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UNIT1: FRIENDSHIP

PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1 A. change B. children C. machine D. church
2. A. mutual B. residential C. natural D. culture
3. A. guitarist B. passenger C. generous D. village
4. A. certain B. perfect C. person D. starter
5. A. other B. long C. possible D. constancy
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. number B. friendship C. special D. affair
7. A. feeling B. believe C. ready D. easy
8. A. acquaintance B. interest C, capable D. sympathy
9. A. mutual B. impossible C. discussion D. sincerely
10. A. patient B. eager C. admire D. honest
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. At school she..................close friendships with several other girls.
A. formed B. shaped C. created D. built
12. The children seem to be totally .................. of working quietly by
themselves.
A. unable B. impossible C. incapable D. not able
13. John refused to..................his children go to the concert.
A. allow B. permit C. let D. enable
14. The dentist told him..................his mouth wide.
A. open B. to open C. opening D. to opening
15. His parents never allowed him...................

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A. a smoking B. smoking C. some smoke D. to smoke
16. Do you..................my turning the television on now?
A, mind B. disapproved C. want D. object
17. He..................me to buy my air ticket immediately or it would be too
late.
A. convinced B. insisted C. advised D. suggested
18. I..................my friend to lend me his caravan for my trip to the country.
A. persuaded B. suggested C. proposed D. offered
19. They would..................go by plane than spend a week travelling by train.
A. always B. rather C. prefer D. better
20. Her guest apologized for causing her so much...................
A. problem B. trouble C. complication D. obstacle
21. You eat the olives; everybody..................them. '
A. hate B. is hating C. hates D. are hating
22. Her latest documentary is primarily .................. with youth
unemployment.
A. concerned B. involved C. engaged D. related
23. I can't seethe..................of sitting on the beach all day.
A. attract B. attractive C. attractively D. attraction
24. He is always loyal..................his principles whatever happens.
A. with B. about C. on D. to
25. You should inform the police if you see anything...................
A. suspicious B. uncertain C. afraid D. unbelievable
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. There are a lot of work to do here.
A B C D

27. I couldn't make my car to start this morning.


A B C D

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28. My boss doesn't allow me using the telephone for private calls.
A B C D
29. I'm sure he is capable in running a mile in four minutes.
A B C D
30. Good friendship should be basing on mutual understanding.
A B C D
III. Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same meaning as
the given one.
31. My lawyer said I shouldn't say anything to the police.
A. My lawyer told me not to say anything to the police.
B. My lawyer didn't allow me to say anything to the police.
C. My lawyer didn't let me say anything to the police.
D. My lawyer advised me not to say anything to the police.
32. We haven't got any news that we can tell you.
A. We've got good news, but we can't tell you.
B. We haven't got any news to tell you.
C. We haven't got any news for telling you.
D. We can't tell you the news we've got.
33. He cycles to work so that he can get some exercise.
A. He cycles to work to get some exercise.
B. He cycles to work providing he gets some exercise.
C. He only gets some exercise by cycling to work.
D. Cycling to work makes him feel better.
34. It's easy to talk to them,
A. They are easy to talk to.
B. They are easy when we talk to them.
C. They are easy for talking to.
D. They are easy to talk to us.
35. Smoking in the theatre is forbidden.

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A. The theatre is forbidden to smoke in.
B. It is forbidden from smoking in the theatre.
C. People aren't allowed to smoke in the theatre.
D. People are allowed to smoke everywhere except this theatre.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
Pablo was a friend to many people, but he and I (36) ...................especially
well. If I (37) ..............................a problem, I knew that I could always go to
him to talk it over. Just talking to him would (38)...................me up. Once he
helped me get over my disappointment (39)...................I didn't make the
football team. Another time, he stuck up for a friend (40)...................was
falsely accused of (41)............... in an exam. I sometimes wondered how he
(42)...................me because sometimes I wasn't so nice to
(43)...................people. But Pablo would never (44)...................a friend
down. After high school, we both moved away to go to college, but we have
stayed (45)....................
36. A. got along B. got ahead C. got away D. got out
37. A. took B. made C. had D. ran
38. A. cheer B. warm C. wake D. bring
39. A. while B. if C. when D. in case
40. A. which B. he C. who D. whom
41. A. pretending B. cheating C. tricking D. deceiving
42. A. catch up with B. keep pace with C. keep up with D. put up with
43. A. another B. other C. else D. others
44. A. make B. let C. hold D. put
45. A. in touch B. out of touch C. with touch D. of touch
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.

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My name's Mandi. Three months ago, I went to a disco where I met a boy
called Tom. I guessed he was older than me, but I liked him and thought it
didn't matter. We danced a couple of times, then we chatted. He said he was
18, then asked how old I was. I told him I was 16. I thought that if I told him
my real age, he wouldn't want to know me, as I'm only 13.
After the disco we arranged to meet the following weekend. The next
Saturday we went for a burger and had a real laugh. Afterwards he walked
me to my street and kissed me goodnight. Things went really well. We see
each other a couple of times a week, but I've had to lie to my parents about
where I'm going and who with. I've always got on with them, but I know if
they found out how old Tom was they'd stop me seeing him.
Now I really don't know what to do. I can't go on lying to my parents every
time we go out, and Tom keeps asking why he can't come round to my
house. I'm really worried and I need some advice.
46. Why has Mandi written this?
A. to describe her boyfriend B. to prove how clever she is
C. to explain a problem D. to defend her actions
47. Who is she writing to?
A. her boyfriend B. her parents
C. a teenage magazine D. a school friend
48. Why is Mandi worried?
A. Tom has been behaving strangely.
B. She's been telling lies.
C. She's not allowed to go to disco.
D. Her parents are angry with her.
49. Why can't Tom come to Mandi's house?
A. She doesn't want her parents to meet him.
B. Her parents don't like him.
C. He's nervous of meeting her parents.

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D. She doesn't want him to see where she lives.
50. Which of these answers did Mandi receive?
A. Tell me what you really feel.
B. You must start by being honest with everyone.
C. Everyone's been unfair to you,
D. Don't worry. I'm sure Tom will change his mind.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. such B. match C. which D. characteristic
2. A. danger B. game C. journalist D. journey
3. A. bridge B. edge C. lager D. page
4. A. school B. should C. true D. too
5. A. need B. each C. keep D. cheer
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. journalist B. hospitable C. understand D. beautiful
7. A. humorous B. successful C. apartment D. attraction
8. A. quality B. rumour C. certain D. concerned
9. A. suspicion B. capable C. selfishness D. influence
10. A. between B. gossip C. common D. pleasure
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. I won't be able to..................away from the office before 7.
A. give B. make C. take D. get
12. It was difficult to..................a date which was convenient for everyone.

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A. arrange B. schedule C. prepare D. reach
13. She was..................to warn her mother that she would be late because
the telephone was out of order.
A. impossible B. incapable C. unable D. unlikable
14. Their professional relationship developed into a lasting...................
A. friend B. friendship C. friendly D. friendliness
15. The wedding was a very grand...................
A. fact B. affair C. business D. service
16. Tom always pays for everyone when we go out. He's so...................
A. careful B. greedy C. mean D. generous
17. They had a heated..................on youth employment yesterday.
A, row B. dispute C. argument D. discussion
18. Jack..................me to post the letter.
A. recalled B. recollected C. reminded D. remembered
19. "You're late getting home."
"The boss made..................for a meeting after work.
A. us to stay B. us stay C. us staying D. us to staying
20. The man wanted to fly to Rockwall...................to take him there.
A. He wanted the pilot B. He wanted
C. The pilot he wanted D. The pilot the man wanted
21. "Your homemade ice cream is so good. What's your secret?"
"..................good ice cream, you need to use a lot of cream."
A. To make B. For making C. Making D. Make
22. It's lovely..................you again.
A. seeing B. for seeing C. to see D. of seeing
23. I can't say I share your enthusiasm..................the idea.
A. for B. with C. over D. on
24. She..................in a bank since she..................school.
A. has worked - has left B. has been working - left

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C. worked - has left D. worked - left
25. She has all the............,......of a good teacher.
A. behaviour B. qualities C. features D. deeds
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. I'm delighted hearing that you have made much progress in your
A B C D
study recently.
27. She said the letter was personal and wouldn't let me to read it.
A B C D
28. It's impossible for me being there before 8.00p.m.
A B C D
29. I saw a man to jump through the window 5 minutes ago, but I
A B C
couldn't remember his face.
D
30. He offered to share the cost between me.
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. It/ very kind /you / help me / start I engine.
A. It's very kind of you to help me start the engine.
B. It's very kind to you to help me start the engine.
C. It's very kind that you help me start the engine.
P. It's very kind because you to help me start the engine,
32. They / invite / stay / Florida,
A. They invited me to stay with them in Florida.
B. They invited me staying with them in Florida.
C. They invited me stay with them in Florida.
D. They invited to stay with them in Florida.

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33. You/notice /him /come in?
A. Did you notice his come in?
B. Did you notice him to coming in?
C. Did you notice him coming in?
D. Did you notice him to come in?
34. I/ delighted / hear I success.
A. I'm delighted hearing of your success.
B. I'm delighted to hear of your success.
C. I'm delighted to hear from your success.
D. I'm delighted of hearing that you succeeded.
35. You / really /be/ able / dress /yourself/ age!
A. It's time you are really able to dress yourself at your age!
B. You must really be able to dress yourself at your age!
C. I'd rather you are really able to dress yourself at your age!
D. You'd better be able to dress yourself at your age!
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really
good friends always (36)...................joys and sorrows with you and never
turn their backs (37).........................you. Your best friend may be someone
you have known all your life or someone you ha\ (38)...................up with.
There are all sorts of things that can (39)...................about this special
relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the (40) ................. activities
and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have
immediately felt (41)...................with as if we had known for
(42)..................However, it really (43)...................you years to get to know
someone well (44)...................to consider your best friend. To the majority of
us, this is someone we trust completely an (45)..........:........understands us

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better than anyone else. It's the person you can tell him or her your most
intimate secrets.
36. A. give B. spend C. share D. have
37. A. on B. with C. down D. behind
38. A. caught B. turned C. grown D. lived
39. A. cause B. provide C. result D. bring
40. A. somehow B. same C. equivalent D. equal
41.A. interesting B. relaxed C. enjoyable D. fun
42. A. ages B. time C. century D. long
43. A. occupies B. costs C. takes D. spends
44. A. too B. such C. so D. enough
45. A. whose B. who C. whom D. which
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D to
each question.
In the United States, friendship can be close, constant, intense, generous and
real, yet fade away in a short time if circumstances change. Neither side feels
hurt by this. Both may exchange Christmas greetings for a year or two,
perhaps a few letters for a while - then no more. If the same two people meet
again by chance, even years later, they pick up the friendship where it left off
and are delighted.
In the United States, you can feel free to visit people's homes, share their
holidays, or enjoy their lives without fear that you are taking on a lasting
obligation. Do not hesitate to accept hospitality because you can't give it in
turn. No one will expect you to do so for they know you are far from home,
Americans will enjoy welcoming you and be pleased if you accept their
hospitality easily.
Once you arrive there, the welcome will be fun and warm and real. Most
visitors find themselves readily invited into many homes there. In some
countries it is considered inhospitable to entertain at home, offering what is

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felt as only home cooked food, not "doing something for your guest". It is
left that restaurant entertaining shows more respect and welcome. Or for
other different reasons, such as crowded space, language difficulties, or
family custom, outsiders are not invited into homes.
In the United States, both methods are used, but it is often considered
friendlier to invite a person to one's home than to go to a public place, except
in purely business relationship. So, if your host or hostess brings you home,
do not feel that you are being shown inferior treatment.
Don't feel neglected if you do not find flowers awaiting you in your hotel
room, either. Flowers are very expensive there; hotel delivery is uncertain;
arrival times are delayed, changed, or canceled - so flowers are not
customarily sent as a welcoming touch. Please do not feel unwanted!
Outward signs vary in different lands; the inward welcome is what matters,
and this will be real.
46. In the United States, you will find friendships................. if
circumstances change.
A. die suddenly B. pass away
C. disappear gradually D. last forever
47. Americans .................................. their foreign friends to make, a return
for their hospitality.
A. ask B. wish C. never allow D. don't expect
48. In some other countries, giving a dinner party at home is
considered ..................................than in a restaurant.
A. less friendly B. less hospitable C. more natural D. more popular
49. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Flowers are available at all time.
B. Flowers are expensive.
C. Flowers are signs of outward welcome.
D. Flowers are not necessarily sent to guests.

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50. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
A. American Hospitality B. American Friendship
C. American Invitation D. American Welcome

UNIT 2: PERSONAL EXPERIENCES


PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. bring B. language C. string D. sing
2. A. hand B. bank C. sand D. band
3. A. mire B. mirror C. mix D. miserable
4. A. money B. month C. monkey D. monitor
5. A. think B. sink C. inland D. ink
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. embarrass B. experience C. imagine D. imitate
7. A. cotton B. happen C. extreme D. quickly
8. A. notice B. decide C. without D. exact
9. A. carefully B. decision C. appreciate D. discover
10. A. situation B. differently C. conservation D. inexpensive
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. When I..........at my suitcase, I could see that somebody.......... to open it.
A. had looked - tried B. looked - tried
C. looked - were trying D. looked - had tried
12. She..................shyly at him and then lowered her eyes.
A. glanced B. glimpsed C. saw D. glared

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13. Now he's grown up, he no longer takes any .................. in his stamp
collection.
A. interest B. attention C. concern D. notice
14. I...............that a similar message...............to my office two days earlier.
A. discovered - was sent B. had discovered - had been sent
C. discovered - had been sent D. had discovered - was sent
15. The salesman showed us..................the washing machine.
A. for using B. how to use
C. using D. the using of
16. I've never fallen in such a (n)..................situation before.
A. embarrassed B. embarrassing
C, confused D. confusing
17. You will not succeed..................working harder.
A. unless B. although
C. if D. without
18. Just keep..................on the baby while I cook the supper, will you?
A. a look B. a glance
C. an eye D. a care
19. He..................his friend to go camping with him.
A. attracted B. suggested
C. appealed D. persuaded
20. He..................the office when I arrived.
A. was leaving B. has left
C. should leave D. leaves
21. He couldn't make the radio...................
A. to work B. working
C. worked D. work
22. Her father won't..................her drive his car.
A. allow B. let

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C. leave D. permit
23. I..................a point of checking that all the windows are shut whenever I
go out.
A. take B. make
C. have D. get
24. A burglar..................into the house while we..................television.
A. broke - were watching B. broke - watched
C. had broken - watched D. broke - had watched
25. The police .................. to Claire's complaint because she had phoned
them so many times before.
A. paid no attention B. took no notice
C. took no interest E. made no fuss
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. While I did my homework, I had a good idea.
A B C D
27. I'd give the class a holiday if I am the head teacher.
A B c D

28. They're poorest people I've ever seen.


A B C D
29. The latest rise in unemployment has proven extremely embarrassed to
A B C D
the government.
30. Don't make so much fusses over the children .
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31.7 would prefer you not to smoke in here.
A. I'd rather you didn't smoke in here.
B, I'd rather you couldn't smoke in here,

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C, I'd rather you don't smoke in here.
D. I'd rather you wouldn't smoke in here.
32. "Don't forget to post the letter, " she told him.
A. She reminded him not to forget to post the letter.
B. She reminded him to post the letter.
C. She reminded him to forget not to post the letter.
D. She reminded him about posting the letter.
33. Steve left before my arrival.
A. When I arrived, Steve had already left.
B. Steve left as soon as I arrived.
C. While Steve was leaving I arrived.
D. Steve hadn't left until I arrived.
34. He started to play the piano Jive years ago.
A. He has been playing the piano since five years.
B. He has been starting to play the piano for five years.
C. He has been playing the piano for five years.
D. He has started playing the piano for five years.
35. "Will you come to my birthday party? " she said to me.
A. She invited that I would come to her birthday party.
B. She asked me I would come to her birthday party.
C. She asked me would I come to her birthday party.
D. She invited me to come to her birthday party.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
A case of mistaken identity
When Diana got off the train, there was a woman waiting for her
(36) ............................ the platform. "Are you Diana?" she asked.
(37)............................ a car waiting for you outside." Diana was not very

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surprised, (38)............................she thought that her aunt
(39)............................ have been too busy to meet her (40) ............................
the station. (41)............................she did not recognize the woman,
(42)............................was dressed very formally, and had a small briefcase
(43)............................her arm, she was so tired after the journey that she was
happy to get (44) ............................the car. The woman, however, just said a
few words to the driver, and then walked away. Diana wondered
(45) ............................ she was. "It's strange that she didn't even introduce
herself," she thought.
36. A. below B. to C. on D. in
37. A. There's B. Theirs C. Its D. It's
38. A. so B. despite C. too D. as
39. A. may B. might C. should D. must
40. A. at B. to C. in D. for
41. A. However B. Since C. In spite of D. Although
42. A. she B. who C. and D. whose
43. A. at B. in C. under D. by
44. A. with B. by C. at D. into
45. A. whether B. there C. who D. however
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
I am a fairly average young man, and my life has so far been rather
uneventful. I was born eighteen years ago in a little town in Ohio, where my
father started to practice medicine. I was the first of three children, and my
younger brother, my sister, and I are close to each other, even though we had
a few of the usually childish quarrels as we grew up together.
I went through grade school without getting into any trouble, but in high
school I began to get very conceited. Then, as a student of Grade Two, I
became a member of the school football team. I thought I was good enough

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to get by without studying, so I spent all my evening at the drugstore
watching TV.
In my junior year I did not pass geometry, and my father was more angry
with me than I like to remember. 1 felt pretty bad about this, but it taught me
a lesson, and in my senior year my grades were above average.
Now I am going to college and I am not going to let anything, even football,
keep me from getting good grades. I believe I owe it to my father and my
mother to do the best work I can. They are making a sacrifice in sending me
to college, and I want to repay them with hard work.
46. We know from the passage that the writer's father is.............................
A. a teacher B. a druggist C. a doctor D. a worker
47. Which of the following is FALSE?
A. The writer sometimes quarrels with his brother and sister.
B. The writer was the first child of his parents.
C. The writer was the first child of three children.
D. The writer was rather childish even though he had grown up.
48. According to the passage, the writer was good at..................................
A. football B. geometry C, medicine D. singing
49. The writer is determined to study hard at college because
A. his father was very angry
B. he failed in the tests
C. he owned money to his parents
D. he wants to repay his parents
50. The tone of the passage is..................................
A. humorous B. serious C. interesting D. angry

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS

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I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. inquest B. inquire C. inmate D. insane
2. A. minx B. mink C. link D. mint
3. A. mean B. meal C. meadow D. meantime
4. A. snow B. know C. now D. show
5. A. small B. than C. ball D. call
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. birthday B. excite C. decide D. suggest
7. A. complain B. picture C sneaky D. noisy
8. A. nowadays B. teenager C. protection D. attitude
9. A. similar B. replacement C. terrify D. interest
10. A. embrace B affect C. destroy D. rescue
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. I know from..................that he'll arrive late.
A. knowledge B. experience
C. understanding D. reality
12. When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was..................on.
A. happening B. being
C. going D. getting
13. She remembered the correct address only.......... she had posted the letter.
A. since B. afterwards
C. after D. following
14. The young girl carefully...............left and right before crossing the road.
A. watched B. glanced
C. stared D. looked

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15. He is very stubborn, so it will be difficult to..................him to go.
A. persuade B. suggest
C. make D. prevent
16. In spite of her protests, her father .................. her train for race three
hours a day.
A. let B. made
C. insisted D. caused
17. When I..................home I..................a phone call.
A. got - received B, was getting - was receiving
C. got - had received D. had got - had received
18. It's sometimes quite pleasant being ill, when people.................. of you
all the time.
A. make a fuss B. pay much attention
C. take interest D. make eyes
19. I think it's.................of the police to use unmarked cars.
A. sneak B. sneaking
C. sneaky D. sneakily
20. After Michael..................a deep breath, he..................into the water.
A. took - had dived B. had taken - dived
C. had taken - had dived D. was taking - dived
21. I'm very..................in the information you have given me.
A. concerned B. surprised
C. shocked D. interested
22. You're looking very pale - do you..................sick?
A. get B. faint
C. feel D. become
23. Although it..................heavily he..................out without a raincoat.
A. rained - went B. was raining - went
C. rained - was going D. was raining - was going

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24...................and let me look at your back.
A. Turn round B. Turn down
C. Turn out D. Turn away 25. When we..................at
the station, the train...................
A. arrived - had left B. arrived - left
C. had arrived - had left D. had arrived left
II. Choose the underlined part ( A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. John's friends had had a farewell party for him last Sunday.
A B C D
27. After she bought herself a new motorbike, she sold her bicycle.
A B C D
28. The children are busy as bees, to help their mother in the garden.
A B C D
29. When I was a child, my father was teaching me how to play soccer.
A B C D
30. She did not know where most of the people in the room was from.
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. I / thinking / go / Italy this year / but / not decide.
A. I was thinking of going to Italy this year, but I wasn't deciding.
B. I was thinking of going to Italy this year, but I haven't decided.
C. I am thinking of going to Italy this year, but I didn't decide.
D. I am thinking of going to Italy this year, but not decide.
32. while 11/ open / letter / telephone I ring.
A. While I opened the letter, the telephone rang.
B. While I was opening the letter, the telephone rang.
C. While I was opening the letter, the telephone was rung.
D. While I had opened the letter, the telephone rang.

20
33. Tim / be hungry / not eat /all day.
A. Tim was hungry because he hadn't eaten all day.
B. Tim was hungry because he didn't eat all day.
C. Tim was hungry because of not eating all day.
D. Tim was hungry because of his not eating all day.
34. school /forbid I students I smoke I classroom.
A. The school forbids the students of smoking in the classroom.
B. The school forbids the students against smoking in the classroom.
C. The school forbids the students from smoking in the classroom.
D. The school forbids the students not to smoke in the classroom.
35. doctor / strongly advise / Jerry / take a/ few days / rest.
A. The doctor strongly advised Jerry taking a few days' rest.
B. The doctor strongly advised that Jerry takes a few days' rest.
C. The doctor strongly advised Jerry to take a few days' rest.
D. The doctor strongly advised Jerry against taking a few days' rest.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
Maria's homecoming
When the bus (36)..................in a small square, Maria was reading her
magazine and didn't (37) .................. that she had arrived at her destination.
"This is Santa Teresa," Martin said. "You've arrived home! I suppose your
cousin will be (38)..................for us. Come on. I'll carry the bags." Maria
thought, "All those years when I (39)............................in New York, I used to
dream of this (40)...................And now it's real, I can't (41)................. it!
Here I am, I'm really standing in the square." Santa Teresa was Maria's
birthplace, but she had left the town at the age of six. She had some
(42)..................of the town, and some photos, but did she (43)..................here
still? She didn't know. Nobody was waiting in the square. Perhaps her cousin

21
Pablo hadn't (44).................. Maria's letter. "What are we going to do now?"
asked Martin. "There isn't (45) a hotel here!"
36. A. reached B. got C. stopped D. came
37. A. aware B. recognize C. recollect D. realize
38. A. expecting B. waiting C. welcoming D. receiving
39. A. was living B. have lived C. live D. am living
40. A. time B. point C. moment D. hour
41. A. hope B. confide C. believe D. wish
42. A. recall B. memories C. thinking D. remembering
43. A. present B. is C. own D. belong
44. A. received B. known C. had D. accepted
45. A. even B. hardly C. either D. very
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
I was in a strange city I didn't know at all, and what's more, I could not speak
a word of the language. On my second day I got on the first bus that passed,
rode on it for several stops, then got off and walked on. The first two hours
passed pleasantly enough, and then I decided I had to turn back to my hotel
for lunch. After walking about for some time, I decided I had better ask the
way. The trouble was that the only word I knew of the language was the
name of the street in which I lived, and even that I pronounced badly. I
stopped to ask a newspaper-seller. He handed me a paper. I shook my hands.
I had to give him some money and went on my way. The next person I asked
was a policeman. He listened to me carefully, nodded and gently took me by
the arm. There was a strange look in his eyes as he pointed left and right and
left again. I nodded politely and began walking in the direction he pointed.
About an hour passed and I noticed that the houses were getting fewer and
fewer and green fields were appearing on either side of me. I had come all

22
the way into the countryside. The only thing left for me to do was find the
nearest railway station.
46. The writer preferred to walk back to his hotel because.............................
A. he had no money to buy a ticket
B. he wanted to lose himself in the city
C. he tried to know the city in this way
D. it was late and there were no buses passing by
47. The newspaper-seller..................................
A. didn't know where the hotel was
B. didn't understand what the writer said
C. could understand what the writer said
D. didn't want to take the money from the writer
48. From the story we know that the policeman..................................
A. was kind but didn't understand the writer
B. told the writer where to take a train
C. knew what the writer really meant
D. was cold-hearted and didn't help the writer
49. What can we learn from the last paragraph?
A. The writer got close to the hotel where he stayed.
B. The writer got to the hotel with the policeman's help.
C. The writer found he was much farther away from the hotel.
D. The writer found the hotel in the direction the policeman pointed.
50. In your opinion, what was the writer's real trouble?
A. He didn't know the city at all.
B. He couldn't speak the language.
C. He went too far in the wrong bus.
D. He followed the policeman's direction.

