RTI Made Easy

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SWAMY’S
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RTI
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Made Objective
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
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[ Free with Cat. No. C-69 ]

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MUTHUSWAMY
BRINDA
SANJEEV
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SWAMY PUBLISHERS (P) LTD.

236, R. K. Mutt Road, Post Box No. 2468, CHENNAI — 600 028
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Phone : (044) 2493 83 65 / 2493 92 44 / 45

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Fax: (044) 2493 83 63

Delhi Branch : 4855, 24, Ansari Road, Near Sanjeevan Hospital
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Daryaganj, NEW DELHI — 110 002

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Phone: (011) 2325 92 56 Fax: (011) 2328 16 97

www.swamypublishers.com
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FIRST EDITION — 2018
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The artistic work and trade mark appearing on the wrapper are the
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attended only if received within one month of purchase. No part of
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this publication can be reproduced or transmitted in any form or

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by any means, without prior permission of the Publishers. Although

every care has been taken to avoid errors or omissions in this
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FIFTH
MULTIPLE SCHEDULE
CHOICE QUESTIONS 5
LE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
LE
SA
SA
1. Mention who has the right to information under RTI Act—
R
R
(a) Central Government employees
FO
FO
(b) State Government employees
T
T
(c) Members of Parliament
NO
NO
(d) All citizens of India
2. Democratic Republic was established by the—

(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Constitution of India (d) Chief Justice of India
LE
LE
3. RTI means—
SA
SA
(a) Right to Investigation (b) Right to Information

R
(c) Right to Identification (d) Right to Independence

R
FO
FO
4. RTI Act was enacted by Parliament in the .............. year of the Republic of
T
India—
T
NO
NO
(a) 25th year (b) 50th year

(c) 56th year (d) 60th year
5. Mention the State exempted from implementation of RTI Act?

(a) Delhi (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Punjab (d) Goa
LE
LE
6. Certain provisions of RTI Act came into force on the ................... day from
SA
SA
the date of enactment?

(a) 100th (b) 120th (c) 50th (d) 150th
R
R
FO
FO
7. Who constituted a body to be known as “Central Information Commission”,

to exercise the powers conferred on it under the RTI Act?
T
T
NO
(a) Parliament (b) President

NO
(c) Prime Minister (d) Central Government

RTIMO — 2
6 SWAMY’S — RTI MADE OBJECTIVE
8. Who shall designate Central Public Information Officers / Central Assistant

Public Information Officers in all administrative units or offices under
RTI Act ?
E
L
L
(a) Central Government (b) Parliament
SA
SA
(c) Head of Office (d) Public Authority
R
R
FO
9. Who shall appoint the Chief Information Commissioner and Information
FO
Commissioners ?
T
(a) Parliament (b) Prime Minister
T
NO
(c) President NO(d) Chief Justice of India
10. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the meaning of

a Competent Authority under this Act?
(a) Chief Justice of India in the case of Supreme Court
(b) Speaker in the case of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly
LE
LE
(c) President or Governor in the case of authorities under the Constitution

SA
SA
(d) All the above

R
R
FO
11. What does Information under the RTI Act mean?

FO
(a) e-mails and opinions (b) Press releases

T
T
(c) Contracts (d) All the above

NO
NO
12. A Public Authority is established or constituted by—

(a) A law made by Parliament
(b) The Constitution
(c) A notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government
(d) All the above
LE
LE
SA
SA
13. Who constitutes a body known as State Information Commission by

notification in the Official Gazette, to perform functions of RTI Act?
R
R
(a) Governor
FO
FO
(b) State Government

T
T
(c) Chief Minister

NO
NO
(d) Members of the Legislative Assembly

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7
14. Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner and the State
Information Commissioners?
LE
LE
(a) Governor SA (b) State Government
SA
(c) Chief Minister (d) Central Government
R
R
15. How many types of public authorities are there?
FO
FO
(a) State Public Authorities
T
T
(b) Central Public Authorities
NO
NO
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
16. Which are the following easily accessable methods adopted by a Public
Authority to communicate the information to the public?
LE
LE
(a) Newspapers (b) Media Broadcasts

SA
SA
(c) Internet (d) All the above

R
R
17. What is the quantum of funds of all Flagship programmes earmarked for
FO
FO
updating records, improving infrastructure, etc.?

(a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20%
T
T
NO
NO
18. The Government of India shall earmark 1% of the funds of all Flagship
programmes for a period of ................., for updating records and establishing
the Public Records Offices.
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 5 years (d) 10 years
19. What is the limit of procurement made by Public Authorities to be disclosed

on implementation of comprehensive end-to-end e-procurement under
LE
LE
Section 4 of RTI Act?

SA
(a) ` 5 lakhs (b) ` 10 lakhs

SA
(c) ` 20 lakhs (d) ` 50 lakhs

R
R
FO
FO
20. What is the frequency to update information on official tours of Ministers

and other officials?
T
T
(a) Once in every quarter (b) Once in a month

NO
NO
(c) Once in a half year (d) Once in a year

21. Which of the following items may be disclosed under the suo motu
disclosure provisions of Section 4 ?
E
(a) Information related to procurement
L
SA
SA
(b) Transfer policy and orders
(c) Foreign tours of Prime Minister / Ministers
R
R
FO
(d) All the above
FO
T
T
22. Which of the following items should not be disclosed under the suo motu
NO
disclosure provision of RTI? NO

(a) RTI Applications (b) Citizens Charter
(c) Income Tax Returns of Ministers (d) Public Private Partnerships
23. State the periodicity by which every Ministry / Public Authority should
get the proactive disclosure package audited by a third party?
LE
LE
(a) Half yearly (b) Annually

SA
SA
(c) Quarterly (d) Every 2 years

R
R
24. Mention the report in which Ministries / Departments are directed

FO
FO
to include a chapter on RTI Act?

