A. Lot Lizards: Skeezers

1. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?
a. Lot Lizards
b. Hookers
c. Skeezers
d. Hustler
2. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She is usually a newcomer in the business?
a. Door knocker
b. Street walker
c. Call girl
d. skeezers
3. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels?
a. Door knocker
b. Street walker
c. Call Girl
d. Factory Girl
4. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their own legitimate work or profession but works as a prostitutes
to supplement their income?
a. Door knocker
b. Street walker
c. Call Girl
d. Factory Girl
5. The following countries which comprises the Golden Triangle, EXCEPT.
a. Vietnam
b. Thailand
c. Myanmar
d. Laos
6. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term partner repeatedly?
a. philander
b. prostitution
c. philandering
d. prostitute
7. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to female customers?
a. gigolo
b. pimps
c. callboy
d. Johns
8. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is the
approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved in accident. .
a. 64 kms./hour
b. 54 kms./hour
c. 46 km.s/hour
d. 45 kms./hour
9. This method of identification depends on the ability of the witness to describe the person seen committing the
crime.
a. Verbal description
b. Photographic files
c. Police line up
d. General photograph
10. Criminals whose identity may be established background identification.

a. Known criminals
b. Unknown criminals
c. Convicted criminals
d. Unidentified criminals
11. Compilation of known criminals available from police files and records.
a. Rouge gallery
b. General photograph
c. Police blotter
d. Modus operandi files
12. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.
a. Loose tail
b. Rough shadowing
c. Close tail
d. None of the foregoing
13. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:
a. Place it in a pill box and label it
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it
d. Tag it with a label
14. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation room must be:
a. With no windows or views
b. There should only be one door
c. It must be sound proof
d. All of the choices
15. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great knowledge of the case and is preferable when the
subject is not the talkative type.
a. Narrative type
b. Question and answer type
c. Stern type
d. Simple interrogation
16. What should the investigator do to protect while in transport those collected evidence from the crime scene?
a. Seal it
b. Mark it
c. Pack it properly
d. Label it
17. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
a. To detect evidences of criminal activities
b. To establish association of a suspect
c. To locate wanted persons
18. A wanted to kill B the former pointed his gun to the latter, as A pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and B
managed to escape. This is an example of:
a. Attempted felony
b. Frustrated felony
c. Consummated felony
d. Consummated felony
19. Kind of recognition whereby the description and characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult.
a. Known fugitives
b. Professional criminals
c. Ordinary criminals
d. Unknown fugitives
20. The methods of determining and finding the best way to remedy the specific cause or causes of the
complaint or grievance refers to:
a. Cross examination
b. Grievance procedures
c. Investigative procedure
d. Criminal procedures
21. A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequence of stuff produced from thin air.
a. False informant
b. Double-crosser informant
c. Mercenary informant
d. Frightened informant
22. Clandestine operation in police parlance.
a. Covert intelligence
b. Secret activity
c. Over intelligence
d. Surveillance
23. It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt
through criminal proceeding.
a. Information
b. Interrogation
c. Instrumentation
d. Investigation
24. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
a. Physical evidence
b. Tracing evidence
c. Testimonial evidence
d. Associative evidence
25. Is a person who provides an investigator with confidential information concerning a past or projected
crime and does not wish to be known as a source of information.
a. Informants
b. Witness
c. Informers
d. Confidential informants
26. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.
a. Interview
b. Interrogation
c. Investigation
d. All of the foregoing
27. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
a. Photographic file
b. 201 file
c. Rogue gallery
d. Cartographic sketch
28. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is induced to commit the crime.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Opportunity
d. Deceit
29. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a
procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
a. 3 to 5
b. 5 to 7
c. 7 to 10
d. 10 to 15
30. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Opportunity
d. Deceit
31. Motive in giving information wherein the informant delights in giving information to gain favorable
attention from the police.
a. Competition
b. Repentance
c. Vanity
d. Jealousy
32. Employed where a general impression of the subjects habits and associate are required.
a. Surveillance
b. Loose tail shadowing
c. Rough shadowing
d. Close tail shadowing
33. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
a. One man shadow
b. Two man shadow
c. Three man shadow
d. ABC method
34. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to one side of the
rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to the
first movement.
a. Zone method
b. Strip method
c. Spiral method
d. Wheel method
35. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
a. Zone method
b. Strip method
c. Spiral method
d. Wheel method
36. The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to show the relative location and distances.
a. Environmental photograph
b. Physical reconstruction
c. Overview
d. Over-all photograph
37. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored and everything is approximate.
a. Sketch
b. Draft
c. Rough sketch
d. Finished sketch
38. Most common reason in discharging informants
a. Burn out
b. Too expensive to maintain
c. Lack of loyalty
d. Reprehensible behavior
39. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
a. Stylus
b. Pen
c. Ink
d. Chalk
40. A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity.
a. Tailing
b. Shadowing
c. Surveillance
d. Roping
41. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
a. Narrative type
b. Interrogation type
c. Question and answer type
d. Stern type
42. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a person taken into custody.
a. Protective custody
b. Detaining for questioning
c. Police restraint
43. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and
what were the circumstances of the crime.
a. Crime scene
c. Mental reconstruction
d. Reconstruction of the crime
44. Paid informants

a. Anonymous informants
b. Rival elimination informants
c. False informants
d. Mercenary informants
45. Most common type of shadowing.
a. One man shadow
b. Two man shadow
c. Three man shadow
d. Rough shadow
46. Articles and materials which are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity
of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.
a. Tracing evidence
b. Corpus delicti
c. Associative evidence
d. Physical or material evidence
47. Instrumental detection of deception
a. Ballistic test
b. Fingerprint test
c. Questioned document test
d. Polygraph testing
48. When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be implemented.
a. Kneeling search
b. Standing search
c. Floor search
d. Wall search
49. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine the
identity of the suspects.
a. Preliminary search of a person
b. Wall search
c. Standing search
d. Floor search
50. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned.
a. Dashboard
b. Door handles
c. Steering wheel
d. Rear view mirror
51. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law enforcers in order to get more information from them
than he gives.
a. Double-crosser informants
b. Mercenary informants
c. False informants
d. Self-aggrandizing informants
52. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of
physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of law and science.
a. Chemist
b. Scientist
c. Criminalistics
d. Toxicologist
53. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one place.
a. Local crimes
b. Local action
c. Transitory crimes
d. Transitory action
54. The number of persons who handle the pieces of evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times of the
commission up to final disposition of cases.
a. Time custody
b. Time disposition
c. Time disposal
d. Chain of custody
55. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.