UNIT 3: A PARTY

23
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. bring B. bridge C. bright D. brig
2. A. label B. lack C. labour D. lace
3. A. hour B. happy C. husband D. hold
4. A. honest B. honey C. honour D. Hons
5. A. radio B. rate C. rather D. race
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. candle B. friendship C. couple D. today
7. A. anniversary B. relationship C. activity D. occasion
8. A. birthday B. family C. married D. between
9. A. celebrate B together C. restaurant D. organise
10. A. hospital B. evening C. refreshment D. decorate
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. My boss doesn't..................me to use the telephone for private calls.
A. let B. get C. know D. allow
12. I think it's no good..................him about that.
A. to tell B. told C. being told D. telling
13. We would..................to stay at home this evening.
A. rather B. prefer C. recommend D. approve
14. He enjoys.................. the crossword puzzle in the newspaper everyday.
A. doing B. making C. filling D. A or C
15. The fans climbed over the fence to..................paying.
A. avoid B. postpone C. refuse D, slop

24
16. They..................all day swimming and sunbathing at the beach.
A. took B. used C. passed D. spent
17. Keeping fit..................taking exercise every day!
A. seems B. tries C. concerns D. means
18. I think I've..................a terrible mistake.
A. made B. making C. doing D. done
19. You must be responsible..................what you've done.
A. at B. for C. to D. with
20. Peter..................to go in for the exam.
A. avoided B. let C. advised D. decided
21. She always gets..................before her birthday.
A. excite B. exciting C. excited D. excitement
22. We've..................out of touch with Thomas for years now.
A. been B. kept C. got D. lost
23. Let's watch television..................playing cards.
A. instead of B. but C. and D. or
24. Somebody opened the door and the candle...................
A. blew over B. blew out C. blew off D. blew down
25. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's .................. to be
washing the car.
A. longed B. supposed C. desired D. wished
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. The thief forced her handing over the money.
A B C D
27. He was terribly excited to ask to play for Wales.
A B C D
28. I felt worriedly when I read the letter.
A B C D

25
29. Don't forget setting your alarm clock for 6.00, will you ?
A B C D
30. She suggested taking the plane this evening or that we go by train
A B C D
tomorrow.
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, E. C or B) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. If I were you I'd look for another job.
A. I suggest you looked for another job.
B. I suggest that you would look for another job.
C. I suggest that you look for another job.
D. I suggest you to look for another job.
32. Would you mind waiting for a moment?
A. It's not worth waiting for a moment, is it?
B. Could you please waiting for a moment?
C. Wait for a moment, please.
D. I couldn't help waiting for a moment.
33. I haven't seen him for five years.
A. I last saw him five years ago.
B. It's five years since I saw him.
C. It's five years ago that I last saw him.
D. It's five years since I have seen him.
34. I would rather have an egg for breakfast.
A. I prefer to have an egg for breakfast.
B. I'll have an egg for breakfast if there's nothing else.
C. I prefer to have an egg for breakfast than this.
D. I would eat an egg for breakfast if I were hungry.
35. I was not there at the time, "he said.
A. He denied being there at the time.

26
B. He denied that he was there at the time.
C. He denied not being there at the time.
D. He denied that he wasn't there at the time.
C. READING
I. Read the dialogue below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
A: (36)...................you like to come round on Saturday for dinner?
B: I'm sorry, but I'm afraid I (37).................... I have to go to my
grandmother's for the weekend. She's getting old and there are a few things
that need (38)...................around the house.
A: I think you should (39) ................... your brother to do something.
B: I know. I wish he would. I've asked him (40) ................... times but he just
won't help at all.
A: Oh well. (41) ..................., when will you come back?
B: Wednesday, I think, but I might get back earlier.
A: OK, well, shall we fix a (n) (42) ................... now? Could you come on
Friday?
B: I will just have a look in my diary. Yes, that's fine. Could I
(43) ................... your pen? I just (44) ................... to make a note or I will
probably forget. You know what it's (45)

27
36. A. Would B .May C. Shall D. Will
37. A. won't B. can't C. might not D. needn't
38. A. making B, taking C. getting D. doing
39. A. have got B. cause C-get D. make
40. A. few B. little C. several D. lots
41. A. Anyway B. Somehow C. Somewhat D. By way
42. A. date B. appointment C. meeting D. day
43. A. lend B. get C. borrow D. loan
44. A. should B. need C. must D. could
45. A. alike B. like C. liking : D. likely

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. who B. when C. whip D. wheat
2. A. honour B. hand C. home D. holiday
3. A. candle B. age C. marry D. happy
4. A. birthday B. surprise C. anniversary D. surface
5. A. together B. then C. their D. birth
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. golden B. adult C. perhaps D. future
7. A. American B. librarian C. entertainment D. infinitive
8. A. decision B. several C. following D. decorate
9. A. lemonade B. everybody C. celebrate D. different
10. A. people B. about C. picture D. wedding
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE

28
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. Don't hurry! There's no need...............:...
A. running B. to run C. run D. you run
12...................of staying at home, they go out for a walk.
A. Instead B. In spite C. On behalf D. On account
13. Mr and Mrs Black were delighted when they .................. to sell their
house so quickly.
A. managed B. succeeded C. could D. risked
14. Fiere was unable to................. his niece's wedding as he was ill.
A. be present B. visit C. assist D. attend
15. The children loved . the old castle.
A. discovering B. exploring C. hunting D. detecting
16. Steve thought his..................with Helen was changing.
A. relate B. related C. relationship D. relating
17. I tried..................the bus, but I missed it.
A. catching B. catch C. to catch D. catch up
18. She..................him of wanting to marry her for her money.
A. cursed B. accused C. blamed D. warned
19. I couldn't resist having another slice of cake even though 1
was ..................to be losing weight.
A. supposed B. hoped C. expected D. wanted
20. She .................. drive to the station every day but then she suddenly
decided to walk instead.
A. was used to B. has used to C. was using to D, used to
21. The manager..................the men to return to work immediately.
A. insisted B. suggested C. demanded D. ordered
22. Dave and I have..................to meet at the bus station at 9 o'clock.
A. confirmed B. combined C. appointed D. arranged

29
23. We are..................him to arrive at any moment.
A. expecting B. wishing C. waiting D. hoping
24. The plants want..................daily.
A. watering B. to be watered C. to water D. A or B
25. Let us know as soon as possible so that we can start ..........arrangements.
A. having B. doing C. making D. fixing
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. They chose not to have attended the meeting.
A B C D
27. I expected to admit to the school, but I wasn't.
A B C D
28. By the time Tom arrived, all of the food had eaten .
A B C D
29. He could not decide whether to get a job or studying .
A B C D
30. After Tom had returned to his house, he was reading a book.
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. let /play / basketball / instead / swim.
A. Let's to play basketball instead of swimming.
B. Let's play basketball instead to go swimming.
C. Let's play basketball instead of swimming.
D. Let's play basketball instead of playing swimming.
32. John / offer / carry / bag / Mary.
A. John offered carrying the bag for Mary.
B. John offered to carry the bag for Mary.
C. John offered to carry the bag of Mary's.
D. John offered that he carry the bag for Mary.

30
33. be / clear / what / expect / you ?
A. Are you clear about your expectation?
B. Are you clear what is expected of you?
C. Are you clear what is expected of you to do?
D. Are you clear what is expecting of you?
34. what /you /mean /do / leaky pipes.
A. What are you meaning of doing about the leaky pipes?
B. What do you mean to do about the leaky pipes?
C. What do you mean doing about the leaky pipes?
D. What do you mean with doing about the leaky pipes?
35. I/be / advise / obtain / visa I advance.
A. I was advised to obtain a visa in advance.
B. I was advised obtaining a visa in advance.
C. I was advising to obtain a visa in advance.
D. I was advised him obtain a visa in advance.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
THE SURPRISE PARTY
Last Friday was my dad's birthday, and we (36) .................. a surprise party
for him. It was great! We (37) .................. the living room with balloons and
Mum baked a big cake. There were forty candles on the cakes
(38) .................. my dad was forty years old. We invited all the family and
(39)..................his friends, and waited in the living room for him to come
home from work. It was very funny! We had (40) ..................out all the
lights, and were hiding behind the chairs, the sofa and the curtains. As usual,
he came into the house and shouted "Hi, everyone! I'm home!" We didn't
(41) .................. a sound. "Where is everyone?" he said, and came into the
room. He turned on the lights and we all shouted "Surprise!". He was so

31
shocked! Dad blew (42)..................all the candles on the cake and we sang
"Happy Birthday". I gave him a tie and my brother got him a CD. Mum
bought him a bottle of his (43).................. wine. We had a great party, and
Dad said it was the best birthday he had (44) .................. had. He also said
that being forty wasn't as bad as he had thought it (45)..
36. A. made
B. organised C. brought D. took
37. A. equipped
B. provided C. drew D. decorated
38. A. because
B, although C. owing to D. when
39. A. lots of
B. a lot C. many D. a few
40. A. went
B.got C. turned D. hold
41. A. build
B. cause C. make D. set
42. A. over
B. out C. up D. off
43. A. enjoyed
B. favourite C. preferred D. liked.
44. A. never
B. almost C. hardly D. ever
45. A. must be
B. should be C. could be D. would be
II. Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle the
letter you choose - A, B, C or D, corresponding to the correct answer.
In the U.S, men and women choose their spouses. They do this by dating.
When they decide on a spouse, they get engaged. They do not need their
parents' consent. The man usually gives the woman an engagement ring.
Before a wedding, the bride's women friends and relatives usually have a
party for her. It is called a shower. At the shower, everyone gives the bride a
present for her future home. The groom's men friends give him a party. It is
called a bachelor party. The purpose of this party is to give to the groom one
last good time as a single man.
Sometimes young people pay for their own wedding. This is especially true
if they have been working for a while. In other cases, the family of the bride
pays for most of the wedding and the reception afterward.
46. In the U.S, men and women...................

32
A. don't have to pay attention to the law when they get married
B. must have their parents' permission if they are supposed to get married
C. must win their friends' agreement if they are supposed to get married
D. could have their own choice in the matter of marriage
47. At the bachelor party the groom...................
A. could have one last good time as a bachelor
B. must promise to behave properly at the wedding
C. must prove him to be a good future husband
D. could have one last chance of freedom
48. According to the passage, young people...................
A. car ask for parental help to pay for their wedding
B. c0n borrow from their friends to pay for the wedding
C. at times pay for their wedding
D completely rely on their family for their wedding
49. The word consent in line 3 is closest in meaning to...................
A. order B. agreement
C. request D. remarks
50. The word present in line 6 is closest in meaning to...................
A. gift B. kiss
C. ring D. chance

UN IT 4: VOLUNTEER WORK
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. who B. wheel C. whether D. whale
A. you B. young C. Yuck D. yummy
A. whoever B. whole C. whom D. whisper

33
2. A. many B. area C. handle D. advantage
3. A. summer B. educate C. club D. public
4.
5.
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from
that of the others.
6. A. example B. volunteer C. vacation D. appropriate
7. A. advantage B. participate C. appearance D. voluntary
8. A. overcome B. company C. happiness D. orphanage
9. A. improvement B. development C. movement D. replacement
10 A. healthy B. summer C. require D. problem

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. I could feel my hands..................with fear!
A. to shake B. shaking C. was shaking D. none is correct
12. The judge..................the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. charged C, blamed D. sued
13. I was wakened by the sound of someone..................on the door.
A. crashing B. bumping C. knocking D. hitting
14. She is eighteen, so by law her father cannot..................her marriage.
A. avoid B. defeat C. prevent D. fail
15. He..................me to take a lawyer to court with me.
A. advised B. suggested C. threatened D. insisted
16. My wife..................me for the washing-up.
A. volunteered B. offered C. asked D. got
17. After I.................. finished working, 1 switched off the machine.
A. have B. had C. having D. to have
18. Shy people often find it difficult to..................group discussions.

34
A. take place in B. take part in C. get on with D. get in
19. I strongly......._.......... to being charged a fee for using my credit card.
A. disputed B. conflicted C. opposed D. objected
20...................it several times, he didn't want to read it once again.
A. Reading B. To read C. To have read D. Having read
21. He doesn't.................. to take a holiday this summer.
A. suppose B. determine C. plan D. suggest
22. Fat people should..................the temptation to eat a lot of sweet things.
A, disobey B. resist C. deny D. refuse
23. He was accused of...............the car two months ago.
A. steal B. having stealing C. stolen D. having stolen
24. In Britain it is..................for children to attend school between the ages
of five and sixteen.
A, obliged B. enforced C. compulsory D. made
25. After a lot of difficulty, he..................to open the door.
A. managed , B. succeeded C. obtained D. realised
IL Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. Each nation has many people who voluntary take care of others.
A B C D
27. We're looking forward to see you again .
A B C D
28. Although being tired, he still went out for work.
A B C D
29. I have not objection to hearing your story again.
A B C D
30. Many people who were opposed to use energy in any form
A B

demonstrated against the opening of the new nuclear power plant.

35
C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the give one.
31. We couldn't drive because of the fog.
A. The fog prevented us not to drive.
B. The fog prevented us from driving.
C. The fog prevented us against driving.
D. The fog prevented us about driving.
32. Does parking here cost anything?
A. Don't I have to pay anything for parking?
B. Is parking here costly?
C. Do I need to pay for parking?
D. Does it cost much to park here?
33. 1 can hear voices upstairs.
A. I can hear someone talking upstairs.
B. Someone is heard to talk upstairs.
C. There're strange voices upstairs.
D. It's too noisy upstairs.
34. Jim said he hadn't stolen the jewels.
A. Jim denied stealing the jewels.
B. Jim didn't agree to steal the jewels.
C. There was no denying that Jim had stolen the jewels.
D. Jim had stolen the jewels, but he denied it.
35. Neil wishes he hadn't sold his car.
A. Neil didn't sell his car.
B. Neil didn't have a wish for a car.
C. Neil doesn't wish to sell his car.
D. Neil regrets having sold his car.
C. READING

36
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
A YEAR WITH OVERSEAS VOLUNTEERS
I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and
I was sent to an isolated village in Chad, about 500 kilometres from the
capital N'Djamena. Coming from a (36).........................country, I got quite a
shock, as conditions were much harder than I had expected. But after a few
days I soon got used to (37).........................there. The people were always
very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how
(38) .........................the countryside was. One of my jobs was to supply the
village with water. The well was a long walk away, and the women used to
spend a long time every, day (39).........................heavy pots backwards and
forwards. So I contacted the organization and arranged to
(40)......,..................some pipes delivered. We built a simple pipeline and a
pump, and it worked first time. It wasn't very perfect - there were a few
leaks, but it made a great difference to the villagers. (41).........................had
never had running water before. And not (42).........................did we have
running water, but in the evenings it was hot, because the pipe had been
lying in the sun all day. All in all, I think my time with OV was a good
experience. Although it was not well-paid, it was well (43) .........................
doing, and I would recommend it to anyone who was (44).........................
working for a charity.
Finally, there's one more reason why I'll never (45)........................ working
for OV. A few months before I left, I met and fell in love with another
volunteer, and we got married when we returned to England.
36. A. rich B. comfortable C. well-paid D. luxurious
B. lived C. living D. lives
37. A. live
B. good-looking C. handsome D. sweet
38. A. beautiful B. carrying C. wearing D. holding
B. let C. have D. allow

37
39. A. fetching B. that C. they D. who
40. A. make B. scarcely C. only D. also
B. value C. cost D. price
41. A. which B. considering C. going D. planning
42. A. hardly B. feel sorry C. miss D. lose
43. A. worth
44. A. thinking
45. A. regret
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
VOLUNTEERS SERVICE OVERSE AS VSO
VSO is a registered charity dedicated to assisting in developing countries.
More specifically, it is a recruitment agency which finds, selects and places
volunteers in response to overseas requests.
This work makes it distinctive among other charities and organizations in the
UK. It sends people, not money, so that its services are, in effect, entirely
complementary to the efforts being made by agencies like Oxfam. Christian
Aid and Save the Children Fund with whom it often works directly. VSO
tries to respond to requests from overseas which ask for volunteers. Its
bias is firmly towards the poorest members of the community and it takes
great care to avoid undermining job opportunities for local people.
Both staff and volunteers also pay special attention to women's roles in
development projects. This is because women's roles in child-rearing, in
education and community cohesion are essential in any healthy process of
change.
Over the past 38 years, more than 21,000 volunteers have worked abroad
with VSO. there are now over 1,900 volunteers working in 59 of the less
developed countries in Africa, Asia, the Pacific and the Caribbean.

38
The application of each volunteer is carefully considered in order to select
and interview candidates against each job request from the field, to seek the
person with the right blend of skills and personality.
VSO, the work
VSO volunteers do not go to developing countries as visiting experts with all
the answers. It is always a process of sharing and learning. The aim is that
when the volunteer returns home, there exists a community with a stronger
sense of independence and self-reliance and a volunteer with a new
understanding and appreciation of life and people everywhere. The range of
jobs required of VSO is wide - reflecting the needs of any society in the
modern world.
46. VSO is different from other charities and organizations in the UK
because it.........................
A. is a registered body.
B. sends financial aid to developing countries.
C. sends volunteers to help abroad.
D. recruits volunteers to work in Britain.
47. Requests from overseas most likely to be dealt with are those which
A. specifically ask for female staff and volunteers.
B. require volunteers to work with the local inhabitants.
C. require help and advice on health care.
D. need help to train less wealthy members of the community.
48. According to those who work for VSO, who plays the most important
part in bringing about change?
A. women in local communities
B. volunteers from abroad
C. charitable organizations
D. staff who recruit volunteers
49. What happens when VSO wants to appoint new volunteers?

39
A. They give preference to applicants living abroad.
B. They give each applicant several interviews.
C. They refer applications to countries requesting volunteers.
D. They match all applicants to jobs very carefully.
50. The volunteer chosen to go out to a developing country.........................
A. must have experience of working overseas.
B. will quickly become an expert in the field.
C. will gain more knowledge about the world we live in.
D. must leave the country before it becomes independent.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. whirl B. wholesome C. whistle D. whither
2. A. yam B. yang C. Yank D. Yale
3. A. cross B. volunteer C. company D. follow
4. A. handicapped B. visited C. decided D. wanted
5. A. reach B. healthy C. weather D. pleasure
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. organization B. education C. disadvantage D. mountaineer
7. A. vehicular B. donation C. activity D. charity
8. A. vehicle B. themselves C. operate D. annual
9. A. information B. conversation C. development D. entertainment
10. A. fundraising B. performance C. organize D. family
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. The noise of the traffic prevented me from..................to sleep.

40
A. failing B. starting C. beginning D. going
12. My doctor .................. me to take up swimming as it is such good
exercise.
A. suggested B. proposed C. advised D. said
13. The burglar..................to open a window at the back of the house.
A. succeeded B. forced C. managed D. discovered
14. John's father told..................not to stay out late again.
A. him B. to him C. that he D. with him
15. They were..................for smuggling jewellery into the country.
A. judged B. arrested C. accused D. warned
16. Visitors are..................to beware of pickpockets.
A. commanded B. informed C. notified D. advised
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. have / nothing else / do / we / decide / go / walk.
A. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
B. To have nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
C. Having nothing else doing, we decided to go for a walk,
D. Not having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
32. she / spend / entire life / care / other people.
A. She spends her entire life caring for other people.
B. She spends her entire life on caring for other people.
C. She spends her entire life to care for other people.
D. She spends her entire life of caring for other people.
33. you / not see /pen /anywhere /you?
A. You don't see my pen anywhere, don't you?
B. You haven't seen my pen anywhere, don't you?
C. You haven't seen my pen anywhere, haven't you?
D. You haven't seen my pen anywhere, have you?

41
34. Helen / accuse / Frank / break / radio.
A. Helen accused Frank breaking her radio.
B. Helen accused Frank for breaking her radio.
C. Helen accused Frank of having broken her radio.
D. Helen accused Frank for having broken her radio.
35. He /find / talk /problems / difficult.
A. He finds it's difficult talking about his problems.
B. He finds he's talking about his problems is difficult.
C. He finds talking about his problems difficult.
D. He finds to talk about his problems difficult.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
VOL UNTEERS ABROAD
More and more young people are (36) ................... voluntary work abroad.
The wide variety of jobs and destinations (37) ...................is making it an
increasingly attractive option for those (38) ...................have just left school
and have a year free before university. Many choose to (39) ...................
these twelve months working in poor countries. There they will earn little
(40) ................... no money, but they will be doing something useful - and
enjoying the experience. The work may (41) ................... of helping local
communities, for example by (42) ................... to build new roads or provide
water supplies to isolated rural villages. Other projects may (43) ..................
more on conservation or environmental protection. (44) ................... kind of
job it is, though, it is certain to be (45) ................... and worthwhile, and an
experience that will never be forgotten.
36. A. doing B. making C. taking D. getting
37. A. redundant B. available C. abundant D. ready
38. A. who B. that C. whom D. whose

42
39. A. use B. have C. spend D. take
40. A. with B. but C. or D. and
41. A. consist B. include C. contain D. involve
42. A. suggesting B. helping C. contributing D. asking
43. A. attract B. assemble C. involve D. concentrate
44. A. Any B. What C. However D. Whatever
45. A. challenging B. dangerous C. difficult D. attracted

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Each nation has many good people who take care of others. For example,
some of high school and college students in the United States often spend
many hours as volunteers in hospitals, orphanages or home for the aged.
They read books to the people in these places, or they just visit them and
play games with them or listen to their problems.
Other young volunteers go and work in the homes of people who are sick or
old. They paint, clean up, or repair their houses, do their shopping or mow
their lawns. For boys who no longer have fathers there is an organization
called Big Brothers. College students and other men take these boys to
baseball games or on fishing trips and help them to get to know things that
boys usually learn from their fathers.
Each city has a number of clubs where boys and girls can go to play games
or learn crafts. Some of these clubs show movies or organize short trips to
the mountains, the beaches, museums or other places if interest. Most of
these clubs use a lot of high school and college students as volunteers
because they are young enough to remember the problems of younger boys
and girls.
Volunteers believe that some of the happiest people in the world are those
who help to bring happiness to others.

43
46. Where don't high school and college students often do volunteer work?
A. hospitals B. orphanages
C. homes for the aged D. clubs
47. What do volunteers usually do to help those who are sick or old in their
homes?
A. They mow lawns, do shopping and clean up their houses.
B. They cook, sew or wash their clothes.
C. They tell them stories and sing and dance for them.
D. They take them to baseball games.
48. What do they help the boys whose fathers do not live with them?
A. They help them get to know things about their fathers.
B. They help them get to know things that boys want from their fathers,
C. They help them learn things that boys usually learn from their fathers.
D. They help them learn things about their fathers.
49. Why do they use many high school and college students as volunteers?
A. Because they have a lot of time.
B. Because they can understand the problems of younger boys and girls.
C. Because they know how to do the work,
D. Because they are good at playing games and learning crafts.
50. What do volunteers believe? :;

A. In order to make others happy, they have-got to be unhappy.


B. The happiest people in the world are those who make themselves happy.
C. The happiest people in the world are those who are young and healthy.
D. Bringing happiness to others makes them the happiest people in the
world.

UNIT 5: ILLITERACY
PRACTICE TEST 1

44
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. pleasure B. please C. plead D. plea
2. A. blind B. blink C. blinker D. bliss
3. A. pretty B. pretend C. pretext D. prevail
4. A. bridge B. bright C. brigade D. brill
5. A. branch B. brand C. brash D. brake
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. program B. province C. country D. campaign
7. A. highland B. volunteer C. population D. transportation
8. A. technique B. effective C. literacy D. minority
9. A. gradually B. neighbourhood C. continue D. primary
10.A. eradicate B. honorable C. illiterate D. receiving
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. He..................his friends to go boating with him.
A. attracted B. persuaded C. appealed D. suggested
12. You will not succeed..................working harder.
A. without B. unless C. if D. although
13. You're..................your time trying to persuade him; he'll never help you.
A. wasting B. spending C. losing D. missing
14. The doctor advised him..................and to take up some sport.
A. stop smoke B. stop smoking
C. to stop smoking D. to stop to smoke
15. The conductor asked..................in the bus.
A. them to please not to smoke B. that they should not smoke

45
C. them not to smoke D. them to not smoke
16. My main.................to the new bypass. Is that it will spoil the countryside.
A. object B. objection C. objective D. objecting
17. The doctor told him..................sweets and chocolate to lose weight.
A. to keep at B. to keep off C. to keep back D. to keep up
18. There was no..................in waiting longer than half an hour, so we left.
A. good B. use C. worth D. point
19. If he phones,..................him to buy some potatoes on the way home.
A. remember B. recall C. recollect D. remind
20. I have told him never .................. here again.
A. come B. comes C. came D. to come
21. The most important thing we should do now is to tackle the problem of
widespread ...................
A. illiterate B. illiteracy C. literate D. literacy
22. We must struggle..................corruption within the party.
A. against B. from C. at D. for
23. "Where are the children?"
"I saw..................in the yard."
A. them playing B. they playing C. them to play D. they play
24. The company directors asked the local authorities to .................. in the
dispute and prevent an imminent strike.
A. intervene B. interact C. participate D. interpose
25. Not until the early 1900s..................to vote in the United States.
A. women were allowed B. they allowed women
C: were women allowed D. when women were allowed

II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.


26. David asked me telling him the time.
A B C D

46
27. They warned not to climb the mountain in such bad weather.
A B C D
28. They voluntarily spent their summer vacations to teach
A B
illiterate people to read and write .
C D
29. The policeman ordered the suspect to not remove his hands from the
A B C D
hood of the car.
30. When the bell rang, the students have left the class.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. "Could you lend me your pen?" Tom said to Jerry.
A. Tom asked Jerry to lend him her pen.
B. Tom asked to lend Jerry's pen.
C. Tom asked if Jerry could lend you her pen.
D. Tom asked if Jerry could lend her his pen.
32. "Right. I'll take the brown pair," Andrew said.
A. Andrew promised to take the brown pair.
B. Andrew wanted to take the brown pair.
C. Andrew agreed to take the brown pair.
D. Andrew asked to take the brown pair.
33. "If I were you. Bill, I'll buy the house, "Stephen said.
A. Stephen suggested Bill to buy the house.
B. Stephen advised Bill to buy the house.
C. Stephen promised Bill that he would buy the house.
D. Stephen forced Bill to buy the house.
34. "I'll definitely return it to you tomorrow," John said.

47
A. John said that he'll return it to me the next day.
B. John promised to return it to me the next day.
C. John told that he'll return it to me the next day.
D. John decided to return it to me the next day.
35. "Shall I carry your suitcase, Mary? " .said Peter.
A. Peter promised to carry Mary's suitcase.
B. Peter decided to carry Mary's suitcase.
C. Peter wanted to carry Mary's suitcase.
D. Peter offered to carry Mary's suitcase.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
Difficulties or differences?
(36) ................... has been much debate about the (37) .................."learning
difficulty" in recent years. While it is agreed that some children and adults
.do find it (38)...................difficult to learn than others, one wonders
(39) ................... these individuals actually have (40)...................learning, or
if they just learn differently. Research has shown, (41)..................., that the
minds of dyslexics do in fact operate in a different way to (42) ...................
of non-dyslexic people. They show increased activity (43) ...................
response to certain things where other people don't, especially
when (44)................... with graphics and design, which is (45) ..................
dyslexics often excel at the arts. Perhaps the difference then is more
important than the difficulty!