T
(a) Budget (b) Confidential Reports

T
NO
NO
(c) Annual Reports (d) Quarterly Reports
25. To whom should the Annual Reports of Ministry / Department containing

details of compliance with proactive disclosure guidelines of RTI
be submitted?
(a) President (b) Central Government
(c) Head of Department (d) Parliament / Legislature
LE
LE
SA
SA
26. Who can be appointed as a Nodal Officer?

R
(a) Officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary

R
FO
FO
(b) Officer not below the rank of Secretary of the Ministry

T
(c) Officer not below the rank of Chief Secretary of Central Government
T
NO
NO
(d) Officer not below the rank of Secretary and Head of Office
27. State which mode of payment of fee is admissible for seeking information
under RTI Act?
LE
LE
(a) Demand Draft or a Banker’s Cheque / An Indian Postal Order
SA
SA
(b) Master / Visa Debit / Credit Cards
R
(c) Internet Banking of State Bank of India
R
FO
FO
(d) All the above
T
T
NO
28. The payment of fee by DD / Cheque / IPO should be drawn in the name of
NO
.....................
(a) Head of Office

(b) The Accounts Officer of the Public Authority
(c) Appropriate Government
LE
LE
(d) Drawing and Disbursing Officer

SA
SA
29. RTI applications, making a reference to the Prime Minister or Prime Minister’s
R
Office in a routine manner, should be transferred by the CPIO to ...................

R
FO
FO
(a) Prime Minister or Prime Minister’s Office

T
(b) President
T
NO
NO
(c) The concerned Public Authority

(d) Parliament
30. What is the action required to be taken by a public authority, in respect of

RTI applications, regarding information concerning other public
authorities?
LE
LE
(a) Transfer the applications to the concerned public authorities

SA
SA
(b) Collect information from public authorities to supply the same to the
Applicant
R
R
FO
(c) Advise the Applicant to make separate applications to the concerned

FO
Public Authorities
T
T
(d) Part of information, available with the PIOs, may be provided to the
NO
NO
Applicant
31. Who shall deal with requests from persons seeking information and render
assistance to the persons seeking information?
E
(a) Central Public Information Officer
L
SA
SA
(b) Chief Information Commissioner
R
(c) Head of Office
R
FO
FO
(d) Competent Authority
T
T
NO
32. What is the time period prescribed to CPIO either to provide information
NO
or reject the request for any reasons, from the date of receipt of request?
(a) 10 days (b) 20 days
(c) 30 days (d) 45 days
33. What is the time-limit prescribed for supply of information if it concerns

LE
LE
the life or liberty of a person?

SA
SA
(a) Within 24 hours (b) Within 48 hours

(c) Within 5 days (d) Within 10 days
R
R
FO
FO
34. A reply to a request for information should mandatorily contain—

T
T
NO
(i) Application No. and date

NO
(ii) Details of CPIO

(iii) Reasons for denials if any, with sections
(iv) Details of First Appellate Authority
(v) Fee charged
LE
LE
(vi) Total number of pages of information

SA
SA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:—

R
R
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

FO
FO
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

T
T
(c) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

NO
NO
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

35. State which of the following statements is correct, with regard to charging
of further fee in addition to the application fee by the Public Information
Officer?
LE
LE
SA
(a) There is no provision for charging of fee in addition to the application
SA
fee
R
R
(b) Further fee can be charged, as determined by the Public Authorities
FO
FO
(c) Further fee can be charged in accordance with Fee and Cost Rules
T
T
(d) Further fee can be charged only towards postal expenses or cost
NO
NO
involved in deployment of manpower
36. What is the periodicity prescribed for filing of the First Appeal to the
First Appellate Authority, by the Applicant on receipt of reply of CPIO?
(a) Within 5 days (b) Within 10 days
LE
LE

SA
SA
37. When a request for information is rejected, which of the following replies
R
R
are to be made by the CPIO to the person making the request?

FO
FO
(a) The reason for rejection

T
T
(b) The period within which an appeal to be preferred

NO
NO
(c) The particulars of the Appellate Authority
(d) All the above
38. State which of the following types of information is exempted from

disclosure under RTI Act—
LE
LE
(a) Information relating to Annual Confidential Reports of an employee

SA
SA
(b) Personal information which would serve a large public interest

R
R
(c) Information, which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament

FO
FO
or the State Legislature
(d) Information of File Noting except file noting containing information

T
T
NO
exempt from disclosure under Section 8 of the Act

NO
39. Mention which of the following is exempt from disclosure of information

under RTI Act?
E
(a) Information, which would affect the sovereignty and Integrity of India
L
SA
SA
(b) Information, which has been forbidden to be published by any Court
of law and which may constitute Contempt of Court
R
R
FO
FO
(c) Information relating to cabinet papers, including records of deliberations
of the Secretaries and other officers
T
T
(d) All the above
NO
NO
40. What is the time-limit fixed to the third party to make representation against
the proposed disclosure?
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 30 days (d) 48 days
41. The Central Information Commission shall consist of : LE

LE
SA
(a) Chief Information Commissioner and Central Information Commissioners
SA
not exceeding ten in number

R
R
(b) Chief Information Commissioner and Central Information Commissioners

FO
FO
not exceeding 5 in number

T
(c) Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

T
NO
NO
(d) Chief Information Commissioner and 10 members of Parliament
42. Who can be appointed as a Chief Information Commissioner or an

Information Commissioner?
(a) Member of Parliament
(b) Member of Legislature of State
LE
LE
(c) Persons holding every office of profit or carrying on any business

SA
SA
(d) Persons of eminence in public life with knowledge and experience

in law, science and technology
R
R
FO
FO
43. Where is the Headquarters of Central Information Commission situated?