a. Part of res gestate
b. Dying Declaration
c. Confession
d. admission
56. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
a. Instrumentation
b. Forensic
c. Legal medicines
d. Criminology
57. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition
a. Blood
b. Semen
c. Saliva
d. Hair
58. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
a. Finished sketch
b. Sketch of details
c. Sketch of locality
d. Sketch of grounds
59. The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a sketch.
a. Compass direction
b. Title
c. Legend
d. Scale
60. Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in locating the suspect.
a. Physical evidence
b. Material evidence
c. Associative evidence
d. Tracing evidence
61. Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of the crime.
a. Corpus delicti
b. Physical evidences
c. Material evidences
d. Associative evidences
62. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
a. Markings should be placed
b. Proper turnover must be observed
c. Avoid altering contents
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in transit
63. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
a. MAC rule
b. Right of way rule
c. Last clear chance rule
d. None of the choices
64. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually encircled. What is the primary objective?
a. To show points of interest
b. To have proper marking
c. To avoid contamination
d. To prevent alterations
65. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen?
a. Formaldehyde
b. Saline solution
c. Alcohol
d. Distilled water
66. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
a. Assault
b. Attack
c. Raid
d. Surveillance
67. Primary requisite for conducting raids.
a. Search warrant
b. Raiding team
c. Firearms
d. Back-up personnel
68. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the
owner thereof is committing:
a. Legal entry
b. Violation of domicile
c. Trespassing
d. Illegal entry
69. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his constitutional rights namely:
a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right to be informed of such rights.
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
70. A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
a. False informant
b. Mercenary informant
c. Double crosser informant
d. Self-aggrandizing informant
71. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed in many places.
a. Local crime
b. Local action
c. Transitory crime
d. Transitory action
72. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been committed, in order to determine such,
he must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal questions of investigation. How many cardinal questions are
there?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
73. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on it.
a. Drivers
b. Ripper
c. Wheelman
d. Rover
74. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper sketch orientation.
a. Proper north
b. True north
c. Legend
d. Compass direction
75. A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
proceeding toward the center.
a. Zone method
b. Wheel method
c. Spiral method
d. Strip method
76. Taking into custody property described in the search warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence in
a case.
a. Seizure
b. Detention
c. Safekeeping
d. Confiscation
77. A method of criminal identification whereby the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are identified
by depiction.
b. General photographs
c. Police line up
d. Rouge gallery
78. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
a. Sprinkler
b. Fire pump
c. Fire hose
d. Hydrant key
79. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
a. Dust
b. Oxidizing material
c. Pyrolysis
d. Cryogenic
80. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion.
a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
81. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
82. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a self-
contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources.
a. Boiling point
b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
83. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
a. Thermal balance
b. Thermal imbalance
c. Combustion
d. Oxidation
84. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
85. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
d. Oxidation
86. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit temperature gradient.
a. Conduction
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Radiation
d. Fission
87. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space or materials as waves.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
88. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
a. Providential fire
b. Accidental fire
c. Intentional fire
89. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
a. Arson
b. Providential fire
c. Accidental fire
90. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Neon
91. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
92. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
a. Free radicals
b. Flash point
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
93. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
conditions.
a. Free radicals
b. Pyrolysis
c. Thermal balance
94. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities is developed.
a. Initial phase
b. Incipient phase
c. Free burning phase
d. Smoldering phase
95. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
a. The fire triangle
b. The fingerprint of the fire
c. Flashover
d. Incipient phase of the fire
96. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
97. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
98. Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
a. To determine its cause
b. To prevent recurrence
c. To determine liable persons
99. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
a. It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
b. Unavailability of witnesses
c. Fire destroys evidence
100. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
a. Providential
b. Accidental
c. Intentional
d. Incendiarism
101. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
a. Fire
b. Origin of fire
c. Fire triangle
102. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
a. Fuel
b. Heat
c. Oxygen
d. Gas
103. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
104. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
a. Specific heat
b. Latent heat
c. Heat of Combustion
d. Heat of fusion
105. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
a. Carbon black
b. Lamp black
c. Soot
d. Black bone
106. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
a. Fire
b. Flame
c. Heat
d. Smoke
107. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
a. Fire
b. Flame
c. Heat
d. Smoke
108. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
a. Backdraft
b. Flashover
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
d. Falling debris
109. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of what material?
a. Rubber
b. Nitrogen products
c. Asphalt singles
d. Chlorine
110. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
a. Asbestos
b. Diamond
c. Asphalt
d. Cotton
111. A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common
cause of providential fires.
a. Rays of the sun
b. Spontaneous heating
c. Arcing
d. Lighting
112. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
a. Smoking
b. Arcing
c. Sparkling
d. Overloading
113. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.
a. Accelerant
b. Plants
c. Trailer
d. Wick
114. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
a. Accelerant
b. Plants
c. Trailer
d. Wick
115. Most common reason of arson cases.
a. Revenge
b. Profit
c. Competition
116. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
a. Spontaneous heating
b. Combustible gases
c. Combustible dust
117. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.
a. Plants
b. Trailers
c. Accelerants
d. Wick
118. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Abatement
b. Combustion
c. Allotment
d. Distillation
119. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known
as:
a. Black bone
b. Used petroleum
c. Soot
d. Black iron
120. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system.
a. Overloading
b. Jumper
c. Wire tapping
d. Arcing
121. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed value of the building:
a. Schools
b. Department stores
c. Hospitals
d. Single family dwellings
122. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to top of the building.
a. Standpipe system
b. Sprinkler system
c. Vertical shaft
d. Flash point
123. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with structural
stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction collapses under fire conditions:
a. Post wall
b. Fire trap
c. Fire wall
d. Firewood
124. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for any particular establishment.
a. Fire service
b. Fire safety inspection
c. Fire drill
d. Fire protection assembly
125. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.
a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. Fission
126. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.
a. Oxidation
b. Flash point
c. Smoldering
d. Fire
127. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.
a. Endothermic reactions
b. Exothermic reactions
c. Oxidation
d. Combustion
128. Product of an incomplete combustion.
a. Soot
b. Charring
c. Ashes
d. All of foregoing
129. Color of a luminous flame.
a. Orange-blue
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Red
130. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to water
and carbon dioxide.
a. Heat of combustion
b. Calorific value
c. Fuel value
131. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
a. Calorie
b. Latent heat
c. Thermal heat
d. Specific heat
132. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
a. Fire gases
b. Combustion gases
c. Oxidation gases
d. Flame
133. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
a. Providential fires
b. Intentional fires
c. Accidental fires
d. Incendiarism
134. Primary component of wood
a. Fiber
b. Cellulose
c. Carbon
d. Pulp
135. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or fingerprint of fire is developed.
a. Incipient phase
b. Initial phase
d. Smoldering phase
136. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
a. Incipient
b. Initial phase
d. Smoldering phase
137. Most effective way of regulating vices.
a. Continued police action by relentless drives in vice control
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
c. Both a and b
138. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and
psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
a. Alcoholics
b. Liquor addicts
c. Drunkard
d. Chronic alcoholics
139. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains alcohol.
a. Liquor
b. Wine
c. Booze
d. Vodka
140. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-refute whereby the business of prostitution is conducted.
a. Operator
b. Banker
c. Mama
d. Pimp
141. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for hire.
a. Prostitute
b. Whores
c. Knockers
142. The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places for immoral purposes.
a. White slavery
b. Prostitution
c. Organized crimes
143. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or professional prostitutes under the control of an organized
crime ring.
a. Disorderly houses
b. Furnished room houses
c. Call houses
d. Massage clinics
144. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which to carry on the gambling game.
a. Maintainer
b. Conductor
c. Banker
d. Operator
145. Anti gambling law
a. PD 1869
b. PD 1612
c. PD 1602
d. PD 1866
146. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except
a. Broken families
b. Poverty
c. Anonymity of city life
147. Refers to a person having no apparent means of subsistence.
a. Gambler
b. Prostitute
c. Vagrants
148. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
a. Prision correctional
b. Prison mayor
c. Reclusion temporal
d. Reclusion perpetua
149. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.
a. Maintainer
b. Conductor
c. Banker
d. Operator
150. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect.
a. Tolerance
b. Physical dependence
c. Poly drug abuse
d. Drug experimenter
151. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
a. Marijuana
b. Hashish
c. Opium
d. Morphine
152. Derived from the Greek word Narkotikos, meaning sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
a. Opium
b. Opiates
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
153. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
b. Cannabis sativa
c. Papaver somniferum
d. Methamphetamine
154. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as:
a. Pain killer
b. Cough reliever
c. Stimulant
d. Depressant
155. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
a. Secretary of Justice
b. Secretary of National Defense
c. Secretary of Education
d. Secretary of Health
156. Originally known as Kakuseizai meaning walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. Shabu
d. Opium
157. The most potent derivative from opium.
a. Codeine
b. Cocaine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
158. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
b. Papaver somniferum
c. Amphetamine
d. Erythroxylon coca
159. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine.
a. Chomper
b. Ecstacy
c. Shabu
d. Heroin
160. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent legal restrictions.
a. Designer drugs
b. Hallucinogens
c. Amphetamines
d. Methamphetamines
161. A law which prohibits government officials to enter and gamble in Philippine casinos.
a. PD 1602
b. PD 1869
c. PD 510
d. PD 483
162. Office that controls and regulates gambling.
a. PAGCOR
b. PCGG
c. PACC
d. PNP
163. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable
consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
a. Gambling
b. Sport
c. Lottery
164. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
a. Wage
b. Wager
c. Prize
d. Banker
165. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25% of the substance:
a. Hashish
b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
166. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants known as:
a. Crank
b. Pep pills
c. Knock-out drops
d. Stick
167. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on prohibited and regulated drugs.
a. DDB
b. NBI
c. PACC
d. PNP
168. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
a. Narcotics
b. Stimulants
c. Depressants
d. Hallucinogens
169. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional
change.
a. Alcohol
b. Coca leaf
c. Drug
d. Marijuana
170. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
a. Depressants
b. Tranquilizers
c. Hallucinogens
d. Stimulants
171. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind
and body.
a. Abuse
b. Vice
c. Addiction
d. Gambling
172. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and other bettors.
a. Promoter
b. Cristo
c. Banker
d. Gambler
173. Most common problem encountered by the police in vice control measures:
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work against vices
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
c. Public apathy
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
174. The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic.
a. Distillation
b. Fermentation
c. Ionization
d. Purification
175. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes argumentative and over confident.
a. Slight inebration
b. Moderate inebration
c. Drunk
d. Coma
176. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on conversion and fellowship.
a. Aversion treatment
b. Psychotherapy method
c. Withdrawal method
d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
177. Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or profit.
a. Gambling
b. Prostitution
c. Addiction
178. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to supplement their income.
a. Call girls
b. Factory girls
c. Hustler
d. Door knocker
179. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of responsibility.
a. Disorderly houses
b. Furnished room houses
c. Call houses
d. Massage clinics
180. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originated is located specifically in:
a. Thailand-Burma-China border
b. Laos-Thailand-China border
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
181. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal altering
ingredient. Which among the following is not an immediate effect of weed?
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction external fear of losing control
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
182. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant.
a. Marijuana
b. Shabu
c. Cocaine
d. Opiates
183. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon chance or hazard.
a. Gambling
b. Sports
c. Tupada
d. All of the above
184. Study reveal that the reason why Marijuana is difficult to control is that:
a. The big demand
b. The plant can be easily cultivated
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
185. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information?
A. interview
C. interrogation
B. information
D. instrumentation
186. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown in order to obtain conviction?
A. intent
B.desire
C. motive
D. opportunity
187. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
A. Grapevine Sources
B. Cultivated Sources
C.Regular Sources
D.Cognitive interview
188. What interrogation techniques when the investigator indicates he does not consider his subjects indiscretion a
grave offense.
A. Sympathetic Appeal
B. Mutt and Jeff
C Extenuation
D. Emotional Appeal
189. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
a. Confession
b. Extra-Judicial Confession
c. Admission
d. Judicial Confession
190. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and names of
associate criminals.
a. Physical Line-up
b. Physical Show-up
c. Geographic Sketch
d. Rogues Gallery
191. It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda doctrine
A. Custodial Investigation
B. Interview
C. Field Inquiry
D. Interrogation
192. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and is established by a series of crimes under one classification.
A. Modus Operandi
B. Modes of Operation
C. Methods of Operation
D. Pattern of Operation
193. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to a criminal case about the activities of the criminals voluntarily
to the investigator and who may even be willing to be a witness.
A. Informant
B. Informer
C. Mercenary
D. Women
194. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will proceed at the same place along the path parallel to one side of
the rectangle.
A. Wheel search method
B.Quadrant Search
C. Spiral search method
D. Strip Search
195. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court; it should be taken from ____.
A. General View
C. Close-up view
B. Mid-range
D. General to Specific
196. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of
evidence in their location at the scene.
A. Sketch
B. Rough Sketch
C. Final Sketch
D. Finish Sketch
197. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the crime and its environs, including neighboring buildings,
roads, etc.?
a. Sketch of Locality
b. Sketch of Environs
c. Sketch of the Ground
d. Sketch in Details
198. Elements of the Sketch:
a. Measurement and compass direction
b. Essential items and scale of proportion
c. Legend and title
199. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was subjected to physical harm by continuously kicking and punching him
in the stomach so that the same may confess.
A. Coercion
B. Physical torture
C. Duress
D. Verbal threats
200. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall
suffer the penalty of:
A. Reclusion perpetua
B. Death
C. Reclusion temporal
D. Destierro
201. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation and technical investigation at the crime scene is:
a. PNP Crime Laboratory
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
c. Scene of the Crime Operation
d. Crime Scene Investigation
202. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on the
pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but still moving. What is the proper course of action he should
take?
a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to arrive
b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
crime scene and assist him with the situation.
C. Call the investigator and inquire
about his decision concerning the victim.
D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest hospital.
203. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
a. the property taken
b. the fact that the crime was committed
c. anything of value
d. Intent of the suspect
204. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper
orientation of the scene.
A. North
B. West
C. East
D. South
205. The following are the rules to be observed when intervening a witness, EXCEPT:
a. allow implied answer
b. saving faces
c. one question at a time
d. avoid leading questions
206. In case there is no other available means of establishing the age of the offender, what should be done if he claims
that he is still a minor?
a. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is already of majority age.
b. Wait for the court to determine the age of the offender
c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant
d. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the offender
207. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
a. Record the date and time the report was made
b. Immediately respond to the crime scene
c. Made a synopsis of the incident
d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer regarding the report
208. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place
where the evidence custodian receives the evidence collected during crime scene investigation?
A. crime scene
C. fixed post
B. command post
D. reception area
209. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
a. Takes down note to document important factors
b. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
c. Photograph the crime scene before walking through the crime scene
d. Defines the extent of search area
210. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the crime scene?
a. To determine whether or not the processing has been completed.
b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime scene.
d. To determine whether there is a need to request for additional personnel
211. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to whom will the crime scene be turned over?
A. Chief of Police
B. PCP Commander
C. Investigator-on-case
D. owner of the place
212. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the crime scene to be transported to the Crime Laboratory?
a. Yes, because they were collected for examination
b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to take custody of evidence
c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory if the
investigator did not request
d. No, only those which require further laboratory examination will be transported.
213. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted, the collection
process begins and will usually start with
A. point of exit
B. fragile evidence
C. large objects
D. removal of cadaver
214. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
A. Chief Investigator
B. Team Leader
C. Chief of Police
D. Investigator-on-case
215. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken glasses:
A. Incised wound
B. Punctured wound
C. Stab wound
D. Lacerated wound
216. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator inscribe initial date and time directly?
A. marking
B. labeling
C. tagging
D. none of these
217. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a evidence should be marked where ____.
A. At the tip of the blade
B. At the frame
C. At the base
D. At the handle
218. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week?
A. Sodium Chloride
B. Sodium Fluoride
C. Sodium Dioxide
D. NONE
219. What is the most important part of the hair?
A. Follicle
B. Medulla
C. Root
D. All of these
220. What is the minimum number of hair strands is needed?
A. 10 strands
B. 30 to 60 strands
C. 120 strands
D. unlimited
221. Mummification is a condition of arrested decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is common in hot dry
conditions, usually takes ___ to form.
A. 3 months
B. 1 month
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
222. A dead body was found and there is already presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body was at least
___.
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 3 days
D. 1 week
223. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave for the conduct of medical examination:
A. Inhumation
B. Exhumation
C. Autopsy
D. Interment
224. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the following
a. The actual cause of death of the victim
b. The actual killer of the victim
c. The modus operandi involved
d. The motive behind killing
225. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of events by the observation and evaluation of physical
evidence, as well as statement made by those involved with the incident:
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction

c. Mental reconstruction
d. Any of the above
226. The purposes of a crime scene search are the following, EXCEPT:
a. To identify the method of operation
b. To analyze physical evidence
c. To reduce the number of suspects
d. To obtain physical evidence
227. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the front
door, since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both cut their identities need to be
established through the bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently.
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
228. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for
A. scale and proportion
B. future use
C. accuracy and clarity
D.courtroom presentation
229. What is the court process requiring a person to bring documents in his possession to the courts?
a. summon
b. subpoena ducestecum
C.subpoena testificandum
D. bill of particulars
230. What is the best method of collection evidence like footprints and tire prints?
A. Casting
B. Dental Stone
C. Plaster of Paris
D. Photograph
231. Investigation has 3 Is, to be precise these are the information, interview/interrogation and instrumentation.
Among of them information is deemed to be the most important because
a. Information involves the elements of the crime
b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime
c. Information identifies witnesses that will lead to the suspect
d. None of these
232. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-and-run may be particularly useful in the investigation process
because the year and make of the car involved may be determinable. The paint chips evidence collected should
be ideally placed on?
a. Clear plastic envelope
b. Clear plastic container
c. Small plastic bag
d. Cotton
233. Which of the following is the primary source of evidence?
A. victim
B. crime scene
C. suspect
D. all of these
234. Which among the following is an essential element of parricide?
a. by means of treachery
b. relationship of the offender with the victim
c. relationship of the offender with the witness
d. age of the victim
235. In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/exit?
A. the prober
B. SOCO
C. COP
D. First responded
236. After developing the latent print found at the crime scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a back
record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with the prober?
A. yes
B. no
C. maybe
D. It depends
237. What would be the best camera position in taking photographs showing a view of what a witness might have seen?
a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
b. parallel to the subject witness
c. overhead
d. at the eye level
238. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or engraved the initial on a collected hard object is called?
A. Collection
C. Scratcher
B. Luminous
D. Stylus
239. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose of interrogation?
a. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect
b. To extract the information he possesses
c. To extract a confession of admission
d. All of the above
240. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
a. Names of the suspect
b. Names of the witness
c. Number of the cases
d. Facts of the cases
241. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober must keep in mind that before placing the specimen in a paper
packet it must be allowed first to ____?
A. Refrigerate
B. Air dried
C. Moist
D. Freeze
242. Why is it important for a perishable material to be preserved by the way or the methods of preservation?
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed
b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in the same physical condition as when they were collected
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the acquittal of the accused
d. All of the above
243. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand has how many legs or vertical support?
A. two
B. four
C. one
D. three
244. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and empty shell for
A. proper and lasting mark
B. preservation
C. marking it
D. labeling
245. Which of the following is not the function of criminal investigation?
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who commits crime
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
d. Bring the offender to justice
246. Below are serious crimes which leave physical evidence, EXCEPT:
a. Homicide
b. Carnapping and arson
c. Sexual assault and robbery
d. Libel
247. There are two robbers who broke into a house and carried away some valuables. After they left such house these
two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already so that they can go of them . So while they are dividing
the loot the other robber noticed that the one doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he immediately boxed
him. Now this robber who was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at the other one killing the latter. What
crime is committed?
a. Robbery and Murde
b. Murder
c. Robbery w/ Homicide
d. Homicide
248. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this, the
crime would be?
a. Robbery and Murder
b. Robbery and Theft
c. Robbery w/ Homicide
d. Murder
249. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A,
and they get married. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
B. Robbery w/ Rape
C. Robbery and Rape
D. NONE
250. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, a
man entered through that opening without breaking the same and gets items there. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
B. Theft
C. Robbery w/ force upon things
D. None
251. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
A. RA 8484
B. RA 7877
C. RA 7080
D. RA 8353
252. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are found in your house by the police, then it is ____.
a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
b. Prima facie evidence of theft
c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
253. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
A. Seized in Plain view
B. Customs search
C. Search of a moving vehicle
D. None of the choices
254. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately the things or property seized to the ____ together with an
inventory duly verified under oath.
a. Judge who issued the warrant
b. Prosecution Counsel
c. Requesting Party
d. Any of these
255. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
A. 10 days
B. No time Limit
C. 15 days
D. NONE
256. The taking of a person into custody in the manner authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that person
before the court to answer for the commission of a crime.
A. Search
B. Arrest
C. Initial Contact
D. Warrant of Arrest
257. Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
A. Judge
B. Executive Branch
C. Investigator on Case
D. Prober
258. All but one are the instances you can execute a lawful warrantless arrest.
A. Flagrante Delicto
B. Escaped prisoner
C. Hot pursuit Principle
D. None of these
259. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because-
a. it speaks for itself
b. it cannot lie
c. not affected by emotion
d. all of the choices
260. Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in court because
a. it will determine the quality of your testimony
b. it will determine the quantity of your testimony
c. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense
261. What does DNA stand for?
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid
262. It is the art of suspects surveillance, and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
a. Every contact leaves a Mark
b. modus operandi
c. shadowing
d. casing
263. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely mean that
a. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
b. the suspect was professional
c. the suspect was juvenile
d. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
264. During an interview, planning is important and must follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as they
happened, this technique is called
a. chronological questioning
b. psychological questioning
c. physical questioning
d. None of these
265. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a foreign territory such as the investigator room at the police station because
the place
a. Is comfortable to the suspect
b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect
266. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should first of all
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
b. wait until the crime scene has been sketched, photographed and measurements taken before he collects
the evidence
c. immediately collects it and always sends it to the Crime Laboratory for specific examination
d. Compare the following edge of the took with impression to determine if this was the tool used in crime
267. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by police officer first arriving
at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT
a. Try to keep witnesses separated
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discus the crime with persons who witness the incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave the scene unguarded while doing so
268. The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime scene is to
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of operation
269. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least likely
to affect the appearance of its -
A. Physical Integrity
B. Evidentiary
C. Legal Integrity
D. Integrity and Identity
270. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are formerly doing
c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in coordination with other police units
271. This situation takes place when a police officer induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him after the
commission of the crime.
A. Instigation
B. Search
C. Recidivism
D. Entrapment
272. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is possible,
otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This statement is
applicable to
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
273. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
274. These are some of the investigative activities in a homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes, photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of death of the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the investigators
275. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of death
b. seek additional information by interviewing witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his rights
276. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to prevent and when detected or reported, they pose many ____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
277. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the investigator must develop ___, eh must also remember that the
victim may suddenly lose interest in aiding prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
278. The following are characteristics of organized crime, EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
279. The following statements, answers the questions when and how rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another persons mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into the genital or anal orifice or another person
c. committed under all the elements enumerated by Art. 324 of the Revised Penal Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
280. Rape is committed under any of the following circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a woman
281. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by the
use of force upon things, and the other is:
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
b. taking of personal property belonging to another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
282. The following are the elements of the crime robbery, EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
283. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an automobile which has been stolen and abandoned is
on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
284. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying then collecting information and evidences, the next logical
step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
285. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving
at the scene a short time later finds the victim unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the crowd to leave.
His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to order people about needlessly.
286. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:

a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
287. It is often important to know the time of death. The reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk with the victim
b. to look for flaws on a witnesss account of incident
c. protect the innocent from malicious allegations
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur
288. 1st Drivers License is a matter of right not only a privilege, 2 nd Drivers License is issued to a person, who has all
the qualification as provided by law, 3rd Drivers License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct
289. Which of the following is not a function of warning symbol?
a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the approaching danger
c. To direct motorist along the establish direction
d. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous circumstance either on or adjacent to road
290. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT:
a. To guide motorist along established routes
b. To inform proper routes
c. To help him along his way to the most simple and direct method
d. To call the diminution of speed
291. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of the
following is the best definition of Right of Way.
a. The personal right to move from one place to another
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular section of highway
c. The way or place open to the motorist and pedestrian
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at the time is occupied by another vehicle
292. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation, instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply.
A. Traffic Signs
B. Informative Signs
C. Regulatory Signs
D. Danger/warning signs
293. A kind of road according to political subdivision within town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters.
A. National Road
B. Municipal Road
C. Barangay Road
D. City Road
294. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB
A. Private
B. For Hire
C. Government
D. Diplomatic
295. Professional and non-professional drivers license is valid for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable every
birth month.
A. 18 Months
B.36 Months
C. 24 Months
D.12 Months
296. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but not
involving a motor vehicle in motion:
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
297. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
A. RA 8750
B .RA 7924
C. RA 8749
D. PD 96
298. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the following:
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to enforcement manner
d. None of these
299. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the moment he
starts to cross.
A. Absolutely true
B. Partly true
C. Absolutely false
D. Partly false
300. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above street level for free-flow traffic.
A. Expressway
B. Subway
C. Skyway
D. Tunnel road
301. City roads inter-link between municipalities and within the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the minimum
width of sidewalk?
A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
D. 2.0 meters
302. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or detaining
him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
A. Arrest
B. Traffic Arrest
C. Traffic Citation
D. Traffic Warning
303. Holder of student drivers permit for the period of not less than ___ can apply for non-professional drivers license
A. 150 Days
B. 180 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 30 Days
304. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other than serious to one or more persons:
A. Property damage
B. Less Serious Injury
C.Fatal Accident
D. Non-fatal Accident
305. When two vehicles approach an intersection at approximately the same time, which shall give the right of way:
a. The vehicle coming from the right
b. Vehicle from the center
c. The vehicle coming from the left
d. The vehicle that arrives first
306. Which of the following consideration does not act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Fear of fine and punishment
B.Loss of driving privileged
C.Possibility involve in an accident
D.Increase of insurance premium
307. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:
A.Poor legislation activities
B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
308. The following are NOT functions of Land Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
A.Reparation of vehicles
B.Registration and licensing
C.Rental and license
D.Licensing operating
309. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic rules
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
310. Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
A. Intellectual
B. Perceptual
C. Decision
D. Attitudinal
311. 2568. Statistically it is considered as the most common reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
A.Not observing the proper distance and following too close
B.Unnecessary
C.Recklessness
D.Discussion regarding fare
312. 2569. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. keep to the left
B. Safety First
C. keep to the right
D. watch out
313. 2570. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light and
sounding a siren?
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B.continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the passage of the vehicle
D.disregard the red light and siren
314. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you approach an intersection with the traffic light with a green color
on but a traffic policeman is standing at the center of intersection conducting the flow normally. As a driver you will
ignore the traffic man and follow the automatic traffic light-
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
315. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes another vehicle, object or person and left the scene without
stopping to identify himself or render aid
A. hit and run
B. third party liability
C. reckless driving
D. side sweeper
316. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features associated with motor
collision or accident
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic accident investigation
C.reckless driving
D.hit and run
317. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody who are not a member of the organization who can helps
the organization
A. Enforcer
B. Capo
C. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
318. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-organized individual with the end view of attaining psychological
gratification such as adolescent gangs.
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
B.Political Graft
C.Predatory Organized Crime
D.Syndicated Organized Crime
319. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is primarily concerned with the generation of profits,
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of globalization.
A.Transnational Organized Crime
B.Transnational Crime
C.Organized Criminal Group
D.NONE
320. What category of terrorist group which is What category of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow an
established order and replacing it with a new political or social structure?
A. Ethnocentric
B. Revolutionary
C. Separalist
D. Political
321. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for?
A.InformationConnection Technology
B.InformationCommunication
Technology
C.InternetCommunication
Technology
D.Internet Connection Technology
322. Economic crime is known as:
A.Blue Collar Crime
B.Wildlife Smuggling
C.White Collar Crime
D.Wildlife trafficking
323. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme
B.Terrere
C. Rapere
D. Vestigarre
324. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to
the authorities:
A. Capo
B. Omerta
C. Jihad
D. Ideology
325. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro National Liberation
Front (MNLF):
A.Rizal Day Bombing
B.Ninoy assassination
C.Black September
D.Jabbidah Massacre
326. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted terrorist in the world who issued a fatwa that calls all Muslims
around the world to slay Americans and their allies.
A. Abu-Abbas
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
C. Ahmed Yassin
D. Osama bin-Laden
327. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal
record, or similar considerations:
A.No Political Goals
B.Hierarchical
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership
328. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of their:
A. membership
B. motivation
C. leadership
D. networking
329. This theory refers to those processes by which the community influences its members towards conformity with
established norms and behavior.
A. differential association
B. social control
C. anomie
D. strain
330. It is a form of modern day slavery.
A. Human Trafficking
B. Prostitution
C. Drug Trafficking
D. Sex tourism
331. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when:
A.the person trafficked is an elderly
B.the person trafficked is a special child
C.the person trafficked is a woman
D.the person trafficked is a child
332. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides that an organized criminal group must have a membership
of at least ___:
A. 3 or More
B. 2 or More
C. 4 or More
D. 5 or More
333. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly included.
A. Al Qaeda
B. MILF
C. MNLF
D. JI
334. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
A.Swords bearer
B.Islamic Congregation
C.Father of the Swordsman
D.The Base
335. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
A. Bombings
B. Assassinations
C. Kidnapping
D. Prostitution
336. This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007:
A. RA 9372
B. RA 9160
C. RA 9165
D. RA 8294
337. This is the country which believed to be the origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
A. United States of America
B. Italy
C. Japan
D. China
338. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing the
heaven, earth and man:
A. Yakuza
B. Triad
C. Tongs
D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
339. Chain of custody should be observed by the investigating team of cybercrimes:
A.The Statement is wrong
B.The statement is true
C.None of these
D.All of these
340. Internet pornography is punishable under E-Commerce Act of 2000:
A.The Statement is correct
B.Statement is wrong
C.either of the above
D.neither of the above
341. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are perpetuated,
are legally required to have permanent logs and records of their clients:
A.The statement is true
B.The statement is false
C.Neither of the above
D.Either of the above
342. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that telecommunication companies are legally bound to cooperate with the
law enforcement agencies in the course of their investigation:
A.The statement is absolutely correct
B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C.The statement is partially correct
D.The statement is partially wrong
343. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E-Commerce Act of 2000.