36. A. It B. This C. That D. There


B. word C. saying D. showing
37. A. expression
B. very C. more D. even
38. A. extremely B. whether C. that D. as

48
39. A. when B. obstacle C. hardship D. problem
40. A. difficulty B. but C. however D. also
B. that C. these D. those
41. A. though B.by C. in D. with
42. A. this B. solving C. discussing D. meeting
B. the reason C. for D. for reason
43. A. on
44. A. dealing
45. A. why

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Parents often have dreams for their children's future. They hope their
children will have a better life than they had. They dream that their children
will do things that they couldn't do. Parents who come to the U.S from
foreign countries hope their children will have better education here. They
think their children will have more career choices and more successful lives.
They make many sacrifices so that their children will have more
opportunities. They think their children will remain close to them because of
this. Some children understand and appreciate these sacrifices and remain
close to their parents. However, other children feel ashamed that their
parents are so different from other Americans.
46. Parents often dream of...................
A. their children's making a lot of money in the future
B. one day seeing their children become famous people
C. one day living on their children's money
D. a bright future for their children
47. Parents who come to the U.S from foreign countries hope that
A. their children will have, a lot of careers
B. their children will become successful directors
C. their children will have more opportunities for good education

49
D. their children will make a lot of sacrifices
48. Parents think their children will remain close to them because
A. they give their children a lot of money
B. of their sacrifices
C. they know their children will be successful in their lives
D. they are living in a foreign country
49. The word career in line 5 is closest in meaning to................
A. education . B. travel
C. subject D. profession
50. The word close in line 8 is closest in meaning to...................
A. dear B. friendly
C. helpful D. kind
PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. respect B. essential C. effective D. develop
2. A. took B. school C. soon D. moon
3. A. peak B. each C. great D. increase
4. A. teachers B. arrives C. textbooks D. combs
5. A. shortage B. sorrow C. important D. transport
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. northern B. throughout C. complete D. however
7. A. voluntary B. consider C. material D. effective
8. A. relevant B. mountainous C. regulation D. difficult
9. A. children B. cassette C. student D. textbook
10. A. important B. encourage C. performance D. regulation
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE

50
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. I hope you don't mind me..................so late at night.
A. telephone B. to telephone
C. to have telephoned D. telephoning
12. I'd be very..................to go to Japan one day.
A. enjoyable B. interested C. fond D. hopeful
13. If you saw a lawyer, he'd..................you to take legal action.
A. advise B. warn C. consider D. insist
14. Farmers look forward to..................every summer.
A. participate in the county fairs
B. have participated in the county fairs
C. participating in the county fairs
D. be participating in the county fairs
15. Professional people expect..................when it is necessary to cancel an
appointment.
A. you to call them B. that you would call them
C. your calling them D. that you are calling them
16...................me to phone them before I go out.
A. Remind B. remember C. Mention D. Make
17. He was unwilling to explain the reason..................his absence.
A. of B. that C. for D. why
18. I tried to..................them from going, but they wouldn't take any notice.
A. warn B. refuse C. prevent D. forbid
19. Could you..................me how to use this new telephone?
A. explain B. show C. remember D. say
20. I suggest we..................outside the cinema at 6.30 tomorrow.
A. meet B. meeting C. to meet D. will meet
21. She..................him of lying to her,

51
A. threatened B. blamed C. criticized D. accused
22. These buses are .................. to run every 15 minutes, but I've been
waiting here for 25 minutes already.
A. assumed B. promised C. presumed D. supposed
23. He likes to take..................in sport, not only to watch it.
A. practice B. part C. exercise D. place
24. I found the visit the most...................
A. educate B. educational C. education D. educationally
25. The company ran a successful advertising..................to promote its new
brand of washing power.
A. campaign B. tactics C. strategies D. propaganda
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. The number of people applying for the job have increased this year.
A B C D
27. He warned us to be careful of strangers and not go out at night.
A B C D
28. We were advised not drinking the water in the bottle.
AB C D
29. The teacher told us to keep quietly during the lesson.
A B C D
30. You'd not better swim too far from the shore.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. "Let me carry your suitcase, John!" Harry said.
A. Harry offered to carry John's suitcase.
B. Harry agreed to carry John's suitcase.
C. Harry insisted on carrying John's suitcase.
D. Harry decided to carry John's suitcase.

52
32. "Do you think you could help me. Sue?"
A. I asked Sue to think of helping me.
B. I asked Sue to think to help me.
C. I asked Sue to help me to think about it.
D. I asked Sue to think if she could help me.
33. "1 wouldn't buy that car, Janos, if I were you."
A. I advised Janos of buying the car.
B. I advised Janos not to buy the car.
C. I advised Janos not buying the car.
D. 1 advised Janos on my buying the car.
34. "Would you like to come to the cinema on Saturday, Pam?"
A. I invited Pam to go to the cinema on Saturday.
B. I wanted Pam to go to the cinema on Saturday.
C. I persuaded Pam to go to the cinema on Saturday.
D. I reminded Parn to go to the cinema on Saturday.
35. "Don't forget to post my letter, will you. Sue?" Diana said.
A. Diana reminded Sue not to forget to post her letter.
B. Diana reminded Sue about posting her letter.
C. Diana reminded Sue to remember to post her letter.
D. Diana reminded Sue to post her letter.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
Education and Your Future
Not everyone should follow a (n) (36).................. education after they leave
school. Today's world needs skilled workers (37) .................. academics. But
if you are someone who (38) .................. knowledge and wants to continue
studying, you have a big decision to (39) ..................regarding which
course to do. (40) .................. question which needs reflection is

53
(41) .................. this course will help you to get a job. Ask yourself what
skills you have and how much instruction you need. (42) ..................what
qualifications are available and necessary for your career (43) ...................
Try to make a choice that suits your (44) .................., that will bring you real
opportunities and that is practical. We (45) ..................all dream of becoming
famous pop stars, but that's actually not a realistic option for most of us!
36. A. formal B. official C. major D. essential
37. A. as well as B. with C. of D. even
38. A. traces B. studies C. seeks D. finds
39. A. have B. make C. come D. arrive
40. A. Other B. Others C. The other D. Another
41. A. what B. which C. why D. how
42. A. Point out B. Find out C. Identify D. Show
43. A. collection B. choice C. selection D. election
44. A. probabilities B. energies C. abilities D. possibilities
45. A. must B. should C. might D. could
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Most educational specialists believe that early schooling should provide
children with an awareness of their own abilities and the self-confidence to
use their abilities. One approach recognized by many experts as promoting
these qualities is the Montessori method, first practiced by Maria Montessori
of Italy in the early 1900s. Nancy McCormick Rambusch is credited with
popularising the method in the United States, where today there are over 400
Montessori schools.

The method helps children learn for themselves by providing them with
instructional materials and tasks that facilitate acts of discovery and
.manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their sense of

54
touch and learn how to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other
benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with
elements of science, music, and art.
46. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. To explain the role of early education in child development.
B. To describe, the development of the Montessori method.
C. To discuss the life and work of Maria Montessori.
D. To demonstrate how children learn social and cultural values.
47. According to the passage, who was first responsible for spreading the
Montessori method in the USA?
A. Nancy McCormick Rambusch.
B. A prominent educational expert.
C. Maria Montessori.
D. An administrator in the Department of Education.
48. Which of the following is not mentioned as a benefit of the Montessori
method?
A. Development of tactile senses.
B. Improvement of language ability.
C. Capacity to perform adult tasks.
D. Knowledge of arts and sciences.
49. The author of this passage probably feels that Montessori method
A. has little long-lasting benefit for children.
B. will lose its popularity in the United States.
C. does not accomplish what it claims to achieve.
D. is an effective means of child education.
50. The following paragraph most likely discusses
A. another educational approach beneficial to children.
B. details on the life of Maria Montessori.
C. additional practitioners of the Montessori method.

55
D. elements of science, music, and art.

UNIT 6: COMPETITIONS
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. twice B. twig C. twill D. twin
2. A. drove B. drop C. droplet D. dross
3. A. track B. trace C. traction D. tractor
4. A. trash B. travel C. trap D. traverse
5. A. twist B. twit C. twilight D. twitch
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. competition B. representative C. disappointed D. announcement
7. A. activity B. organise C. stimulate D. difficulty
8. A. participate B. maximum C. apologise D, enjoyment
9. A. annual B. problem C. within D. cheerful
10. A. remember B. marathon C. encourage D. performance
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. They had a really good chance of winning the national...................
A. compete B. competition
C. competitor D. competitive
12. We shall be competing .................some of the best teams in the country.
A. over B, against C. between D. beside
13. I...................to being treated like that.
A. don't like B. refuse C, complain D. object
14. Jack admitted..................the money.

56
A. steal B. to steal C. stealing D. stolen
15. I..................forgetting her name. What's she called?
A. keep B. stop C. mean D. risk
16. Suddenly..................hungry, he stopped to buy a bar of chocolate.
A. feeling B. having felt C. felt D. feels
17. He is very much looking forward..................visiting your country.
A. with B. to C. by D. at
18. It's no use..................a language if you don't try to speak it too.
A. to learn B. learning C. learned D. learn
19. My brother was..................the first prize.
A. rewarded B. judged C. won D. awarded
20. Don't..................him to arrive early. He's always late.
A. think B. judge C. hope D. expect
21. Thank you very much..................lending me your bike.
A. about B. in C. for D. of
22. 1..................Ann against giving the information.
A. forbade B. banned C. warned D. prevented
23. I wouldn't..................of going to a party I hadn't been invited to.
A. dream B. intend C. depend D. rely
24. I'm sorry but I forgot..................your letter. It's still here, in my pocket.
A. to post B. posting C. post D. that I posted
25. The child was told to..................for being rude to his uncle.
A. excuse B. forgive C. confess D. apologise
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

26. I only just managed to stop myself to shout at him.


A B C D
27. I'd like to thank your brother for your help.
A B C D

57
28. Mrs Allen was concerned about me having to drive so far every day
A B C D
29. Harry's advisor persuaded his taking several courses which did not
A B
involve much knowledge of mathematics .
C D
30. I approve of you to try to earn some money, but please don't neglect
A B C
your studies.
D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. "Well done, Jerry, you've passed the driving test"
A. I congratulated Jerry on passing her driving test.
B. I told that Jerry had passed her driving test.
C. I told Jerry that she had done well in her driving test.
D. I told Jerry about her passing the driving test.
32. "I'm really sorry for being late again," said Ann.
A. I felt sorry for Ann's being late again.
B. Ann was sorry for my being late again.
C. Ann excused for my being late again.
D. Ann apologized for being late again.
33. "How about spending the day at the beach?" said Tom.
A. Tom said he wanted to spend the day at the beach.
B. Tom suggested spending the day at the beach.
C. Tom insisted on spending the day at the beach.
D. Tom advised us to spend the day at the beach.
34. "No, I didn't take it! I wasn't even there!" said Daisy.
A. Daisy refused to be there to take it.

58
B. Daisy denied taking it.
C. I knew Daisy didn't take it because she wasn't there.
D. Daisy wasn't there, so who knew she took k or not.
35. I'm sorry that I didn't learn French when I was a student.
A. I regret not to learn French when I was a student.
B. I wish I learned French when I was a student.
C. I regret not learning French when I was a student.
D. I regret learning French when I was a student.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
GOING ON A GAME SHOW

One of my aunt Jean's biggest dreams became a (36) .................last week.


She had always wanted to be a contestant on a game show (37)..................
Money for Nothing because she says the presenter is very handsome. With
more than five million (38)..................a week, it is also the most
(39).................. game show on television. She (40).................. to be on this
show and was (41)...................She was very excited and, (42)..................the
big day came, she went to the television studios very early and she met the
producer of the show. When the show came on TV, I (43).................. imagine
her feelings about being there, (44) at home we were all anxious. She didn't
look at all nervous and (45) the end she won 10-000 and a car.
36. A. thing B. reality C. practice D. belief
37. A. known B. called C. regarded D. defined
38. A. viewers B. witnesses C. onlookers D. observers
39. A. general B. favourite C. ordinary D. popular
40. A. demanded B. insisted C. applied D. asked
41. A. approved B. complimented C. accepted D. received
42. A. when B. while C. which D. the time

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43. A. couldn't B. might not C. wouldn't D. may not
44. A. in fact B. indeed C. however D. but
45. A. at B. in C. by D. on
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
If you plan your visit in October, don't miss the Harvest Festival. The festival
offers a variety of activities for all age groups and interests. Children will
enjoy listening to traditional stones and learning folk dances. Adults will
enjoy the antique show and the crafts fair. Other attractions include a
celebration of musical heritage and demonstrations of traditional skills such
as candle making, butter churning, and bee keeping. The festival is held at
the County Fairgrounds, ten miles outside of town on Highway 64 West.
Space is available for you to park your car at the festival at no extra charge.
The admission fee of $2 for adults and $1 for children is donated to the
Preserve Our History Fund.
46. What does this notice describe?
A. A lecture B. A festival
C. A school . D. A parade
47. What activity is available for children?
A. Dancing B. Painting
C. Ball playing D. Singing
48. Which of the following activities isn't mentioned in the notice? A.
Butter churning and bee keeping B. Candle making
C. Cooking D. Dancing
49. How does the advertisement assume that people get to the fairgrounds?
A. Walk B. Drive a car
C. Take the subway D. Fly
50. What happens to the admission fee?
A. It is used to rent the fairgrounds.

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B. It pays the performers.
C. It pays for supplies.
D. It is donated to charity.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. troll B. tropical C. trombone D. trot
2. A. drift B. drink C. drive D. drill
3. A. twine B. twist C. twin D. twitter
4. A. dread B. dream C. dress D. dredge
5. A. trace B. tradition C. trade D. tragedy
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. award B. winner C. spirit D. total
7. A. sponsor B. explain C. observe D. recite
8. A. announce B. complete C. practise D. advance
9. A. athletics B. opportunity C. creative D. important
10. A. enthusiasm B. appointment C. participate D. altogether
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. The..................of poetry competition will be known today.
A. decision B. result C. effect D. choice
12. My secretary was..................to have typed those letters already.
A. asked B. ordered C. requested D. supposed
13. According:.................the map we should take the next turning on the
left.

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A. to B. as C. on D. by
14. She will .................getting up early and playing her radio very loud.
A. insist on B. demand C. require D. hope
15. I hope we will be able to avoid..................anyone.
A. disappoint B. disappointed
C. disappointing D. disappointment
16. How many countries will be..................in the Olympics Games?
A. attending B. participating C. taking place D. entering
17. The instructor warned the students..................sailing alone on the lake.
A. not B. about C. from D. out of
18. He suggested..................a jumble sale to try and raise money for the
scouts.
A. holding B. me to hold C. me that I held D. to be held
19. The manager..................the men to return to work immediately.
A. insisted B. suggested C. demanded D. ordered
20. She..................him of stealing her ring.
A. threatened B. blamed C. accused D. criticized
21. This..................is completely independent of any political affiliation.
A. organized B. organizing C. organization D. organized
22. Her mother prevented her..................going out tonight.
A. against B. from C. about D. at
23. Jim, why don't you take some time off? You.................too hard lately.
Take a short vacation.
A. work B. have been working
C. worked D. were working
24. Jean should seriously consider .................. an actress. She is a very
talented performer.
A. becoming B. to become C. become D, will become
25. I finally finished..................at 7.00 p.m. and served dinner.

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A. cooking B. to cook C. being cooked D. to be cooked
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. You can congratulate yourself about having done an excellent job.
A B C D
27. I decided changing jobs because my boss makes me work overtime.
A B C D
28. Most students appreciate their principal's try to improve school
A B C D
conditions.
29. I succeeded to find a job, so my parents didn't make me go to
A B C D

college.
30. Get more exercise appears to be the best way to lose weight.
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31 . Peter / apologise / break / vase.
A. Peter apologised for breaking the vase.
B. Peter apologised because of breaking the vase.
C. Peter apologised to breaking the vase.
D. Peter apologised because of broken vase.
32. Mary / suggest / go / Paris / weekend.
A. Mary suggested going to Paris for the weekend.
B. Mary suggested us to go to Paris for the weekend.
C. Mary suggested that we would go to Paris for the weekend.
D. Mary suggested us for going to Paris for the weekend.
33. Inspector / accuse / him / steal /jewels.
A. The inspector accused him of stealing the jewels.
B. The inspector accused him of having stolen the jewels.

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C. The inspector accused him for stealing the jewels.
D. A & B.
34. He / insist I see '/ manager.
A. He insisted to see the manager.
B. He insisted on seeing the manager.
C. He insisted that he must see the manager.
D. He insisted that he sees the manager.
35. George / never / admit / he / wrong.
A. George would never admit of being wrong.
B. George would never admit to be wrong.
C. George would never admit to being wrong.
D. George would never admit about his being wrong.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
My best friend Jenny (36) .................. on a television quiz show a few nights
ago. It was very exciting. We all knew that she (37) .................. be on, so all
our friends met at her parents' house to watch it. Her parents videoed it too,
of course. The programme (38) ................. at half past seven. We screamed
and clapped when we saw Jenny. She looked great. She had
(39)..................her hair done, and was wearing the new top she had bought
the day before. She sat in the chair in the middle of the studio while the
(40) .................. asked her some questions. The questions got harder and
harder as they increased in (41)...................If she didn't make any mistakes
and get the most difficult question right, she would (42)..................a million
pounds. By this time, Jerry had won a thousand pounds. That was definitely
hers, (43).................. happened. She answered the next question correctly,
which was (44) .................. five thousand pounds. I didn't know the answer,
but she did know!

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Then, with the next question, she (45) .................. a risk but got the answer
wrong. She was gone out of the game. Still, she had her thousand pounds,
and we were very proud of her.
36. A. appeared B. turned C. presented D. participated
37. A. might B. should C. would D. could
38. A. set B. started C. arose D. rose
39. A. got B. had C. asked D. made
40. A. presenter B. leader C. producer D. director
41. A. value B. cost C. award D. difficulty
42. A. get B. take C. make D. win
43. A. how B. however C. what D. whatever
44. A. cost B. worthy C. worth D. worthwhile
45. A. got B. took C. made D. had
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Are you nervous about climbing because you think it's too dangerous? Do
you feel you're not fit enough to climb? Do you know how to start climbing?
Let's consider the idea that climbing is dangerous. Being afraid is natural, but
if you use suitable ropes and other climbing equipment you will feel
completely safe. Climbers are usually very careful because they know what
they are doing is dangerous. Accidents happen, but when they do, they tend
to attract a lot of publicity. As a result, people think there are many more
accidents than there are in reality.
You cannot expect to start climbing straight away. Climbing is a challenge
and challenges take time. It is essential first of all that you achieve a good
level of fitness. Begin as soon as you become interested in climbing - go to
the gym, go swimming, take up jogging and continue to do so throughout
your training period.

65
Discover as much as you can about climbing. Visit the library and find books
especially for beginners or buy climbing magazines and look for articles
which describe your situation. Look up information on the Internet. Find out
about equipment, methods and places to go.
Next, take a course on a climbing wall. There are plenty of climbing walls all
over the country which have trained and qualified people as instructors.
Contact your local leisure centre to find out if there is one in your area.
These training sessions are a quick way to get experience and you are likely
to meet other beginners. After this, you can do an outside course or join a
club where you can meet climbers of all abilities and eventually join in
group-climbing events.
At first you may not understand the importance of a good training period, but
after you have completed your first climb and you are standing safely at the
top of a rock feeling thrilled, then you will know it was the right thing to do.
46. The article is written by...................
A. an experienced climber B. a journalist
C. a beginner D. a fitness instructor
47. Why according to the writer do people think climbing is so dangerous?
A. There are so many climbing accidents.
B. Climbers are usually very careless.
C. When there is an accident, it is given a lot of attention.
D. Climbers often don't use the right equipment.
48. The writer thinks a new climber should...................
A. start a training programme immediately
B. begin by becoming fit
C. give up sport once they've started training
D. climb a rock straight away
49. By climbing walls you can...................

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A. meet more experienced climbers B. train to become an instructor C. take
part in climbing events D. gain controlled experience
50. What does // (in the last line) refer to?
A. the training B. the achievement
C. the climb D. the equipment

UNIT 7: WORLD POPULATION


PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. clean B. cleanse C. cleave D. cleat
2. A. glad B. gland C. glare D. glass
3. A. grub B. gruff C. grumble D. gruel
4. A. crow B. crown C. crowd D. crowded
5. A. quick B. quid C. quiet D. quickie
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. increased B. figure C. expect D. support
7. A. scientist B. family C. billion D. amount
8. A. population B. university C. available D. international
9. A. necessary B. however C. continue D. explosion
10. A. insurance B. encouragement C. important D. properly
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. If you..................a headache, you should take an aspirin.
A. '11 have B. have C. had D. are having
12. What's..................of your country?

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A. populate B. population B. populous D. popular
13. I feel very tired. At times I..................giving up work.
A. consider B. think C. suppose D. mean
14. The cost of..................has risen greatly over recent years.
A. live B. living C. life D. lives
15. What would Tom do if he..................the truth?
A. would know B. knows C. has known D. knew
16. After the water workers went on strike there was a..................of water.
A. drainage B. loss C. shortage D. decrease
17. If I.................. you were sick, I would have called sooner.
A. have known B. had known
C. would have known D. know
18. Asia..................by most experts to be the cradle of human civilization.
A. has always been considered B. has been always considered C.
always has been considered D. has been considered always
19. If you want to go skiing in the South,..................to Black Mountain.
A. you go B. you'll go C. go D. you went
20. If we invited you, would you come? - Of course I...................
A. do B. would have C. am D. would
21. The noise of the traffic prevented me from..................to sleep.
A. beginning B. starting C. falling D. going
22. If he hadn't asked for the toy, she...................
A. didn't buy it B. wouldn't buy it
C. wouldn't have bought it D. shouldn't have bought it
23. You can use my bicycle..................you bring it back tomorrow.
A. although B. nevertheless C. as long as D. in spite of
24. When she..................her mistakes she apologized.
A. realized B. was realizing C. did realize D. has realized

68
25. If you..................told us about the bad service, we would have eaten
there.
A. hadn't B. haven't C. didn't D. wouldn't have
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. If you were here yesterday, you would have seen Jean.
A B C D
27. Unless we work harder, we will finish it on time .
A B C D
28. You should visit that part of the country when it will be spring.
A B C D
29. The children wish that they have more free time to play football.
A B C D
30. John decided buying a new car in the morning, but in the afternoon
A B C
he changed his mind.
D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. He won't find a seat unless he's got a ticket.
A. He will only get a seat if he has a ticket.
B. He can't find a seat although he has a ticket.
C. He will be able to get a ticket if he finds a seat.
D. He has got a ticket and so will find a seat.
32. I'll call her if you give me her phone number
A. I know her phone number, but I haven't called her.
B. You gave me her phone number, and I called her.
C. I don't know her phone number, so I can't call her yet.
D. I'll look up her phone number and call her.
33. The teacher said, "You must work harder, Bob, or you won't get far."

69
A. The teacher told Bob to go away but not very far.
B. Bob must work harder or he'll become ill.
C. If Bob doesn't work harder, he won't get a good job.
D. If Bob works any harder, he'll become ill.
34. "I'm sorry I didn't phone you earlier," Mary said.
A. Mary apologised for not phoning me later.
B. Mary apologised for not phoning me earlier.
C. Mary apologised for not having a telephone to contact me earlier.
D. Mary apologised not phoning me earlier.
35. He failed the driving test because he didn't keep calm.
A. Had he kept calmer, he wouldn't have failed the driving test.
B. If he kept calmer, he wouldn't have failed the driving test.
C. If he kept calmer, he would pass the driving test.
D. Had he kept calmer, he wouldn't fail the driving test.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
THE NIGHTMARE OF POPULATION GROWTH
One of the most (36)..................problems facing us now is the need to
control population growth so that people in the twenty-first century stand a
chance of survival. Although the birth rate in developed countries has fallen,
it (37) .................. to rise in poorer countries as a result of better medical
care. It is1 hard to understand the phenomenal growth in population that has
(38)..................place this century. Around the first century A.D. there
(39).................. probably between 250 and 350 million people in the world.
Sixteen centuries later, the number had risen to only 500 million.
(40).................., for more than three quarters of time between Christ and the
present day, world population (41) .................. rose.