T
T
(a) Bombay (b) Delhi

NO
NO
(c) Chennai (d) Kolkata

44. Who can remove a Chief Information Commissioner or any Information

Commissioner from his Office?
LE
LE
SA
(c) Appropriate Government (d) Chief Justice of India
SA
R
R
45. An Information Commissioner cannot be removed from office by an order
FO
FO
of the President—
(a) On the ground of proved misbehaviour
T
T
NO
NO
(b) If he is unfit for office due to infirmity in mind or body
(c) On engagement in any paid employment doing his term of office
(d) On account of withholding promotions or future increments, due to
any loss caused by the Official’s negligence
LE
LE
46. What is the term of office for Chief Information Commissioner / Information
Commissioner?
SA
SA
(a) 2 years
R
R
(b) 5 years
FO
FO
(c) 10 years
T
T
(d) Can hold office for any number of years at the discretionary powers
NO
NO
of Competent Authority
47. What is the age-limit prescribed for a Chief Information Commissioner

to hold office?
(a) 60 years (b) 62 years
(c) 65 years (d) No age-limit prescribed
LE
LE
48. The Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner,

SA
SA
before he enters upon his office, shall make and subscribe an oath before
the .................
R
R
(a) President only

FO
FO
(b) Prime Minister only

T
T
(c) Chief Justice of India only

NO
NO
(d) President or some other person appointed by him
RTIMO — 3
49. The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of
service of Chief Information Commissioner shall be the same as that of
E
.......................
E
L
L
(a) Members of Legislative Assembly
SA
SA
(b) Prime Minister
R
R
(c) Chief Justice of India
FO
FO
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
T
T
NO
50. The salaries and allowances payable to in respect of an Information

NO
Commissioner shall be the same as that of .......................
(a) Secretary of concerned State
(b) Chief Secretary of Central Government
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
LE
LE
(d) Election Commissioner

SA
SA
51. Under what circumstances shall the Chief Information Commissioner not
R
be deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour?

R
FO
FO
(a) Habitually negligent in respect of duties for which he is engaged or

being impartial in the discharge of duties
T
T
NO
NO
(b) Receives emolument as a member of an incorporated company

(c) Participates in any way in the profit of an incorporated company
(d) Interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the
Government of India
52. A State Information Commission shall consist of—

LE
LE
(a) A State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

SA
Commissioners, not exceeding ten in number

SA
(b) A State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

R
R
Commissioners, not exceeding five in number

FO
FO
(c) A Chief Minister and ten members of Legislative Assembly

T
T
(d) A State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information

NO
NO
Commissioners, not exceeding fifteen in number

53. Who will appoint State Chief Information Commissioner and the State
Information Commissioners?
LE
LE
SA
(c) Chief Minister (d) Governor
SA
R
R
54. Who can be a State Chief Information Commissioner?
FO
FO
(a) A Member of Parliament
T
T
(b) A Member of the State Legislature
NO
NO
(c) Persons of eminence in public life with knowledge and experience in
science, technology and management
(d) Persons holding any office of profit connected with political party
55. Where is the Headquarters of a State Information Commissioner situated?

LE
LE
(a) Any place in the State as notified in the Official Gazette by the State
SA
SA
Government
(b) State Capital
R
R
FO
FO
(c) Any District Capital

(d) New Delhi
T
T
NO
NO
56. What is the term of office of a State Chief Information Commissioner?

(a) One year (b) Two years
(c) Five years (d) Ten years
57. The State Chief Information Commissioner or a State Information Commissioner,

LE
LE
before he enters upon his office, shall take an oath or affirmation before
....................
SA
SA
(a) Chief Secretary to the concerned State Government

R
R
(b) Governor only

FO
FO
(c) The Governor or some other person appointed in that behalf

T
T
NO
(d) Chief Minister

NO
service of the State Chief Information Commissioner—
E
(a) Shall be the same as that of an Election Commissioner
L
SA
SA
(b) Shall be the same as that of members of State Assembly
R
(c) Shall be the same as that of Chief Secretary of the State Government
R
FO
FO
(d) Shall be the same as that of Governor of the State
T
T
NO
NO
service of State Information Commissioner shall be the same as that of
........................
(a) Election Commissioner

(b) Chief Justice of High Court
(c) Governor of the State
LE
LE
(d) Chief Secretary to the State Government

SA
SA
60. Who is empowered to remove the State Chief Information Commissioner?

R
R
(a) Governor
FO
FO
(b) Chief Minister

T
T
NO
(c) Chief Secretary to the State Government

NO
(d) President
61. The State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner

cannot be removed from his office by the Governor
(a) On the ground of proved misbehaviour or guilty
(b) If he has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
LE
LE
(c) On being biased in his duties

SA
SA
(d) If adjudged an insolvent

R
R
FO
62. Which provision of the RTI Act explains about transfer of the application
FO
to another public authority?

T
T
(a) Section 6 (1) (b) Section 7 (3)

NO
NO
(c) Section 6 (3) (d) Section 8

63. What is the time-limit prescribed to prefer an appeal to the First Appellate
Authority from the date on which the information of the CPIO is received?
LE
LE
SA
SA
64. What is the periodicity prescribed to prefer a second appeal with the CPIO
from the date on which the information was actually received by the
R
R
Appellant?
FO
FO
T
T
65. What is the total amount of penalty that can be imposed on a CPIO for
NO
NO
knowingly giving incorrect, incomplete or misleading information?
(a) Not exceeding ` 10,000 (b) Not exceeding ` 25,000
(c) Not exceeding ` 50,000 (d) Not exceeding ` 1,00,000
66. What is the penalty per day to be imposed against a Central Public Information
Officer for giving misleading information?
LE
LE
(a) ` 100 per day (b) ` 200 per day

SA
(c) ` 250 per day (d) ` 500 per day

SA
67. Section 4 (1) (a) states that a Public Authority should—

R
FO
FO
(a) Maintain all records duly catalogued and indexed

(b) Computerize records within a reasonable time
T
T
NO
NO
(c) Make available all computerized records through a network all over
the country
(d) All the above
68. State the name of the Court which shall entertain any suit, application or
other proceedings in respect of any order made under RTI Act?
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
LE
LE
(c) Administrative Tribunal (d) No Court

SA
SA
69. Who can amend the schedule by including or omitting any other Intelligence
R
or security organization established by the Central Government Gazette

R
Notification, under Section 24 of RTI Act?

