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CETest ID: 177267 TarGATE’17 www.gateforum.

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General Ability

Q. No. 1 – 5 Carry One Mark Each

1. Which word does NOT belong to the others?


(A) Solitaire (B) Soliloquy (C) Solitary (D) Solitude

2. In the following question choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
ASSASSINATE
(A) Kill (B) Create (C) Accumulate (D) Reserve

3. In the following question, read the whole sentence and select the appropriate word to complete
the sentence.
It is difficult to believe that charging 40% on an outstanding credit card balance isn’t ______!
(A) bankruptcy (B) usury (C) kleptomania (D) flagrancy

4. If A:B:C = 2:3:4, then A/B : B/C : C/A is equal to______.


(A) 2:5:3 (B) 1:5:82 (C) 3:18:5 (D) 8:9:24

5. What is the probability of getting a sum 8 from two throws of a die ?


5 1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 9 36 9

Q. No. 6 –10 Carry Two Marks Each

6. Analyst: This Corporation is currently putting all its efforts into maximizing short-term profits.
Whatever happened to our traditional philosophy of slow, steady growth and emphasis on long-
term profitability? One aspect of the problem is seen in simple mathematics. Of our 57 district
managers, only 7 have been with the corporation for five years or more. In addition, only 5 of our
16 vice-presidents and only 2 of the 9 members of the board of directors have been with the
corporation for five years.

Which of the following conclusions does the author of this passage most probably want the reader
to draw?
(A) The corporation needs to seek leadership from outside sources if it is to remain profitable in
the long run.
(B) One of the reasons that the corporation's traditional financial goals have been ignored is that
very few of its high-ranking employees have much experience with the corporation.
(C) The only reason that the corporation's traditional financial goals have been ignored is that
very few of its high-ranking employees have much experience with the corporation.
(D) The corporation's traditional financial goals are outmoded.

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7. In the following sentence, some part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will
find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the best choice that follows the
requirements of standard written English.
There is no question of denying the fact that he broke it
(A) no denying the fact (B) no denial the fact
(C) no way to deny the fact (D) No improvement

8. A number is selected at random from the numbers 1 to 30. What is the probability that it is
divisible by either 5 or 13?
4 17 1 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15 30 10 15

9. In a shop, vegetables and fruits are sold at cost price but use a weight of 800 gm instead of
kilogram weight. What is his profit percentage?

10. Simple interest on a certain amount of money for 6 years at 10 % per annum is half the compound
interest on Rs.6000 for 2 years at 20% per annum. The amount placed on simple interest is:

Civil Engineering
Q. No. 1 – 25 Carry One Mark Each

1. The product of matrices A =  cos 2 θ cos θ sin θ and B =  cos 2 φ cos φ sin φ is a null
   
 cos θ sin θ sin θ   cos φ sin φ sin 2 φ 
2

matrix if θ – ∅ = _______

(A) 2nπ,n∈ Z (B) ,n∈ Z
2
π
(C) ( 2n + 1) , n∈ Z (D) nπ,n∈ Z
2

2. A basket contains 7 eggs out of which three are rotten. Two eggs are taken out together at
random. If one of them is found to be good, the chance that the other is also good, is _________.

 1
 x − 1,0 ≤ x < 2

 2 1
3. The value of ‘k’ for which f(x) =  k ( 3x − 2 ) , < x ≤ 1 is a probability density function of a
 2
0 otherwise


continuous random variable ‘X’ is ______.

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1
4. The function f ( z ) = where z is the complex conjugate of z, maps the region
zz − z − z + 1
z − 1 = 1 to
(A) The entire real axis (B) The entire imaginary axis
(C) The point (0,0) (D) the point (1,0)

5. With the condition x(1) = 1, the solution of the differential equation


tdx + xdt – t3dt = 0 at t = 2 is _______.

6. In the given figure, system is released with the spring un stretched equilibrium, while all surfaces
are smooth then compression in the spring will be

mg
(A)
k
2mg m
(B)
k
M+m M
(C) y
2k
mg
(D)
2k

7. A fixed Beam is subjected to moment as shown in figure. The fixed end moment at A will be.

M0 2M 0
A B

L L
3 6
L
2
M0 3M 0
(A) M 0 (B) (C) M 0 (D)
2 2

8. The rheological or flow equation of fresh concrete is expressed by which of following model ?
(A) Newton’s model (B) Le chatelier’s model
(C) Bingham model (D) None of the above.