70
Then, slowly, the rise began. By 1900 it was 1,500 million. Now it is 4,700
million. The increase in the past 65 years - less than the average life-time of
an English person today - has equaled the entire increase in the previous
100,000 years of human existence. (42).................., the rate of increase, now
close to twenty per cent a decade, is still shooting up. According to United
Nations estimates, the population of the world will have risen to
(43) .................. 6,000 million by the end of the century. While the rate of
increase is only seven per cent a decade in Western Europe, in many
developing countries it is (44)..................twenty-five and thirty per cent.
Obviously, population control will be one of the biggest problems facing the
twenty-first century. Despite all the (45) ..................signs, too little is being
done too late.
36. A. necessary B. urgent C. great D. big
37. A. keeps B. continues C. goes on D. keeps on
38. A. taken B. hold C. got D. kept
39. A. could B. would C. were D. had
40. A. Therefore B. That's why C. Nevertheless D: Moreover
41. A. not B. nor C. neither D. hardly
42. A. Addition B. As well C. Therefore D. What is more
43. A. above B. more C. over D. than
44. A. about B. within C. between D. from
45. A. informing B. warning C. cautious D. forbidden
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
The population of the world has increased more in modern times than in all
other ages of history combined. World population totaled about 500 million
in 1650. It doubled in the period from 1650-1850. Today the population is
more than five billion. Estimates based on research by the United Nations

71
indicate that it will more than double in the twenty-five years between 1915
and the year 2000, reaching seven billion by the turn of the century.
No one knows the limits of population that the earth can support. Thomas
Malthus, an English economist, developed a theory that became widely
accepted in the nineteenth century. He suggested that because world
population tended to increase more rapidly than the food supply, a continual
strain was exerted upon available resources. Malthus cited wars, famines,
epidemics, and other disasters as the usual limitations of population growth.
With recent advances in science and technology, including improved
agriculture methods and great strides in medicine, some of the limiting
factors in population growth have been lessened, with obvious results.
International organizations have put forward several recommendations to
alleviate the problem of overpopulation, including an increase in food
production, genera! economic development in target areas, and a decrease in
birth rates. Most experts agree that it will be necessary to combine all three
recommendations in an effort to effect a lasting solution.
46. The title below that best expresses the ideas in this passage is..................
A. Thomas Malthus's Theory
B. The United Nations' Estimate
C. Limiting Factors in Population Growth
D. A Brief History of Population and Overpopulation
47. World population doubled in the years between..................................
A. 500-1650 B. 1650-1850 C. 1650-today D. 1850-2000
48. According to this passage, by the year 2000 the earth's population should
exceed the present figure by how much?
A. 500 million. B. Five billion. C. Two billion. D. Seven billion.
49. According this passage, why has overpopulation been caused? A.
Improved technology B. Disasters.
C. Scarcity. D. Precaution

72
50. What do most experts recommend in order to solve problems of
overpopulation?
A. Famine and epidemic.
B. Medical advanced and improved agricultural methods.
C. Economic development and a decline in the birth rate.
D. Conservation of available resources.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. crash B. crass C. crate D. craps
2. A. ground B. group C. grouse D. grout
3. A. quality B. qualm C. quandary D. quantity
4. A. probably B. population C. gold D. hospital
5. A. farming B. answer C. faster D. other
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. method B. control C. standard D. limit
7. A. because B. percent C. metal D. instead
8. A. government B. discussion C. condition D. expensive
9. A. aware B. explain C. behave D. women
10. A. educate B. solution C. happiness D. continent
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. In many ways, she..................me of someone I knew at school.
A. remembers B. reminds C. recalls D. resembles
12. My glasses are in my book bag, but I don't remember..................there.

73
A. putting B. I had put C. to put D. put
13. I've got a terrible hangover. If only I..................that fourth bottle of
wine.
A. hadn't drunk B. didn't drink
C. wouldn't drink D. don't drink
14. The situation has..................considerably since the New Year.
A. decreased B. lessened C. lowered D. worsened
15. He takes a great interest..................community activities.
A. for B. at C. in D. about
16...................it rains very hard, the streets flood.
A. If B. During C. Always D. Unless

17. Many companies..................to take part in the illegal logging.


A. denied B. protested C. refused D. rejected
18. We'll be late unless we..................now.
A. leave B. don't leave C. left D. had left
19. The colour of the handle does not matter..................it is the right size.
A. nevertheless B. as long as C. although D. despite
20. If I..................you, I'd call and apologize.
A. am B. were C. would be D. was
21. Having been served lunch,...................
A. the committee members discussed the problem.
B. the problem was discussed by the members of committee.
C. it was discussed by the committee members about the problems.
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
22. Jennifer has trouble with college math. She wishes she........more in high
school.
A. studied B. studies C, had studied D. has studied
23. To get a passport, you must send in your birth...............and two photos.

74
A. license B. paper C. card D. certificate
24. Jake will win the election if he..................harder.
A. will campaign B. would campaign
C. campaigned D, campaigns
25. He saw a young woman..................on the pavement outside the shop.
A. stood B. to stand C. standing D. was standing
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. If I will have to make a difficult decision, I always discuss it with
A B C D
my friends.
27. We could had done more if we had had more time.
A B C D
28. They wish they are able to spend more time in London.
A B C D
29. Of my opinion, this book is much better than that one.
A B C D
30. He should ever call again, please tell him that I am not at home.
A B C D
HI. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. if/ you / get / wet / change / clothes / immediate.
A. If you get wet, you should change your clothes immediately.
B. If you got wet, you should change your clothes immediately.
C. If you get wet, you would change your clothes immediately.
D. If you got wet, you changed your clothes immediately.
32. if 7 Jim / not miss /plane / be / here now.
A. If Jim hadn't missed the plane, he would have been here by now.
B. If Jim didn't miss the plane, he would have been here by now.
C. If Jim hadn't missed the plane, he would be here by now.

75
D. If Jim hadn't missed that plane, he had been here by now.
33. / / lend I you / money / condition /you /pay I back / next week.
A. I'll lend you the money on condition that you paid it back next week.
B. I'd lend you the money on condition that you pay it back next week.
C. I'll lend you the money on condition that you pay it back next week.
D. I'd lend you the money on condition that you'd pay it back next week.
34. If/I/have/money/I/buy/a new suit.
A. If I have had the money, I would have bought a new suit.
B. Had I had the money, I would have bought a new suit.
C. If I had the money, I would have bought a new suit.
D. Had I had the money, I would buy a new suit.
35. If7 you / happen I be / London / chance / come /'see me.
A. If you were in London by chance, come and see me.
B. If you happen to be in London by chance, come and see me.
C. If you had a chance to be in London, come to see me.
D. If you are in London, you have a chance to come and see me.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
China is the most (36) .................. country of the world. (37)................
population is approximately 1.3 million, (38)..................is almost 22% of the
world population. The density is (39)..................in the southeast: 43 per cent
of the (40)..................contains (41)..................its population. A quarter
(42)................. the population of China is in the middle and lower
(43)..................of the Yangtze River, and the population density
(44) .................. 663 people per square kilometre. Shanghai is China's largest
city, (45)..................population density reaches 2,118 people per square
kilometre.
36. A. populous B. dense C. large D. busy

76
37. A. This B. That C. Its D. Their
38. A. whose B. which C. that D. this
39. A. big B. high C. great D. large
40. A. area B. region C. land D. soil
41. A. many B. a lot C. a few D. most of
42. A. with B. to C. in D. of
43. A. portions B. sites C. parts D. zones
44. A. obtains B. reaches C. attains D, gains
45. A. whose B. Which C. of which D. with
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
The nuclear family, consisting of a mother, father, and their children f may
be more an American ideal than an American reality. Of course, the so-called
traditional American family was always more varied than we had been led to
believe, reflecting the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious
customs among different American groups.
The most recent government statistics reveal that only about one third of all
current American families fit the traditional mold and another third consists
of married couples who either have no children or have none still living at
home. Of the final one third, about 20 percent of the total number of
American households are single people, usually women over sixty-five years
of age. A small percentage, about 3 percent of the total, consists of unmarried
people who choose to live together; and the rest, about 7 percent, are single,
usually divorced parents, with at least one child.
46. With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The traditional American family.
B. The nuclear family.
C. The ideal family.
D. The current American family

77
47. The author implies that...................
A. there has always been a wide variety of family arrangements in the United
States
B. racial, ethnic, and religious groups have preserved the traditional family
structure
C. the ideal American family is the best structure
D. fewer married couples are having children
48. Who generally constitutes a one-person household?
A. A single in his twenties.
B. A single woman in her late sixties.
C. An elderly man.
D. A divorced woman,
49. According to the passage, married couples whose children have grown
or who have no children represent...................
A. 7 percent of households
B. 20 percent of households
C. 33, 3 percent of households
D. 3 percent of households
50. The word "current" in line 7 is closest in meaning to...................
A. present B. contemporary
C. now D. modern

UNIT 8: CELEBRATIONS
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS

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I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. flap B. flash C. flat D. flare
2. A. flop B. floral C. flog D. flock
3. A. flame B. flan C. flank D. flatter
4. A. frond B. front C. frost D. froth
5. A. thrash B. thread C. threat D. thresh
11. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. decorate B. pagoda C. relative D. calendar
7. A. celebration B. traditional C. entertainment D. preparation
8. A. occasion B. important C. excitement D. January
9. A. between B. banner C. colour D. special
10. A. however B. nowadays C. popular D..influence
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11...................was the day before yesterday.
A. The France's Independence day
B. The day of the French independence
C. French's Independence Day
D. France's Independence Day.
12. No one likes snakes,..................?
A. do they B. don't they C. do you D. don't you
13. Don't forget our appointment. You'd better put it in your...................
A. agenda B. diary C. calendar D. directory

14. As long as they..................stay for more than a few days, they can sleep
at my flat.
A. don't B. didn't C. shan't D. wouldn't

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15. Their flat is..................in a tasteful combination of colours.
A. ornamented B. decorated C. embellished D. equipped
16. The news of Julia's engagement caused great...................
A. excite B. excited C. exciting D. excitement
17. This sort of music was very................ in the 1940s.
A. preferred B. liked C. favourite D. popular
18. The child was told to eat all his vegetables or.................. he would get
no ice-cream.
A. in case B. else C. instead D. in fact
19. She wrapped the birthday present in paper and tied it with ...............
A. wire B. string C. rope D. line
20. We need to do some shopping. There isn't.................in the fridge.
A. anything B. nothing C. something D. thing
21. On one..................he rang me in the middle of the night.
A. time B. moment C. occasion D. chance
22. You can have..................you like,
A. anything B. whatever C. A or B D. Jone is correct
23. She was busy..................the letters.
A. type B. to type C. at typing D. typing
24. I've lost my bag and I can't find it...................
A. anywhere B. somewhere C. nowhere D. everywhere
25. Bank Chung is made..................sticky rice, green beans and patty pork.
A. of B. from C. with D. by
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

26. Someone spoke to me, but I can't remember its name.


A B C D
27. There isn't nobody waiting for me, isn't there?
A B C D

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28. Anyone stole the money, but we don't know who.
A B C D
29. Someone is waiting for you. They're been waiting for some time.
A B C D
30. Noone helped John to cook the food.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. The box isn't empty.
A. There's something in the box.
B. The box is something.
C. There isn't anything in the box.
D. There's nothing in the box.
32. I know Mary better than anyone.
A. No one knows Mary who is better than me.
B. I don't know anyone who is better than Mary.
C. No one knows Mary better than I do.
D. I know that Mary is better than anyone else.
33. No one replied when I phoned.
A. When I phoned, there was no signal.
B. When I phoned, there was no reply.
C. When I phoned, there was nobody else.
D. When I answered the phone, there was a reply.
34. You had a call this morning,
A. You were on the phone this morning.
B. You bought a telephone this morning.
C. You had a telephone this morning.
D. Someone called you this morning.
35. We haven't got any food.

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A. We've got nothing to eat.
B. There're nothing to eat.
C. We haven't got nothing to eat. /
D. A & B.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
THE BIRTHDAY PRESENT
My 15-year-old sister asked me to lend my CD player (36) .................. her
but f didn't want to as she never takes (37) ................ of things she borrows.
I thought I should (38)..................to her why I couldn't let her have it.
(39) .................., I had made a promise to myself not to (40)..................with
her and, seeing that her birthday was approaching, I didn't want to
(41)..................her. And I also had to get her a present. Then a friend of mine
(42).................. a great idea to me. I bought a CD player for her birthday. I
went to the Post Office and (43).................. it to her. Some days later, as I
wrote her an (44)..................birthday card on the Internet, I got a text
(45)...................It read: "You're the best sis in the world! Thank you! xxx".
She had got it.
36. A. to B. for C. with D. towards
B. notes C. care D. attention
37. A. notice
B. tell C. teach D. explain
38. A. show B. However C. But D. Despite
39. A. Although B. debate C. talk D. chat
B. disturb C. bother D. annoy
40. A. argue B. got C. suggested D. demanded
41. A. upset B. transferred C. gave D. sent
B. electrical C. electric D. electronics
42. A. required
B. message C. letter D. note
43. A. delivered
44. A. electronic
45. A. memo

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II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Independence Day in the United States is observed annually on the Fourth of
July. For most communities throughout the nation, the traditional celebration
includes parades down the main streets, picnics with hot dogs and lemonade,
and, of course, a fireworks display at night. In some towns across the
country, however, special events are planned in honor of the occasion. In
Bristol, Rhode Island, fire engine teams from communities throughout New
England compete in a contest to squirt water from their fire hoses. Flagstaff,
Arizona hosts a huge three-day powwow, including a rodeo, for twenty
Native American tribes. The annual Eskimo games with traditional Kayak
races are held in Kotzebue, Alaska. Two auto races are always scheduled for
the Fourth, including a four-hundred-mile stock car event at the Daytona
International Speedway in Daytona, Florida, and an annual auto race up the
fourteen-thousand-foot precipice at Pike's Peak in Colorado.
Several small towns celebrate in other unique ways. Hannibal, Missouri, the
hometown of Mark Twain, invites the children to participate in a fence-
painting contest, re-enacting a scene from Twain's novel "Tom Sawyer",
Lititz, Pennsylvania congregates in the Lititz Springs Park to light thousands
of candles and arrange them in various shapes and images.
In Ontario, California, the townspeople combine the traditional with the
unusual by setting up tables along Euclid Avenue for what they describe as
"the biggest picnic table in the world". In this way, everyone in town has a
front-row seat for the two-mile parade.
46. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Traditional celebrations for the Fourth of July.
B. Holidays in the United States.
C. The origin of Independence Day.

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D. Small towns in America.
47. How is Independence Day observed in Ontario, California?
A. By hosting a powwow and rodeo.
B. By sponsoring a stock car event.
C. By squirting water from fire hoses.
D. By setting up tables along the parade route.
48. The author mentions all of the following as ways the Fourth of July is
celebrated except...................
A. Parades B. Races C. Dances D. Fireworks
49. The word "huge" in line 8 could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. exciting B. amusing C. complicated D. large
50. The word "them" in line 19 refers to...................
A. shapes B. candles C. children D. images

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. flight B. flimsy C. flinch D. fling
2. A. friction B. Friday C. fridge D. fricative
3. A. fructose B. frump C. frustrate D. frugal
4. A. throne B. throng C. throttle D. throb
5. A. frigate B. fright C. frigid D. frill
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from
that of the others.
6. A. firework B. flower C. lucky D. receive
7. A. blossom B. candied C. believe D. member
8. A. happy B. themselves C. various D. vary
9. A. activity B. festival C. holiday D. celebrate
10. A. similarity B. interesting C. Thanksgiving D. constancy
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE

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I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. Although he hasn't said..................he seems to be upset about it.
A. something B. anything C. nothing D. everything
12. We would very much..................a reply by the end of the month.
A. expect B. require C. ask D. value
13...................amount of money can buy true friendship.
A. No B. Never C. None D. Not only
14. I would like to offer a small reward to...............who finds my missing
dog.
A. someone B. anyone C. no one D. those
15. He plays an active..................in politics until he well over 80.
A. scene B. job C. position D. part
16. The party,...............I was the guest of honour, was extremely enjoyable.
A. by which B. for which C. to which D. at which
17. My wife and 1 have much pleasure in..................the invitation to your
daughter's wedding.
A. taking B. accepting C. thanking D. welcoming
18. I wouldn't..................of going to a party I hadn't been invited to.
A. intend B. dream C. rely D. depend
19. It's my birthday - let's..................!
A. celebrate B. have C. hold D. organize
20. Many people go to the pagoda to .................. for a happy year for
themselves and their family.
A. pray B. long C. desire D. ask
21. Can you please check that..................has got a ticket?
A. someone B. anyone C. no one D. everyone
22. It's time you..................your homework.
A. do B. did C. would do D. had done

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23. I would have changed my flight if..................you were too busy to meet
me at the airport.
A. I knew B. I know
C. I'd known D. I'd have known
24. You really..................come to our birthday party. There's going to be a
brilliant disco.
A. must B. need C. ought D. will
25. No one knows the answer,..................?
A. don't they B. do they C. does it D. do you
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. Someone would tell me the answer, so I guessed.
A B C D
27. There're someone wanting to see you outside.
A B C D
28. Someone phoned, and I told her you were out.
A B C D
29. I had not done much more work since I talked to you on Wednesday.
A B C D

30. He did not expect us to comment on his newly decorating office.


A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. anyone / believe /ghost / a bit / crazy!
A. Anyone who believes in ghosts is a bit crazy!
B. Anyone who believe in ghosts are a bit crazy!
C. Anyone believes in ghosts is a bit crazy!
D. Anyone believes in ghosts which are a bit crazy!
32. there / something /1 / like / ask /you.

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A. There has something I'd like to ask you.
B. There's something I'd like to ask you.
C. There're something I'd like to ask you.
D. There's something I'd like to ask for you about.
33. what /you /do I if / you I have/ wings?
A. What will you do if you have wings?
B. What would you do if you had wings?
C. What would you do if you have wings?
D. What will you do if you had wings?
34. /// someone /phone / tell / him / her f call / back / after 7 p. m.
A. If someone phoned me, tell him call her to meet me after 7 p.m.
B. If someone phoned me, tell him and her to call me back after 7 p.m.
C. If someone phoned me, tell him or her about calling back after 7 p.m.
D. If someone phoned me, tell him or her to call me back after 7 p.m.
35. Agrarian people /depend / lunar calendar / manage / crops.
A. Agrarian people depending on the lunar calendar and manage their crops.
B. Agrarian people depend on the lunar calendar managing their crops.
C. Agrarian people depend on the lunar calendar to manage their crops.
D. Agrarian people who depend on the lunar calendar to manage their crops.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
I am going to a wedding (36) ..................Saturday. My great friend, Marie,
and her fianc, George, are (37).................. married. They have known each
other (38) .................. five years, but they have only been going out together
a short time. I must say, we were all rather (39) ..................when they
announced that they were engaged. The wedding will be in the church near
Marie's home and (40) ..................there will be a party in the Church Hall.
There will be almost a hundred (41) .................. at the party. Besides both

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(42) .................. families, all Marie's friends from college will be at the
wedding and Marie and George have also (43) .................. a lot of people
from the office where they both (44) ...................The party should be great
fun. There will be lots of food and drink. There is also going to be a band.
We all expect that it will go on (45)..................late in the evening.
36. A. last B. next C, at D. from
37. A. becoming B. having C. going D. getting
38. A. after B. until C. for D. before
B. surprised C. amazing D. shocking
39. A. delightful B. yet C. however D. because
40.A. afterwards B. guests C. members D. crowds
41. A. visitors B. their C. her D. his
B. discussed C. met D. invited
42. A. couple B. employ C. leave D. manage
43. A. called B. after C. until D. while
44. A. work
45. A. during

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
In Britain wedding invitations go out about six weeks before the wedding
day. The guests reply as soon as possible to say if they can or cannot come.
Choosing a present for the couple can be difficult. People don't take their
presents for the wedding. They send them to the woman's house before the
wedding day. Most weddings take place before lunch or in the early
afternoon. Many people like to get married in church. The bride often wears
a. long white dress. Guests wear their best clothes and most of the women
wear hats. In the church, the bride's family sits on the left and the groom's
family sits on the right.
Married people wear their wedding rings on the third finger of the left hand.
Most married women wear wedding rings, but married men often do not.

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46. If you receive a wedding invitation, you ought to give...........................
A. no reply B. a polite reply
C. a formal reply D. an immediate reply
47. People usually send their presents................................
A. to the woman's house B. to the groom's house
C. to the church D. to the house of matchmaker
48. "Bride" refers to.................................
A. a man who is on his wedding day
B. a woman who is on her wedding day
C. a woman who is engaged to a man
D. a man who is engaged to a woman
49. Many people like to hold their wedding ceremony................................
A. at home B. in a hotel C. outdoors D. in church
50. According to the passage, which of the following is not TRUE?
A. The couple send out their invitations weeks before they get married.
B. People who accept the invitations have to send presents to the couple.
C. Woman without a ring on the third finger of her right hand must not have
been married.
D. It is difficult to choose the present for the couple.

UNIT9: THE POST OFFICE


PRACTICE TEST 1 A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. spacious B. advance C. shape D. favourite
2. A. speed B. cheap C. sleep D. stead
3. A. service B. surface C. deliver D. early
4. A. question B. suggest C. best D. stand
5. A. schiller B. school C. schema D. scheme

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II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. technology B. equipment C. pleasant D, express
7. A. deliver B. quickly C. document D. daily
8. A. transferring B. magazine C. facsimile D. subscribe
9. A. transmission B. convenient C. recipient D. maximum
10. A. favourite B. newspaper C. ordinary D. advance
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. This post office is............................with advanced technology.
A. equipped B. given C. crowded D. full
12. The parcel will be sent to your friend............................24 hours.
A. for B. at C. in D. during
13. The........................and secure service of transferring money are useful
and convenient.
A. faster B. quickly C. rapidly D. speedy
14. This letter should be sent........................post.
A. by B. on C. in D. through
15. The restaurant.....................has just opened has a famous chef.
A. whose B. who C. it D. that
16. Mr. Pike could not find his telephone....................., so he borrowed one
from Ms. Rocher.
A. directory B. booklet C. manual D. brochure
17. We finally managed to.....................her to come with us.
A. suggest B. insist C. persuade D. attract
18. If you want to send a document and do not want to lose its.....................
shape, our facsimile service will help you.
A. initial B. beginning C. starting D. original

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19. People in my office exchange cards with.....................during the
holidays.
A. ourselves B, one another C. each one D. themselves
20. They gave me their address..................... send them letters.
A. so that I B. in order to
C. so that I could D. in order that I will
21. Can you deliver this letter.....................hand?
A. by B. in C. with D. on
22. This is Mr Jones,.....................invention has helped hundreds of deaf
people.
A. which B. that C. whose D. whom
23. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one.
Television is......................
A. other B. another C. the other D. others
24. He put the two letters into the wrong envelopes.....................mistake.
A. with B. in C. by D. for
25. This school is only for children.....................first language is not
English.
A. who B. whose C. which D. that
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. The girl is standing over there is from Australia.
A B C D
27. This is the boy who sister studied with me in high school.
A B C D
28. Sydney, which I live, is a very beautiful place.
A B C D
29. I don't know the name of the woman who I met yesterday at the station.
A B C D
30. I met Tom's mother, that works at the university.

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A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. Sue lives in the house which is opposite my house.
A. Sue lives in the house on the opposite side.
B. Sue lives in the opposite house.
C. Sue's house is the opposite one.
D. The house where Sue lives is opposite my house.
32. The reason why she refused to meet me was that she was angry with me.
A. She was angry with me so she refused to meet me.
B. She was angry with me; that's why she refused to meet me.
C. She refused to meet me because she was angry with me.
D. All are correct.
33. Hue Post Office is equipped with advanced technology.
A. They equipped Hue Post Office with advanced technology,
B. They equipped advanced technology for Hue Post Office.
C. They equip Hue Post Office with advanced technology.
D. They equip advanced technology to Hue Post Office.
34. He's getting them to post these letters.
A. He's having these letters to post.
B. He's having these letters posted.
C. He's having these letters be posted.
D. He's having to post these letters.
35. That's the man whose car I borrowed.
A. That's the man from who I borrowed the car.
B. That's the man from whom I borrowed the car.
C. That's the man from that I borrowed the car.
D. That's the man the car of which I borrowed.
C. READING

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I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
Can you imagine what life would be like if there were no telephone? You
could not call (36)..................your friends on the phone and talk to them. If
fire (37)..................out in your house you could not call the fire department.
If somebody was sick, you could not call a doctor. In our daily life we need
to (38)..................with one another. We need do this mostly by speaking to
other people and listening to (39) ..................they have to say to us, and
when you are close (40) .................them you can do this very easily.
However, our voices will not travel very far even when we shout. The man
who (41)..................this possible was Alexandre Graham Bell, a Scotsman,
born in Edinburgh in 1847. Bell, a teacher of visible speech who later
moved to Canada, (42) .................. all his spare time experimenting.
(43)..................enthusiastic was he in his research for a means of sending
speech (44) .................. electricity that he left much time for his day-to-day
work and at one time was (45) ..................penniless.
36. A. on B. up C. for D. in
37. A. burst B. broke C. went D. got
38. A. communicate B. contact C. address D. tell
39. A. that B. this C. what D. which
40. A. from B. out C. to D. on
41. A. made B. had C. did D. brought
42. A. took B. wasted C. cost D. spent
43. A. Such B. Very C. Too D. So
44. A. with B. in C. by D. on
45. A. almost B. hardly C. most D. never
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.

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In order to request telephone service in the United States, either call or visit
your local telephone store. A sales representative will be glad to show you
samples of the designs and colors available simply choose the design and
color that you refer, and leave your name, address, and employer's name with
the sales representative. Students with scholarships should provide their
sponsor's name instead of an employer's name. A fifty-dollar security deposit
must be paid prior to telephone installation, and may be made by check,
cash, MasterCard, or Visa. On the date that your telephone is to be installed,
a responsible person, such as an apartment manager, must be at home to
unlock the door for the serviceman.
46. The purpose of this passage is...................
A. to persuade B. to correspond C. to inform D. to entertain
47. According to this passage, who will install your telephone? A. A sales
representative B. A serviceman
C. A manager D. An employer
48. The author mentions all the following as steps for securing telephone
service EXCEPT...................
A. call or visit a telephone service
B. leave information with a sales representative
C. give the serviceman a key to your apartment
D. pay a fifty-dollar security deposit
49. The word "samples" in line 3 most nearly means...................
A. prices B. examples C. pictures D. catalog
50. We can infer from this passage that......:............
A. there is more than one kind of telephone
B. the person requesting telephone service must be at home when it is
installed.
C. students may not request telephone service
D. credit cards may not be used to pay for security deposits

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PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. equipped B. arrived C. advanced D. watched
B. skill C. skip D. skit,
2. A. skive
B. spade C. spacious D. span
3. A. space B. receive C. resident D. receipt
4. A. recipient B. secret C. see D. procedure
5. A insect

II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A, notify B. provide C. original D. subscribe
7. A. messenger B. document C. possible D. deliver
8. A, telephone B. express C. radio D. newspaper
9. A. relative B. maximum C. competitive D. distance
10. A, receive B. parcel C. courteous D. favourite
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. An orphan is a child.....................parents are dead.
A. whose B. whom C. that D. who's
12. Tom,.....................sits next to me, is from Canada.
A. that B. whom C. who D. whose
13. You will be satisfied.....................the services our post office offers.
A. by B. on C. in D. with
14. You cannot.....................a phone call after 10p.m.
A. make B. do C. give D. offer

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15. The reason I left is.....................I was bored.
A. why B. that C. which D. what
16. Magazines are usually weekly or monthly, but newspapers
are...................
A. every day B. daily D. day D. day after day
17. Would you mind not.....................on the radio until I've finished with
this phone call?
A. turning B. to turn C. being turned D. to be turned
18. Ms. Wei returns all her phone calls......................
A. rarely B. never C. every day D. always
19. This long letter will require three......................
A. paper B. papers
C. sheet of paper D. sheets of paper
20. The man...................hat blew off in the wind chased it across the park.
A. his B. who C. whose D. that
21. The building whose walls are made of glass is the place................... I
work.
A. which B. where C. that D. what
22. The...................document describes the new regulations.
A. enclosing B. enclose C. enclosed D. to enclose
23. I went to the post office...................a post card to my friend.
A. to send B. to mail C. to give D. to offer
24. "Do you think I should buy these cards?"
".....................my opinion, they're very beautiful."
A. In B. For C. To D. From
25. Most of those.....................were not killed in the earthquake itself but in
the fires which followed.
A. died B. had died
C. who were died D. who died

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II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. We offer the best services with a well-train staff.
A B C D
27. With the Express Mail Service your letters will delivered in the
A B C
shortest possible time.
D
28. You can save some money if you send a parcel which are under 15 kg
A B C D
in weight.
29. Sunday is the day which we don't have to go to school.
A B C D
30. Our post office offer a special mail service which is particular fast.
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. our I post office / well-trained staff / always / thoughtful / courteous /
customers.
A. A well-trained staff in our post office, who are always thoughtful and
courteous to customers.
B. Our post office has a well-trained staff, who are always thoughtful and
courteous to customers.
C. Our post office has a well-trained staff, that are always thoughtful and
courteous to customers.
D. Our post office has a well-trained staff, they are always thoughtful and
courteous to customers.
32. if /you/ want I send / document I original shape / our facsimile service /
help.