FO
FO
(a) President (b) Parliament

T
T
NO
(c) Central Government (d) Central Public Information

NO
Commission
70. Any information in respect of allegations of violation of human rights

should be provided within ..............
E
L
SA
SA
71. Who will provide information to the Central Information Commission or
State Information Commission, so as to prepare a report on the implementation
R
R
of provisions of the Act during the year?
FO
FO
(a) Ministry or Department
T
T
(b) CPIO
NO
(c) SPIO NO
(d) Central Government or State Government
72. State the date fixed for uploading the final return of Annual Report in the
RTI Annual Report Information System?
(a) 31st March
LE
LE
SA
(b) 15th April
SA
(c) 30th April

R
R
(d) 30th June

FO
FO
73. Who will prepare programmes, update and publish the guidelines at regular
T
T
intervals about RTI Act, 2005?

NO
NO
(a) Central Information Commission or State Information Commission

(b) Parliament
(c) Ministry or Department
(d) Appropriate Government
LE
LE
74. “RTI Week” is celebrated every year during ....................

SA
SA
(a) 5th — 12th April (b) 5th — 12th June

(c) 5th — 12th October (d) 5th — 12th December
R
R
FO
FO
75. What is the grant provided to ATIs for Innovative Awareness Generation
T
Programmes?
T
NO
NO
(a) ` 2 lakhs (b) ` 4 lakhs (c) ` 5 lakhs (d) ` 10 lakhs

76. State the quantum of financial Assistance provided to SICs for taking up
various activities during RTI week celebration?
LE
LE
(a) ` 2 lakhs SA (b) ` 4 lakhs (c) ` 3 lakhs (d) ` 5 lakhs
SA
77. How much amount will be provided to ATIs per workshop / seminar
organized on RTI related themes?
R
R
FO
FO
(a) ` 1 lakh (b) ` 2 lakhs (c) ` 3 lakhs (d) ` 4 lakhs
T
T
78. What is the maximum quantum of funds per annum to be granted in the
NO
NO
first year to set up helpline in ATIs?
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 2,00,000 (c) ` 3,00,000 (d) ` 4,00,000
79. Section 3 of the RTI Act states that all the citizens shall have the right to
information subject to—
(a) The provisions of the RTI Act
LE
LE
(b) Discretion of the PIO

SA
SA
(c) Convenience of the Public Authority

R
R
FO
FO
80. What is the minimum duration for training of DRPs in a year?

(a) 2 days and atleast 2 nights (b) 3 days and atleast 2 nights
T
T
NO
NO
(c) 4 days and atleast 3 nights (d) 5 days and atleast 4 nights
81. What is the quantum of financial assistance provided for each DRP
per day, during training?
(a) ` 1,000 (b) ` 2,000 (c) ` 3,000 (d) ` 4,000
82. What is the duration of training of CPIOs / SPIOs / AAs and staff of
LE
State / Central Government Offices?

LE
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7

SA
SA
83. What is the quantum of financial assistance per day admissible to each
R
participant during training of CPIOs / SPIOs and AAs?

R
FO
FO
(a) ` 1,000 (b) ` 2,000 (c) ` 3,000 (d) ` 5,000

T
T
84. How many District Resource Persons per district will be trained in a year?
NO
NO
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10

85. Specify the minimum number of RTI Nodal Officers to participate in each
training programme, organized by ATIs?
E
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 50
L
SA
SA
86. What is the duration of training to Nodal Officers of State Public
Authorities?
R
R
(a) 1 day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 7 days
FO
FO
87. What does “eIPO” denote?
T
T
NO
NO
(a) Exempted Indian Postal Order (b) Electrical Indian Postal Order
(c) Electronic Indian Postal Order (d) Extra Indian Postal Order
88. eIPO was launched on—

(a) 22-1-2013 (b) 22-3-2013
(c) 22-4-2013 (d) 22-6-2013
LE
LE
SA
SA
89. Who shall be appointed as Secretary to the Central Information

Commission?
R
R
FO
(a) An Officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government
FO
of India
T
(b) An Officer not below the rank of Additional Secretary to the

T
NO
Government of India
NO
(c) An Officer not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India
(d) An Officer not below the rank of Chief Secretary to the Government
of India
90. How many days’ notice is to be given to the Appellant for presence before
the Commission?
LE
LE

SA
SA
91. A notice by the Commission to decide on an appeal can be served—

R
R
FO
(a) By the party itself

FO
(b) By hand delivery through process server

T
T
(c) By Registered Post with acknowledgement due

NO
NO
(d) All the above

92. A second appeal on information pertaining to a person’s life and liberty

should be decided by Information Commission—
LE
LE
(a) As early as possible (b) Within 48 hours
SA
(c) Within 24 hours (d) No time-limit
SA
R
R
93. What is the basic object of Right to Information Act?
FO
FO
(a) To promote transparency and accountability in the working of the
Government
T
T
NO
(b) To contain corruption NO

(c) To enhance people’s participation in democratic process
(d) All the above
94. Who is a Public Authority?

(a) Any authority constituted by law under the Constitution
LE
LE
(b) Any body established by law made by Parliament

SA
SA
(c) Any Institution of self Government established by notification issued

by a State Government
R
R
FO
(d) All the above

FO
95. ‘Deemed Refusal’ under the RTI Act is—

T
T
NO
NO
(a) A failure to provide information by PIO within stipulated time

(b) An FAA’s refusal to hear a first appeal within 30 days
(c) An Applicant’s refusal to pay fees
(d) An APIO’s refusal to provide information on request by an Applicant
96. The web-portal designed for the Indian citizens, to file RTI applications
LE
LE
and first appeals online is .....................

