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A. when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
B. when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
C.
increases from its throat to exit
2. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to
the direction of the blade motion.
A. 60° B. 90°
C. 180° D. 270°
C. isothermal flow
D. isentropic flow
4. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called
A. stage efficiency
B. internal efficiency
C. Rankine efficiency
D. none of these
5. The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back pressure.
A. Correct B. Incorrect
6. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in the
divergent portion of the nozzle)
A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. increases
7. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually
reduced.
A. remains same
B. decreases
C. increases
8. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle
efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)
A. V = 44.72 hd K
B. V = 44.72 K hd
C. V = 44.72 K hd
D. V = 44.72 K hd
D. all of these
10. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is
A. 0.546 B. 0.577
C. 0.582 D. 0.601
11. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed
blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A. 0.4 B. 0.56
C. 0.67 D. 1.67
A. as an impulsive force
B. as a reaction force
13. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where α = Angle made by the absolute
velocity (V) at inlet)
A. Vb = 0.5 V cos α
B. Vb = V cos α
C. Vb = 0.5 V2 cos α
D. Vb = V2 cos α
D. none of these
16. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam flow is parallel to the turbine axis, is
called axial flow turbines
A. True B. False
17. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound.
A. Agree B. Disagree
19. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle.
A. True B. False
A. isothermal B. isentropic
C. hyperbolic D. polytropic
21. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the
nozzle is said to be
A. choked
B. underdamping
C. overdamping
D. none of these
22. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called
A. blading efficiency
B. nozzle efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
A. zero B. minimum
C. maximum
24. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available
heat drop
B. increases
C. decreases
D. is unpredictable
25. The steam leaves the nozzle at a
26. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat
D. none of these
A. static
B. dynamic
A. True B. False
B. reaction type
D. all of these
A.
B.
C.
D.
D. none of these
33. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. steam turbine
B. steam condenser
C. mercury boiler
D. all of these
35. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at the
minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at throat, p2) will be
A. 3.3 bar
B. 5.46 bar
C. 8.2 bar
D. 9.9 bar
36. The stage efficiency (ηS) is given by (where ηB = Blading efficiency, and ηN = Nozzle efficiency)
A. ηS = ηB x ηN
B. ηS = ηB/ηN
C. ηS = ηN/ηB
D. none of these
37. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is more as compared to initially wet
steam.
A. Yes B. No
38. In a convergent divergent nozzle, the discharge depends upon the initial conditions of steam and
the area of nozzle at throat.
A. Correct B. Incorrect
A. 40 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 60 percent
D. 70 percent
A. straight B. circular
C. curved
A. velocity of steam
D. all of these
C. impulse-reaction turbine
D. none of these
A. 1.02 to 1.06
B. 1.08 to 1.l0
C. 1.2 to 1.6
D. 1.6 to 2
46. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure is
called
A. degree of supersaturation
B. degree of superheat
C. degree of undercooling
D. none of these
A.
B.
C.
D.
48. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
A. condenser efficiency
B. nozzle efficiency
C. boiler efficiency
D. vacuum efficiency
A. reheating of steam
1. A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 r.p.m. If the blade speed
ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
A. 79 m/s
B. 188 m/s
C. 450 m/s
D. 900 m/s
2. In a De-Laval impulse turbine, the nozzle is kept very close to the blades.
A. Yes B. No
A. Agree B. Disagree
5. For maximum efficiency of an impulse turbine, the steam should leave the blades at right angles
to their motion.
A. Correct B. Incorrect
6. De-Laval turbine is a
C. impulse-reaction turbine
D. none of these
7. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value of 0.5 cos2 α, where α is the
nozzle exit flow angle, if the
8. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
A. divergent nozzle
B. convergent nozzle
C. convergent-divergent nozzle
D. none of these
9. Rateau turbine is
A. True B. False
11. In a single stage impulse turbine, the velocity of steam approaching nozzles is
negligible.
A. True B. False
13. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
14. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
A. 0.546 B. 0.577
C. 0.582 D. 0.601
15. The discharge through a nozzle is maximum for a certain value of exit pressure. This
pressure is known as critical pressure.
A. Agree B. Disagree
16. The velocity of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in the fixed blades as well as in moving
blades.
A. True B. False
A. 0.528 B. 0.546
C. 0.577 D. 0.582
A. same B. less
C. more
D. all of these
A. decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam
B. increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
C. decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam
D. increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate
21. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
A. reheat factor
B. stage efficiency
C. internal efficiency
D. Rankine efficiency
22. When the cross-section of a nozzle first increases from its entrance to throat, and then decreases
from its throat to exit, it is not a convergent-divergent nozzle.
A. Yes B. No
23. The efficiency ratio is the ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop.
A. Agree B. Disagree
B. exit pressure
D. all of these
A. the steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop
A. when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
B. when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
C.
increases from its throat to exit
29. The ratio of the cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called reheat factor.
A. Yes B. No
B. improve efficiency
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
32. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for various load conditions, is known
as
A. bleeding
B. reheating
C. governing
D. none of these
D. all of these
34. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as compared to reciprocating steam
engines?
D. all of these
35. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated vapour
at the corresponding pressure.