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A. If you want to send a document for original shape our facsimile will help
you.
B. If you want to send a document to original shape our facsimile will help
you.
C. If you want to send a document with original shape our facsimile will
help you.
D. If you want to send a document with original shape our facsimile would
help you.
33. equipped / our school library / advanced technology,
A. Our school library is equipped with advanced technology.
B. Advanced technology is equipped for our school library.
C. Our school library is equipped in advanced technology.
D. Advanced technology equipped our school library.
34. you/ help /me / send / document I office /fax?
A. Could you help me sending this document to my office by fax?
B. Could you help me send this document into my office by fax?
C. Could you help me to send this document to my office in fax?
D. Could you help me to send this document to my office by fax?
35. fax transmission / convenient way / transmit / texts / graphic / distances.
A. Fax transmission is a convenient way to transmit texts and graphic with
distances.
B. Fax transmission is a convenient way transmitting texts and graphic over
distances.
C. Fax transmission is a convenient way to transmit texts and graphic over
distances.
D. Fax transmission is convenient way to transmit texts and graphic over
distances.
C. READING

98
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
THE TELEPHONE IN THE US
The telephone was invented in 1876 by Alexander Graham Bell, a Scotsman
who became a US citizen. The word "telephone" had been inexistence since
the 1830s and had been (36)..................to a number of inventions designed to
produce sound. Bell had become interested in the possibility of long-distance
speech (37) .................. his work with the deaf. He was twenty-eight and his
assistant, Thomas Watson, was just twenty-one when they
(38) .................. their great success on 10th March 1876. Despite their long
and close association, Bell's first communication by telephone was not "Tom,
come here, I want you", (39).................."Mr Watson, come here, I want you".
Filled with excitement, Bell and Watson demonstrated their invention to a
US telegram company. The company wrote to Bell, (40) ..................that his
invention was interesting. However, after giving it careful consideration,
they had (41)..................to the conclusion that it had "no future". Fortunately
for Bell, others could see the possibilities, (42) .................four years of its
invention, the US had 60,000 telephones. In the next twenty years that
(43)..................increased to over 6 million. Today, ninety-three per cent of
US homes have a phone, a (44)..................of phone ownership no other
nation comes near to equaling. Each US household makes or receives
(45) .................. average 3,516 calls per year, an astonishing
statistic.
36. A. joined B. named C. employed D. applied
B. as C. because D. along
37. A. through
B. achieved C. succeeded D. fulfilled
38. A. managed B. otherwise C. instead D. although
39. A. but B. informing C. describing D. referring
B. come C. arrived D. brought
40. A. saying B. From C. Within D. About
B. count C. measure D. extent

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41. A. reached B. height C. level D. rank
42. A. Under B. by C. at D. for
43. A. figure
44. A. grade
45. A. on

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Here on Skye I do more than deliver letters and parcels. There aren't any
buses or trains on this part of island, so the post office also runs a passenger
service. The bus which I drive has eleven seats, so people from the farms and
villages can get into Broadford for shopping or for work.
I live in Elgol, a small village on the south-west coast of the island. I leave
Elgol post office every morning at 8 a.m. and drive my bus 24km to
Broadford. I stop for passengers and empty the five post boxes along the
road. I also pick up the school children that live along my route and take
them to the school in Broadford. There's a school for young children in
Elgol, but the older children have to travel into the town.
It usually takes me about three hours to finish my round. I take shopping to
some of the elderly person who can't always get to Broadford; I deliver milk
and newspapers six days a week. I shouldn't deliver animals, but I sometimes
take a puppy or a rabbit as a passenger. The Post Office charges people, of
course, for all these extra services. It's 70p to travel from Elgol to Broadford
and it costs 10p to deliver a pint of milk.
People often ask me how I like living here on Skye, especially since I come
from the city. Well, it's difficult to explain, but here I feel part of the
community; it's good to know that you are helping people. I'd hate to live in
the city again.
46. What doesn't he take on his bus?

100
A, mail B. shopping
C. milk D. children to school in Elgol
47. What is not true about the village of Elgol?
A. It's got several shops. B. It's on the coast.
C. It's very small. D. It's got a school.
48. How much does it cost a passenger from Elgol to Broadford who carries
a pint of milk?
A. 10p B. 80p
C. 70p D. none of the above
49. How long does it usually take the bus driver to drive from Elgol to
Broadford?
A. About one hour. B. About one hour and a half.
C. About two hours. D. About three hours.
50. How far is it from Elgol to Broadford?
A. 12km B. 24km
C.48km D. 64km

UNIT 10: NATURE IN DANGER


PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. answer B. sweater C. swim D. switch
2. A. smart B. smile C. criticism D. smog

101
3. A. slow B. isle C. slap D. slave
4. A. sword B. sweet C. swing D. swallow
5. A. slake B. slam C. slim D. island
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. estimate B. throughout C. village D. human
7. A. industry B. agriculture C. condition D. influence
8. A. pollutant B. environment C. destroying D. national
9. A. animal B. endanger C. respect D. result
10. A. interfere B. consequence C. dinosaur D. dangerous
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. People are changing the environment......................... building cities and
villages.........................forests once stood.
A. by - where B. with - which C. by - which D. in - where
12. Dinosaurs became.........................millions of years ago.
A. disappear B. extinct C. lost D. endangered
13. The chemical ......................... from cars and factories make the air, water
and soil dangerously dirty.
A, pollution B. polluted C. pollutants D. pollute
14. Human beings are.........................for the changes in the environment.
A. account B. faulty C. blame D. responsible
15. The Earth will be a happy planet where human beings, animals and
plants......................... coexist.
A. peaceable B. peaceful C. peace D. peacefully
16. Can you find a place.........................is suitable for all of us?
A. which B. where C. in which D. what
17. No large.........................lakes are found in the state of South Carolina.
A. natural B. habitual C. environmental D. atmospheric

102
18. Many species of rare animals are in.........................of becoming extinct.
A. dangerous B. dangerously C. endanger D. danger
19. The movie.........................we are talking about is fantastic.
A. which B. that C. who D. A and B
20. Because the equipment is very delicate, it must be handled
with....................
A. caring B. careful C. care D. carefully
21. We are facing the possible...................of most of our rain forests.
A. death B. disappearance C. extinction D. ruin
22. The wildlife preserve is.....................tourist attraction in the city.
A. the most popular B. more popular than
C. most popular D. as popular as
23. By cutting down trees, we.....................the natural habitat of birds and
animals.
A. hurt B. wound C. damage D. injure
24. Conservation also includes ...........................for alternative fuels.
A. finding B. seeking C. considering D. searching
25. People used to believe that the world's natural resources could never be
used......................
A. up B. out C. off D. down
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. The song to that we listened last night was beautiful.
A B C D
27. He gave me the pen in which I wrote my lessons.
A B C D
28. Can you explain what the numbers of these animals have become small?
A B C D
29. People are destroyed the air by adding pollutants to it.
A B C D

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30. The human race is one small species of being in the living world.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. We find it important to protect our environment.
A. It's important for us to protect our environment.
B. We had to protect our environment.
C. We should protect our important environment.
D. Protecting our environment is the most important of all.
32. People are affecting the water supply by using water for industry and
agriculture.
A. The water supply are being affected by people's using water for industry
and agriculture.
B. The water supply is affected by people's using water for industry and
agriculture.
C. The water supply is being affected by people's using water for industry
and agriculture.
D. The water supply is being affected by using water for industry and
agriculture.
33. People say that human beings are changing the environment in all
respects through their actions and by their habits.
A. It was said that human beings are changing the environment in all
respects through their actions and by their habits.
B. It said that human beings are changing the environment in all respects
through their actions and by their habits.
C. It says that human beings are changing the environment in all respects
through their actions and by their habits.
D. It is said that human beings are changing the environment in all respects
through their actions and by their habits.

104
34. Scientists have made lists of endangered species and suggested ways to
save them.
A. Lists of endangered species and ways to save them have been made and
suggested by scientists.
B. Lists of endangered species have been made and ways to save them have
been suggested by scientists.
C. Lists of endangered species and ways to save them had to be made and
suggested by scientists.
D. Lists of endangered species have been making and ways to save them
have been suggested by scientists.
35. I saw him under a free on the mountain.
A. He was under a tree on the mountain, and I saw him there.
B. I was under a tree on the mountain, and I saw him.
C. He and I were under a tree on the mountain.
D. He was on the mountain, and he saw me under a tree.
. C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
The world's rainforests represent a vast reservoir of knowledge and hold
potential for the (36)..................of new medicines and foods. There is no
doubt that large-scale deforestation (37).................the climate intensifying
droughts in the dry season and floods in the rainy season. The result is fewer
animal and plant (38).................., soil erosion, a water supply which is
(39)..................and poorer health for the local people. By
(40) ..................Rainforest Concern and sponsoring acres of threatened
rainforest for the Choco-Andean Rainforest Corridor in Ecuador, you will be
(41)..................one of the world's most important ecological areas.
(42) .................. these forests live an amazingly high (43) .................. of
seriously endangered species of animals, birds and plants. You will also be

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(44) .................. to secure the survival and culture of the Awa and Cayapas
indigenous people, who still live in (45)..................with their natural
environment.
36. A. discovery B. finding C. research D. search
37. A. distorts B. alters C. turns D. differs
38. A. races B. species C. sorts D. brands
39. A. unbelieving B. unreasonable C. unreliable D. uncertain
40. A. taking part B. participating C. entering D- joining
41. A. holding B. protecting C. maintaining D. keeping
42. A. Within B, During C. Under D. Below
43. A. number B. amount C. deal D. sum
44. A. aiding B. contributing C. assisting D. helping
45. A. relation B. connection C. harmony D. agreement
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
The ecosystems of the earth provide an array of free public services that are
essential for the support of civilizations. They maintain the quality of the
atmosphere, provide food from the sea, manufacture and replenish soils,
recycle wastes and nutrients, control the overwhelming majority of crop
pests and disease vectors, and so on. People have no idea how to take over
these activities satisfactorily.
They do know, however, that the theory once advanced in the nineteenth
century - that the productivity of the land can be infinitely increased by the
application of capital, labor, and science - is wrong. History has shown that
once the natural life-support systems of a civilization have been sufficiently
damaged, they cannot usually be repaired. The ancient deforestation and
overgrazing of the Mediterranean region is a famous example. And today, a
global civilization is ruining the global environment.
46. What is the main topic of this passage?

106
A. Free public services. B. Support needed for civilization.
C. The value of ecosystems. D. The vastness of the Earth.
47. Which of the following could not be included under the "free public
services" listed in the first paragraph?
A. Preventing overgrazing by domestic animals.
B. Providing natural enemies for harmful insects.
C. Creating and enriching material for plant growth.
D. Supplying air for breathing.
48. The author mentions the Mediterranean region as an example of..............
A. the ability of nature to remedy human destruction.
B. the ability of people to make use of natural resources.
C. the manner in which people replenish the environment.
D. the effect of human abuse of natural resources.
49. The author suggests that civilizations can survive only if they.................
A. greatly expand scientific research.
B. do not destroy the balance of natural processes.
C. replant the forests in the Mediterranean region.
D. invent new procedures to replace obsolete ecosystems.
50. The author suggests that the difference between the ancient and modern
situation is that today the problem is...................
A. worldwide. B. better understood.
C. more manageable. D. economic.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. feature B. peaceful C. feast D. weather
2. A. smooth B. smell C. communism D. smoke

107
3. A. swan B. answer C. swear D. swim
4. A. nature B. abundant C. fun D. sun
5. A. question B. forest C. studio D. establish
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from
that of the others.
6. A. disappear B. population C. destruction D. interfere
7. A. peaceful B. producer C. protect D. result
8. A. chemical B. factory C. planet D. survival
9. A. endanger B. introduce C. establish D. prohibit
10. A. effort B. destroy C. nature D. human
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
II. Human beings have a great influence.....................our environment.
A. on B. in C. at D. about
12. All national parks are in danger of......................
A. to be destroyed B. being destroyed
C. destroying D. destroyed
13. The place where animals are protected within their natural environment
is called a ....................................
A. wild-life preservation B. animal reserve
C. wild-life preserve D. wild-life protection
14. Did you see that fascinating wildlife.............................. on television
last night?
A. schedule B. news C. information D. programme
15. Wild animals should not be.........................for recreation and
entertainment.
A. captured B. snatched C. arrested D. caught
16. Environmental pollution is a term that ............................to all the ways
by

108
which man pollutes his surroundings.
A. mentions B. explains C. refers D. says
17. This is Bob.............................sister works for my father's company.
A. that B. whose C. who's D. whom
18. We are attempting to ............................ a close relationship with the
neighbouring countries.
A. install B. establish C. pitch D. fix
19. He didn't do the homework which...........................by Mr. Brown.
A. had been given B. had given
C. was being given D. had been giving
20............................conservation, all the resources necessary for life would
be
damaged, wasted, or destroyed.
A. No B. Despite C. Without D. Unless
21. George took...........................of the fine weather to do a day's work in his
garden.
A. chance B. interest C. advantage D. charge
22. Jim is fond of doing...................research.
A. science B. scientist C. scientifically D. scientific
23. The office...................we are working in...................in bad shape.
A. where - is B. which - is C. in which - is D. in that - is
24. The little girl...................I borrowed this pen has gone.
A. whose B. from who C. from that D. from whom
25. She ...................actively in social activities. .
A. participates B. takes C. enters D. takes place.
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. In order to do sure that these rare animals do not disappear, efforts
A B
have been made to protect endangered nature.

109
C D
27. The number of rare animals are decreasing so rapidly that they are in
A B C D
danger of becoming extinct.
28. The success of a shared holiday depends on whom you share it to.
A B C D
29. Do you get on with the person whom lives next door ?
A B C D
30. The environment in where these animals are living is badly
A B C D
destroyed.
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. human beings / change / environment / all respects.
A. Human beings are changing the environment in all respects.
B. Human beings is changing the environment in all respects.
C. Human beings changing the environment in all respects.
D. Human beings are changing the environment all over respects.
32. thousand / national parks / established /protect / endangered animals.
A. Endangered animals were protecting in thousands of national parks
established.
B. Thousands endangered animals of national parks established to protect.
C. Thousands of national parks established to protect endangered animals.
D. Thousands of national parks have been established to protect endangered
animals.
33. people / destroying / air / add /pollutants / it.
A. People are destroying the air to add pollutants to it.
B. People are destroying the air by adding pollutants to it.
C. People are destroying the air with added pollutants to it.

110
D. People destroying the air by adding pollutants to it.
34. interferences / human beings / animals / extinct.
A. Human beings with the interferences make many animals have become
extinct.
B. Human beings interferences make many animals have become
extinct.
C. With the interferences of human beings, many animals have become
extinct.
D. In the interferences of human beings, many animals have become extinct.
35. number /rare animals / increasing rapidly.
A. The number of rare animals is increasing rapidly.
B. Rare animals is increasing in number rapidly.
C. Rare animals is in increasing number rapidly.
D. The number of rare animals are increasing rapidly.

C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
NATURAL DESTRUCTION
For all the talk of what humankind has done to cause (36)..................to the
planet, we should not forget that nature itself is a powerful force, capable of
doing damage on a huge scale. The greenhouse (37)..................and the hole
in the Ozone layer are indeed made worse by the industrialized society we
live in. However, we must remember that there are certain (38) ..................
of plant and animal which, quite naturally, give off gases that are very
harmful to the atmosphere. And only fifty years ago in London, hundreds of
people died from the (39)..................which hung over the River Thames.

111
What's interesting here is that, yes, smoke and gases from industry, vehicles
and fossil fuels were ingredients in this deadly mixture. The other vital
ingredient, though, was the completely natural fog, and who would have
thought that could be (40)..................? In the early days of the industrial
revolution, poets, painters and philosophers described how the polluted
(41)..................skies made them think of the end of the world. Well, towards
the end of the nineteenth century, the volcanic eruption of Krakatoa nearly
made it happen!
Thousands of (42) .................. of dust and ash were thrown into the air and,
for years afterwards, there were red sunsets caused by the light filtering
through this natural pollution. Remembering scientists' pet theory about the
dinosaurs (43)..................out because of a huge volcanic
eruption, v.*e were lucky that, humankind (44)..................at this time. So,
next time you look out from your garden or balcony and see a beautiful red
sunset, think of the possibilities. It could be the result of our activities
poisoning the air we breathe, or it might just be (45).................. turning on
the radio to check there haven't been any major eruptions lately!
36. A. destruction B. badness C. negativity D. demolition
37. A. effect B. phenomenon C. syndrome D. situation
38. A. races B. brands C. wildlife D. species
39. A. smog B. pollutant C. sewerage D. oxygen
40. A. poisoned B. harmful C. environmental D. chemical
41 A. urban B. rural C. busy D. global
4.2 A. inches B. meters C. miles D. tons
43. A. killing B. dying C. fading D. going
44 A. managed B. survived C. protected D. saved
45. A. while B. valuable C. worth D. good

112
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Weather has a powerful effect on people. It influences health, intelligence,
and feelings.
In August, it is very hot and wet in southern part of the United States.
Southerners have many heart attacks or other kinds of health problems
during this month. In the Northeast and the Middle West, it is very hot at
some time and very cold at other. Weather changes in February or March.
The weather can influence intelligence, for example, in a 1928 study by
scientists, the IQ score of undergraduate college students were very high
during the hurricane but after the storm, their scores were 10 percent below
average. Hurricanes can increase intelligence. Very hot weather, on the other
hand, can lower it. Students in the United States often do badly in exams in
the hot months of the year.
Weather also has a strong influence on people's feelings. Winter may be a
bad time for thin people; they usually feel cold during these months. They
might feel depressed during-cold weather. In hot summer weather, on the
other hand, fat people may feel unhappy. At about 64F, people become
stronger.
Low air pressure relaxes people. It increases forgetfulness; people leave
more packets and umbrellas on buses and in stores on low-pressure days.
There is a "perfect weather" for work and health. People feel best at a
temperature of about 64F with present humidity.
Are you feeling sick, sad tired, forgetful, or very intelligent today? The
weather may be the cause.
46. The main idea of the passage is.......................................
A. low air pressure relaxes people
B. weather has a strong effect on people
C. after the storm, people's IQ scores were 10 percent below average

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D. there is a "perfect weather" for work and health
47. Intelligence may increase because of.......................................
A. hurricanes B. very hot weather
C, low air pressure D. very wet weather
48. Low air pressure.......................................
A. depresses fat people B. makes people feel stronger
C. causes heart attacks D. relaxes people
49. In "perfect weather" of 64F.......................................
A. people are very forgetful B. people are in better health
C. thin people feel cold D. fat people feel cold
50. Which sentence is NOT true?
A. Weather has a strong influence on people's feelings.
B. Weather can influence people's intelligence.
C. People are always forgetful in any weather.
D. People become stronger at a temperature of about 64F.

UNIT11: SOURCES OF ENERGY


PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. increase B. release C. cease D. disease
A. source B. course C. sour D. foursome
2.
A. heat B. nuclear C. feat D. clean
3.
A. relative B. reserve C. recall D. remove
4.
A. power B. slow C. snow D. show
5.
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from
that of the others.

114
6. A. plentiful B. energy C. release D. fossil
7. A. expensive B. electricity C. advantage D. researcher
8. A. infinite B. entire C. create D. pollution
9. A. possible B. fuel C. solar D. release
10. A. electric B. potential C. plentiful D. alternative

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
I1. At present,.our energy comes from fossil fuels.
A. most B. most of C. almost D. mostly
12. Energy reserves are strictly.........................
A. limit B. limitation C. limited D. limits
13. The sun, water, and the wind are other........................sources of energy.
A. alternative B. transforming C changing D. changeable
14. Solar energy can be changed........................electricity.
A. to B. by C. into D. for
15. Ecology is the study of.........................
A. human beings and plants
B. alternative fuels
C. natural resources
D. human beings and their environment
16. The boy........................the piano is my son.
A. who is playing B. that is playing
C. playing D. A, B or C
17. Neil Armstrong was the first person........................foot on the moon.
A. set B. to set C. who setting D. to be set
18.........................by his parents, this boy was very sad.
A. Punished B. Punishing C. To be punished D. Be punished 19.
19. I've put Mr Matthew's papers in your green file,.................is on your
desk.

115
A. of which B. that C. which D. who
20....................enough time to talk over the matter now.
A. It hasn't B. There hasn't C. There isn't D. It isn't
21....................water, people and other living things could not exist.
A. Without B. Not C. No D. Unless
22. Badly...................air can cause illnesses, and even death.
A. pollute B. polluted C. polluting D. pollutants
23. Dams are built across rivers to help hold...................the water.
A. in B. to C. back D. for
24..................from the distance, the cloud looks like a big white horse.
A. Looking B. To look C. Be looked D. Looked
25. The fence.................our house is made of wood.
A. circling B. surrounding C. rounding D. wrapping

II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.


26. The sun releases large amounts of energy everyday.
A B C D

27. The energy of the sun can be changed to electricity.


A B C D
28. The man to speak to me is John's brother .
A B C D
29. He is the second person be killed in that way .
A B C D
30. They work in a hospital sponsoring by the government.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. The last person that leaves the room must turn off the lights.
A. The person who turns off the lights must leave the room.

116
B. The last person to leave the room must turn off the lights.
C. The last person to turn off the lights must leave the room.
D. The one who turns off the lights in the room is the last person.
32. Without water, people and other living things could not exist,
A. If there were no water, people and other living things could not exist.
B. If there is no water, people and other living things could not exist.
C. People and other living things could exist despite the lack of water.
D. People and other living things could exist because of water.
33. People can use solar energy as an alternative source of energy.
A. An alternative source of energy people often use is solar energy.
B. Solar energy used as an alternative source of energy.
C. Solar energy is used as an alternative source of energy.
D. Solar energy can be used as an alternative source of energy.
34. Once used up natural resources can never be replaced.
A. Natural resources can never be used up, so they can be replaced.
B. When natural resources are used up, they can never be replaced.
C. Natural resources can't be replaced, so people can't use them so much.
D. People have to find other sources of energy when they use them up.
35. Unlike her mother, she doesn't know how to use solar energy to cook.
A. Her mother doesn't want her to use solar energy to cook.
B. Both her mother and she know how to use solar energy to cook.
C. Her mother knows how to use solar energy to cook but she doesn't.
D. Her mother uses solar energy to cook every day but she doesn't.

C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
There is now increasing concern about the world's energy (36)............,
particularly about those involving fossil (37)...................In less than a

117
hundred years we shall probably (38) ........................all the present
(39).................. of oil and gas. The world's coal (40).................. should last
longer but, once used up, these cannot be (41) ...................It is important,
therefore, that we should develop such (42) .................. sources of energy as
solar energy and nuclear energy as well as water and wind (43)..................
(classed as (44)..................energy). Until these energy (45)..................are
widely used, it is important for the developed countries to reduce energy
consumption as much as possible.
36. A. possessions B. resources C. goods D. materials
37. A. fuels B. powers C. forms D. energies
38. A. end B. complete C. total D. exhaust
39. A. findings B. productions C. amounts D. sources
40. A. reserves B. stores C. mines D. contents
41. A. updated B. repeated C. renewed D. produced
42. A. traditional B. alternative C. revolutionary D. surprising
43. A. force B. strength C. power D. motion
44. A. repeatable B. continual C. renewable D. continuous
45. A. goods B. supplies C. provisions D. materials

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
When I was in Scotland last year, I visited a special hydroelectric power
station. It is inside a mountain. It rains a lot in the mountains of Scotland and
there are huge lakes high up. The water falls down through large pipes to a
generator in the power station. The energy of the moving water turns the
generator and this produces electricity. A big transformer then increases the
number of volts to over 400,000. The electricity goes through cables to
different parts of Scotland, England and Wales.

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The inside of the power station was very clean because it doesn't burn coal or
gas. It was also very quiet. I was very surprised. It was just like being in a
hospital, really.
I think hydroelectric power stations are much safer than nuclear power
stations. They are also better for the earth than coal or gas power stations.
Some countries like Sweden and the Netherlands have said they aren't going
to build any more nuclear power stations. They are going to try to make
clean electricity using water or wind. I think we should do the same and
spend more money in building hydroelectric power stations.
46. What can be the best title for the passage?
A. Future of Electricity B. Dangers of Nuclear Power
C. Electricity from Water D. Electricity in Scotland
47. We can learn that the word "hydroelectric" means
"using.............................
A. the energy of the water to clean the air
B. pipes to carry water
C. water power to produce electricity
D. wind power to produce electricity
48. Why does the writer say the hydroelectric power station is like a
hospital?
A. It looks like a hospital. B. It is very clean and quiet.
C. It has beautiful scenery. D, It uses a generator.
49. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The advantages of hydroelectric power stations.
B. The future of electric power stations.
C. The number of electric power stations.
D. The countries that have nuclear power stations.
50. What does "they" in the second sentence of the last paragraph refer to?
A. Gas power stations.