SA
(a) www.persmin.nic.in (b) www.rtionline.gov.in

SA
(c) www.rtionline.nic.in (d) www.rti.gov.in

R
R
FO
FO
97. State the language specified in which the application is to be made to the
Public Information Officer, under RTI Act?
T
T
(a) English only (b) Hindi only

NO
NO
(c) Official language of the area only (d) All the above
98. What is the time period fixed for transfer of applications from one public
authority to the concerned Public Authority?
E
(a) Within the same day (b) Within two days
L
SA
SA
(c) Within five days (d) Within ten days
R
R
99. What are the addresses of important websites, containing substantial
FO
FO
information relevant to the right to information?
T
(a) Portal of the Government of India (http://indiaimage.nic.in)
T
NO
NO
(b) Portal on the Right to Information (www.rti.gov.in)
(c) Website of the Central Information Commission (http://cic.gov.in)
(d) All the above
100. Find the date on which the RTI Act was published in the Gazette of India,
from the following:—
LE
LE
(a) 21-1-2005 (b) 21-4-2005 (c) 21-6-2005 (d) 21-10-2005

SA
SA
101. Mention the year in which the RTI Act was enacted?
R
FO
FO
(a) 2000 (b) 2005 (c) 2010 (d) 2012

T
T
102. What is the time-limit for disposing of application relating to allegation

NO
NO
of corruption?
103. What is the time-limit fixed for disposal of appeal by the Appellate
Authority in exception cases?
LE
LE
SA
104. What is the rate of fee prescribed for information to be provided in diskette
SA
or floppy?
R
(a) No fee
R
FO
FO
(b) ` 50 per diskette or floppy

T
(c) Only the postal charges, exceeding fifty rupees

T
NO
NO
(d) ` 100 per diskette or floppy

105. What is the time period for transfer of application to other Public Authority
for request of information under Section 6 (3) of the Act?
LE
LE
(a) 1 day SA (b) 2 days (c) 5 days (d) 10 days
SA
106. Which section deals with information exempted from the RTI Act?
R
R
(a) Section 6 (b) Section 9 (c) Section 7 (d) Section 8
FO
FO
107. When should a second appeal be filed under Section 19 of the RTI Act?
T
T
NO
(a) Within 30 days NO (b) Within 60 days

108. The purpose of RTI Act is to—

(a) Ensure access to information
(b) Promote transparency and accountability LE
LE
(c) Contain corruption

SA
SA
(d) All the above

R
R
FO
FO
109. The bar of jurisdiction of courts on any orders made under RTI is defined
in—
T
T
(a) Section 21 (b) Section 22

NO
NO
(c) Section 23 (d) Section 21
110. The word ‘information’ under RTI refers to—

(a) Data in hard copy (b) Data in soft copy
(c) Circulars (d) All of the above
LE
LE
SA
SA
111. The State Information Commissioner can be removed by—

(a) Governor of the State
R
R
FO
FO
(b) Supreme Court

(c) Chief Justice of State High Court
T
T
NO
NO
(d) Central Chief Information Commissioner

112. The ground for rejection of request for information under RTI by CPIO
apart from those specified in Section 8, is—
E
(a) Time consumed to prepare the information
L
SA
SA
(b) Breach of privilege of Parliament
(c) Information was received in confidence from foreign Government
R
R
FO
(d) Involves infringement of copyright
FO
T
113. Sub-section (3) of Section 8 states how many years of time period related
T
NO
to occurrence of an event about which information is sought?

NO
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 30 years (d) 50 years
114. Disclosure of information regarding which of the following documents

of an employee is described under Government of India’s orders under
Section 8?
(a) Annual Confidential Report LE
(b) Income Tax returns
LE
SA
(c) T.A. Bill (d) Service Book
SA
115. What should be done when a request for information, which is connected
R
FO
to information which is exempt, is received?

FO
(a) Total request is to be rejected

T
T
NO
(b) Information requested can be provided including exempt information

NO
(c) Information can be provided after severance of exempt information

(d) Information can be provided with the approval of the CIC
116. Who is the Chairperson of the Central Information Commission?

(a) The Prime Minister
LE
LE
(b) The President

SA
SA
(c) Leader of the opposition

(d) Any Union Cabinet Minister
R
R
FO
FO
117. Where is the headquarters of the Central Information Commission located?

T
T
(a) Delhi (b) Hyderabad

NO
NO
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata

118. The Chief Information Commissioner should not be—

(a) An MP
LE
LE
(b) An MLA
SA
SA
(c) Connected with any political party
R
R
(d) All the above
FO
FO
T
119. The salary and allowances of the Chief Information Commissioner shall
T
NO
be same as that of—

NO
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chief Minister of Delhi
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Chief of Military LE
LE
SA
SA
120. What can be the reason for removal of the Chief Information Commissioner
or a Information Commissioner?
R
R
(i) If he is adjudged an insolvent

FO
FO
(ii) If he is convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude

T
T
NO
(iii) If he absents himself frequently

NO
(iv) If he become unfit to continue by reason of infirmity of mind or body

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
LE
LE
SA
121. Who can be a State Chief Information Commissioner?

SA
(a) A member of Parliament

R
R
FO
FO
(b) Member of Legislative Assembly

(c) A person of eminence in public life
T
T
NO
NO
(d) High Court Judge

122. What is the maximum age-limit up to which a State Information

Commissioner shall hold office?
E
(a) Sixty years (b) Sixty-five years
L
SA
SA
(c) Seventy years (d) Fifty-five years
R
R
123. The grounds for complaint would be—
FO
FO
(i) being asked to pay excess fee
T
T
(ii) being given incomplete / false information
NO
NO
(iii) any matter relating to obtaining access to records

(a) All the above (b) Only (i)
(c) Only (ii) (d) Only (iii)
LE
LE
124. An Information Commission will inquire into which of the following?

SA
SA
(i) Complaints regarding non-acceptance of request for information by

CPIO / SPIO
R
R
FO
FO
(ii) Refusal for access to any information

(iii) Response to a request not received within time-limit
T
T
NO
NO
(iv) Amount of fee payable being unreasonable

(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
125. What is the penalty per day fixed for the CPIO or SPIO for denying a
LE
LE
request for information malafidely?

