6
[14]

(a) (i) 1. (Scientists) cant show bias / influence / may have a vested
14 interest / work for the company developing the vaccine;
Relates to the scientists

2. (Volunteers) cant show psychological / mental effects / placebo effect /


expectations;
Relates to the volunteers
Accept: reduces the Hawthorne effect / demand characteristics
Neutral: so they have no idea what they are taking
2

Page 57 of 79
(ii) Any two suitable suggestions, eg
Neutral: refs. to age and health

1. Amount of nicotine in cigarettes;


Neutral: different types of cigarette / different ways / frequency of
smoking

2. Amount inhaled / absorbed / time since last cigarette;


Neutral: absorption by gut / digestion
Accept: absorption by mouth

3. (Different) amounts excreted / metabolism / rate of binding (of nicotine) to


protein;
Accept: broken down (differently)

4. (Different) blood volumes;


Neutral: different body masses

5. Nicotine from passive smoking / other smokers / other sources;

6. Some volunteers received the vaccine / placebo;


Accept: some volunteers would have / would not have the
antibodies
2 max

(b) (i) 1. Antibodies to nicotine produced / antibodies bind to nicotine;


Q Reject: vaccine contains / produces antibodies
Q Neutral: antibodies digest / kill / fight nicotine

2. (So) nicotine does not bind to protein / does not reach the brain;
Q Reject: any reference to active site
Neutral: idea that the antibodies bind to the protein

3. (So) cigarettes / smoking does not satisfy addiction / reward smokers /


release (reward) chemicals;
3

(ii) (Agree):

1. People choose to smoke / know the risks;

2. Should spend this money on education / preventing people from starting


to smoke / treating other health problems / vaccines are expensive;

(Disagree):

3. Unethical not to treat;

4. Less money needed to treat the effects of smoking / cancer / smokers pay
taxes so are entitled to treatment;
3 max

Page 58 of 79
(c) 1. High antibody responders have a high % to stop smoking / are more likely to
stop smoking;
People producing a high concentration of antibodies is equivalent
to high antibody responders
Accept: reference to values from the table

2. Only a few may be high antibody responders / no numbers on how many are
high / medium / low antibody responders;
Neutral: not all people are high antibody responders

3. Percentage who stopped smoking is similar for placebo group and low /
medium responders / some / % of placebo group (still) stopped smoking /
placebo has the lowest value / % to stop smoking;
Accept: reference to values from the table

4. Large sample size / double blind so reliable / representative;

5. Antibody levels peak at / drop after 5 months / boosters may be needed at /


after 5 months;

6. May start smoking again after 5 / 6 months / do not know the percentage who
stopped smoking after 5 / 6 months;

7. Nicotine is not the only factor responsible for making people smoke;
Must mention nicotine
Do not accept: correlation does not mean causation / could be due
to other factors
5 max
[15]

(a) Answer of 9.09 / 9.1;; = 2 marks


15
Calculation of the difference in mean time (2) divided by original time (22); = 1 mark
Ignore number of decimal places as long as they are correct
2

Page 59 of 79
(b) (Yes)
Can mix and match yes or no approach, all 5 responses are
available

(No)

1. Faster running time after sports drink;


Faster running time in group Q is insufficient but accept faster
running time in group Q in Race 2

2. Mean times given so there will be variation in the group;

3. No standard deviations to know the spread of the data (about the mean) /
whether they overlap;
Accept no stats analysis

4. Improvement in running time only small in both groups / both groups improved
in Race 2;

5. Did not drink the same volumes;


3 max

(c) 1. Age;

2. Gender / sex;

3. Ethnicity;

4. Food / fluid intake before the race;


Any fluid / food is included here eg coffee, alcohol

5. Amount of sleep / rest / exercise before the race;

6. Reference to one named health factor eg diabetic or non-diabetic, smoker or


non-smoker;
Reference to medication is included here
3 max

Page 60 of 79
(d) 1. Sodium ions and glucose absorbed by co-transport;
Only penalise omission of ions once in marking points 1, 3, 4
and 5

2. (Co-transport) via carrier / channel protein;


Accept via symport
Only reward reference to carrier / channel proteins in the context of
co-transport

3. Sodium ions removed (from epithelial cell) by active transport into blood;

4. Maintains low concentration of sodium ions (in epithelial cell) / maintains


sodium ion concentration gradient (between small intestine and epithelial cell);
Principle: marking points 3, 5, and 6 require consideration of what
moves, where it moves to and how it moves to achieve credit

5. Sodium ions enter epithelial cells by facilitated diffusion taking glucose with
them (from small intestine);
Reference to diffuse / diffusion for movement is required.
Accept facilitated diffusion

6. Glucose moved by facilitated diffusion into blood (from epithelial cells);


4 max
[12]

(a) 1. Strands separate / H-bonds break;