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B. Coal power stations.
C. Hydroelectric power stations.
D. Nuclear power stations.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. pollutant B. solar C. hope D. control
2. A. fossil B. castle C. cancel D. isle
3. A. provide B. entire C. wind D. inside
4. A. clear B. research C. gear D. sear
5. A. shrill B. shrine C. shrift D. shrimp
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from
that of the others.
6. A. disadvantage B. electricity C. relatively D. creativity
7. A. demand B. exhaust C. enough D. panel
8. A. windmill B. daily C. geothermal D. energy
9. A, provide B. nuclear C. solar D. water
10. A. create B. fuel C. entire D. inside
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
12. We have an apartment..........................the park.
A. overlooking B. overlooks C. to overlook D. overlooked
12. When water moves from a high place to a lower place, it...............energy.
A. supplies B. causes C. makes D. provides
13. Another alternative source of energy is geothermal heat;...............from
deep inside the earth.
A. comes B. to come C. which come D. coming

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14. He................................the effects of radiation when he suddenly died.
A. studied B. was studying C. had studied D. have studied
15..................all their work, they went home immediately.
A. Having done B. Did C. Had done D. Have done
16. The sun releases large......................: of energy every day.
A. amount B. amounts C. number D. numbers
17. He was the last person..........................in this way.
A. to kill B. who killed C. being killed D. to be killed
18. Solar energy is not only plentiful..........................clean and safe.
A. but also B. and C. but D. as well
19. If there were no plants, water would run........................... after it rains.
A. off B. into C. across D. to
20. That's the old man.................house was burned down.
A. his B. that his C. whose D. which
21. These plants received.........................that they withered in the hot sun.
A. so much water B. so little water
C. such much water D. such little water
22. Who was the first man that set foot.........................the moon?
A. on B. to C. in D. up
23. Eating fish and lots of vegetables greatly increases your life......................
A. expectation B. expecting C. expectancy D. expectations
24. People who exercise frequently have physical endurance than those
A. who doesn't B. which don't C. that doesn't D. who don't
25. John has recently joined a health club in order to.........................fit.
A. maintain B. retain C. keep D. continue
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. Despite there are some disadvantages, the potential of alternative
A B C
sources of energy is great.

121
D
27. Nuclear power can provide electricity enough for the world's needs for
A B C
hundreds of years.
D
28. Do you know the woman who comes toward us?
A B CD
29. Hanoi, that is the capital of our country, is a city of peace.
A B C D
30. Scientists suggest use solar energy as an alternative source of
A B C D
energy.
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. fossil fuels / exhaust / within / short time / increasing power demand
A. Fossil fuels will exhaust within a short time because of the
increasing power demand.
B. Fossil fuels will be exhausted within a short time despite the increasing
power demand.
C. Fossil fuels will be exhausted within a short time because the increasing
power demand.
D. Fossil fuels will be exhausted within a short time because of the
increasing power demand.
32. sun energy / change / electricity,
A. The sun energy can be changed to use as electricity.
B. The sun energy change into electricity.'
C. The sun energy can be changed into electricity.
D. The sun energy changed into electricity.
3. water / use / create / electricity.

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A. Water can be used to create electricity.
B. We can use water to create electricity.
C. Water used to create electricity.
D. Both A & B.
34. nuclear reactor / release / radiation / dangerous / the environment.
A. A nuclear reactor releases radiation is dangerous to the environment.
B. A nuclear reactor releases radiation which is dangerous to the
environment.
C. A nuclear reactor releases radiation which is dangerous for the
environment.
D. A nuclear reactor releases radiation and dangerous to the environment.
35. ecology /study /human beings /environment,
A. Ecology study human beings and their environment.
B. Ecology is the study of human beings and their environment.
C. The study of ecology is for human beings and their environment.
D. Ecology is studying human beings and their environment.

C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
Most conventional sources of energy can be (36)................. into three main
kinds, according to the type of fossil fuel used. The first type to be used
(37)..................a wide scale was coal, which is now mined at great depths.
(38) .................. from decaying trees and plants, coal has long been used both
for (39) .................. purposes and in industry. A large (40) .................. of
power stations even use coal to produce electricity. Oil, (41).................., has
now replaced coal as one of the most important sources of energy. It is
obtained by drilling deep (42).................. in the earth and pumping up
supplies from large (43).................. reservoirs. Almost half the energy used

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in the world today is provided by oil. (44)..................oil, natural gas is
obtained by drilling deep into the earth both on land and sea. On the whole,
fossil (45)..................are safe to use but they have two important drawbacks.
Not only do they pollute the environment but they are not renewable. It is
essential that (46).................. all these three sources will have been
exhausted by the middle of the next century.
36. A. classified B. divided C. arranged D. separated
B. in C. of D. to
37. A. on
B. Created C. Shaped D. Made
38. A. Formed B. home-made C, domestic D. housework
39. A. homely B. deal C. number D. sum
B. but C. in addition D. also
40. A. amount B. gaps C. caves D. holes
41. A. however B. underground C. underneath D. below
B. As C. Such D. Such as
42. A. cavities B. fuels C. powers D. sources
43. A. beneath B. mostly C. hardly D. almost
44. A. Like
45. A. energies
46. A. most

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Scientists around the world have been studying the warming of waters in the
Pacific Ocean known as El Nino. The appearance of El Nino is known to
affect the weather around the world. Scientists still do not completely
understand it. Yet they now find they can use it to tell about the future in
different areas of the world. One example is the work of two scientists at
Columbia University in New York, Mark Cane and Gordon Eshel. A scientist
of Zimbabwe, Roger Buckland worked with them. They have found that
when El Nino appears, Zimbabwe has little or no rain. This means corn crops

124
in Zimbabwe are poor. The last El Nino was in 1991 to 1993. That was when
southeastern Africa suffered a serious lack of rain.
The scientists wrote about their recent work in the publication Nature. Their
computer program can tell when an El Nino will develop up to a year before
it does. They suggest that this could provide an effective early warning
system for southern Africa, and could prevent many people from starving.
47. El Nino is known as.......................................
A. the changing of the weather in the southern Africa
B. the warming of waters in the Pacific Ocean
C. the weather which brings drought to Africa
D. the weather phenomenon that brings heavy rains to Africa
48. Scientists study El Nino in order that they can.......................................
A. provide a kind of early warning to the place that will suffer from drought
B. tell why Zimbabwe has little or no rain
C. do some research work in this field
D. put ill this information into their computers
49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the article?
A. The computer is used in this research work.
B. Scientists know when an El Nino appears by means of a computer
program.
C. The scientists published their results of the research work.
D. Nature is the name of the article written recently by the scientists.
50. Choose the best title for this article.
A. Appearance of El Nino Predictable. .
B. Drought in Zimbabwe.
C. Early Warning System.
D. Weather in Africa.

UNIT12: THE ASIAN GAMES

125
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. squid B. squire C. squinch D. squib
2. A. square B. squarish C. squash D. squarer
3. A. screw B. screechy C. scream D. screen
4. A. striated B. strive C. stripe D. strip
5. A. strategy B. strange C. strap D. strangle
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from
that of the others.
6. A, Asian B. decade C. interfere D. friendship
7. A. quality B. event C. aquatic D. tradition
8. A. introduce B. volleyball C. tennis D. wrestling
9. A, athlete B. medal C. effort D. enthusiasm
10 A. variety B. aspect C. karate D. occasion

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
II. The Asian Games are held for the ......................... of developing
intercultural knowledge.
A. aim B. target C. purposes D. objective
12. Television viewing is by far......................... popular pastime in Britain.
A. more B. the most C. mostly D. almost
13. She will be.........................her car.........................before she goes on
holiday.
A. having - serviced B. having - service
C. getting - service D. getting - to service
14. The person.....................prepared this report has a real talent for writing.

126
A. which B. who C. whose D. she
15......................Java Man, who lived before the first Ice Age, is the first
manlike animal.
A. It is generally believed that B. Generally believed it is
C. Believed generally is D. That is generally believed
16. Ms. Brown is known not only for her intelligence...................for her
efficiency.
A. but also B. also C. and D. so
17. The Vietnamese participants took ................... in the 14th Asian Games
with great enthusiasm.
A. notice B. notes C. part D. role
18. There were many scientists at the meeting, several of.....................were
very young.
A. that B. whom C. who D. which
19. The hotel has special...................for disabled athletes.
A. facility B. facilitation C. facilitate D. facilities
20. It's six years................... I took part in the last Asian Games.
A. since B. when C. until D. while
21. 1 know for sure that Tina opened my letters...........,........
A. deliberate B. on purpose C. in intention D. with aims
22. Swimming and water skiing are...................aquatic sports.
A. either B. neither C. both D. but
23....................from several countries competed in many Asian Games.
A. Spectators B. Athletes C. Audience D. Viewers
24. Some people do not have the...................to be athletes.
A. possibility B. energy C. talent D. ability
25. The basketball player...... into the air and put the ball through the basket.
A. leaped B. pushed C. ran walked
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

127
26. Are these the keys that you are looking for them ?
A B C D
27. The table that was broken has now been repairing.
A B C D
28. The Asian Games is an occasion when strength and sports skills
A B C
are tested.
D
29. The Asian Games have been advanced in all aspects.
A B C D
30. I can't say I share your enthusiasm with the idea.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. We expect that he -will win the gold medal,
A. At any rate, he must win the gold medal.
B. We are sure he will win the gold medal.
C. We expect him to win the gold medal.
D. He is sure to win the gold medal.
32. Train harder or you'll fail in the next tournament.
A. Unless you train harder, you'll fail in the next tournament.
B. You don't train hard and you'll fail in the next tournament.
C. If you train hard, you'll fail in the next tournament.
D. You won't fail in the next tournament without training hard.
33. They awarded the first prize to her in the gymnastics competition.
A. The first prize was awarded to her in the gymnastics competition,
B. She was awarded the first prize in the gymnastics competition.
C. She awarded the first prize in the gymnastics competition.
D. Both A and B.

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34. Jim is thought to be a good runner,
A. Jim isn't a good runner at present.
B. People think that Jim is a good runner.
C. We all think Jim may be a good runner in the future.
D. Jim thinks he's a good runner.
35. He prefers karatedo to boxing.
A. He doesn't like boxing at all. B. He likes karatedo better.
C. He doesn't like boxing, D. He'd rather karatedo than boxing.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
CHESS
Chess, often referred to as the Royal Game, is the oldest of all
(36) ..................games which do not contain an element of chance. The
origins of chess are uncertain, (37)..................there are a number of legends
regarding its invention. One story (38)..................that it was King Solomon
who invented chess, another that it was the Greek god Hermes, and yet
another that the Chinese mandarin Han-Sing was (39) ..................for its
creation. In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth or
seventh century AD. The game's (40)...............then spread quickly through
Persia (now (41)..................as Iran) and from there came to Europe. The first
documented (42)..................to chess in literature is in a Persian romance
which was written about 600 AD.
It is (43)..................the word "chess" comes from "shah", the Persian word
for "king" and that "checkmate", the game's winning (44) ..................comes
from the phrase "shah mat", meaning "the king is dead". The rules and pieces
used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries. Modern chess
(45)..................much to the Spaniard Ruy Lopez de Segura, who in 1561

129
wrote the first book on how to play the game. In it, he introduced the concept
of "castling", which had not been part of the game until then.
A. board B. table C. panel D. top
A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however
A. reads B. tells C. says D. writes
A. reliable B. responsible C. dependable D. trustworthy
40. A. celebrity B. knowledge C. popularity D. notoriety
41. A. called B. known C. referred D. stated
42. A. reference B. mention C. appeal D. indication
43. A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken
44. A. place B. stand C. go D. move
45. A. borrows B. lends C. owes D. pays
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield,
Massachusetts, Dr. James A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a
physical education instructor at the international YMCA, now Springfield
College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students
during the wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the
students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined
that a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after
the baseball and football seasons had ended. First he attempted to adapt
outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found
them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would
have to invent a game. In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two peach
baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the school, and, using a soccer ball
and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The early
rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball a

130
violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to
retrieve the ball.
Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was
being played in both the United States and Canada. Five years later, a
championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by
the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became
standard in the 1897 season. When basketball was introduced as a
demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Louis, it quickly
spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was introduced to
replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.
46. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. The Olympic Games in St. Louis in 1904
B. The development of basketball
C. The YMCA athletic program
D. Dr. James Naismith
47. When was the first demonstration game of basketball held during the
Olympics?
A.1891 B.1892 C.1897 D. 1904
48. The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of
basketball except;
A. Three points were scored for every basket.
B. Running with the ball was not a foul.
C. Nine players were on a team.
D. The ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score.
49. The phrase "balked at" in line 6 could best be replaced by...................
A. resisted B. enjoyed
C. excelled at D. were exhausted by
50. The word "them" in line 10 refers to...................

131
A. indoors B. seasons C. games D. areas

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. squat B. squash C. squaw D. square
2. A. strict B. strike C. stride D. strife
3. A. scribe B. scrim C. script D. scrimp
4. A. squeal B. squeeze C. squib D. squeak
5. A. strand B. strategy C. strange D. strap
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. purpose B. compete C. appreciate D. event
7. A. official B. cycling C. become D. aquatic
8. A. fencing B. intercultural C. freestyle D. gymnast
9. A. advance B. gymnasium C. solidarity D. variety
10. A. nation B. gather C. facilities D. stadium

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. There is no age ..................., people of any age can compete in the
Olympic Games.
A. end B. limitation C. restriction D. limit
12. Players tried their best to win the....................
A. ball B. prize C. flag D. score
13. The competitors at the Asian Games must not be professionals. They
must be...............
A. amateurs B. athletes C. gymnasts D. stars

132
14. Peter is not a (n)...................football player. He plays for fun.
A. amateur B. national C. international D. professional
15. A football match is divided into two....................
A. parts B. sections C. halves D. lines
16; The first day of the World Cup is a (n)...................day.
A. eventful B. event C. eventual D. fully event
17. The Asian Games are held every four years in a selected country,
and ...................to athletes of all Asian countries.
A. they open B. are opened
C. they are open D. it is open
18. The winners of a contest receive a wreath...................from the branches
of the sacred olive tree.
A. made B. making C. to make D. to be made
19. This is the novel...................I've been expecting.
A. that B. which C. who D. A and B
20. The Olympic torch ................... throughout the Games and is then
extinguished at the closing ceremony.
A. burning . B. burns C. burned D. is burned
21. If Dorothy had not been badly hurt in a car accident,.....................in last
month's marathon.
A, she would participate B. she participated
C. she would have participated D. she had participated
22. The two cars for sale were in poor condition, so I didn't
buy......................
A. both of them B. either of them
C. neither of them D. each of them
23. We had a talk.....................................him yesterday.
A. to B. from C. of D. on
24. I'm not the man............................you are looking for?

133
A. that B. X (nothing) C. whom D. A, B or C
25. Winning the first place in an event was the only ............................ in the
ancient Games because second and third places were not recognized.
A. glorious B. glory C. glorify D. glories
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. The number of participants in the Asian Games have been
A B C
increasing.
D
27. The 14th Asian Games, which was held in Busan, Korea in 2002,
A B
attracted 9,919 participants from 42 countries.
C D

28. I like the diamond ring Mary is wearing it .


A B C D
29. The flight on it I wanted to travel was fully booked.
A B C D
30. How many gold-medals have the Japanese athletes win in the first
A B C D
three days?
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. Asian Games / take place /four years.
A. The Asian Games take place every four years.
B. The Asian Games take place four years ago.
C. The Asian Games take place in four years' time.
D. The Asian Games will take place within four years.

134
32. Asian Games / hold / purpose / develop / intercultural knowledge /
friendship /Asia.
A. The Asian Games are held on the purposes of developing intercultural
knowledge and friendship within Asia.
B. The Asian Games are held for the purposes of developing intercultural
knowledge and friendship within Asia.
C. The Asian Games are held for the purposes to develop intercultural
knowledge and friendship within Asia.
D. The Asian Games are holding for the purposes of developing intercultural
knowledge and friendship within Asia.
33. young people / Asia / gather / together / compete / multi-sport event.
A. Young people gather together in Asia for competing in this multi-sport
event.
B. Young people from all over Asia gather together to compete in this multi-
sport event.
C. Young people from all over Asia gather competing together in this multi-
sport event.
D. Young people from all over Asia gather together to compete for this multi-
sport event.
34. he / never / lose / enthusiasm / train / athletes.
A. He never lost his enthusiasm train athletes.
B. He never lost his enthusiasm training athletes.
C. He never lost his enthusiasm for training athletes,
D. He never lost his enthusiasm by training athletes.
35. swim / water / ski / aquatic .sports.
A. Swimming and water skiing are both aquatic sports.
B. Swimming in water and skiing are both aquatic sports.
C. Swim and water ski are both aquatic sports. A. Swim and water skiing are
both aquatic sports.

135
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
Very few popular (36)..................... sports today remain amateur in any
sense of the word. In the past, even in cases where payment to players or
athletes was forbidden, many sports tolerated what became known as
"shamateurism", and even the sports governing (37).....................turned a
blind eye to such (38) ..................... as the paying of "expenses". More
recently, sport has become, in effect, a (39) ..................... of the
entertainment industry, and the elite (40) ..................... in sports such as
swimming, tennis, football and track athletics can expect to become very
rich. This worries (41) .....................people, who complain that the old
Olympic ideal has been lost, but the (42) ..................... is, sport has become
more and more professional (43) ..................... the wider sense, not only
requiring total dedication from (44).....................champions, but
(45)..................... expensive facilities, training and nutritional advice.

36. A. audience B. watching C. spectator D. viewing


B. confederations C. authorities D. bodies
37.A. associations
B. occurrences D. acts D. operations
38. A, practices B. division C. wing D. limb
39. A. branch B. players C. makers D. performers
B. much C. some D. many of
40. A. doers B. event C. datum D. fact
41. A. most of B. in C. of D. on
B. aspiring C. striving D. wishful
42. A. thing B. as well C. enough D. even
43. A. at
44. A. hopeful
45. A. also

136
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Chess must be one of the oldest games in the world. An Arab traveler in
India in the year 900 wrote that it was played "long, long ago". Chess was
probably invented in India, and it has been played everywhere from Japan to
Europe since 1400. The name "chess" is interesting. When one player is
attacking the other's king, he says in English, "check". When the king has
been caught and cannot move anywhere, he says "check mate". These words
come from Persian. "Shah mat" means "the king dead". That is when the
game is over, and one player has won. Such an old game changes slowly.
The rules have not always been the same as they are now. For example, at
one time the queen could only move one square at a time. Now she is the
strongest piece on the board. It would be interesting to know why this has
happened! Chess takes time and thought, but it is a game for all kinds of
people. You don't have to be a champion in order to enjoy it. It is not always
played by two people sitting at the same table. The first time the Americans
beat the Russians was in a match played by radio. Some of the chess masters
are able to play many people at the same time. The record was when one
man played 400 games! It is said that some people play chess by post. This
must make chess the slowest game in the world.
46. Which of the following is known to be true?
A. Chess is an old Indian travelling game.
B. Chess is the oldest game in the world.
C. Chess was played in India long before 900.
D. Chess was played in Japan and Europe before 1400.
47. One player has won the game when...................
A. he attacks the other player's king
B. he says some Persian words
C. he says "check" to the other player

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D. the other player's king cannot move anywhere
48. Which of the following will you hear when one player has won the
game? A. "Shah mat" B. "Check mate"
C. "The king is dead." D. "Check"
49. Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. Only two people can play chess sitting at the same table.
B. All kinds of people can play chess.
C. Some people write each other playing chess.
D. The Russians lost the game played by radio.
50. According to the old rules of the game...................
A. the queen was the strongest piece on the board
B. the king had to be attacked all the time
C. the queen could move no more than one square at a time
D. the king could not move anywhere

UNIT13: HOBBIES
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. stamped B. grabbed C. trapped D. stopped
2. A. rubs B. books C. stops D. wants
3. A. though B. cough C. laugh D. rough
4. A. wear B. where C. here D. bear
5. A. breath B. bath C. death D. breathe
11. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. accomplish B. accompany C. continually D. fascinating
7. A. regular B. hobby C. gigantic D. common .

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8. A. local B. collect C. avid D. broaden
9. A. interesting B. guitarist C. collection D. prepare
10. A. successful B. relative C. occupied D. beautiful

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11....................bored, we went out for a walk last night.
A. Feeling B. Feel C. To feel D. We feel
12. The hobby I like............................is playing with my guitar.
A. mostly B. almost C. most D. better
13. My father is an............................guitarist.
A. accomplishing B. accomplished
C. accomplish D. accomplishment
14. He is very good at............................people singing with his guitar.
A. making B. getting C. accompanying D. having
15. My uncle is interested in ............................ stamps.
A. collect B. collecting C. collected D. to collect
16. My younger brother is...................................on listening to English
songs.
A. keen B. quick C. interested D. fond
17................................relaxed and sleep easily, I often listen to classical
music.
A. To feel B. Feeling C. Having felt D. Being felt
18. What are you learning that song for?...............................at the music
concert of the school next week.
A. Performance B. Perform C. To perform D. Performing
19. It was the woman that...............................us English last year.
A. taught B. teaches C. has taught D. had taught

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20. It is............................... your help that I passed the exam easily.
A. because B. thanks to C. according to D. account for
21.................... the classroom, he began to talk about the car accident
yesterday.
A. To enter B. Entered C. Enter D. Entering
22. It was a pity that you.........................be here for the play last night.
A. can't B. couldn't C. may not D. mightn't
23. I enjoyed my childhood very much. It was the time.................... I had
nothing to worry.
A. when B. which C. where D. why
24. My mother knows the traditional....................of the Southwest.
A. cooking B. cook C. cuisine D. cookery
25. Julie has....................out of playing with dolls.
A. developed B. moved C. removed D. grown
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. I've been played the guitar for 7 years.
A B C D
27. It is the man that gave to me the book.
A B C D
28. It was at the shop where she bought me a sweater.
A B C D
29. Lan classified her books in different categories.
A B C D
30. Collect stamps is my brother's hobby.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. She goes to the shops every Friday.
A. She goes every day to the shops but not on Friday.

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B. It's not Friday, but she's going to the shops.
C. She always goes to the shops on Friday.
D. She never goes to the shops on Friday.
32. Neither Mary nor Cathy can dance well.
A. Mary can't dance well but Cathy can.
B. Both Mary and Cathy can dance well.
C. Mary can't dance well and Cathy can't either.
D. Cathy can't dance well but Mary can.
33. I'm nothing like as patient as I used to be.
A. I used to have a lot more patience.
B. I'm more patient now than I was.
C. I used to have a little more patience.
D. I'm more patient than ever.
34. These hobbies keep me occupied.
A. I am satisfied with these hobbies.
B. I am busy with these hobbies.
C. These hobbies make me annoyed.
D. These hobbies make me pleased.
35. My advice is to play the piano.
A. Like me you should play the piano.
B. I'd rather you played the piano.
C. If you believe me, you should play the piano.
D. If I were you, I'd play the piano.
C. READING
I. Read the text below and choose the correct word or phrase for each
space. For each question, circle the letter you choose - A, B, C or D.
Willy has a (n) (36)...................but interesting hobby. He likes to collect used
pieces of (37)...........,.......like skirts, pants, jeans and shirts. He always tells
his friends to give him all their unwanted clothes. Many of his friends know

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about his unusual pastime and gladly hand (38)...................their clothes.
When Willy gets the used clothes, he (39) ................... them and makes sure
they are clean. Then he will (40)...................carefully at each item and turn it
into something useful. He has made bags, pencil cases, framed artwork, table
cloths, doll's clothes and even cushion covers from the clothes that he has
collected. (41)...................of Willy's friends love to watch him turn their old
clothes into other items. Sometimes, they even (42) ................... him. Once,
they helped him turn a pair of used jeans into a bag. First, they cut off part of
the jeans, and then they (43)................... up the cut ends. After that, they
sewed the ends of the legs together to make a strap (44)...................the bag.
Next, they sewed beads and Sequins onto the denim bag. When the work was
(45)..................., the finished product looked interesting and unusual. Willy
usually sells his creations to raise funds which he donates to the Old Folk's
Home near his house.
36. A. extra B. strange C. odd D. unusual
B. textile C. craft D. cloth
37. A. clothing
B. in C. over D. out
38. A. on B. wipes C. brushes D. washes
B. see C. watch D. view
39. A. cleans
B. Much C. A few D, A great
40. A. look B. want C. make D. help
B. combined C. wrapped D, made
41. A. A little
B. to C. on D. in
42. A. need B. done C. created D, ended
43. A. sewed
44. A. for
45. A. made

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
A hobby can be almost anything a person likes to do in his spare time.
Hobbyists raise pets, build model ships, weave baskets, watch birds, hunt

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animals, climb Mountains, raise flowers, fish, ski, skate and swim. Hobbyists
also paint pictures, attend concerts and plays, and perform on musical
instruments. They collect everything from books to butterflies, and shells to
stamps.
People take up hobbies, because these activities offer enjoyment, friendship,
knowledge and relaxation. Sometimes they even yield financial profit.
Hobbies help people relax after periods of hard work, and provide a balance
between work and play. Hobbies also offer interesting activities for people
who have retired. Anyone, rich or poor, old or young, sick or well can follow
a satisfying hobby, regardless of his age, position, or income.
Hobbies can help a person's mental and physical health. Doctors have found
that hobbies are valuable in helping patients recover from physical or mental
illness. Hobbies give bed-ridden or wheelchair patients something to do, and
provide interests that keep them from thinking about themselves. Many
hospitals treat patients by having them take up interesting hobbies of past
times. In early times, most people were too busy making a living to have
many hobbies. But some persons who had pleasure did enjoy hobbies. The
ancient Egyptians played games with balls made of wood. People today have
more time than ever before for hobbies. Machines have reduced the amount
of time they must spend on their jobs. Hobbies provide variety for workers
who do the same monotonous tasks all day long. More people are retiring at
an earlier age than ever before. Those who have developed hobbies never
need to worry about what to do with their newly-found leisure hours. Sir
William Osier, a famous Canadian doctor, expressed the value of hobbies by
saying "No man is really happy or safe without a hobby."
46. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Hobby is one's regular business in his office.
B. Hobby is not one's regular business in one's spare time.
C. Hobby is a kind of business only for old people.