SA
(a) hundred rupees (b) two hundred rupees

SA
(c) one hundred and fifty rupees (d) two hundred and fifty rupees
R
R
FO
FO
126. The Form of Oath to be made by the Chief Information Commisioner is

provided in—
T
T
(a) The First Schedule (b) The Second Schedule

NO
NO
(c) The Third Schedule (d) The Fourth Schedule

127. The list of organizations to which the Act does not apply to as specified in
Section 24 are listed in—
LE
LE
(a) The First Schedule
SA (b) The Second Schedule
SA
(c) The Third Schedule (d) The Fourth Schedule
R
R
128. What is the time-limit specified in Section 30, after which no order can be
FO
FO
passed to remove any difficulties in the provisions of the RTI Act—
(a) One year (b) Two years
T
T
NO
(c) Three years

NO (d) Four years
129. State the number of Indian Missions / Posts, citizens of which can avail
information under RTI Act—
(a) 167 (b) 176 (c) 761 (d) 671
LE
LE
130. Who are exempted from payment of fee?

SA
SA
(a) Any person belonging to SC/ST

R
(b) Any person above the age of 60 years

R
FO
FO
(c) Any Central Government employee

T
(d) Any person below poverty line

T
NO
NO
131. An application for information should contain not more than .......... words.
(a) Three hundred (b) Four hundred
(c) Five hundred (d) Six hundred
132. RTI Act, 2005 came into force on—

LE
LE
(a) 12 October, 2005 (b) 15 August, 2005

SA
SA
(c) 15 June, 2005 (d) 1 November, 2005

R
R
FO
FO
133. RTI Act, 2005 comes into force after ————— days of its enactment.
T
(a) 120 (b) 75

T
NO
NO
(c) 100 (d) 125

134. Which of the following does not come under the definition of ‘information’
under RTI Act 2005?
E
(a) Log books
L
SA
SA
(b) File notings
(c) Data material held in any electronic form
R
R
FO
(d) Circulars
FO
T
135. The officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units
T
NO
or offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting for

NO
information under the Act is known as —
(a) Appellate Authority
(b) Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
(c) Public Information Officer (PIO)
(d) Assistant Public Information Officer
LE
LE
SA
SA
136. Period for disposing first appeal can be extended by ——— days from
30 days, if necessary—
R
R

FO
FO
137. The long title of the RTI Act seeks to promote the following qualities in
T
T
the working of every public authority:

NO
NO
(a) Transparency (b) Punctuality

(c) Efficiency (d) All the above
138. Second appeal to the Central Information Commission / the State Infor-
mation Commission can be preferred by the applicant within ——— days
from the date on which the decision was given or should have been made
by the First Appellate Authority.
LE
LE

SA
SA
139. Appointment Committee of Central Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)

includes—
R
R
FO
(a) Prime Minister

FO
(b) Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha

T
T
(c) One Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister

NO
NO
(d) All the above

140. Consider the following statements about the Right to Information (RTI)
Act, 2005 and select one which is not provided for or specially exempted:
LE
LE
(a) It is not applicable in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
SA
SA
(b) An applicant making request for information will have to give reasons
for seeking information
R
R
(c) Removal of Chief Information Officer
FO
FO
(d) Every Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years
or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
T
T
NO
NO
141. The RTI Act gives right to seek information from the following:
(a) private companies (b) MNCs
(c) public authorities (d) associations
LE
142. When does an application for information become invalid?
LE
SA
(a) Not accompanied by fee of ` 10
SA
(b) Proof of BPL not enclosed

R
R
FO
(c) When it is lengthy

FO
(d) (a) or (b)

T
T
NO
NO
143. Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall be appointed for a term of

——— years from the date on which he enters upon his office or till he
attains the age of ———— years, whichever is earlier—
(a) 6 years / 66 years (b) 5 years / 70 years
(c) 5 years / 65 years (d) 5 years / 60 years
LE
LE
144. Section 4 (1) (b) (xi) of RTI Act states that a public authority should
SA
SA
publish—
(a) The budget allocated to each of its agency
R
R
FO
FO
(b) Proposed expenditures

(c) Reports on disbursements made
T
T
NO
NO
(d) All the above

145. Which section of RTI Act, 2005 deals with ‘obligations of public
authorities’?
E
L
SA
(c) Section 4 (1) (d) Section 8
SA
R
146. Which section of RTI Act, 2005 deals with ‘Constitution of Central
R
FO
Information Commission’?
FO
T
T
NO

NO
147. In how much time does an APIO, at the most, have to forward an RTI
application / appeal to the Public Information Officer / First Appellate
Authority ?
(a) 30 days (b) 5 days (c) 35 days (d) 48 hours
LE
LE
148. The Preamble to the RTI Act states that transparency of information is
vital to:—
SA
SA
(a) Eradicate corruption (b) Contain corruption

R
R
(c) Promote corruption (d) Measure corruption

FO
FO
T
T
NO
149. The obligations of public authorities under RTI Act, 2005 include?
NO
(i) It shall publish the powers and duties of its officers and employees
(ii) It shall publish the procedure followed in its decision-making process,
including channels of supervision and accountability
(iii) It shall publish the norms set by it for the discharge of its functions
(iv) It shall publish the rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records
LE
LE
used by its employees for discharging its functions

SA
SA
(v) It shall not publish the statement of the categories of the documents
held by it or under its control
R
R
FO
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

FO
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) & (v) (b) (i), (iii), (iv) & (v)
T
T
NO
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
NO
150. Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) has to forward first appeals
to—
LE
LE
(a) Public Information Officer (PIO)
SA
SA
(b) The Head of the Authority
R
(c) First Appellate Authority
R
FO
FO
T
T
NO
NO
151. Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) has to receive the following
from the citizens—
(a) Applications for information
(b) First appeals
(c) Second appeals LE

LE
(d) All the above

SA
SA
152. Which section deals with severability of the RTI Act?