9. A 5m high masonry retaining wall has to retain a backfill of sandy soil having a unit weight of
1.82 gm/cc and an angle of internal friction of 320. The surface of the backfill is inclined at an
angle of 100 to the horizontal. The active thrust on the wall is
(A) 6.734 t/m (B) 7.826 t/m (C) 8.525 t/m (D) 9.321 t/m

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10. If a 2-legged HYSD bar of 8mm diameter is used as a shear reinforcement for a beam of width
250mm and depth 340mm with nominal cover of 40mm, the spacing to satisfy the minimum shear
reinforcement requirement as per IS : 456.
(A) 240 mm (B) 395 mm (C) 380 mm (D) 360mm

11. An earthen embankment of 6310m of volume is to be constructed with soil of e=0.80 after
compaction there are three borrow areas named A, B and C having soil with ‘e’ 0.9, 1.5, 1.8
respectively. The cost of excavation and transportation of soil is Rs. 0.25, Rs. 0.23, and Rs. 0.18
per m³ respectively. Which barrow pit is more economical?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) None of these

12. The co-efficient of permeability of fine sand is 0.012 cm/sec at a void ratio of 0.57. Keeping all
other factors as constant the percentage change in the permeability of soil of
fine sand if the void ratio changes to 0.72 is
(A) 0.22 cm/sec (B) 0.022 cm/sec (C) 2.2 cm/sec (D) 22 cm/sec

13. The time estimates of activities in PERT analysis correspond to which of the following
distribution ?
(A) Normal distribution (B) β − distribution
(C) Binomial distribution (D) Poisson’s distribution

14. If for a two dimensional potential flow, the velocity potential is given by φ = x ( 2y − 1) , the
velocity at point P ( 4,5 ) is ________ units/sec

15. For a single stage impulse turbine, rotor diameter is 6m and speed is 3000 rpm. If the nozzle angle
is 15O, then the optimum velocity at inlet is ________m/s.

16. Consider a rigid horizontal beam supported by three equally spaced tension boxes of same cross-
sectional area a as shown below. The length of middle bar is half of the outer bars. The ultimate
load Pu on horizontal rigid beam if load is applied at the centre is

(1 ) (3 )
(2 )
L
T1 T2 T3 L 2

P
(A) σ y A (B) 2σ y A (C) 3σ y A (D) 4σ y A

17. Probability of a 20-year flood to occur at least once in the next 5 years is
(A) 18% (B) 23% (C) 43% (D) 75%

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18. A clayey soil has a field capacity of 0.42m3 per m3 and wilting point of 0.26m3 per m3 . if the
specific weight of soil is 12.5 kNm3 and the effective root zone depth is 0.9m, then the available
moisture holding capacity is ________cm

19. The loss for a flow of 1m3/sec through given main with a gate valve wide open having area 0.2m2
is 20m. The head loss with 75% closed valve (K = 24.0) is
(A) 29 m (B) 26.58m (C) 30.58m (D) 34.58m

20. An activated sludge system operates at flow rate of 4000m3/day. With incoming BOD (so) of 300
mg/l. A pilot plant showed the kinematic constant to be y = 6.5 kg SS kg/BOD, Ks=200 mg/l, u =
2/day : we need to design a treatment system that will produce effluent BOD of 30 mg/l (90 %
removal. (Assume x = 4000 mg/L)

The sludge wasted daily is


(A) 473 kg/day (B) 723 kg/day (C) 384 kg/day (D) 543 kg/day

21. The maximum speed of a train on B.G track having a curvature of 4° and cant of 8 cm with
allowable cant deficiency of 80mm, for conditions obtaining in India is ________kmph

22. A plate load test was conducted on a soaked subgrade during monsoon season using a plate
diameter of 30 cm. The load value corresponding to mean settlement value of 0.125 cm is 1475
kg. The modulus of sub grade reaction for the standard plate having 75cm diameter is ________
kg/cm3 (up to 2 decimal)

23. If the curve lead of Broad gauge railway turnout is 16.76m, the angle of crossing of turnout is
given as ;
(A) 12°191 2411 (B) 11° 181 3611 (C) 13° 111 3211 (D) 18° 211 3311

24. When distance between two points of plan drawn to scale of 1cm=50m measures 575m, later it
was found that scale used was 1cm=30m.
The true distance is
(A) 598.333m (B) 868.333m (C) 698.333m (D) 958.333m

25. The different variation in magnetic declination at any place are as follows
1. Annual variation
2. Diurnal variation
3. Irregular variation
The Correct sequence of their values in ascending order is
(A) 3<1<2 (B) 2<1<3 (C) 1>2>3 (D) 1>3>2

Q. No. 26 – 55 Carry Two Marks Each

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x
26. For function f ( x ) = minimum value is
lnx
(A) e (B) 1/e (C) e2 (D) e3

27. Suppose that X and Y are two independent normal variates having means, variances as follows:

Mean Variance
X 1 8
Y 2 10

X+Y
Then the distribution of Z = is
3
(A) N (0,1) (B) N (1,2) (C) N(1,1) (D) N(2,2)