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D. Hobby is a kind of business only for young people.
47. Who may spend more time enjoying their hobbies?
A. Persons who have little money.
B. Persons who have much money.
C. Persons who have given up their work.
D. Persons who have left school.
48. The italicized phrase "recover from" in the third paragraph
means............
A. get back B. become well
C. become calm D. supply with a new cover
49. In early times, most people spend less time on their hobbies because
A. they were brave and hard-working
B. they weren't familiar with hobbies
C. they were engaged in making a living
D. they didn't want to
50. What's the writer's opinion about hobbies?
A. People all over the world have the same hobby.
B. Machines also have their hobbies.
C. Hobbies are popular among people in Egypt.
D. People should have good hobbies in their spare time.

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. learned B. showed C. grabbed D. helped
2. A. preserved B. managed C. passed D. concerned
3. A. accompany B. unify C. hobby D. simply
4. A. houses B. measure C. pleasure D. conclusion

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5. A. claps B. maps C. tapes D. flaps
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. envelope B. album C. usually D. accompany
7. A. admire B. regular C. mountain D. corner
8. A. classify B. broaden C. immediate D. landscape
9. A. hobby B. overseas C. collect D. myself
10. A. away B. modest C. guitar D. variety

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. The hobby I like..................is collecting dolls.
A. most B. much C. more D. less
12...................I bought this book.
A. It was at the shop that B. It was from the shop that
C. It was in the shop where D. It was at the shop in which
13. My father taught me..................the guitar.
A. how to play B. to play
C. A or B D. None is correct
14. That's the doctor for..................Cliff works.
A. that B. which C. whom D. whose
15. My glasses are in my book bag, but I don't remember.............them there.
A. I had put B. putting C. to put D. put
16. What do you often do in your..................time? I often Listen to music.
A. free B. leisure C. spare D. A, B or C
17. She kept herself..................knitting clothes for refugees.
A. occupy B. occupied C. occupying D. occupational

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18. She felt ill. She went to work,.................., and tried to concentrate.
A. but B. however C. instead D. although
19. He is very good .................accompanying people singing with his guitar.
A. at B. in C. about D. over
20. They all wanted to go to the cinema,...................
A. so I too B. so I went C. so I went too D. I went too
21. It was the boy..................I told you about.
A. that B. whose
C. who's D. None is correct
22. Since you're so unhappy there, you..................look for another job.
A. ought B. should C. rather D. better
23...................you tell me how you collect your shells? - Yes, of course.
A. Could B. May C. Shall D. Do
24. We..................to rehearse the chorus after the break.
A, continued B. kept C. went on D. went ahead
25. It's getting..................to find an inexpensive restaurant.
A. hard and hard B. harder and harder
C. more harder D. hardest
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. I love watching the stamps I have collected them.
A B C D
27. He is fond of collect comic strips.
A B C D
28. He is one of the best guitarists in our school.
A B C D
29. It is not easily for her to keep the children amused.
A B C D
30. It was the dog who the boy hit.
A B C D

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III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. he /fond / collect / stamps / discarded envelopes.
A. He is fond with collecting stamps from discarded envelopes.
B. He is fond to collect stamps from discarded envelopes.
C. He is fond of collecting stamps from discarded envelopes.
D. He is fond collecting stamps from discarded envelopes.
32. kind / music /you / often / listen?
A. What kind music of you often listen to?
B. What music kind you often listen to?
C. What kind of music you often listen to?
D. What kind of music do you often listen to?
33. //find/ interesting / collect / books / classify / different categories.
A. I find it interesting to collect books and classify them into different
categories.
B. I find it interesting of collecting books and classify them into different
categories.
C. I find it interesting collect books and classify them into different
categories.
D. I find it interesting to collect books and classify them by different
categories.
34. hobby /1 / most /play / my guitar.
A. The hobby I like most is to play the guitar of my.
B. The hobby I like most is playing my guitar.
C. The hobby I play most is my guitar.
D. The hobby I like is playing most my guitar.
3 5. read / books / help /us / broaden / knowledge / understanding.
A. Reading books helps us broadening our knowledge and understanding.
B. Reading books helps us broaden our knowledge and understanding.

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C. Reading books help us broaden knowledge of understanding.
D. Reading books helps us in broadening knowledge of understanding.

C. READING
I. Read the text below and choose the correct word or phrase for each
space. For each question, circle the letter you choose - A, B, C or D.
Origami
Origami is the Japanese art of paper (36)......................I began to learn it
(37).....................I was five years old. At that time I could not play outside
(38)..................... I had terrible asthma. At home I was very lonely. One day
my mother came home with a (39).....................of colored papers. She
showed me how to (40).....................a cute little dog just by folding the paper
in a special way. Then she taught me (41).....................to make a frog and
(42).....................animals. From that day I felt in love (43) .................origami
and it (44)..................... my friend. Today my asthma is better. I can go to
school, (45)origami is still my hobby.
36. A. making B. rolling C. folding D. wrapping
37. A. when B. since C. by D. at
B. because C. but D. despite
38. A. however
B. body C. stack D. company
39. A. package B. mould C. complete D. make
40. A. do B. which C. what D. how
B. others C. other D. the other
41. A. why B. of C. in D. on
42. A. another B. turned C. appeared D. seemed
B. though C. but D. even
43. A. with
44. A. became
45. A. however

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.

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People usually sing because they like music or because they feel happy. They
express their happiness by singing. When a bird sings, however, its song
usually means much more than that the bird is happy. Birds have many
reasons for singing. They sing to give information. Their songs are their
language. The most beautiful songs are sung by male birds. They sing when
they want to attract a female bird. It is their way of singing that they are
looking for a wife. Birds also sing to tell other birds to keep away. To a bird,
his tree or even a branch of tree is his home. He does not want strangers to
come near him, so he sings to warn them. If a bird cannot sing well, he
usually has some other means of giving important information. Some birds
dance, spread out their tails or make others sing. One bird has a most unusual
way of finding a wife. It builds a small garden of shell and flowers.
46. Why do people usually sing?
A. They like birds. B. They feel happy.
C. They want to tell a story. D. They like studying music.
47. Which birds sing the most beautiful songs?
A. Birds in a good temper
B. Male birds
C. Female birds
D. Female birds which attract male birds
48. What warning does a bird sometimes sing?
A. A warning to keep away
B. A warning to come quickly
C. A warning about the approach of people
D. A warning to stop singing
49. What do most birds usually do if they cannot sing well?
A. Warn other birds to go away
B. Find a wife
C. Give their information in another way

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D. Fly high in the sky
50. What is one bird's unusual way of attracting a female bird?
A. It dances.
B. It spreads out its tail.
C. It searches for a wife.
D. It uses shells and flowers to make a garden.

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UNIT14: ENTERTAINMENT
PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
A. seats B. meets C. sits D. feats
A. washed B. watched C. marched D. pitched
A. ranged B. managed C. changed D. raged
A. easy B. idea C. reason D. speak
A. delicate B. illustrate C. appropriate D. intimate
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. enjoyable B. recreation C. pursuit D. decision
7. A. sophisticated B. painting C. interesting D. popular
8. A. household B. television C. entertainment D. music
9. A. undertaken B. population C. karaoke D. spectator
10. A. pastime B. enormous C. activity D. important
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. British people are very interested in..................in sports.
A. entering B. interfering C. involving D. taking part
12. I left it..................on the table................. in the drawer.
A. either - nor B. neither - or C. either - or D. either - either
13. All students have to..................a two-year course in mathematics.
A. pursue B. run after C. chase D. follow
14. ..................the radio..................the television works properly.
A. Neither - nor B. Neither - or C. Either - nor D. Not - nor

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15. Do you agree..................me..................the need for more schools?
A. to - on B. with - about C. with - over D. to - about
16. Both his brother and sister..................very good at chemistry.
A. is B. was C. are D. has been
17. I was sorry to learn..................your accident.
A, about B. of C. from D. A or B
18. It was this ring.................was given to Mary for a wedding present.
A. it B. that C. where D. in which
19. The Prime Minister..................a very good speech on racism.
A. did B. made C. had D. took
20. He was always..................to the idea of working overseas.
A. keen B. eager C. appealed D. attracted
21. The underlying..................of inflation is still upwards.
A. trend B. circumstance C. privilege D. condition
22...................you have no key, you will have to get back before I go out.
A. As B. Although C. Unless D. Provided
23. His good sense of humour made him..................with his workmates.
A. appealing B. famous C. popular D. well-known
24. Tony's boss doesn't want him to .................. a habit of using the office
phone for personal calls.
A. take B. do C. make D. increase
25. There's..................no space to sit down.
A. hardly B. almost C. scarcely D. hardly any

II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.


26. Recreation and entertainment are important for people anywhere in the
A B C D
world.

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27. British people are very interested in watching and take part in sports.
A B C D
28. Both Tom with Ann were late for class.
A B C D
29. I don't like sweets, and Tarn doesn't, neither.
A B C D
30. Mai is no only beautiful but also intelligent.
A B C D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. Jane likes ice-cream and I do, too.
A. Jane likes ice-cream, but I don't.
B. Both Jane and I like ice-cream.
C. Only Jane likes ice-cream.
D. Jane doesn't like ice-cream, but I do.
32. Neither Tom nor his father has been to Italy.
A. Tom has been to Italy, and so has his father.
B. Not only Tom but also his father has been to Italy.
C. Tom wants his father to go to Italy.
D. Either Tom or his father hasn't been to Italy.
33. Catherine liked to have her friends for the weekend.
A. Catherine liked to telephone her friends every weekend.
B. Every weekend Catherine went away with her friends.
C. Catherine's friends often came to her house at weekends.
D. Catherine liked her friends at weekends but not at midweek.
34. Joe's shop was the only one in the town.
A. There were a few shops, but they all belonged to Joe.
B. The town had only one shop; that was Joe's.
C. Joe's shop stood alone - it was not near the other shops.

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D. Joe had only one shop, but there were other shops in the town.
35. They believe that he is a good student.
A. He is believed 16 be a good student.
B. He is really a good student.
C. Nobody studies as well as he does.
D. They always believe in him because he is a good student.

C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
that best fits each gap.
THE RADIO
While the television (36).........................is increasingly becoming the focal
point of our living rooms, it would be easy to (37)........................that its
older relative, the radio is still there. But in the rush to turn on the TV and
feast our eyes on all those fantastic visual (38)........................,we are missing
out on a valuable (39).........................of communication. The radio has all the
talk (40)........................., comedies, dramas and news bulletins that the
television has, and more besides. Late night shows have (41) .........................
presenters to keep you awake or send you to sleep, depending on your needs.
Hard-hitting reporters (42).........................the hot items of the day with
politicians and experts in specialized areas. And behind the
(43) ......................... there are researchers and editors making sure you get
the (44).........................up-to-date information. With the new generation of
digital radio about to enter our homes via satellite, radio is sure to
(45) ......................... to our lives well into the future. The radio of tomorrow
will guarantee perfect reception and more choice of programme.
36. A. set B. box NC. channel D. studio
B. notice C. suggest D. forget
37. A. insist
B. images C. appearances D. looks
38. A. pictures B. direction C. means D. approach

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39. A. technique B. discussions C. performances D. shows
B. likeable C. likely D. presentable
40. A. events
B. correspond C. discuss D. enthuse
41. A. personal B. shots C. films D. camera
42. A. converse B. latest C. greatest D. biggest
B. contribute C. donate D. lend
43. A. scenes
44. A. soonest
45. A. give

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
I'm interested in sports, especially athletics, and I run seven or eight
kilometres every day. I particularly enjoy cross country running, where you
have to run across fields, jump over streams and so on. While I'm running I
think about all sorts of things, and at the end of a run I'm sometimes
surprised to find that I've managed to solve a problem that was on my mind.
Next year, I'm going to try the London Marathon. It's a long, hard race -26
miles, or 42 kilometres - and you have to be tough to finish, but I very much
want to do it. I worry a bit about getting too old, and I'd like to prove to
myself that I'm still almost as fit as I was twenty years old.
I'm interested in mountaineering as well as running. I'll never become an
expert climber, but I know what I'm doing in the mountains. I successfully
completed a course in snow and ice climbing when 1 was younger; and I've
done a series of easy climbs in the Alps during the last few years. My wife
doesn't share my interest in mountains. She agreed to go climbing with me
once, but she found that she felt ill as soon as she got above 1,000 metres.
46. If you do across, country running, you must...................
A. cross your country B. run along the coast
C. cross your countryside D. cross fields, streams, etc
47. At the end of a run the writer sometimes finds that...................

155
A. he is able to get the answer to a problem
B. he grows bigger
C. he feels better
D. he gets a surprising problem
48. The writer wants to take part in the London Marathon because
A. it helps to keep him fit
B. he wants to do it before getting old
C. the reward is great
D. it helps him solve his problems
49. The writer takes up mountaineering because...................
A. he wants to become an expert climber
B. he simply likes it
C. his wife is interested in it
D. it is easy to practise
50. The writer's wife is not interested in mountaineering for ...
A. it doesn't bring her any interest
B. she almost feels ill at the height of above 1,000 metres
C. she doesn't want to climb together with her husband
D. the air is cold

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. dragged B. sagged C. raged D. ganged
2. A. launched B. reached C. changed D. washed
3. A. question B. nation C. construction D. examination
4. A. faith B. fair C. paint D. fainted

156
5. A. hostage B. carriage C. age D. voyage
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. leisure B. average C. athletics D. holiday
7. A. volunteer B. entertain C. swimming D. karaoke
8. A. equally B. improvement C. important D. spectator
9. A. decide B. cricket C. football D. tennis
10. A. active B. enjoy C. weather D. water

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. He..................could not come................did not want to.
A. either - or B. neither - or C. either-nor D. nor - nor
12. I looked everywhere but I couldn't find..................at all.
A. anyone B. no one C. someone D. somebody
13. Among her..................are chess and gardening.
A. pastime B. occupation C. recreations D. hobby
14. The hotel is neither spacious...................
A. or comfortable B. nor comfortable
C. or comfort D. nor comfort
15. Can you..................the papers with you when you come to see me,
please?
A. collect B. bring C. take D. get
16. Not only Mr Smith but also Mrs Smith..................very tired and hungry.
A. are B. is C. were D. am
17. Not..................did she refuse to speak to him, but she also vowed never
to see him again.
A. even B. only C. at all D. always

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18. It was on the train..................I met Peter.
A. that B. on which C. where D. in which
19. You can not see the doctor..................you make an appointment with
him.
A. even B. however C. without D. unless
20. Although only of.................. intelligence, he speaks four languages
fluently.
A. middle B. minor C. average D. high
21. May I have..................more meat, please?
A. small B. another C. a little D. a few
22. He completely..................with what I said.
A. admitted B. agreed C. accepted D. argued
23. The lake..................thousands offish.
A. consists B. contains C. comprised D. holds
24. It's very important..................me that you should be there.
A. for B. with C. to D. A or B
25. I thought those figures were correct...................,I have now discovered
they were not.
A. But B. Besides C. However D. In addition
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. I prefer to go out for a meal to staying at home.
A B C D
27. Both Lan and Minh is good students.
A B C D
28. I always get up early, and so do my little daughter.
A B C D
29. My son enjoy going fishing.
A B C D
30. Neither James or his brothers have come to Paris.

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A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. most / common / leisure activities / Britain / home, based.
A. The most common leisure activities in Britain is home based.
B. The most common leisure activities in Britain are home based.
C. The most Britain common leisure activities are in home based.
D. The most common leisure activities in Britain are for home based. 32:
people / interested/watch /take part /sports.
A. Many people are interested to watch and taking part in sports.
B. Many people are interested in watching and take part in sports.
C. Many people are interested in watching and To take part in sports.
D. Many people are interested in watching and taking part in sports.
33. television / watch / one /popular pastimes.
A. Watch television is one of the most popular pastimes.
B. Television watching is one of the most popular pastimes.
C. Television watching is one most popular pastimes.
D. Watching television are one of the most popular pastimes.
34. she / keen / not only / listen / music / but also /play I games.
A. She is keen on not only listening to music but also play games.
B. She is keen on not only listening music but also playing games.
C. She is keen on not only listening to music but also playing games.
D. She is keen on not only listen to music but also play games.
35. last weekend/we go / Thien An Hill / camping holiday.
A. Last weekend we went to Thien An Hill for a camping holiday.
B. Last weekend we had gone to Thien An Hill for a camping holiday.
C. Last weekend we was going to Thien An Hill for a camping holiday.
D. Last weekend we has gone to Thien An Hill for a camping holiday.

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C. READING
I. Read the text below and choose the correct word or phrase for each
space. For each question, circle the letter you choose A, B, C or D.
After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only too obvious to
conclude that it is (36) .........................to stay. There have been many
(37).........................to it during this time, of course, and on a variety of
grounds. Did it cause eye-strain? Was the screen bombarding us with
radioactivity? Did the advertisements contain subliminal (38) .................,
persuading us (39) ......................... more or vote Republican? Did children
turn to violence through watching it, either (40) ......................... so many
programmers taught them (41) ......................... to shoot, rob, and kill, or
because they had to do something to (42). the hours they had spent
(43) ......................... to the tiny screen? Or did it simply create a vast passive
audience, drugged by glamorous serials and inane situation comedies? On
the other hand. did it increase anxiety by (44) ......................... the
news and (45) ......................... our living rooms with war, famine and
political unrest?
36. A. around B. there C. ready D. here
37. A. arguments B. options C. objections D. agreements
38. A. information B. messages C. data D. communications
39. A. to buy B. buying C. to buying D. buy
40. A. because B. because of C. although D. despite
41. A. what B. which C. when D. how
42. A. counteract B. negate C offset D. compensate
43. A. attached B. fixed C. glued D. adhered
44. A. scandalizing B. hyping C. dramatizing D. sensationalizing
45. A. filling B. loading C. stuffing D. packing
II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Stage plays, at first, seem a lot like films. Both use actors and dialogue and
scenery. But if you try to make a film by setting up a camera in front of the
stage, you'll find it won't work. A film made in this way will leave the

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audience cold. And even worse, you'll be wasting a powerful tool - the
camera.
A stage is, in fact, a box. One side of the box has been removed so the
audience can see what's going on inside. The actors remain at a fixed
distance. In films, however, the camera can bring the audience up close and
fix their attention on a small but important thing: a frightened look, a
whisper or a trembling of hands.
The camera offers the film maker freedom, allowing him to move easily
across barriers of them and space. He can show his actors in real cities and
on real farms. He can also use the camera to change the scene dozens of
times in one film. No experts of the stage can do this.
46. The main idea of the text is that.............................
A. stage plays and films are too different
B. it is always disappointing to turn plays into films
C. films have certain advantages over stage plays
D. the camera has made film-making easy and possible
47. What is wrong with making a film by setting up a camera before the
stage?
A. Fewer and fewer people will go to the theatre.
B. The audience cannot see what is going on the stage.
C. The scene cannot be changed from time to time.
D. The powerful camera cannot be made good use of.
48. The camera is a powerful tool because it can.............................
A. be moved easily
B. make small things look larger
C. show things in the future .
D. give us a sense of realism
49. In what way are plays different from films?
A. Films often use real scenery while plays don't.

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B. Films can show the past while plays can't.
C. Films change scenes while plays don't.
D. Films audience can move while play audience can't.
50. A suitable title for this text is.............................
A. Stage Plays and Films
B. The Powerful Camera
C. Fewer Plays, More Freedom
D. Less waste, More Freedom

UNIT15: SPACE CONQUEST


PRACTICE TEST 1
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. stones B. learns C. phones D, tense
2. A. rind B. remind C. wind D. kind
3. A. end B. friend C. fiend D. defend
4. A. route B. crown C. sound D. amount
5. A. fear B. earth C. gear D. hear
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. uncertain B. technical C. attention D. attraction
7. A. routine B. aboard C. telegram D. another
8. A. television B. engineer C. Vietnamese D. satisfaction
9. A. failure B. around C. orbit D. astronaut
10. A. psychological B. cosmonaut C. accident D. national

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE

162
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. Lisa's been able to play the flute since she was six,..................
A. can't she B. isn't she C. wasn't she D. hasn't she
12. Yuri Gagarin was the first person..................into space.
A. to fly B. who flies
C. who was flying D. flew
13. He was..................after his father.
A. called B. named C. taken D. known
14. The document had been typed on a small...................
A. handy B. portable C. portability D. handle
15. I have to take that French course,..................?
A. do I B. have I C. don't I D. haven't I
16. By June she..................complete her computer class.
A. will be able to B. can
C. could D. shall
17. How long do you think this hot weather will..................?
A. last B. lengthen C. enlarge D. happen
18. Neil seemed to have a good time at the party,..................?
A. hadn't he B. had he C. did he D. didn't he
19...................seats with you? I'd like to sit next to my son.
A. Did I change B. Do I change
C. Was I able to change D. Could I change
20. I shall do the job to the best of my...................
A. capacity B. knowledge C. ability D. talent
21. There has not been a great response to the sale,..................?
A. does there B. hasn't there C. has there D. hasn't it
22. I feel..................about what to do. Can you give me some advice?
A. uncertain B. no doubt C. unbelievable D. unreliable

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23. She had. done more work in one day than her husband .................. in
three days.
A. do B. could do C. may do D. done
24. Let's go for a long walk,..................we?
A. shall B. will C. do D. must
25. It..................a lot of patience to be a nurse.
A. takes B. uses C. spends D. costs
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. Your grandfather could speak five languages, could he ?
A B C D
27. Gagarin is the first person fly into space.
A B C D
28. Gagarin could have make another space flight if a tragic accident
A B C
had not occured.
D
29. From space, astronauts are able to clearly see the outline of the
A B C D
whole earth.
30. America's first satellites exploded before it had risen three and a half
A B C
feet off the ground.
D
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. She came to see me here two weeks ago.
A. It is two weeks since she came to see me here.
B. She's been living here for two weeks.
C. She was here for two weeks.

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D. She didn't come to see me here for two weeks.
32. I saw him under a tree on the mountain.
A. I was under a tree on the mountain, and I saw him.
B. He was under a tree on the mountain, and I saw him there.
C. He and I were under a tree on the mountain.
D. He was on the mountain, and he saw me under a tree.
33. Paul is employed by Sony, isn't he?
A. Paul works for Sony, didn't he?
B. Paul works for Sony, did he?
C. Paul works for Sony, doesn't he?
D. Paul works for Sony, does he?
34. The PC is undeniably the best tool for the job.
A. No one can deny that the PC is the best tool for the job.
B. The PC is not the best tool for the job.
C. They deny that the PC is the best tool for the job.
D. The PC could be the best tool for the job.
35. The story was about the first person to fly into space.
A. The story told how the first person flew into space.
B. The story was about the first person who lived in space.
C. The story was about the first person and other things in space.
D. The story told how people knew about the first person.

C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
ON THE MOON

In 1969, the first astronauts from Earth (36) .................. on the Moon. They
had (37) .................. for the trip for a long time and knew their mission
(38) .................. doing things that had never been done before. The

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astronauts wore special heavy boots to (39) .................. them from floating
off into space. On the Moon, they had time to (40)..................Moon rocks
and soil (41) .................. before returning to Earth. Those brave people, and
others after them, are (42)..................for much of the knowledge we now
have about how the Moon was formed. It is (43)..................that scientists
will (44) .................. to learn more about how the galaxy was formed by
studying the data (45).................. back from the Moon.
36. A. landed B. flew C. went D. ran
B. planned C. prepared D. tried
37. A. managed
B. involved C. aimed D. concerned
38. A. included B. prevent C. avoid D. make
39. A. help B. get C. take D. collect
B. pieces C. brands D. samples
40. A. assemble
B. responsible C. available D. ready
41. A. models B. able C. hopeful D. seemly
42. A. prepared B. keep C. continue D. keep up
B. brought C. taken D. gotten
43. A. likely
44. A. go on
45. A. hold

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Are there intelligent beings on other planets in our solar system? Most
scientists don't think so. If there is, the only likely place is Mars.
It is fun to imagine our kind of human on other planets, but they would
probably look so different that we might not recognize them as people at all.
Living things have a wonderful way of adapting themselves to conditions
around them in order to stay alive. Plants grow in the Artie. Some simple
animals can survive being boiled or frozen. Creatures can live in the blackest
depths of the sea under thousands of tons of pressure.

166
We can really say that our kind of air is the only kind living things could
breathe, or that we must have water of certain climate. Creatures that
breathed other gases or lived in temperatures that would kill earthmen,
however, certainly wouldn't look like us.
Are there people anywhere else in the universe? Maybe there are. In our own
galaxy there are millions of stars. Some must have planets with conditions
like those on earth. Somewhere in space there could be other thinking
beings. If their planets are older, they may know more than we do. They may
be travelling in space.
46. Most scientists don't think that...................
A. Mars is a planet
B. there is Mars
C. man is intelligent
D. there is man on other planets in our solar system
47. Scientists think that any intelligent beings on other planets in our solar
system would...................
A. live under thousands of tons of pressure
B. already be travelling in space
C. be very different from us
D. have adapted themselves to conditions better than we have done
48. Our kind of air...................
A. is the only air in the world
B. is not likely the only kind living things could breathe
C. consists of water and certain climate
D. is of gases and temperatures
49. The word Galaxy in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. the outer space B. the moon
C. the world D. the sun
50. What does "they" in "They may be travelling in space." refer to?