R
FO
FO

T
T

NO
NO
153. As per Section 2 (h), “public authority” means any authority or body or
institution of self-Government established or constituted—
(i) by or under the Constitution
(ii) by any other law made by Parliament
LE
(iii) by any other law made by State Legislature

LE
SA
(iv) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government

SA

R
FO
FO
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
T
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
T
NO
NO
154. Which of the following statements are correct about an inquiry carried
out by an Information Commission?
E
(i) It may examine any record to which the ‘RTI Act, 2005’ applies
L
SA
SA
(ii) No such record can be withheld from it (irrespective of any provision
of any Act passed by the Parliament or the State Legislature)
R
R
FO
(iii) IC has the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit under the Code of
FO
Civil Procedure
T
T
NO
(a) Only (i) and (ii)

NO (b) Only (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
155. The first Indian state that introduced a law on RTI was—
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Uttar Pradesh LE
LE
SA
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
SA
156. A Public Information Officer will be liable to be imposed a monetary

R
FO
penalty for—
FO
(a) refusal to receive an information application

T
T
NO
(b) not providing information within specified time-limits

NO
(c) destroying information

(d) All of them
157. How many schedules does the ‘RTI Act, 2005’ have?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 2 (d) 8
LE
LE
SA
158. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 can be amended by—
SA
(a) Central Government

R
R
FO
FO
(b) State Government

(c) Both
T
T
NO
NO
(d) None
159. According to the RTI Act, as far as exempted organizations are concerned,
the exemption applies to—
LE
LE
(a) Certain organizations of the Central Government as listed in the Second
Schedule and to the information submitted by these organizations to
SA
SA
this Government
R
(b) Certain organizations of the State Governments as may be notified by
R
FO
them in the Official Gazette
FO
(c) Both (a) and (b)
T
T
NO

NO
160. What does ‘Registrar’ mean under RTI Act, 2012?
(a) Additional Registrar (b) Joint Registrar
(c) Deputy Registrar (d) All the above
LE
LE
SA
SA
R
R
FO
FO
T
T
NO
NO
LE
LE
SA
SA
R
R
FO
FO
T
T
NO
NO
KEY
E
L
Q. No. Ans. Reference
L
SA
SA
1. (d) Section 3
2. (c) Preamble
R
R
FO
3. (b) Section 1
FO
4. (c) Section 1
T
T
NO
5. (b) Section 1 (2)

6. (b) Section 1 (3)
NO
7. (d) Section 12 (1)
8. (d) Section 5 (2)
9. (c) Section 12 (3)
10. (d) Section 2 (e)
LE
LE
11. (d) Section 2 (f)

SA
SA
12. (d) Section 2 (h)

R
13. (b) Section 15 (1)

R
FO
FO
14. (a) Section 15 (3)

15. (c) Section 2 (h)
T
T
NO
NO
16. (d) Explanation below Section 4

17. (a) GID (2) below Section 4
18. (c) GID (2) below Section 4
19. (b) Para. 1.1 of GID (6) below Section 4
20. (c) GID (5-A) below Section 4
21. (d) GID (6) below Section 4
LE
LE
22. (c) Section 4

SA
SA
23. (b) Para. 4.4 of GID (6) below Section 4

24. (c) Para. 6.0 of GID (6) below Section 4
R
R
FO
25. (d) Para. 6.0 of GID (6) below Section 4

FO
26. (a) Para. 5.0 of GID (6) below Section 4

T
T
27. (d) GID (2) below Section 5 read with Para. 17, Guide on RTI
NO
NO
28. (b) GID (2) below Section 5

LE
LE
SA
SA
30. (c) & (d) GID (4) below Section 6
31. (a) Section 5 (3)
R
R
32. (c) Section 7
FO
FO
33. (b) Section 7 (1)
T
T
34. (a) GID (2) below Section 7
NO
NO
37. (d) Section 7 (8)
38. (c) Section 8
39. (d) Section 8 LE
LE
40. (b) Section 11 (2)

SA
SA
41. (a) Section 12 (2)

42. (d) Section 12 (5)
R
R
FO
43. (b) Section 12 (7)

FO
44. (a) Section 14

T
T
NO
45. (d) Section 14 (3)

NO
46. (b) Section 13 (1)

47. (c) Section 13
48. (d) Section 13 (3)
49. (d) Section 13 (5)
50. (d) Section 13 (5)
LE
LE
51. (a) Section 14 (4)

SA
52. (a) Section 15 (2)

SA
53. (d) Section 15 (3)

R
R
54. (c) Section 15 (6)

FO
FO
55. (a) Section 15 (7)

T
T
56. (c) Section 16 (1)

NO
NO
57. (c) Section 16 (3)

E
58. (a) Section 16 (5)
L
59. (d) SA
Section 16 (5)
SA
60. (a) Section 17 (2)
R
R
61. (c) Section 17 (3)
FO
FO
62. (c)
T
63. (b) Section 19
T
NO
64. (d) Section 19 (3) NO

65. (b) Section 20 (1)
66. (c) Section 20 (1)
67. (d)
68. (d) Section 23
LE
LE
69. (c) Section 24 (2)

SA
SA
70. (b) Section 24 (4)

71. (a) Section 25 (2)
R
R
FO
72. (b) GID (1) below Section 25

FO
73. (d) Section 26 (3)

T
T
74. (c) Para. 2 (i) of GID (2) below Section 26

NO
NO
75. (b) Para. 2 (ii) of GID (2) below Section 26

76. (c) Para. 2 (i) of GID (2) below Section 26
77. (a) Para. 2 (iii) of GID (2) below Section 26
78. (d) Para. 2 (v) of GID (2) below Section 26
79. (a)
LE
80. (b) Para. 3 (i) of GID (2) below Section 26