16
1. Q Neutral: strands split
1. Accept: strands unzip

2. DNA helicase (involved);

3. Both strands / each strand act(s) as (a) template(s);

4. (Free) nucleotides attach;


4. Neutral: bases attach
4. Accept: nucleotides attracted

5. Complementary / specific base pairing / AT and GC;

6. DNA polymerase joins nucleotides (on new strand);


6. Reject: if wrong function of DNA polymerase

7. H-bonds reform;

8. Semi-conservative replication / new DNA molecules contain one old strand and
one new strand;
8. Reject: if wrong context e.g. new DNA molecules contain half of
each original strand
6 max

Page 61 of 79
(b) (i) 18;
Do not accept 17.5
1

(ii) 10;
1

(iii) 1. Horizontal until 18 minutes;


Allow + / - one small box

2. (Then) decreases as straight line to 0 m at 28 minutes;


2. Allow lines that start from the wrong place, ending at 0 at 28
minutes
2

(c) (i) Two marks for correct answer of 19.68 or 19.7;;


Accept 19hrs 41mins

One mark for incorrect answers in which candidate clearly multiplies by 0.82;
Allow one mark for incorrect answers that clearly show 82% of 24
(hours)
2

(ii) 1. No visible chromosomes / chromatids / visible nucleus;


1

(iii) D (no mark)

1. Lower % (of cells) in interphase / higher % (of cells) in mitosis / named


stage of mitosis;
1. Accept: less or more instead of %
1. Do not accept: higher % (of cells) in each / all stage(s)

2. (So) more cells dividing / cells are dividing quicker;


2. Accept: uncontrolled cell division
2. Do not award if Tissue C is chosen
2
[15]

Page 62 of 79
(a) 1. Sugar-phosphate (backbone) / double stranded / helix so provides strength / stability
17 / protects bases / protects hydrogen bonds;
Must be a direct link / obvious to get the mark
Neutral: reference to histones

2. Long / large molecule so can store lots of information;

3. Helix / coiled so compact;


Accept: can store in a small amount of space for compact

4. Base sequence allows information to be stored / base sequence codes for


amino acids / protein;
Accept: base sequence allows transcription

5. Double stranded so replication can occur semi-conservatively / strands can act


as templates / complementary base pairing / A-T and G-C so accurate
replication / identical copies can be made;

6. (Weak) hydrogen bonds for replication / unzipping / strand separation / many


hydrogen bonds so stable / strong;
Accept: 'H-bonds' for hydrogen bonds
6

(b) 1. (Mutation) in E produces highest risk / 1.78;

2. (Mutation) in D produces next highest risk / 1.45;

3. (Mutation) in C produces least risk / 1.30;


Must be stated directly and not implied
E > D > C = 3 marks
Accept: values of 0.78, 0.45 and 0.30 for MP1, MP2 and MP3
respectively
If no mark is awarded, a principle mark can be given for the idea
that all mutant alleles increase the risk
3

(c) 180;
1

Page 63 of 79
(d) (Similarities):

1. Same / similar pattern / both decrease, stay the same then increase;

2. Number of cells stays the same for same length of time;


Ignore: wrong days stated

(Differences):

(Per unit volume of blood)

3. Greater / faster decrease in number of healthy cells / more healthy cells killed /
healthy cells killed faster;
Accept: converse for cancer cells
Accept: greater percentage decrease in number of cancer cells /
greater proportion of cancer cells killed

4. Greater / faster increase in number of healthy cells / more healthy cells


replaced / divide / healthy cells replaced / divide faster;
Accept: converse for cancer cells
For differences, statements made must be comparative
3 max

(e) 1. More / too many healthy cells killed;

2. (So) will take time to replace / increase in number;


Neutral: will take time to repair

3. Person may die / have side effects;


2 max
[15]

(a) (i) Mitochondria site of respiration;


18 Production of ATP / release of energy;
For contraction;
Do not award credit for making or producing energy.
3

(ii) Enzymes are proteins;


Proteins synthesised / made on ribosomes;
2

(b) Lysosomes produce / contain enzymes;


Which break down / hydrolyse proteins / substances / cells of tail;
2

Page 64 of 79
(c) 1. Chop up (accept any reference to crude breaking up);
2. Cold;
3. Buffer solution;
4. Isotonic / same water potential;
5. Filter and centrifuge filtrate;
6. Centrifuge supernatant;
7. At higher speed;
8. Chloroplasts in (second) pellet;
max 6
[13]

(a) 1. Releases energy in small / manageable amounts;


19
1. Accept less than glucose

2. (Broken down) in a one step / single bond broken immediate energy compound
/ makes energy available rapidly;
2. Accept easily broken down

3. Phosphorylates / adds phosphate makes (phosphorylated substances) more


reactive / lowers activation energy;
3. Do not accept phosphorus or P on its own

4. Reformed / made again;


4. Must relate to regeneration
4

(b) 1. Substrate level phosphorylation / ATP produced in Krebs cycle;