A. 20 years
B. 12 years
C. 6 years
D. 3 years
344. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make them
appear to have originated from legitimate sources:
A. Estafa
B.Money Laundering
C. Anti-Money Laundering
D. Swindling
345. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic and/or sound in electronic form, representing the identity of a
person and attached to or logically associated with the electronic data message:
A. electronic key
B. originator
C. electronic signature
D. electronic date message
346. Only a computer forensic expert should search for any evidence contained in a computer hardware.
A.The statement is absolutely correct
B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C.The statement is partially correct
D.The statement is partially wrong
347. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998:
A. RA 8551
B. RA 8484
C. RA 9160
D. RA 9165
348. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A.Operation Geronimo
B.Operation Jabbidah
C.Operation Neptune Spear
D.Operation Merdeka
349. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
A. The Neopolitan Camera
B. Sinilian Mafia
C. Cali Cartel
D. Sacra Corona Unita
350. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to establish a shared database among concerned agencies for
information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and conviction on transnational crime.
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
C.International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
351. It is known as IP address that changes every time the internet accesses his ISP:
A. ISP
B. Dynamic IP address
C. Static IP Address
D. IP Address
352. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial
information such as credit card numbers or social security numbers.
A. Phising
B. Hacking
C. Cracking
D. Identity Theft
353. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without permission or knowledge of the
user
A. Virus
B. Trojan Horse
C. Logic Bomb
D. Worm
354. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer systems with malicious intent, usually for some criminal purpose.
A. Black Hat Hackers
B. Gray Hat Hacker
C. White Hat Hackers
D. Any color
355. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as Back to Islam.
A. Abu Sayyaf
B. MILF
C. Je naah Islamiya
D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
356. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of people.
A.Nuclear
B.Weapon of mass destruction
C.Anthrax
D.Chemical weapons
357. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal organization in the world.
A. Al Qaeda
B. Jihad
C. Chinese Mafia
D. Nuestra Costra
358. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density
B. fire point
B. boiling point
D. vapor pressure
359. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire when it is in its gas-phased combustion.
A. Flames
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. NONE
360. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
combustion and has a low temperature.
A. Luminous
B. Non-luminous
C. Laminar
D. Turbulent
361. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____.
A. Infection
C. shock
B. burns
D. asphyxiation
362. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside
its container?
A. cryogenic gas
B. liquefied gas
C. compressed gas
D. nuclear gas
363. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is called ____.
A. radiation
B. oxidation
C. convection
D. conduction
364. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
A. none of the choices
B. burning nipa hut
C. exploding gas depot
D. forest fire
365. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A.simultaneous fire
B.thick reddish smoke
C.faulty electric wiring
D.unexplained explosion
366. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
B.there is the danger of electrocution
C.burning metals are too hot
D.explosion may occur
367. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with
pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box
B. fire truck
C. hose reel
D. fire hydrant
368. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as ___.
A. reducing agent
B. oxidizing agent
C. cooling agent
D. chemical agent
369. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a building:
A.It only moves horizontally
B.It has a circular movement
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically
D.It has a circular movement while moving horizontally
370. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of incomplete
combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called:
A. Spontaneous ignition
B. flashover
C. Backdraft
D. Flash fire
371. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to the
damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or external.
A. Arcing
B. Induced Current
C. Over Heating
D. sparkling
372. The most common motive for arson is
A. jealousy
B. profit
C. spite
D. revenge
373. Which of the following is prima facie existence of arson?
A.inflammable substance found in the premises
B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C.building insurance
D.any of the choices
374. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and then
cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
A. combustion
B. evaporation
C. distillation
D. condensation
375. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key
B. key board
C. fire hose
D. jumper
376. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming
ascent or descent?
A. rope
B. hydrant
C. ladder
D. nozzle
377. What are the cross members between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
A. hangar
B. beams
C. rungs
D. braces
378. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the following facilities should you
check?
A.Gift-wrapped packages
B.Electric switch system
C.Telephones
D.All of these
379. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation
B. cross ventilation
C. forced ventilation
D. horizontal ventilation
380. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:
A. smothering
B. fuel removal
C. cooling
D. dilution
381. The most important element of Fire?
A.Fuel
B.Chemical chain reaction
C.Heat
D.Oxygen
382. A complete and detailed checked of the structures and material involved in the fire to make sure that every spark
and ember has been extinguished and to have assurance against
A. Overhaul
B. Rescue
C. Salvage
D. None
383. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely
reason for taking this position?
A.The stream is projected farther
B.The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C.A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D.The firemen can see better when the stream strikes
384. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:
A. murder with arson
B. arson with murder
C. murder
D. arson
385. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical powder intended to fight all classes of fires.
A. H20
B. Liquefied
C. Dry Chemical
D. Soda Acid
386. All except one are aggravating circumstances in Arson.
A.If committed with intent to gain:
B.If committed with the benefit of another:
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or occupant of the property burned:
D.If committed by a syndicate
E.None of the Above
387. What color of smoke is present when the materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
A. Black
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Blue
388. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
determine?
A.look for survivors
B.search for debris
C.locate the point of origin
D.established corpus delicti
389. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) is a:
A. Combustible liquid
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Flammable liquid
D. Volatile liquid
390. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal
quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation under such circumstance?
A.The person died because of asphyxia
B.The person died because of the burning
C.The person was killed before it was burned
D.The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
391. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
A. attic
B. extension
C. aerial
D. hook
392. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains only one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet.
A. Straight ladder
B. Attic ladder
C. Extension ladder
D. Wall ladder
393. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate flame propagation.
A. Plant
B. Trailer
C. Accelerant
D. Gasoline
394. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
A. Witness
B. Society
C. First responder
D. Owner
395. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. RA 9514
B. PD 1185
C. RA 8294
D. RA 8484
396. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson.
A.Kind and character of the building burned
B.Location of the building
C.Extent or value of the damage
D.Whether inhabited or not
E.None of the choices
397. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of symptoms of poisoning.
A. Minimal Dose
B. Abusive Dose
C. Toxic Dose
D. Maximal Dose
398. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies.
A. Situational
B. Hard-core
C. Hippies
D. Spree
399. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the
second most commonly used route of drug administration,
A. Snorting
B. inhalation
C. oral ingestion
D. Injection
400. Among the countries involved in the first important drug traffic route, which is responsible for preparation for
distribution?
A. Middle East
B. USA
C. Turkey
D. Europe
401. Which among the following responsible for producing almost 60% of Opium in the world.
A. Golden triangle
B. Golden Crescent
C. Silver Triangle
D. White Christmas
402. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
403. It refers to the the paradise of drug users in Europe.
A. Philippines
B. Mexico
C. Spain
D. Lebanon
404. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often induce sleep.
A. Sedatives
B. Stimulants
C. Hallucinogen
D. Narcotics.
405. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes about 10% of the use raw opium.
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Opium
406. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon coca.
A. Cocaine
B. Marijuana
C. Papayer Somniferum
D. claviceps purpurea
407. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ specs.
A. Blue
B. Orange
C. Violet
D. Red
408. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of ___
A. Assistant Secretary
B. Secretary
C. Chairman
D. Undersecretary
409. What is the minimum age required to be able to become a PDEA agent?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 21
D. s25
410. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
A. Chairman/President
B. Secretary/PDEA DG
C. CSUPT/President
D. SUPT/PDEA DG
411. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug
prevention and control
A. PDES
B. DDB
C. PNP Narcotics
D. NBI Narcotics
412. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
413. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
Circumstances:
A.Conducted in the presence or with the help of minor/s
B.Established within one hundred (100) meters of a residential, business, church or school
premises.
C.Secured or protected with booby traps
D.Concealed with legitimate business operations
E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical engineer, public official or foreigner
F.all of the choices
414. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of how many Ex-officio Members?
A. 2
C. 2
B. 12
D. 17
415. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A.Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
416. What agency of the government supervises drug rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and laboratories?
A.Department of Interior and Local Government
B.Department of Health
C.Department of Justice
D.Department of Social Welfare and Development
417. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. 4 years
D. co-terminus
418. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50 to 200 thousand pesos.
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 10 to 50 thousand pesos.
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 thousand pesos.
D.6 months rehabilitation
419. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person with or without his/her knowledge either
by injection inhalation, ingestion or other means.
A. Administer
B. Use
C. Dispense
D. Deliver
420. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques
were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide-out operation
B. Safe house
C. Clandestine Operation
D. Drug Syndicate
421. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:
A. June 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002
C. July 30, 2002
D. June 18, 2003
422. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT
A.Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B.Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence
C.Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies
D.All candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in national or local government
units.
E.All persons charged before the prosecutors office with a criminal offense having an imposable
penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day.
423. Apprehending team having initial custody and control of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were confiscated or his representative or counsel.
B.A representative from the media.
C.A representative from the DOJ.
D.Any elected public official.
424. Apprehending team having initial custody and control of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were confiscated or his representative or counsel
B.A representative from the media
C.A representative from the DOJ
D.Any elected public official
425. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis:
A.Not more than five (5) grams per package/bag
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for capsules or tables
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid solution
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried leaves and not more than 2 plants.
E.All of the choices
426. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug Testing EXCEPT:
A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary Schools
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for violation of the Provision of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug
Act.
C.Officers and Employee of public and private offices
D.A and C only
427. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of:
A. 180 days
B. 45 days
B. 30 days
D. 60 days
428. An analytical test using some tools or device design to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or screening
test.
A. Screening test
B. Confirmatory rest
C. Physical test
D. Chemical Test
429. The ____ shall designate special courts from among the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and
hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A. DOJ
B. Supreme Court
C. DDB
D. Sandiganbayan
430. The law that penalized the use and possession or the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
A. P.D. 1519
B. P.D. 1916
C. P.D. 1619
D. P.D. 580
431. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
A.Physical sign of drug abuse
B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
C.Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
D.All of the choices
432. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic beverage is the absorption is faster?
A. 20 to 30 minutes
B. 30 to 60 minutes
C. 10 to 20 minutes
D. 50 to 60 minutes
433. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the liquor
(alcohol)?
A. 0.05
B. 1.5
C. 0.15
D. 0.50
434. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where the business of prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp
B. prostitute
C. Knocker
D. Maintainer
435. The person is argumentative and overconfident. There is slight impairment of mental difficulties.
A. Slight inebriation
B. Moderate inebriation
C. Drunk
D. Very drunk
436. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 of RA 9165 is ____:
A.Qualified to apply for probation
B.Disqualified to apply for probation
C.Allowed to apply for probation
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day
437. What drug is known as the assassins of the youth.
A. Marijuana
B. Ecstacy
C. Shabu
D. None of these
438. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a cough reliever?
A. morphine
B. cocaine
C. opium
D. codeine
439. When drunken person does not know the intoxicating strength of the beverage he has taken.
A. involuntary
B. Intentional
C. Habitual
D. Coma
440. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Morality
B. Vices
C. Prostitutions
D. Gambling
441. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or
surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors within:
A. 24 hours
B. 30 days
C. 72 hours
D. 48 hours
442. That part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are:
A.digestive system and nervous system
B.brain and veins of the body
C.the lungs and heart
D.None of the above
443. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug test?
A. yes
B. maybe
C. upon circumstances
D. No
444. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a prosecution witness during trial of the case against the alleged
drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. What will be his penalty?
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C. Life imprisonment
D. Death penalty
445. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their penalty
the same?
A. No
B. False
C. Yes
D. True
446. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of investigation
involving the violations of RA 9165.
A. True
B. Partially True
C. False
D. Partially False
447. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.