LE

SA
SA
82. (a) Para. 3 (ii) of GID (2) below Section 26

R
R
83. (a) Para. 3 (ii) of GID (2) below Section 26

FO
FO

T
85. (c) Para. 3 (iii) of GID (2) below Section 26

T
NO
NO
86. (a) Para. 3 (iii) of GID (2) below Section 26

LE
LE
87. (c) GID (1) below Rule 6, RTI Rules
88. (b)
SA
GID (1) below Rule 6, RTI Rules
SA
89. (b) Rule 7, RTI Rules
R
R
90. (a) Rule 12, RTI Rules
FO
FO
91. (d) Rule 14, RTI Rules
T
92. (d)
T
NO
NO
93. (d) Para. 4, Guide on RTI
94. (d) Para. 6, Guide on RTI
95. (a) Section 7 (2)
96. (b) Para. 34, Guide on RTI
97. (d) Section 6 (1) LE
LE
98. (a) Para. 16, Guide on RTI

SA
SA
99. (d) Para. 29, Guidelines for Information Seekers

100. (c)
R
R
FO
101. (b)
FO
102. (a) Para. 27, Guidelines for FAA

T
T
103. (c) Para. 39, Guidelines for FAA

NO
NO
104. (b) Para. 18, Guide on RTI

105. (c) Section 6 (3)
106. (d) Section 8
107. (c) Section 19
108. (d) Preamble
LE
109. (c) Section 23

LE
SA
110. (d) Section 1 (f)

SA
111. (a) Section 17

R
R
112. (d) Section 9

FO
FO
113. (b) Section 8 (3)

T
114. (a) Section 8, GID (1)

T
NO
NO
115. (c) Section 10

E
116. (a) Section 12 (3)
E
L
L
117. (a) Section 12 (7)
SA
SA
118. (d) Section 12 (6)
R
R
119. (c) Section 13 (5)
FO
FO
120. (b) Section 14 (3)
T
121. (c) Section 15 (6)
T
NO
122. (b) Section 16 (2) NO

123. (a) Para. 27, Guidelines for Information Seekers
124. (b) Section 18 (1)
125. (d) Section 20 (1)
126. (a)
LE
LE
127. (b)
SA
128. (b) Section 30 (i)
SA
129. (b) GID (2), Rule 6, RTI Rules

R
R
130. (d) Rule 5, RTI Rules

FO
FO
131. (c) Rule 3, RTI Rules

T
T
132. (a) Section 1

NO
NO
133. (a) Section 1

134. (b) Section 8, GID (3)
135. (c) Section 2
136. (c) Section 19, GID (1)
137. (a) Preamble
LE
138. (d) Section 19 (3)

LE
139. (d) Section 12 (3)

SA
SA
140. (c) Section 14

R
R
141. (c) Section 6

FO
FO
142. (d) Para. 14, Guidelines for FAA

T
143. (c) Section 13

T
NO
NO
144. (d)
LE
LE
145. (c)
146. (d)
SA
SA
147. (b) Section 5 (2)
R
R
148. (b)
FO
FO
149. (c) Section 4
T
150. (c) Section 5
T
NO
NO
151. (a) Section 5 (2)
152. (c)
153. (d)
154. (d) Section 18
155. (a) LE
LE
156. (d) Section 6, GID (4)

SA
SA
157. (c) Schedules

158. (a) Section 24 (2)
R
R
FO
159. (c) Section 24 (3) and (4)

FO
160. (d) Section 2 (d), Section II

T
T
NO
NO
LE
LE
SA
SA
R
R
FO
FO
T
T
NO
NO
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G-3 Swamy’s Leave Rules Made Easy

Deals with CCS (Leave) Rules incorporating the latest amendments with
numerous original illustrations and explanations. A complete guide to
practical examinations.
G-4 Swamy’s Pay Rules Made Easy

Deals with Pay Rules, Foreign Service and Deputation out of India;
Retirement, dismissal, removal and compulsory retirement; combination
of appointments, standard and flat rate licence fee and fixation of
Re-employed pensioners.
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CHENNAI — 600 042

2. Democratic Republic was established by the—

(a) Right to Investigation (b) Right to Information

(c) Right to Identification (d) Right to Independence

(a) 25th year (b) 50th year

5. Mention the State exempted from implementation of RTI Act?

the date of enactment?

7. Who constituted a body to be known as “Central Information Commission”,

(a) Parliament (b) President

(c) Prime Minister (d) Central Government

8. Who shall designate Central Public Information Officers / Central Assistant

9. Who shall appoint the Chief Information Commissioner and Information

(a) Parliament (b) Prime Minister

(c) President NO(d) Chief Justice of India

10. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the meaning of

(c) President or Governor in the case of authorities under the Constitution

(d) All the above

11. What does Information under the RTI Act mean?

(a) e-mails and opinions (b) Press releases

(c) Contracts (d) All the above

12. A Public Authority is established or constituted by—

13. Who constitutes a body known as State Information Commission by

(b) State Government

(c) Chief Minister

(d) Members of the Legislative Assembly

(a) Newspapers (b) Media Broadcasts

(c) Internet (d) All the above

updating records, improving infrastructure, etc.?

19. What is the limit of procurement made by Public Authorities to be disclosed

Section 4 of RTI Act?

(a) ` 5 lakhs (b) ` 10 lakhs

(c) ` 20 lakhs (d) ` 50 lakhs

20. What is the frequency to update information on official tours of Ministers

(a) Once in every quarter (b) Once in a month

(c) Once in a half year (d) Once in a year

(d) All the above

disclosure provision of RTI? NO

(a) Half yearly (b) Annually

(c) Quarterly (d) Every 2 years

24. Mention the report in which Ministries / Departments are directed

to include a chapter on RTI Act?

(a) Budget (b) Confidential Reports

(c) Annual Reports (d) Quarterly Reports

25. To whom should the Annual Reports of Ministry / Department containing

26. Who can be appointed as a Nodal Officer?

(a) Officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary

(b) Officer not below the rank of Secretary of the Ministry

(c) Internet Banking of State Bank of India

(a) Head of Office

(d) Drawing and Disbursing Officer

Office in a routine manner, should be transferred by the CPIO to ...................