Accept alternatives for reduced NAD

2. Krebs cycle / link reaction produces reduced coenzyme / reduced NAD /


reduced FAD;
2. Accept description of either Krebs cycle or link reaction

3. Electrons released from reduced / coenzymes / NAD / FAD;

4. (Electrons) pass along carriers / through electron transport chain / through


series of redox reactions;

5. Energy released;
5. Allow this mark in context of electron transport or chemiosmosis

6. ADP / ADP + Pi;


6. Accept H+ or hydrogen ions and cristae

7. Protons move into intermembrane space;


7. Allow description of movement through membrane

8. ATP synthase;
8. Accept ATPase. Reject stalked particles
6 max

Page 65 of 79
(c) 1. In the dark no ATP production in photosynthesis;
1. In context of in photosynthetic tissue / leaves

2. Some tissues unable to photosynthesise / produce ATP;

3. ATP cannot be moved from cell to cell / stored;

4. Plant uses more ATP than produced in photosynthesis;

5. ATP for active transport / synthesis (of named substance);


5
[15]

(a) (i) both are polymers / polysaccharides / built up from many sugar units / both contain
20 glycosidic bonds / contain (C)arbon, (H)ydrogen and (O)xygen;
1

(ii) hemicellulose shorter / smaller than cellulose / fewer carbons;


hemicellulose from pentose / five-carbon sugars and cellulose from
hexose / glucose / six-carbon sugars;
(only credit answers which compare like with like.)
2

(b) protein / nucleic acid / enzyme / RNA / DNA / starch / amylose / amylopectin
polypeptide;
1

(c) (i) to make sure that all the water has been lost;
1

(ii) only water given off below 90 C;


(above 90C) other substances straw burnt / oxidised / broken down; and lost
as gas / produce loss in mass;
2

(d) enzymes are specific;


shape of lignin molecules will not fit active site (of enzyme);
OR
shape of active site (of enzyme);
will not fit molecule;
2 max

(e) 1. made from -glucose;


2. joined by condensation / removing molecule of water / glycosidic bond;
3. 1 : 4 link specified or described;
4. flipping over of alternate molecules;
5. hydrogen bonds linking chains / long straight chains;
6. cellulose makes cell walls strong / cellulose fibres are strong;
7. can resist turgor pressure / osmotic pressure / pulling forces;
8. bond difficult to break;
9. resists digestion / action of microorganisms / enzymes;
(allow maximum of 4 marks for structural features)
6 max
[15]

Page 66 of 79
Examiner reports
(a) There was a considerable range in the quality of answers for this question. Some students
1 provided detailed explanations of how the structures of starch and cellulose are related to
their functions. At the other end of the spectrum, students referred to these molecules as
polypeptides and provided details on protein structure. 10% of students gained full marks
and almost 15% gained zero. Although many students appreciated the importance of
starch being compact they did not always relate this to its helical/spiral structure. Most
students stated that starch did not affect the water potential of cells due to its insolubility.
Fewer students related the branching of starch to the faster release of glucose for
respiration or discussed its inability to leave a cell. Generally, more students gained marks
when describing the structure and function of cellulose. Most appreciated the strength of
cellulose but a common error was to relate this to strong hydrogen bonds. However, a
significant number of students gained credit for describing (micro/macro) fibrils.

(b) As in question 10.1, 10% of students obtained maximum marks. However, almost 30% of
students scored zero in this question. The responses from students obtaining low marks
included a number of factual errors; sugars being produced by sinks, phloem consisting of
dead cells, the transport of sugars in the xylem, transport of glucose rather than sucrose,
and transport of sugars using cohesion tension. Conversely, there were also some superb
answers which included detailed explanations that went beyond the requirements of the
mark scheme. This was particularly evident in the details provided on the loading of sugars
from the source into the phloem via companion cells. Better answers contained extensive
explanations of how co-transport is involved in this process. A significant number of
students gained credit for explaining how the pressure gradient between the source and
sink was established including the osmotic movement of water into the phloem.
Surprisingly, few students obtained the mark for referring to the mass flow of sugars
towards sinks. However, most students did describe the unloading of sugars at sinks.

Page 67 of 79
Parts (a), (b)(ii) and (b)(iii) proved to be good discriminators.
2
(a) 70% of students scored full marks. Those who scored one mark often gave both
alternatives of the second mark point. Weaker responses often lacked clarity; for example,
number of individuals and different species within a population. Students who failed to
score often thought that the size of the area and standard deviation values are needed to
calculate an index of diversity. It should be noted that although the specification requires
students to be able to calculate one specific index of diversity, the mark scheme was
amended so that other types of index of diversity could be credited.