A. Ketamine
B. Codeine
C. Anesthesia
D. Sleeping pills
448. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2nd violation.
A.6 Months Rehabilitation
B.12 Months Rehabilitation
C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
449. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly
or indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
A. Entrapment
B. Planting of Evidence
C. Instigation
D. Black mailing
450. It is the Agency of the government that will take charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
A. Maritime Police
B. Dangerous Drug Board
C. PDEA
D. NBI
E. PNP
451. A was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time and
date the arresting officers have to subject A to a drug test as required by the law?
A.7:00 P.M., October 25
B.7:00 P.M., October 24
C.8:00 A.M., October 26
D.8:00 A.M., October 25
452. Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
A.date and hour which each photograph was taken
B.identification of the police photographer
C.proof of ownership of the camera
D.focal length of the lens
453. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for _____.
A.scale and proportion
B.future use
C.accuracy and clarity
D.courtroom presentation
454. All except are object evidence that should be taken photograph individually, EXCEPT?
A. Knife
B. Semen
C. stone
D. Gun
455. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
A. Police car on call
B. Ambulance on call
C. Fire Truck on call
D. Physicians car
456. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front seat of any running motor vehicle:
A.Seven years old
B.six years and old and under
C.under six years old
D.seven years old and under
457. Marijuana is also known as?
A. Coke
B. Poppers
C. Cannabis
D. Morphine
458. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal drug cases?
A. User
B. Pusher
C. Possessor
D. Coddler
459. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
A. Marijuana
B. Shabu
C. Cocaine
D. AMorphine
460. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal behavior?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
461. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to?

A. Reintegrate him to society
B. Punish him
C. Give him a lesson
D. Incapacitate him
462. In investigation, corpus delicti means body of the crime scene. Legally, it means
A. proof in the commission of crime
B. body of the victim
C. wrongful act
D. none of these
463. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the application of special investigative technique.
A. background investigation
B. criminal investigation
C. preliminary investigation
D. special investigation
464. What is the other name for marijuana?
A. rope
B. grassland
C. weed
D. leaf
465. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation regarding drug operation.
A. information
B. abuses
C. integrity
D. reliability
466. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
A. RA 7438
B. RA 8353
C. RA 9160
D. RA 9165
467. What is the worlds oldest cultivated plant as a source of a prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca bush
D. Peyote
468. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics
B. Stimulants
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
469. What is that state arising from repeated administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
A. Habituation
B. Drug dependence
C. Drug Addiction
D. Physical dependence
470. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed to
obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants
B. energizers
C. inhalants
D. tranquilizers
471. What is the act of injecting or that means of introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological system of the
body?
A. Consumption
B. Use
C. Administration
D. Abuse
472. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using
it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is
A. Socially dependent on drugs
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
D. Physically dependent on drugs
473. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than morphine.
A. amphetamines
B. cocaine
C. heroin
D. iodine
474. The most important constituent of opium is the drug:
A. cocaine
B. codeine
C. heroin
D. morphine
475. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times of the
commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the case.
A. chain of custody
B. time of custody
C. time of disposal
D. time of disposition
476. The substance known as the miracle drug refers to:
A. morphine
B. cocaine
C. heroin
D. codeine
477. The word hashish is derived from the name of Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to:
A. female marijuana plant
B. male marijuana plant
C. marijuana leaves
D. the marijuana resin
478. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in which
the alkaloid base may be made by treating morphine with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a dilute
alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic solution?
A. cocaine
B. codeine
C. heroin
D. paregoric
479. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
A. cocaine
B. marijuana
C. opium
D. shabu
480. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts poison or its effect
A. alkaloid
B. antidote
C. emetic
D. titanic
481. Shabu is chemically known as:

A. methamphetamine
B. methamphetamine HCL
C. methyl amphetamine
D. methyleneamine
482. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
A. hashish
B. marijuana
C. morphine
D. opium
483. Scientific name for cocaine.

A. cannabis sativa
B. erythroxylon coca
C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
483.Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and
breathing rate. The regular administration of narcotics will produce physical dependence.
A. depressants
B. hallucinogens
C. narcotic
D. stimulants
484. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
A. Topical method
B. Injection method
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method
485. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of cocaine?
A. South East Asia
B. South America
C. Middle East
D. South West Asia
486. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in

A. Columbia
B. India
C. Mexico
D. France
487. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives the general effect of mood
distortion?
A. Sedatives
B. Hallucinogens
C. Hypnotic
D. Tranquillizers
488. What drug is known as the assassins of the youth?

A. Heroin
B. Marijuana
C. Cocaine
D. Shabu
489. 2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
A. Psychological dependence
B. Physical dependence
C. Addiction
D. Withdrawal syndrome
490. 2748. The drug addict who shows many tracks from injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to
A. liquid amphetamine
B. Shabu
C. Heroin
D. freebase cocaine
491. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it
tends to
A. reduce the need for the drug
B. satisfy more than one motive or need
C. increase the satisfaction of use
D. give sense of well being
492. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy?
A. Solvents
B. LSD
C. Shabu
D. Narcotics
493. If amphetamines are known as uppers, what drugs are known as downers?
A. Hallucinogens
B. Barbiturates
C. solvents
D. cocaine
494. Who has committed an act which is punishable under RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to P10,000,000.00?
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana plants in a plantation in the Cordillera.
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession of opium pipes and other paraphernalia.
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful medical prescription
D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use of volatile substances.
495. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and are commonly referred to as uppers?
A. Amphetamines
B. Naptha
C. Barbiturates
D. Diazepam
496. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. opiates
B. Track
C. Shabu
D. coke
497. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics B. Stimulants
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
498. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for
Other Purposes.
A. RA 9165
B. RA 1956
C. RA 9156
D. RA 1965
499. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?