167
A. planets B. conditions
C. millions of stars D. other thinking beings

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. brand B. spoken C. human D. accident
2. A. thirtieth B. bother C. think D. thought
3. A. suburb B. learn C. liberty D. surface
4. A. meal B. heal C. deal D. react
5. A. hometown B. flow C. slow D. growth
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. congratulate B. satisfaction C. approximate D. enormous
7. A. scientist B. possible C. precisely D. people
8. A. react B. attract C. extreme D. venture
9. A. human B.-event C. occur D. rename
10. A. president B. psychology C. weightless D. worldwide
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. You are going to come to the party,..................?
A. aren't you B. do you C. will you D. won't you
12. I've put Mr Matthew's papers in your green files...............is on your
desk.
A. that B. which C. whose D. where
13. Despite the bad weather, he..................get to the airport in time.
A. could B. couldn't C. was able to D. almost

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14. We are...................your request and will strongly reply to it.
A. thinking B. considering C. realising D. noticing
15. You're Cynthia,..................you?
A. aren't B. are C. didn't D. were
16. I don't suppose you........'..........help me with my homework.
A. could B. were able to C. do D. would
17. I am .................. to come to the meeting on Monday evening; please
apologise for my absence.
A. capable B. excused C. unable D. dislike
18. Why don't you do something ................of just complaining?.
A. but B. except C. instead D. apart
19................... I were to agree to your request, how do you think the other
students would feel?
A. Thinking B. Believing C. Considering D. Supposing
20. We didn't eat here last week,..................we?
A. didn't B. did C. haven't D. do
21...................accepting your job offer, I'd like to know a bit more about the
company.
A. In advance B. Before C. Until D. In order
22. Who was the first man..................the earth?
A. to move B. to travel C. to orbit D. to fly
23. No one knew precisely what would..................to a human being in
space.
A. happen B. go on C. impact D. affect
24. You can .................yourself on having done an excellent job.
A. congratulate B. thank C. comment D. admire
25. I'm tired of my neighbours..................their records at full volume every
night.
A. to play B. play C. having played D. playing

169
n. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
26. Those of us whom smoke should have our lungs X-rayed regularly.
A B C
D
27. Mrs Young was the last person leave the room, wasn't she?
A B C D
28. The new hotel they are building is twice large as the old one on Main
A B C D
Street.
29. Although feeling cold, we kept walking .
A B C D
30. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is remarkable .
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. Yuri Gagarin / space flight / April 12, 1961.
A. Yuri Gagarin made a space flight on April 12, 1961.
B. Yuri Gagarin went on a space flight on April 12, 1961.
C. Yuri Gagarin was in a space flight on April 12, 1961.
D. Yuri Gagarin had made a space flight on April 12, 1961.
32. astronauts / orbit / earth / space capsules / weightless.
A. Astronauts orbit the earth in space capsules are weightless.
B. Astronauts orbiting the earth in space capsules are weightless.
C. Astronauts to orbit the earth in space capsules are weightless.
D. Astronauts in orbit of the earth in space capsules are weightless.
33. Pham Tuan/first Vietnamese person /fly / space.
A. Pham Tuan is the first Vietnamese person fly into space.
B. Pham Tuan is the first Vietnamese person who flew off the space.
C. Pham Tuan is the first Vietnamese person to fly into space.

170
D. Pham Tuan is the first Vietnamese person who fly into space.
34. Neil Armstrong /first man / set foot / moon.
A. Neil Armstrong is the first man to set foot on the moon.
B. Neil Armstrong is the first man to setting foot on the moon.
C. Neil Armstrong is the first man that was set foot on the moon.
D. Neil Armstrong is the first man who sets foot into the moon.
35. Gagarin /die /'plane crash/'routine training flight.
A. Gagarin died in a plane crash on training flight routine.
B. Gagarin died in plane crash on a training routine flight.
C. Gagarin died in a plane crash in a routine training flight.
D. Gagarin died in a plane crash on a routine training flight.
C. READING
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
Valentina Tereshkova the first woman in space
Valentina Tereshkova was the first woman to travel into space. She was born
(36)......................... a farm in the Russian village of Masiennikova. She
worked in a factory but (37)......................... wanted something more
(38) ......................... . In 1959 she tried parachute-jumping and
(39).........................became good at it Two years later Yuri Gagarin made the
first flight into space. Valentina was (40).........................that she could do
that too!
For two years Valentina trained hard to be an (41).......................... She
exercised, practised being (42) ......................... and, in her spacesuit.
learned the technical skills for space flight. On 16 June 1963, her
spaceship Vostok VI was (43).........................into space to orbit the Earth.
She stayed in space for three days, making forty-eight orbits and travelling
over one and a half million kilometres. The Russian people were very
(44).........................of Valentina and they gave her medals and awards. She

171
had shown that women astronauts were more than equal to men. When she
returned to Earth, Valentina had, in fact, been in space
(45).........................than all the American-male-astronauts at that time!
36. A. in B. at C. on D. from
37. A. really B. wholly C. fully D. already
38. A. excited B. exciting C. excite D. excites
39. A. late B. early C. earlier D. soon
40. A. sure B. ensure C. true D. believable
41. A, astronomer B. astronaut C. cosmos D. universe
42. A. weigh B. weightlessness C. weight D. weightless
43. A, rocketed B. gone C. put D. lifted
44. A. proud B. scared C. satisfied D. surprised
45. A, better B. longer C. later D. more

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
A popular theory explaining the evolution of the universe is known as the
Big Bang Model. According to the model, at some time between ten and
twenty billion years ago, all present matter and energy were compressed into
a small ball only a few kilometres in diameter. It was, in effect, an atom that
contained in the form of pure energy all of the components of the entire
universe. Then, at a moment in time that astronomers refer to as T = 0, the
ball exploded, hurling the energy into space. Expansion occurred. As the
energy cooled, most of it became matter in the form of protons, neutrons, and
electrons. These original particles combined to form hydrogen and helium,
and continue to expand. Matter formed into galaxies with stars and planets.
46. Which sentence below best summarizes this passage?
A. The Big Bang theory does not account for the evolution of the universe.

172
B. According to the Big Bang Model, an explosion caused the
formation of the universe.
C. The universe is made of hydrogen and helium.
D. The universe is more than ten billion years old.
47. According to the passage, when was the universe formed?
A. Ten billion years ago.
B. Fifteen billion years ago.
C. at T - 0
D. Twenty billion years ago.
48. The environment before the Big Bang is described as all of the following
except
A. compressed matter.
B. energy.
C. all the components of the universe.
D. protons, neutrons and electrons.
49. The word "compressed" could be best replaced by
A. excited
B. balanced
C. reduced
D. controlled
50. It may be inferred that
A. energy and matter are the same.
B. protons, neutrons and electrons are not matters.
C. energy may be converted into matter.
D. the galaxies stopped expanding as. energy cooled.

UNIT16: THE WONDERS OF THE WORLD


PRACTICE TEST 1

173
A. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others.
1. A. arrived B. thrived C. lived D. shrived
2. A. naked B. needed C. started D. laughed
3. A. coughs B. gifts C. laughs D. proofs
4. A. behaves B. goes C. loves D. watches
5. A. preserved B. managed C. passed D. concerned
II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. pyramid B. structure C. region D. design
7. A. mysterious B. proceed C. spiral D. together
8. A. suggestion B. preparation C. Egyptian D. construction
9. A. propose B. area C. enclose D. museum
10. A. maintain B. theory C. treasure D. journey
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence.
11. The children loved .................the old castle.
A. hunting B. exploring C. discovering D. detecting
12. He was..................to steal the money when he saw it lying on the table.
A. thought B. thinking C. thoughtful D. thoughtless
13. The government is..................changes to the current legislation.
A. proposing B. advising C. informing D. offering
14. It should be .................. that students are expected to attend classes
regularly.
A. reminded B. marked C. noted D. perceived
15. Having..................the table, Mrs Roberts called the family for supper.
A. completed. B. ordered C. laid D. spread

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16...................that by the 2010s the world will be suffering from an energy
crisis.
A- People are generally agreed B. It is generally agreed
C. It generally agrees D. It's people agree
17. He suggested .................. a jumble sale to try and raise money for the
homeless.
A. me to hold B. that we hold
C. to hold D. to be held
18. There is..................to be a fortune on the sea-bed nearby.
A. whispered B. told C. written D. rumoured
19. I didn't see anyone but I felt as though I...................
A. be watched B. have been watched
C. am watched D. was being watched
20. Jane..................to write back as soon as she got my letters, but months
can go by before I get a reply these days.
A. always used B. has always used
C. always uses D. is always used
21. The Great Pyramid is believed..................over a 20-year period.
A. to have been built . B. to build
C. being built D. to be being built
22. The bridge is under...................
A. construct B. constructing C. construction D. constructed
23. Where will the new headquarters be..................?
A. put B. placed C. located D. laid
24. Vitamin C is..................to be good for treating colds.
A. called B. known C. regarded C. informed
25. We are open..................any suggestions you care to make.
A. with B. to C. for D. of
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.

175
26. The Great Pyramid of Giza is built around the year 2560 BC.
A B C D
27. The purpose of build this pyramid was to serve as a tomb when
A B C
pharaoh died.
D
28. Christopher Columbus was consider to discover America.
A B C D
29. The United Nations play an important part in preserving the world's
A B C D
cultural heritages.
30. Every country has its own traditions, some of them have existed for
A B C D
centuries.
III. Choose the correct sentence (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning as the given one.
31. It is said that many people are homeless after the floods.
A. Many people are said that they homeless after the floods.
B. Many people were said that they were homeless after the floods.
C. Many people were said to be homeless after the floods.
D. Many people are said to be homeless after the floods.
32. He is said to have studied abroad,
A. People say that he studied abroad.
B. People said that he studied abroad.
C. It is said that he had studied abroad.
D. It was said that he studied abroad.
33. There are just as many shops in Rome as in Paris.
A. There are more shops in Rome.
B. There aren't as many shops in Paris.

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C. There are about the same number of shops in Paris and Rome.
D. Rome has the most shops.
34. Bob thinks he's going to do well.
A. Bob is thought to do well.
B. Bob isn't sure he's going to do well.
C. Bob wants to do well in the future.
D. Bob expects to do well.
35. Some people say that oil is healthier than butler.
A. Butter is said to be healthier than oil.
B. It is said that oil is healthier than butter.
C. Oil is said to be less healthy than butter.
D. People are said that oil is healthier than butter.

C. READING
I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that
best fits each gap.
The Taj Mahal is (36) .................. as one of the eight wonders of the world,
and (37) .................. Western historians have noted that its architectural
beauty has never been (38)...................'The Taj Mahal is the most beautiful
monument (39) .................. by the Mughals, the Muslim rulers of India. The
Taj Mahal is built entirely (40)..................white marble. Its stunning
architectural beauty is beyond adequate (41).................., particularly at dawn
and sunset. The Taj Mahal (42)..................to glow in the light of the full
moon. (43).................a foggy morning, the visitors experience the Taj Mahal
as if (44) .................when viewed from across (45)..................Jamuna river.

36. A. called B. regarded C. named D. entitled


B. some Clots D. plenty
37. A. a lot
B. defeated C. outranked D. overcome
38. A. surpassed B. formed C. shaped D. built

177
39. A. created B. with C. of D. from
B. recognition C. identity D. appearance
40. A. in
B. looks C. seems D. feels
41. A. description B. For a on D. At
42. A. keeps B. suspended C. floated D. flown
B. an C/f D. the
43. A. In
44. A. hung
45. A. a

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza
was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh
Cheops in 2720 BC. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction
make it one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre
structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial
chamber for the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The
four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east
and wet - an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun
worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid
were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal
many interesting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent
a type of timeline of events - past, present, and future. Many of the events
have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past.
Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under
investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this
one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial
being of the ancient past.

178
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or once built by a race far
superior to any known today?
46. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden
passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the Pharaoh's family to bring food for the journey after life.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with
the pharaoh.
47. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid.
B. Problem with the construction of the Great Pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza.
D. Explorations of the Burial Chamber of Cheops.
48. What do the interesting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects' plans for the hidden passage.
B. Date of important events taking place throughout time.
C. Astrological computations.
D. Pathways of great solar bodies.
49. The word "feat" is closest in meaning to.................................
A. accomplishment B. appendage
C. festivity D. structure
50. The word "prophesied" is closest in meaning to.................................
A. affiliated C. precipitated
B. terminated D. foretold

PRACTICE TEST 2
A. PHONETICS

179
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others.
1. A. construction B. Egyptian C. protection D. suggestion
2. A. believed B. died C. surpassed D. buried
3. A. span B. various C. sandy D. magic
4. A. perfect B. center C. reverse D. conserve
5. A. journey B. source C. course D. four

II. Pick out the word that has the stress pattern different from that of
the others.
6. A. bury B. involve C. other D. tourist
7. A. discover B. century C. consist D. believe
8. A. theory B. purpose C. wonder D. admire
9. A. chamber B. surpass C. ancient D. burial
10. A. wonder B. significant C. Chinese D. consider
B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each
sentence,
11. The existence of the planet Pluto was not..................until this century.
A. invented B. explored C. identified D. discovered
12. Mr Smith is believed..................England last week.
A. to have left B. to be leaving C. that he leave D. that left
13. He set standards that are unlikely...................
A. to surpass B. to be surpassed
C. surpassing D. being surpassed
14. The structure..................approximately 2 million blocks of stone, each
weighing about 2.5 tons.
A. had B. consisted of C. contained D. comprised
15. The village was completely..................in an earthquake.

180
A. destroyed B. collapsed C. ruined D. broken
16. Before the Statue of Liberty arrived in the United States, newspapers
invited the public to help determine where .................. placed after its arrival.
A. should the statue be B. it should be the statue
C. the statue should be D. the statue being
17. The musical instrument .................. is six feet long.
A. is called the bass B. it is called the bass
C. called the bass D. calls the bass
18. The speed of light is .................. the speed of sound.
A. faster B. much faster than
C. as fast D. the fastest
19. Have I .................. you about how Mary is getting on at college?
A. said B. told C. explained D. answered
20 ................... the members study the problem more carefully.
A. It was suggested that B. The chairman suggested that
C. It was suggesting that D. A or B
21. The film .................. several scenes that might upset young children.
A. admits B. involves C. displays D. contains
22. Armed terrorists are reported to have ............... the Embassy.
A. taken over B. taken up C. taken into D. taken to
23. People still haven't ...... ............ how dangerous pollution can be.
A. remarked B. noted C. realised D. minded
24. Don't worry. You ................. told if there's a change of plan.
A. be B. will C. will be D. were
25. It was widely ....... : ..... to have been lost during the war.
A. determined B. supposed C. planned D. suggested
II. Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting,
26. It is said that he speak English very well.
A B C D

181
27. The Headquarter of the United Nations is locating in New York.
A B C D
28. The streets were crowded in people during the festival.
A B C D
29. Most people believed that the world's natural resources could never be
A B C
use up.
D
30. Your advice enable me to work better.
A B C D
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) corresponding to the best sentence
that is made up from the sets of words and phrases given.
31. many / important discoveries / 20th century.
A. Many important discoveries are made in the 20th century.
B. Many important discoveries were made in the 20th century.
C. Many important discoveries had been made in the 20th century.
D. Many important discoveries were making in the 20th century.
32. Great Pyramid of Giza / believe / build/ a 20-year period
A. The Great Pyramid of Giza is believed to have been built over a 20-year
period.
B. The Great Pyramid of Giza is believed to build over a 20-year period.
C. The Great Pyramid ofGiza is believed to have been build over a 20-year
period.
D. The Great Pyramid of Giza believes to have been built over a 20-year
period.
33. Great Pyramid of Giza/ one / ancient / wonder / world.
A. The Great Pyramid of Giza is one of the ancient wonders of the world.
B. The Great Pyramid of Giza is one of the ancient wonder of the world.
C. The Great Pyramid of Giza is one the ancient world's wonder,

182
D. The Great Pyramid of Giza is among the world with the ancient wonders.
34. New York / most exciting city /I / visit.
A. New York is the most exciting city I ever visit.
B. New York is most exciting city I ever visit.
C. New York is the more exciting city I have ever visited.
D. New York is the most exciting city I have ever visited.
35. ancient Chinese /start/build/Great Wall/1368
A. Ancient Chinese started to build Great Wall in 1368.
B. The ancient Chinese started to build Great Wall in 1368.
C. The ancient Chinese started to build the Great Wall in 1368.
D. The ancient Chinese started to be built Great Wall in 1368.
C. READING
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) that best
fits each gap.
The Hanging Gardens of Babylon
The Hanging Gardens of Babylon were considered to be one of the Seven
Wonders of the (36) ......................... World. They are believed to have been
built by King Nebuchadnezzar in the sixth century BC as a present for his
wife, Amytis. The gardens were (37).........................in layers - one on top of
the other, much like a modern multi-storey car park, although a lot more (38)
.........................to look at. Each layer was a large terrace filled with tropical
flowers, plants and trees. The large (39) ......................... of water which these
plants required was pumped from the river Euphrates nearby. It is said that
Nebuchadnezzar and his wife would sit in the (40).........................of the
gardens and (41).........................down on the city of Babylon below. The
gardens' fame quickly (42)........................., and travellers would come from
far and wide to (43).........................them. Even thousands of years ago,
people used to go (44).........................! The city of Babylon itself was also
famous throughout the world for its beautiful buildings, huge tiled walls and

183
magnificent gates made of brass. Sadly, nothing (45) .......................today of
the beautiful hanging gardens, and the city of Babylon lies in ruins in what is
modern-day Iraq.
36. A; Antique B. Ancient C. Historical D. Traditional
37. A. constructed B. assembled C. collected D. invented
38. A. good-looking B. attractive C. handsome D. adorable
39. A. total B. sum C. amount D. number
40. A. glow B. shade C. gloom D. shadow
41. A. look B. see C. watch D. observe
42. A. distributed B. spread C. extended D. moved
43. A. approve B. respect C. admire D. assess
44. A. glimpsing B. sightseeing C. glancing D. staring
45. A. remains B. stays C. waits D. continues

II. Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question.
Of all the natural wonders of the world, few are as spectacular as Niagara
Falls. Located on the Niagara River along the border between the United
States and Canada, Niagara Falls actually consists of two falls, the American
Falls and the Horseshoe Falls. The former is on the US side of the border, in
the state of New York, while the latter is on the Canadian side. About 85% of
the water in Niagara River flows over the Horseshoe Falls, which is the more
impressive of the two falls.
About 10 million people visit the falls each year, most during the summer
tourist season. Sightseers can ride steamers up close to the boiling water of
the falls, or view them from parks on both sides of the river. Niagara Falls
has long been a popular honeymoon destination for newly weds.
46. Which of the following is entirely on the US side of the border with
Canada?
A. American Falls B. Niagara River
C. Niagara Falls D. Horseshoe Falls
47. It can be inferred from the passage that Horseshoe Falls...................

184
A. is the less impressive fall
B. is the larger of the two falls
C. has 85% of the Niagara River flowing over its edge
D. is in the state of New York
48. According to the passage, where can people watch the falls? A. From
trains. B. From airplanes.
C. From cars or buses. D. From parks or boats.
49. The word "them" in the second paragraph refers to...................
A. steamers B. sightseers
C. waterfalls D. parks
50. According to the passage, Niagara Falls...................
A. can be viewed from only one side of the Niagara Falls
B. generates very hot water
C. is a favourite spot of newly weds
D. is only impressive during the summer tourist season

185
KEY
UNITl
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C
11, A 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. B
21, G 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. A
26.A There is 27. C start 28. B to use 29. B capable of 30. B be based

31. D 32. B 33. A 34. A 35. C


36. A 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. A
46. C 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. B

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. B
26. B to hear 27. D read 28. C to be 29. A jump 30. D with

31. A 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. B


36. C 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. B
41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. B
46. C 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. A

UNIT2
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. B 2. B 3, A 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B

186
11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. B .17. D 18. C 19. D 20. A
21. D 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. A
26. A was doing 27. C were 28. B the poorest 29. C 30. B fuss
embarrassing
31. A 32.-B 33. A 34. C 35. D
36. C 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. A
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. C
46. C 47. D 48. A 49. D 50. B

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. B
21. D 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. A
26. B had 27. A had 28. C 29. C 30. D
bought helping taught were from
31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. C
36. C 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. D 44. A 45. A
46. C 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. B

UNIT-3
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. B
26. C 27. C to be 28. B 29. A 30. D
to hand asked worried to set going

187
31. C 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. A
36. A 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. B
46. C 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. B

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D
6. C 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. B
16. C 17.C 18. B 19. A 20. D
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. C 27. B 28. D been 29. D 30. C read
to attend to be eaten to study
admitted
31. C 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. A
36. B 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. B 44. D 45. D
46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. A

UNIT 4 PRACTICE TEST 1


I. A 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. C
1KB 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. A
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. D
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A
26. C 27. C to 28. A 29. A no 30. B
voluntarily seeing In spite of/ to using
take Despite energy
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. D
36. A 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. C
41. D 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. A
46. C 47. B 48. A 49. D 50; C

188
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. D 8. B 9.C 10. B
11. D 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. C
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B
26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. B
to buy sitting from burning to making
driving
31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. C
36. A 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. B 43. D 44. D 45. A
46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D

UNI 5
PRACTICE TEST 1
I. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. D 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. B
II. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. B 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. D
21. B 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. C
26. B 27. A were 28. B 29. B not 30. C left
to tell warned teaching to remove
31. A 32. C 33. B 34. B 35.0
36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. A
41. C 42. D 43. C 44. A 45. A
46. D 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. A
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. A
16. A 17. C' 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. A

189
26. C has 27. D not 28. B to 29. C 30. B
increased to go drink quiet better not
31. A 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. D
36. A 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. D
41. D 42. B 43. B 44. C 45. G
46. B 47. A 48. C 49. D 50. A

UNIT 6
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
II. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A
16. A 17. B . 18. B 19. D 20. D
21. C 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. D
26. C from 27. D his 28. B my 29. A him 3.0. B
shouting help having to take / your
him taking frying
31. A 32. D 33, B 34. B 35. C
36. B 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. A 44. D 45, B
46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D
PRACTICE TEST 2
l.A 2. C TA 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C
16, B 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. A
26. C 27. B to 28. C 29. B 30. A
on change trying in finding Getting
more
31. A 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. C
36. A 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. A

190
41. A 42. D 43. D 44. C 45. B
46. A 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. A

UNIT 7
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D
21. D 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. A
26. B had 27. C 28. D 29. C had 30. A
been won't is to buy
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. A
36. B 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. C 45. B
46. D 47. B 48. D 49. A 50. C
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D
6.. B 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. B
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. C -
16. A. 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. C
26. A have 27. A could 28. B 29. A In 30. A
have were able my Should he
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B
36. A 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. B 45. A
46. D 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. A

UNIT 8

191
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A
r
6. B 7. B 8. D 9T~A 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. A I5.B
16. D 17..D 18. B 19. B 20. A
21. C 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. B
26. D 27. A is 28. A 29. B 30. A
their Someone They've No one .
31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D
36. A 37. C 38. D 39. B 40. A
41. A 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. B
46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. B
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. A 2, B 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. D
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B
26. A 27. A 28. C 29. A 30.D newly
No one There's them haven't decorated
3t. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. C
36. B 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. A
41. B 42. B 43. D 44. A 45. C
46. D 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. C

UN IT 9 PRACTICE TEST 1
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. D
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. B

192
26. A that 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. B who
(who) is whose where / in whom
which
31. D 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. B
36. B 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. D 43. D 44. A -45. A
46. C 47, B 48. C 49. B 50. A

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A .
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B
16. B 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A 25. D
26. D 27. C will 28. D is 29. B 30. A
well- be when / on offers
trained delivered which
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C
36. D 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. A
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. A
46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B

UNIT1O
PRACTICE TEST 1

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. 0 9. A 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. D
16. A 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. R 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. A
26. B 27, C 28. A 29. A are 30. D
which with why destroyin beings
which g

193
31. A 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. A
36. A 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. B 42. A 43. A 44. D 45. C
46. C 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. A
PRACTICE TEST 2
r
1. D 2. C 3. B 4TA 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. C 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. A
26. A 27. B is 28. D 29. C 30. A in
make decreasin with who / that which /
g where
31. A 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. A
36. A 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. B
41. A 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. C
46. B 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C
UNIT 11
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. D
16. L) 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. B
26. D 27. D into 28. B 29. B 30. C
every day speaking to be sponsored
killed
31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. C
36. R 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. A
41. C 42. B 43. C 44. C 45. B
46. C 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. C

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B

194
6. C 7. .D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. B
16. B 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. C
21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. C
26. D 27. B 28. D is 29. A 30. B
Although enough coming which using
/ Though electricity
31. D 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. B
36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. D 43. B . 44. A 45. B
46.0 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. A
UNIT 12
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B
6. c 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. A
16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. A
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. A
26. D 27. D 28, A are 29. C 30. C
them repaired advancing about / for
31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. D
36. A 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. A 43. A 44. D 45. C
46. B 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. C

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C
6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C
16. A 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. B
26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. C
has been were held it on which Won
31. A 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. A

195
36. C 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. D
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. A
46. C 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. C

UNIT 13
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D
26. B 27. D me 28.C 29. C into 30. A
playing that Collecting
31. C 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D
36. B 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. A
41. C 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. B
46. B 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. D

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. B.
11. A 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. B
26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A easy 30. B that
them collecting guitarists
31. C 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. B
36. C 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. C
46. B 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D

196
UNIT 14
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B
6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. A 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. B
26. C 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B not
io taking and either only
31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A
36. A 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. B
46. D 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. B

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. C 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. B
16. B 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. C
26. B 27. C are 28. C 29. B 30. A nor
going does enjoys
31. B 32. D 33. B 34, C 35. A
36. D 37. C 38. B 39. A 40, A
41. D 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A
46. C 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. A

UNIT 15
PRACTICE TEST 1
I. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B, 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. C

197
16. A 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. A
26. D 27. C to 28. A 29. C 30. A
couldn't fly could to see satellite
he have clearly
made
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. A
36. A 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. D
41. D 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. B
46. D 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D

PRACTICE TEST 2
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A
6, B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A
16. A 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. B
21. B 22..C 23. A 24. A 25. D
26. B 27. C to 28. C as 29. A 30. B in
who leave large as Despite /
In spite of
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D
36. C 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. A
41. B 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. B
46. B 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. C

UNIT16 PRACTICE TEST 1


1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. B 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. A
21. A 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. B

198
26. B was 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. D
building considere plays some of
d which
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B
36. B 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. C
41. A 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. D
46. D 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. D 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. B
26. C 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. B
speaks located with used enables
31. B 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. C
36. B 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. A
46. A 47. B 48. D 49. C 50, C

199

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