(b) (i) Most students were aware that the purpose of the control fields was to ensure that the
results are due to the herbicide, or not due to another factor. Those who failed to
score typically gave stock How Science Works responses, which could apply to any
investigation. These usually referred to comparing groups or results, ensuring that
the results were due to the independent variable, or simply that these fields acted as
controls. Students should be reminded of the need to relate their answers to the
specific investigation or context outlined.

(ii) Half of students scored one mark and this was usually for appreciating that the
herbicide killed more weeds, which led to less competition. However, the ability to
explain the effect of high concentrations of herbicide, in terms of damage to the crop,
proved to be a good discriminator. Unfortunately, many students did not read
information in the introduction carefully enough. They thought that the herbicide killed
insects, which meant that fewer crops were eaten. The weakest responses usually
went no further than to describe the graph.

(iii) Just under half of students scored at least two marks. This was usually for fewer
habitats and fewer food sources. It was only the best responses that referred to
fewer plant species being present. Similarly, the ability to express these ideas
discriminated well. Weaker responses often referred to less food and less plants,
which were not credited. As mentioned in part (i), some students wrongly thought that
the herbicide killed insects, which directly led to a decrease in their index of diversity.

(a) This question proved to be a very effective discriminator. 60% of students were able to
3 obtain at least three marks often by reciting the basic principles of speciation. The marks
most frequently credited referred to geographical isolation, differential reproductive success
and change in allele frequency. Many of these students failed to gain further credit as they
did not use the specific information provided on the coloured skin markings. Better answers
applied this information, outlining that mutations could result in particular skin colourations
and selection for these giraffes could eventually lead to speciation. Consequently, only 10%
of students achieved maximum marks.

(b) One in every three students obtained both marks. These students provided clear
explanations on how the mitochondrial DNA of different giraffes could be compared to
determine if they were the same species. The most frequently used method was to
compare DNA base sequences. Students obtaining a single mark often failed to outline
specifically how they would compare mitochondrial DNA. However, these students gained
credit for stating that the DNA of different species of giraffes would have more differences
than would subspecies.

Page 68 of 79
Most candidates had little difficulty obtaining at least half the available marks for this question.
4
(a) The vast majority of candidates gained both marks, almost invariably for indicating that
organisms of the same species would breed together to produce fertile offspring. A few
weaker candidates referred to DNA but these answers were only credited when a specific
method of comparing the DNA, e.g. DNA sequencing, was mentioned.

(b) Most candidates were able to gain at least one or two marks, often for referring to variation
being present in each population and the different selection pressures in the different
environments. Better candidates had little difficulty obtaining maximum marks by explaining
that organisms with favourable alleles would survive and pass these alleles on to future
generations, resulting in a change in the frequency of alleles. However, some weaker
candidates provided descriptions akin to Lamarckism, although these were not as prevalent
as in previous years.

(c) Unfortunately, a significant number of candidates considered colour and camouflage rather
than colour and mate selection. However, candidates making the correct link usually
obtained both marking points.

(a) (i) This part asked students why the genetic code is described as universal. Universal in
5 this context means found in all organisms. A large percentage of students wrote that
it is universal because it is found everywhere. Only a quarter of students made
correct references to the triplet code used in DNA. Some had the correct idea but
wrote things such as, The same triplet codes for all amino acids and failed to score.

(ii) 50% of students gave the correct answer.

(b) This part discriminated well, but with over 40% getting all three marks. Most stated or
described the idea of a frame shift. However, some wrote that this changed the sequence
of bases afterwards, rather than the sequence of codons. Another fairly common
misconception was that mRNA leads to the synthesis, or formation, of amino acids.

(c) This part proved more challenging and only about a third obtained both marks. Most correct
answers revolved around the idea of introns being non-coding and thus not affecting an
amino acid sequence. Students who failed to score often ignored the fact that the mutation
was in an intron and wrote about possible effects of a substitution on amino acid
sequences. In the figure, it clearly states that the intron is removed from pre-mRNA.

Page 69 of 79
(a) Most students demonstrated a sound understanding of the principle that a hypothesis is a
6 statement that is tested by an investigation. Predictions were most often given and many
gave null hypotheses. Marks were missed when students failed to make any reference to
resistance in the context of bacteria, and it was not uncommon for the resistance to be
linked to the animal or human rather than to Escherichia coli.

(b) (i) Many students showed good skill and precision by selecting the right information from
the table and made careful references to percentages and resistance to gain full
marks.

(ii) The principle of natural selection is well understood, but often marks were missed
because of a misconception that antibiotics cause mutations. Imprecise expressions
were common, such as bacteria thrive or they grow rather than they reproduce.
Occasionally, students wrote that resistant alleles survived, with no role implied for
the bacteria that contained them.

(c) Approximately a quarter of students achieved the mark on this question because they
made a clear link between human faeces and contaminating pathogens. Many mentioned
Escherichia coli, which the question explicitly told them not to do, and poor written
communication was evident in answers suggesting that what is spread is a disease rather
than an agent of disease.