A. same as
B. 2 times
C. 4 times
D. 8 times
36. The ratio of the workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per
kg of steam is called
A. blading efficiency
B. nozzle efficiency
C. stage efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg
B.
of steam
energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage
C.
per kg of steam
38. The Rankine efficiency depends upon total useful heat drop and total isentropic heat drop.
A. Correct B. Incorrect
39. Blading efficiency is also known as
A. stage efficiency
B. diagram efficiency
C. nozzle efficiency
D. none of these
40. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is reduced in the fixed blades as well as in moving
blades.
A. Correct B. Incorrect
41. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is
A. velocity compounding
B. pressure compounding
C. pressure-velocity compounding
D. all of these
workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per
B.
stage per kg of steam
energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied
C.
per stage per kg of steam
A. has no effect on
B. decreases
C. increases
the steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity
A.
before it enters the moving blades
the expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in
B.
the moving blades
A. number of casing
46. When the nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow, the nozzle is said to be
A. choked
B. underdamping
C. overdamping
D. none of these
47. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of moving
blades,
A. velocity increases
B. velocity decreases
C. velocity remains constant
48. The ratio of the energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per
stage per kg of steam is called mechanical efficiency.
A. Yes B. No
50. The maximum discharge of steam through a convergent-divergent nozzle depends upon
B. number of stages
D. all of these
2. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion
and using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then
supplying it to the boiler is known as
A. regenerative heating
B. reheating of steam
C. bleeding
D. none of these
3. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet
is 537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be
A. 260 kW
B. 282 kW
C. 296 kW
D. 302 kW
A. wholly in blades
B. wholly in nozzle
D. none of these
A. Yes B. No
C. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle
8. The pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine allows a bigger pressure drop and hence
__________ number of stages are required.
A. more B. less
9. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially
A. wet steam
C. superheated steam
D. none of these
The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of
A.
sound.
To increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity (super-sonic) by expanding steam
D.
below the critical pressure, the divergent portion for the nozzle is not necessary.
11. The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is (where α = Nozzle angle)
A. sin2 α
B. cos2 α
C. tan2 α
D. cot2 α
12. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine require
__________ number of stages.
A. same B. less
C. more
13. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is
14. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
A. has no effect on
B. decreases
C. increases
15. In a Parson's turbine stage, blade velocity is 320 m/s at the mean radius and rotor blade exit
angle is 30°. For minimum kinetic energy of the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity at
the exit of the rotor will be
A. 160/3 m/s
B. 320/3 m/s
C. 640/3 m/s
D. 640 m/s
16. In pressure compounding of an impulse turbine, the total pressure drop of the steam
does not take place in the first nozzle ring, but is divided equally among all the nozzle
rings.
A. Agree B. Disagree
17. When the cross-section of a nozzle __________ continuously from entrance to exit, it is
called a convergent nozzle.
A. increases B. decreases
A. absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the
B.
outlet
19. During flow through a nozzle, no heat is supplied or rejected by the steam.
A. Agree B. Disagree
20. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the moving blades,
A. True B. False
22. The critical pressure ratio is given by (where p1 = Initial pressure of steam, and p2 = Pressure of
steam at throat or critical pressure)
A. p1 p2
B. p1/p2
C. p2/p1
D. p1 + p2
23. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process heating
and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as
D. impulse turbine
24. The stage efficiency is the ratio of energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total
energy supplied per stage per kg of steam.
A. True B. False
A. diagram efficiency
B. nozzle efficiency
C. gross efficiency
D. none of these
26. A single stage turbine is not used because it requires large reduction gearing due to very high
rotational speed.
A. Agree B. Disagree
27. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is
A. low
B. very low
C. high
D. very high
28. A nozzle is said to be a convergent-divergent nozzle, when the cross-section of a nozzle first
decreases from its entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit.
A. True B. False
29. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over
A. fixed blades
B. moving blades
D. none of these
30. When the inlet pressure of steam is equal to the exit pressure, then
D. there is no pressure drop and fluid does not flow through the nozzle
31. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________ while it
passes over the blades.
A. 10 to 15%
B. 15 to 20%
C. 20 to 30%
D. 30 to 40%
33. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction turbine, represents
A. isothermal process
B. isentropic process
C. throttling process
D. free-expansion process
34. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to initially
dry saturated steam.
A. more B. less
35. For a Parson's reaction turbine, if α1 and α2 are fixed blade angles at inlet and exit respectively
and β1 and β2 are the moving blade angles at entrance and exit respectively, then
A. α1 = α2 and β1 = β2
B. α1 = β1 and α2 = β2
C. α1 < β1 and α2 > β2
D. α1 = β2 and β1 = α2
36. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when (where Vb = Blade speed, V = Absolute
velocity of steam entering the blade, and α = Nozzle angle)
A. Vb = 0.5 V cos α
B. Vb = V cos α
C. Vb = 0.5 V2 cos α
D. Vb = V2 cosα
A. minimum B. maximum
C. zero
38. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the
blade is __________ the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
39. The friction present between the steam and the nozzle surfaces reduces the heat drop by
A. 10 to 15 percent
B. 15 to 25 percent
C. 25 to 40 percent
D. 40 to 60 percent
40. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given power has __________ row of
blades.
A. equal B. less
C. more
heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving
C.
blades
heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving
D.
blades
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Stirling cycle