A. Reclusion Perpetua
B. Life Imprisonment
C. Death
D. Fine
500. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?

A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
D. Sen. Tito Sotto
501. These are the requirements during the conduct of actual buy-bust operations.
A. poseur buyer
B. marked money
C. all of the choices
D. none of these
502. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by
RA 9165.
A. employee B. caretaker
C. financier D. lookout
503. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to female customers?
a. Johns
b. Gigolo
c. Pimps
d. Rentboys
504. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
commission of crimes?
a. Anomie
b. Deterrence theory
c. Rational choice theory
d. None of the above
505. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?
A. Lot lizards
C. Hookers
B. Skeezers
D. Punters
506. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and development of what culture?
a. Northern
b. Eastern
c. Western
d. Southern
507. Crimes consummated by the use of computers and other highly modern devices.
a. Transnational crimes
b. white collar crimes
c. modern crimes
d. cyber crimes
508. The following are transnational crimes, except
a. drug trafficking
b. gun smuggling
c. money laundering
d. illegal recruitment
509. The following countries comprises the Golden Triangle, except
a. Thailand
b. Laos
c. Myanmar
d. Vietnam
510. A term used to describe a place where trafficked person are brought and forced to become prostitutes.
a. sweat shops
b. hotels
c. brothels
d. motels
511. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group?
a. Khaddafy Janjalani
b. Hashim Salamay
c. Abdurajack Janjalani
d. Nur Misuari
512. It is correct to say that the worlds first traffic light came into being before the automobile was in use?
A. No
B. It depends
C. Sometimes
D. Yes
513. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the following is NOT a factor to consider
A.model of cars and vehicles
B.existing road /highway system
C.incidence of traffic accidents
D.traffic congestion hazards
514. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police
investigator.
A.Conduct each interview separately
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are not biased
C.Listen to both sides
D.Conduct the interview jointly
515. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time who shall yield the right of way as a general
rule
A. The driver on the left
B.The faster vehicle
C.The driver on the right
D. The slower vehicle
516. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow moving vehicles should use the:
A.lanes 2 and 3
B.outer lanes
C.inner lanes
D.either the inner or outer lanes
517. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side, except when-
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an obstruction
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming motor vehicles
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way
518. The double solid white line:
A.doesnt allow lane changing
B.allows overtaking
C.allows lane changing
D.allows parking
519. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian, vehicles
and roadway condition.
A. Apprehension
B. Adjudication
C. Defection
D. Prosecution
520. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are present, EXCEPT:
A to avoid continues violation
B. offense committed is serious
C. the violator will not attend in court
D. involved in vehicular accident
521. The following are the good ways of searching the scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
A.look over the grounds at what seems to be the point of collision
B.follow the path that the vehicle took in leaving the scene
C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
D.established the identity of the vehicles
522. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-investigation, EXCEPT
A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
B.Gassesses the situation and call for assistance
C.care to the injured and protect their property
2462
523. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is to:
A.Look for the key event that causes the accident
B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
C.Consider violations as primary causes and any factors as secondary causes
D.Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather as causes
524. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed value of a building.
A. single family dwellings
B. department store
C. hospitals
D. schools
525. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is for right turn only:
A.Two headed arrow
B.Arrow pointing to left
C.Straight arrow on the pavement
D.The arrow is pointing to the right
526. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
keeping in full view of traffic:
A. Stationary
B. Visible
C.Conspicuous
D. Inconspicuous
527. Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
A. Operator
B. Driver
C.Conductor
D. Pedestrian
528. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an object with which it has collided; the force between the object
ceases at this time.
A. Stopping
B. Disengagement
C. Maximum Engagement
D. Initial Contact
529. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to
braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other circumstances.
A. Skid Mark
B.Scuff Marks
C.Skip skid
D. Gas Skid
530. The place and time after or beyond which accident cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
A.point of no escape
B.point of Possible Perception
C.Perception Delay
D.Any of the above
531. Main cause of human trafficking.
a. lack of employment opportunities
b. poverty
c. corruption in government
d. organized crimes
532. Meaning of the phrase Abu Sayyaf
a. Holder of the sword
b. Founder of the sword
c. Bearer of the sword
d. Keeper of the sword
533. The other name given to the UN Convention Against Transnational Crimes
a. Palerna Convention
b. Paterno Convention
c. Palermo Convention
d. Paderno Convention
534. A prostitute who solicits customers in public places is called
a. street walker
b. Johns.
c. call boy.
d. whore.
535. Placement is also called as
a. heavy soaping
b. banking
c. immersion
d. spin dry.
536. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting tattoos in almost all parts of their bodies. The reason is
a. their white bodies are very good materials to make drawings.
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on their bodies.
c. they delight in showing theother members their tattoos.
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the group.
537. The initiation of the Chinese Triad consists of
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his palm while
reciting his oath to the organization.
b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath an arch of
swords while reciting his oath to the organization.
c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three fingers while reciting his oath.
d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a saint will be
burned on his palm while reciting his oath.
538. What do the Yakuza do with their tattoos?
a. Cover them as they are sacred.
b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos.
c. They undress only inside their house.
d. They only undress during oicho kabu.
539. What OPLAN was created by the PNP as their campaign against most wanted persons and other fugitives?
a. Oplan Cleansweep
b. Oplan Criminal
c. Oplan Pagtugis
d. Oplan Batas
540. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a person who accepts the cultural goals to become rich but failed to accept the
institutional means of achieving it.
a. Rebellion
b. Retreatism
c. Conformity
d. Innovation
541. It is a type of anomie wherein an individual does not accept the cultural goal but accepted the institutional means
of achieving it?
a. Innovation
b. Retreatism
c. Rebellion
d. Ritualism
542. It is referred to as oldest and biggest criminal organization in the world.
a. Mafia
b. Yakuza
c. Chinese Triad
d. Cali Cartel
543. The name given to a person afflicted with a mental illness wherein he is sexually aroused by young children.
a. Pedophile
b. pervert
c. Maniac
d. Pedophilia
544. The former and original name of the Mafia

a. Sicilian Clan
b. Code of Omerta
c. Mafiosi
d. La Cosa Nostra
545. Moslem who participated in the Afghan war are referred to as
a. Jihadis
b. Fundamentalists
c. Mujaheddins
d. Holy warriors
546. Founder of the New Peoples Army of NPA
a. Jose Mari Chan
b. Jose Maria Sison
c. Jose Marie Gonzales
d. Jose Maria Sioson
547. A member of the Bar refers to this profession
a. judges
b. investigators
c. lawyers
d. prosecutors
548. The year the UN Convention Against Transnational Crimes was held.
a. 2000
b. 2002
c. 2001
d. 2003
549. The founder of the Moro Islamic Liberation Front
a. Nur Misuari
b. Khadaffy Janjalani
c. Hashim Salamat
d. Abdurajack Janjalani
550. The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front

a. Nur Misuari
b. Khadaffy Janjalani
c. Hashim Salamat
d. Abdurajack Janjaalani
551. In the strategy of terrorist, what is used for the people, government and the world to know their aims?
a. Television
b. Newspaper
c. Radio
552. Refers to the terrorist group Soldiers of God.
a. Abu Sayaff
b. Hezbollah
c. Fatah
d. Hamas
553. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
a. Hezbollah
b. Al Qaeda
c. Fatah
d. Hamas
554. South America country principal source of cocaine.
a. Brazil
b. Spain
c. Columbia
d. Chile
555. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
a. Israel
b. Gaza Strip
c. Lebanon
d. West bank
556. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
a. organization
b. faction
c. cell
d. station
557. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Hezbollah
b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda
d. Fatah
558. One of the most important components of terrorist-related investigations is the collection and preservation of
what?
a. physical evidence
b. witnesses
c. information
d. all of these
559. It is otherwise known as the Anti-Wire Tapping Law.
RA 4200
A. RA 4002
C. RA 2004
D. RA 4020
560. Meaning of the term Jihad.
a. Holy War
b. Holy Mass
c. Holy Cow
d. Holy Ghost
561. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
a. Yasser Arafart
b. Osama Bin Laden
d. Abu Nidal
562. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries
a. M16
b. AK47
c. M14
d. Galil
563. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or country.
a. Transnational
b. national
c. international
d. none of them
564. The most wanted terrorist in the world.
a. Yasser Arafat
b. Abu Nidal
c. Osama Bin Laden
d. Mohammad Alzawari
565. It is entitled as, An Act to Secure the State and Protect the People from Terrorism,
a. RA 9372
b. RA 9732
c. RA 9273
d. RA 9237
566. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of force to achieve a political end.
A. terrorism
B. violence
C. felony
D. criminal act
567. Who formally organized the Kuratong Baleleng?
A. Francisco Manuel
B. Franco Calanog
C. Fidel Ramos
D. Fajardo Sebastian
568. An organized crime in the Philippines which is made up of former MNLF and MILF rebels.
A. A.Lexus Group
B. B.Pentagon Group
C. C.Abu Sayyaf
D. D.Ilonggo KFR Group
569. The largest and most powerful triad.
A. A.Su Yee On
B. B.14K
C. C.Wo Shing Wo
D. Sham Shui Po
570. What numeric code refer to the Dragon head of the chinese triads?
A. A.438
B. B.49
C. C.489
D. D.426
571. What do you call the act of lending money in exchange of exorbitant interest?
A. Tax evasion
B. Revolutionary tax
C. Sokaiya
D. Loansharking
572. What kind of vices are Lotto and casino?
a. common
b. prohibited
c. regulated
d. unusual
573. What is the penalty of a person using a diplomatic passport in importing prohibited drugs inside the country?
A. A.8-12 years
B. B.life imprisonment to death
C. C.40 years to life imprisonment
D. all of the above
574. What are the two divisions of Criminalistics?
a. Physiacl and metallurgical
b. Scientific and technological
c. Biological and physiological
d. Biblical and Astrological
575. What is secreted by the endocrine glands which trigger and control many kinds of bodily activities and behavior?
a. A.Tears
b. B.Hormone
c. C.Blood
d. Sweat
576. Who among the following has the authority to conduct examination of a deceased person?
a. A.Medico Legal prober
b. B.Medical Justice
c. C.Medico Legal Officer
d. Medical Scientist
577. These are the three fold aims of the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
A. to identify the guilty party
B. to provide evidence of his guilt
C. to locate the guilty party
D. to file charges at the proper court
578. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion
a. zone method
b. spiral method
c. wheel method
d. strip method
579. It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to give the distances from two mutually perpendicular lines.
common
a. surveying methods
b. cross projection
c. rectangular coordinates
d. polar coordinate
580. It is existing between the investigator and the subject, and it is usually determines the success of the
investigation.
a. rapport
b. personality
c. breadth of interest
d. the approach
581. Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with this, purposely to develop rapport with the subject, either the
victim or suspect.
A. opening statement
B. inquiry of subject
C. narration
D. sympathetic approach
582. It is also called as uppers and to increase mental and physical function
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
d. Narcotics/ Opiates
583. A drugs that derived from opium and medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
584. It I also called downers drugs reducing functional nervous activity.
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
585. It is also called psychedelics drugs that causes hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, emotion
and consciousness and physical function
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
586. The following countries which considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as worlds top supplier
for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
a. Vietnam
b. Iran
c. Afghanistan
d. Pakistan
587. According to PDEA goal that Philippines will be a Drug Free Country in year___?
a. 2035
b. 2025
c. 2030
d. 2020
588. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the participation of the community.
a. Oplan lambat sibat
b. operation private eye
c. operation public eye
d. oplan galugad
589. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight against drug trafficking.
d. oplan cleansweep
590. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant portion of house was being damaged.
a. Consummated arson
b. Attempted arson
c. Frustrated arson
d. No crime
591. When a person sets fire to his own property under what circumstances which expose to danger of life or property
of another.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of property
b. Arson
c. malicious mischief
d. no crime
592. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of his prayer.
b. Arson
d. no crime
593. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in combating organized crime and terrorism.
a. family
b. school
c. NGO
d. Community
594. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Beijing square massacre
c. Tienanmen massacre
d. Tienanmen square massacre
595. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim
from Quezon City. Where the case should be filed?
a. Quezon City
b. Pasig City
c. Manila
d. either of the above choices
596. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug related crime.
a. Buy bust operation
b. Instigation
c. entrapment
d. planting evidence
597. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as Intelligence_______.
a. Invalidate
b. unsolved
c. success
d. failure
598. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
a. Homicide case
b. Suicide case
c. Murder case
d. Any of the choices
599. What is the penalty when a person bringing into country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or passport.
a. Life imprisonment
b. Life imprisonment-death
c. death
d. no penalty because of immunity
600. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and communication system
a. hacking
b. Trojan
c. virus
d. intellectual property
601. The vehicles should not parked at these area.