(d) The principle of measuring the reliability of the design of an investigation is very well
understood, with the majority of answers gaining two marks. Some students misread the
question because they suggested changes in the design to increase reliability, and others
did not notice reliability was given in the questions stem so it should not have been
included as an answer.

(e) This question differentiated well. Students made appropriate suggestions using either DNA
hybridisation or nucleotide sequencing to address the context of this question; some wrote
at length about both of these techniques. A minority of responses discussed using
antibodies to compare the similarities, possibly they think DNA is a kind of protein.

(f) Few students achieved more than three marks on this question because many tended to
dwell far too long on giving a full explanation of how natural selection increased cases of
resistance; they did not look to give broader reasons relating to societys view.
Contamination of the human food chain, avoiding adverse side effects, the generation of
superbugs, and high costs were common answers, although students giving more than any
two of these was rare. Very few answers contained suggestions about changes in
legislation and, although prevention of the horizontal and vertical transmission of genes
conferring resistance was often cited, it was rare for students to make clear the principle of
avoiding transmission of resistance into other harmful bacteria, so this marking point was
not often awarded.

Page 70 of 79
(a) There was widespread recognition that tail band width would be likely to change with age.
9
(b) In part (a), many candidates lacked the mathematical understanding to appreciate that a
mean which had a value with decimal places suggested that measurements of the same
band must differ. Likewise, they did not appreciate that a standard deviation with a value
other than zero indicated variation in the measurements of the same band. However in part
(b), having read the description of the procedure, most recognised that viewing an animal's
tail through binoculars from a moving vehicle was likely to give rise to inconsistent data.

(c) Most candidates correctly used the data about the width of bands from the left and right
sides of the tail as evidence that rings of equal width were not found.

(d) The most frequently awarded mark was for showing an understanding that unrelated
animals would be expected to show more variation than animals from the same family. It
was less usual to find a link to the idea that members of one family are genetically closely
related, or a reference to the animals parentage.

(a) In general, students made good use of the data, as required, answering this question.
11 Weaker answers only identified the overall trend.

(b) There was some misinterpretation of this question by students. All that was required was a
description of what standard deviation shows, namely, the variation in, or spread of data
about, the mean value. Some attempted to discuss standard deviation values related to the
data obtained but there was no specific direction to do so in this case.

(c) Given that two possible approaches to this question were possible, the majority of students
were able to make one acceptable line of reasoning.

(d) The link between carbon dioxide and photosynthesis was not apparent to a large number of
students. Thus, they failed to gain the mark for this question.

(e) Although all responses were seen within the work that was moderated, most students could
not make three relevant points the mark allocation was the key for this to justify whether
the results supported the conclusion. It was rare to see recognition of a negative
correlation, although some described such but were only repeating the question stem and,
for doing so, there is no credit. This type of question reflects a weakness with the
assimilation of resource material. The likelihood of another factor being responsible was
the most common point made, but this supports the idea that many students produce
rehearsed answers without showing a comprehension of what is in the resources.

(f) Many students finished strongly with a question relying on recall. The Marking Guidelines
specifically referred to thick cuticle but some assessors credited reference to waxy as an
alternative.

(a) Difficulties were experienced with this question where answers were frequently
13 unselective, relating not only to quaternary structure but to aspects of secondary and
tertiary structure as well. To gain credit here, candidates needed to confine their answers to
the fact that keratin molecules consisted of several polypeptide chains.

(b) Most candidates clearly appreciated that the bonds formed between sulphur- containing
amino acids were strong and helped to bind the individual polypeptide chains. Less able
candidates often confused these bonds with peptide bonds or did little more than
paraphrase the wording of the question.

Page 71 of 79
(c) As was not infrequently the case with the answers to many of the questions in this paper,
less able candidates gave the impression of relying on the recall of mark schemes from
broadly similar past questions. In this case they either simply described the primary
structure of a protein, which gained little credit, or described how the primary structure of a
protein affected its tertiary structure which was potentially, at least, a better option. Those
who read the question carefully were usually able to comment on differences in the amino
acid sequence leading to differences in bonding and in molecular shape. There was some
confusion, presumably among candidates who had also completed Module 2 or 3, between
amino acids, proteins and bases.

(d) As in part (c), the principal requirement here was to answer the question as written.
Unfortunately, the response offered by many was no more than a description of active
transport. In this question candidates were expected to use this knowledge along with
information available in the passage to explain why substances were unable to pass
through the outer layer of skin cells. Those who approached the question in the right way
generally pointed out that the cells were dead and progressed to make an appropriate
comment about respiration and the release of energy or generation of ATP. A not infrequent
misconception was that since movement against a concentration gradient involves active
transport, active transport cannot be involved in movement down a gradient.

(e) The many good answers to this part of the question suggested that most candidates had a
clear understanding of the principles of electron microscopy and were able to offer a lucid
account of its advantages and limitations. Less able candidates were usually able to
explain the advantages associated with high resolution but the limitations they suggested
concerning expense, size, the production of black and white images and the need for
technical support were of a more anecdotal nature and seldom gained significant credit.

Page 72 of 79
Parts (a)(ii), (b)(i), (b)(ii) and (c) proved to be good discriminators.
14
(a) (i) Nearly all students scored one mark and this was usually for suggesting that this
method prevented the scientists from being biased. Unfortunately, the second
suggestion provided by some also related to the scientists, rather than the
volunteers; for example, they may have a vested interest. Students who scored a
second mark often referred to reducing the placebo effect or psychological effects.

(ii) One-third of students scored full marks. The most common mark points awarded
were for suggesting that different types of cigarette contain different amounts of
nicotine, different amounts may be absorbed, different amounts may be excreted and
that the volunteers may have different blood volumes. Unfortunately, a lack of
precision let down some students; for example, they smoked different cigarettes and
they had different body masses.

(b) (i) Just over half of students scored at least two marks. This was usually for mentioning
that nicotine will not bind to the protein, so the smoker will not feel rewarded.
Surprisingly, few students clearly expressed the idea that the vaccine stimulates the
production of antibodies to nicotine, or that these antibodies bind to nicotine. A
common misconception seen in weaker responses was that the vaccine contains
antibodies to nicotine. Similarly, some students thought that this vaccine contained a
weakened strain of bacteria. Generally, there were three incorrect approaches to this
question, which were all due to not reading the introduction carefully enough. The
first was that the vaccine causes the release of reward chemicals, meaning that a
person would not need to smoke. The second was that the vaccine stops smokers
from feeling addicted, rather than stopping them from feeling rewarded. The third was
that the antibodies to nicotine bind to the protein in the brain, instead of to nicotine.
Unfortunately, some students had the second mark disqualified for referring to the
protein receptor in the brain as an enzyme. A minority also thought that the ability of
the vaccine to stop people smoking could be spread within the population to other
smokers by herd immunity.

(ii) Just under half of students scored at least two marks. The most common mark points
awarded were for appreciating that people choose to smoke, the vaccine would be
expensive and less money would be needed to treat the effects of smoking.
Relatively few referred to it being unethical not to treat smokers, or that money would
be better spent in preventing people from smoking. Students who failed to score
often gave vague responses; for example, if it is free, more people will stop smoking
and it will prevent people from dying of cancer. A minority suggested that the
vaccine should not be used at all, due to the Government losing millions of pounds
each year in tax on cigarettes. Some of the weakest responses did not answer the
question set. These typically contained stock How Science Works phrases such as, it
is only one study and we do not know the sample size.

(c) It was disappointing that only one-fifth of students scored at least three marks. Again,
weaker responses often contained stock How Science Works phrases, which did not apply
specifically to this investigation. The question clearly asked students to use the data to
evaluate the statement made by the journalist. This said, many students did note that high
antibody responders are more likely to stop smoking. Many also realised that the placebo
group and low antibody responders had a similar percentage of volunteers who stopped
smoking. The next most accessible mark point was that the volunteers may start smoking
again after five or six months. Better responses also noted the peak, or drop, in the
concentration of antibodies. However, some failed to mention when this occurred, or
Page 73 of 79
quoted an incorrect time from the graph. Relatively few students suggested that only a
small proportion of the population may be high antibody responders, or that the large
sample size produced more reliable or representative results. Overall, it was evident that
many students did not analyse the data in the graph and table in enough detail, particularly
in relation to the timing of events.

(a) Calculating percentage change still remains a problem for a number of students.
15
(b) Students generally did not score more than two marks for this question. Most were able to
gain the Yes mark, identifying that running times were faster after the sports drink, and
recognise that both groups had shown improvement. Few considered that the runners
might have drunk different volumes or that, as mean times rather than individual times were
given, there could be variation in performances. It was rare to see students comment on
the lack of standard error bars and the implications of such.

(c) Most students scored at least two marks in this question but some struggled to identify
relevant factors beyond age and sex. There was often a lenient interpretation of marking
point 6 despite the requirement that a health factor should be named.

(d) There were some excellent answers to this question but, equally, there were some very
poor ones as well. In some cases, assessors gave credit when the required answer for a
particular marking point was incomplete. This was particularly noticeable with marking
points 3, 5 and 6. Many students omitted a reference to sodium ions and this omission was
not always recognised by assessors.

(a) This proved to be an excellent discriminator. Just over 70% of students scored at least half
16 marks. Many were aware of the breaking of hydrogen bonds, the role of DNA helicase and
complementary base pairing. However, it was only better responses that referred to the
attachment of free nucleotides (as opposed to free bases) and both strands acting as
templates. DNA polymerase was frequently mentioned but its role was often confused in
weaker responses. This enzyme joins nucleotides on the newly formed strand, it does not
cause complementary base pairing. Some students negated the mark for
semi-conservative replication through poor expression. The most common examples of this
included each new DNA molecule contains half of the original strand and new strands
contain half of the original strand. Very few students wrote about hydrogen bonds
reforming.