a. Private driveway
b. intersection
c. pedestrian lane
d. fire hydrant
e. all the choices
602. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
reason?
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
c. Life imprisonment
d. Death
603. Most important equipment in traffic accident investigation?
a. cellphone
b. camera
c. Manila
604. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
605. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper sketch orientation.
a. Proper north
b. True north
c. Legend
d. Compass direction
606. A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
proceeding toward the center.
a. Zone method
b. Wheel method
c. Spiral method
d. Strip method
607. Taking into custody property described in the search warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence in
a case.
a. Seizure
b. Detention
c. Safekeeping
d. Confiscation
608. A method of criminal identification whereby the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are identified
by depiction.
b. General photographs
c. Police line up
d. Rouge gallery
609. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
a. Sprinkler
b. Fire pump
c. Fire hose
d. Hydrant key
610. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
a. Dust
b. Oxidizing material
c. Pyrolysis
d. Cryogenic
611. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion.
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
612. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
613. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a self-
contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources.
a. Boiling point
b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
614. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
a. Thermal balance
b. Thermal imbalance
c. Combustion
d. Oxidation
615. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
616. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
d. Oxidation
617. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit temperature gradient.
a. Conduction
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Radiation
d. Fission
618. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space or materials as waves.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
619. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
a. Providential fire
b. Accidental fire
c. Intentional fire
620. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
a. Arson
b. Providential fire
c. Accidental fire
621. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Neon
622. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
623. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
a. Free radicals
b. Flash point
c. Thermal balance
624. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
conditions.
a. Free radicals
b. Pyrolysis
c. Thermal balance
625. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities is developed.
a. Initial phase
b. Incipient phase
d. Smoldering phase
626. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
a. The fire triangle
b. The fingerprint of the fire
c. Flashover
d. Incipient phase of the fire
627. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus-tible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
628. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
629. Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
a. To determine its cause
b. To prevent recurrence
c. To determine liable persons
630. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
a. It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
b. Unavailability of witnesses
c. Fire destroys evidence
631. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
a. Providential
b. Accidental
c. Intentional
d. Incendiarism
632. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
a. Fire
b. Origin of fire
c. Fire triangle
633. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
a. Fuel
b. Heat
c. Oxygen
d. Gas
634. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
635. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
a. Specific heat
b. Latent heat
c. Heat of Combustion
d. Heat of fusion
636. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
a. Carbon black
b. Lamp black
c. Soot
d. Black bone
637. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
a. Fire
b. Flame
c. Heat
d. Smoke
638. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
a. Fire
b. Flame
c. Heat
d. Smoke
639. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
a. Backdraft
b. Flashover
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
d. Falling debris
640. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of what material?
a. Rubber
b. Nitrogen products
c. Asphalt singles
d. Chlorine
641. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
a. Asbestos
b. Diamond
c. Asphalt
d. Cotton
642. A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common
cause of providential fires.
a. Rays of the sun
b. Spontaneous heating
c. Arcing
d. Lighting
643. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
a. Smoking
b. Arcing
c. Sparkling
d. Overloading
644. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.
a. Accelerant
b. Plants
c. Trailer
d. Wick
645. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
a. Accelerant
b. Plants
c. Trailer
d. Wick
646. Most common reason of arson cases.

a. Revenge
b. Profit
c. Competition
647. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
a. Spontaneous heating
b. Combustible gases
c. Combustible dust
648. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.
a. Plants
b. Trailers
c. Accelerants
d. Wick
649. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
a. Abatement
b. Combustion
c. Allotment
d. Distillation
650. It is also called as uppers and to increase mental and physical function
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
651. A drugs that derived from opium and medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
652. It I also called downers drugs reducing functional nervous activity.
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
653. It is also called psychedelics drugs that causes hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, emotion
and consciousness and physical function
a. stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
654. The following countries which considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as worlds top supplier
for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
a. Vietnam
b. Iran
c. Afghanistan
d. Pakistan
655. According to PDEA goal that Philippines will be a Drug Free Country in year___?
a. 2035
b. 2025
c. 2030
d. 2020
656. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the participation of the community.
d. oplan galugad
657. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight against drug trafficking.
d. oplan cleansweep
658. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant portion of house was being damaged.
a. Consummated arson
b. Attempted arson
c. Frustrated arson
d. No crime
659. When a person sets fire to his own property under what circumstances which expose to danger of life or property
of another.
b. Arson
d. no crime
660. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of his prayer.
b. Arson
d. no crime
661. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in combating organized crime and terrorism.
a. family
b. school
c. NGO
d. Community
662. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Beijing square massacre
c. Tienanmen massacre
d. Tienanmen square massacre
663. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim
from Quezon City. Where the case should be filed?
a. Quezon City
b. Pasig City
c. Manila
d. either of the above choices
664. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug related crime.
a. Buy bust operation
b. Instigation
c. entrapment
d. planting evidence
665. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as Intelligence_______.

a. Invalidate
b. unsolved
c. success
d. failure
666. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
a. Homicide case
b. Suicide case
c. Murder case
d. Any of the choices
667. What is the penalty when a person bringing into country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or passport.
a. Life imprisonment
b. Life imprisonment-death
c. death
d. no penalty because of immunity
668. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and communication system
a. hacking
b. Trojan
c. virus
d. intellectual property
669. The vehicles should not parked at these area.
a. Private driveway
b. intersection
c. pedestrian lane
d. fire hydrant
e. all the choices
670. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
reason?
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
c. Life imprisonment
d. Death
671. Most important equipment in traffic accident investigation?
a. cellphone
b. camera
c. Manila
672. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams of shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
e.
673. Refers to the terrorist group Soldiers of God.
a. Abu Sayaff
b. Hezbollah
c. Fatah
d. Hamas
674. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
a. Hezbollah
b. Al Qaeda
c. Fatah
d. Hamas
675. South America country principal source of cocaine.
a. Brazil
b. Spain
c. Columbia
d. Chile
676. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
a. Israel
b. Gaza Strip
c. Lebanon
d. West bank
677. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
a. organization
b. faction
c. cell
d. station
678. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Hezbollah
b. Hamas
c. Al Qaeda
d. Fatah
679. One of the most important components of terrorist-related investigations is the collection and preservation of
what?
a. physical evidence
b. witnesses
c. information
d. all of these
680. Meaning of the term Jihad.

a. Holy War
b. Holy Mass
c. Holy Cow
d. Holy Ghost
681. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
a. Yasser Arafart
b. Osama Bin Laden
d. Abu Nidal
682. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries
a. M16
b. AK47
c. M14
d. Galil
683. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or country.
a. Transnational
b. national
c. international
d. none of them
684. The most wanted terrorist in the world.
a. Yasser Arafat
b. Abu Nidal
c. Osama Bin Laden
d. Mohammad Alzawari
685. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of force to achieve a political end.
A. terrorism
B. violence
C. felony
D. criminal act
686. The largest and most powerful triad.
A. Su Yee On
B. 14K
C. Wo Shing Wo
D. Sham Shui Po

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1. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?

10. Criminals whose identity may be established background identification.

44. Paid informants

55. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.

a. Crime Scene Reconstruction

286. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:

343. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E-Commerce Act of 2000.

447. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.

460. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal behavior?

461. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to?

481. Shabu is chemically known as:

483. Scientific name for cocaine.

486. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in

488. What drug is known as the assassins of the youth?

499. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?

500. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?

544. The former and original name of the Mafia

550. The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front

601. The vehicles should not parked at these area.

646. Most common reason of arson cases.

665. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as Intelligence_______.

680. Meaning of the term Jihad.

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