(b) (i) Two-thirds of students correctly gave the duration of metaphase as 18 minutes.

(ii) 80% of students correctly calculated the duration of anaphase as 10 minutes.

(iii) This proved to be a good discriminator. Most students gained one mark for extending
the horizontal line to 18 minutes, or decreasing this line to 0 m at 28 minutes.
Weaker responses often showed the horizontal line increasing.

(c) (i) 70% of students correctly calculated the time the cells were in interphase as 19.7
hours. Very few students gained the principle mark for multiplying by 0.82.

Page 74 of 79
(ii) Just under half of students were aware that cells in interphase could be detected by a
visible nucleus or the inability to see chromosomes. Weaker responses typically
referred to the inability to see DNA or that the cells in interphase would contain twice
the amount of chromosomes.

(iii) This proved to be a good discriminator. Most students were aware that cancer cells
divide more rapidly than healthy cells. However, it was only better responses that
referred to data in the table and correctly linked this to tissue D. Some students
wrongly thought that more cells in interphase meant more rapid cell division due to
increased DNA replication.

Page 75 of 79
Parts (a), (b) and (d) proved to be good discriminators.
17
(a) It was disappointing that only just below 40% of students scored at least half marks. This
was mainly due to simply describing the structure of DNA, without explaining how these
features relate to its functions. Some students wrote about DNA structure and function in
different paragraphs. This made it unclear which feature went with which function, as no
direct links had been made. In contrast, there were some truly excellent responses, which
had clearly been well planned before putting pen to paper. The most common mark points
awarded were for the sugar-phosphate backbone providing strength or protecting bases,
the helix allowing the molecule to be compact, weak hydrogen bonds allowing strand
separation or replication and the two strands acting as templates or allowing
semi-conservative replication. Relatively few students linked complementary base pairing
with accurate replication or the production of identical copies of DNA. Similarly, few
students referred to DNA as a large molecule that can store lots of information, or the base
sequence coding for amino acids. Weaker responses often mentioned this in the context of
the genetic code being degenerate. Indeed, some students thought that the base sequence
causes amino acids to be produced. The ability to convey that many hydrogen bonds
provide stability was rarely seen. It was also unfortunate that a number of students wasted
their time by writing about irrelevant topics such as the differences between prokaryotic and
eukaryotic DNA and the role of histones. There were also some lengthy accounts of DNA
replication, enzyme structure and the different levels of protein structure.

(b) Many students scored at least two marks for stating that a mutation in gene E produces the
highest risk and a mutation in gene C produces the lowest risk. However, only the best
responses also referred to gene D. Students who did not mention any of the genes usually
picked up one mark for noting that all of the mutant alleles increase the risk of lung cancer.
Surprisingly, some thought that a mutation in gene D produces the highest risk.

(c) Just fewer than 40% of students gave the correct answer of 180.

(d) Two-thirds of students scored at least two marks. Many were able to identify the decrease,
plateau and increase for healthy cells and cancer cells. However, relatively few made
reference to the plateau occurring for the same length of time. Students who failed to gain
a mark for a similarity usually ignored the plateau. Most students spotted that a greater
number of healthy cells were killed or that they experienced a faster decrease in number.
Similarly, it was impressive to see that some used data from the graph to calculate that a
greater proportion of cancer cells were killed. Many students also noted the faster increase
in the number of healthy cells.

(e) Half of students scored full marks. This was usually for mentioning that too many healthy
cells would be killed, which could kill the patient or cause side effects. However, relatively
few appreciated that it would take time to replace the healthy cells that had been killed.

(a) Superficial answers along the lines that muscles have many mitochondria because we use
18 our muscles in everyday life failed to gain credit but, even where candidates had some
understanding of the function of these organelles, errors crept into the accounts they gave.
There were still many thermodynamically incorrect statements about making energy and a
significant number were reluctant to associate mitochondria with respiration, or having
done so, expressed their ideas incorrectly in terms of the ATP produced by mitochondria
being used for respiration or to allow the muscle to respire. Many candidates were clearly
of the opinion that rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesises protein so did not refer to
ribosomes in their answers to part (ii). Others were somewhat equivocal about the status
of enzymes and proteins.
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(b) There was considerable confusion between lymphocytes and phagocytes with many
candidates describing reabsorption of the tail in terms of it being engulfed by lysosomes.
Most, however, realised that lysosomes contained enzymes, although there were some
who were of the opinion that they were enzymes. There was less clarity about the function
of these enzymes. Their digestive role was seldom recognised and most responses
concluded with a vague statement about destroying the tail.

(c) Responses to this part of the question were frequently marred by misuse of terminology.
Homogenate and supernatant, fractionation and centrifugation were often confused. Where
possible, examiners ignored such incorrect usage, but where this obscured the underlying
meaning, marks were withheld. Most candidates clearly appreciated the significance of
adding a cold, isotonic buffer although this was generally added at a rather late stage in the
procedure. From this point on, many accounts became less convincing. Homogenisation as
a process which breaks open cells was perhaps not understood, with many answers giving
the impression that whole leaves, or small pieces of leaf were centrifuged; few referred to
filtering before centrifugation, while others appeared to lose track of precisely what they
were centrifuging, supernatant or pellet.

(a) Some good answers were given to this question, with candiates being confident in their
19 understanding of the way in which ATP rapidly releases small, manageable amounts of
energy in a single hydrolytic reaction. Marking points 5 and 6 were the least often seen,
and the use of ATP to lower activation energy was very rarely seen, although answers
frequently referred to activation of glucose in glycolysis.

(b) Many excellent answers were given in this section that included six or more of the marking
points and showed excellent understanding of the processes involved in ATP formation,
including chemiosmosis. A significant number gave an account of the whole process of
respiration, including glycolysis, using up the space provided and indicating that the answer
continued on a separate sheet. One or two included the digestion and absorption of
carbohydrates. Weaker students often gained marking points 1, 2 and 6. There was
confusion over protons and electrons and hydrogen ions/atoms and molecules. Some
students confused the processes of respiration and the light-independent reaction of
photosynthesis. Glycerate 3-phosphate (GP) and triose phosphate (TP) were sometimes
said to be involved in the Krebs cycle, as was NADP. The movement of protons through the
inner mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space was often only loosely
described, with protons passing into the membrane, along the membrane, or out of the
mitochondrion.

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(c) Many students did not appear to have any real understanding of the relationship between
photosynthesis and respiration. Statements such as plants have to respire so they can
make the carbon dioxide so they can photosynthesise were not atypical. The weakest
students completely reversed the roles of the two processes. Most commonly, students
gained two marks, for referring to the uses of ATP in active transport and synthesis.
Marking points 1 and 4 were seen rather less often and marking points 2 and 3 were fairly
rarely made. Some students demonstrated good knowledge but not the ability to be
selective, giving accounts in some detail of both photosynthesis and respiration which
failed to address the question fully.

(a) (i) Answers to parts of this question were not infrequently marred by lack of knowledge
20 of the basic structure of cellulose as a polymer of -glucose. Thus, although all that
was required here was to note that both molecules were polymers, many disqualified
their answers by referring to cellulose as also being a pentose.

(ii) Limited question technique frequently restricted the credit available. Many candidates
concentrated on functional rather than structural differences. As a consequence, the
answer boxes were often so full that they rarely compared like with like and offered a
valid comparison. Among the better, more focused, answers were some which
unfortunately were a little too concise, referring to hemicellulose as a pentose and
cellulose as a hexose. Questions requiring structural similarities are likely to remain a
feature of BYA1. Candidates clearly need an effective strategy for answering them.

(b) Starch and protein were correctly identified by many, but a range of incorrect responses
included glycogen, phospholipid and various monosaccharides.

(c) (i) Answers suggested that, although candidates were clearly familiar with the term
constant mass, they were by no means all conversant with the idea that it
represented the point at which all water had been lost.

(ii) There were many correct answers. Answers to this second part, such as Going over
90 C would start to boil the water so that we would be unable to calculate the water
content were frequent and suggested that candidates had failed to focus on the
information provided in the second paragraph of the passage. The better candidates
at whom this question was directed were generally able to point out, however, that
high temperatures might lead to other substances being broken down and a
consequent loss in mass.

(d) Although most candidates were aware of the specific nature of enzyme action, they
experienced varying degrees of difficulty in relating the general concepts involved to the
context of this question. Those candidates who gained least credit were inclined to reword
the question and offer an explanation in terms of the lignin covering. Others offered
responses centred around lignin acting as an enzyme inhibitor. Better candidates clearly
understood the concepts of molecular shape and fit and were able to apply them to this
situation.

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(e) Answers to this part of the question ranged from those of the more able candidates who
wrote clearly and logically about cellulose structure and function, often with a pleasing level
of accuracy and detail, to those which did not gain credit. Among the latter were many who
failed to attempt this part of the question and others who confused cellulose with other
molecular components of plant cells such as starch and plasma membranes. There was
much confusion between hydrogen bonds and glycosidic bonds, and between -glucose
and -pleated sheets.

Other incorrect assertions which frequently arose were that cellulose is formed from
alternating - and -glucose residues, and that it contains both 1-4 and 1-6 linkages. Many
candidates correctly identified strength as one of the molecules properties and went further
in discussing the importance of this in withstanding pressures resulting from osmosis. A
frequent error, however, was to assign the function of energy storage to cellulose.

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