28. If the function f ( x ) = x 3 − 6x 2 + ax + b satisfies Rolle’s theorem in the interval [1, 3] at the point
2 3 +1
then a = ____________.
3
(A) a = −11 (B) a = −6 (C) a = 6 (D) a = 11

dz
29. The value of ∫ze
C
2 z
where C is |z| = 2 is _____

(A) πi (B) – 2πi (C) 2πi (D) 0

If the matrix A = 5 4  has eigen vector [ 4 1] then one of the eigen vector of A–1 is
T
30.
1 2 
 
T T
1   1
(A) [1 4] (B) [ 4 1]
T T
(C)  1 (D) 1 
4   4

31. Two blocks m1 and m 2 of mass 6 kg and 2 kg respectively on a fixed inclined plane are connected
by a light string that passes over a mass less and frictionless pulley as shown in figure. Coefficient
of friction for each block with the plane is 0.2, then acceleration of m 2 is (g = 10m / s 2 )
(A) 1.5m / s 2
(B) 3 2m / s 2
45o
(C) 1.5 2m / s 2 m 2
m 1

2
(D) 2 2m / s

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32. A beam is loaded as shown below.

W W
0.2m 0.2m

1.4m

W = 8kg; Diameter of shaft = 50mm; Moment of Inertia = 130 × 10−9 m 4 ;


Modulus of Elasticity = 200 × 108 kg/m 2 ; Shaft weight = 14kg
The total maximum static deflection is ______× 10−4 m .

33. A beam AB of 10 metres long carries a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over its entire
length together with concentrated load of 50kN at the left end A and 80kN at the other end B. The
beam is to be supported at two props at the same level, 6 meters apart, so that the reaction is same
at each prop. The distance of zero shear force point between C and D from left end A is
(A) 2.7m
50 kN
20 kN / m 80 kN
(B) 3.3m
(C) 4.35m A
C D B
(D) 5.75m 6m

34. An unknown weight falls through a height of 10mm on a collar rigidly attached to the lower end
of a vertical bar 5m long and 600mm2 in section. If the maximum extension of the rod is to be
2mm, then the magnitude of unknown weight is _____N. [Take, E = 200GN / m 2 ]

35. The PERT calculations yield a project length of 60 weeks with a variance of 9 weeks, probability
factor corresponding to 95 % probability is 1.647; then the number of weeks required to complete
the project with probability of 95% is
(A) 62.94 (B) 60.94 (C) 64.94 (D) 66.94

36. A rectangular concrete beam 250mm wide & 600mm deep is prestressed by means of 4-14 φ high
tensile bars located 200mm from soffit of the beam. If the effective stress in the wires is
700N/mm2, the maximum bending moment that can be applied to the section without causing
tension at soffit of the beam is _____KNm.

37. A solid slab is spanning in two directions at right angle and supported on Beams. The load is
uniformly distributed W KN/m2. Assume l = length of slab, b = width of slab, the load carried by
the beam along width of slab as per IS : 456;
Wb 2 Wb 2 Wb 2 Wb 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 6 8

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38. A pretensioned concrete beam, 100mm × 300mm is prestressed by straight wires carrying initial
force of 150KN at an eccentricity of 50mm. The modulus of elasticity of steel and concrete are
210 KN/mm2 and 35KN/mm2 respectively. The percentage loss of stress in steel due to elastic
deformation of concrete if area of steel wires is 188 mm2 is;
(A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6%

39. The strength of plate joint shown in below figure.

20mm 20mm
60

30mm

60mm
180mm

Give M20 bolts of grade 4.6 and Fe 410 (E250) plates are used.
* For M20 bolts of grade 46 d = 20mm, do = 22MM, tub = 400 MPa ymB= 1.25
* For Fe 410 plates.
f u = 410 MPa, y mp = 1.25
(A) 473.056 KN (B) 573.056 KN (C) 673.056 KN (D) 773.056 KN

40. A Circular plate having diameter 150mm is welded to anther plate by means of 6mm fillet weld.
The ultimate twisting moment that can be resisted by the weld use steel of grade Fe410 and shop
welding. ( f u = 410MPa, y mw = 1.25 )
(A) 18.11 KNm (B) 23.11 KNm (C) 28.11KNm (D) 32.11 KNm

41. The loose gravel of thickness 250 mm thick is spread over the foot path. Persons used to walk
over the foot path. Assuming the average foot size as 0.025 sq.m of a person and energy imparted
for every foot step is 200 N-m. Assuming that no overlap of foot step, the number of persons
should pass over the footpath to achieve the Indian standard light compaction for layer would
be _____.

42. An earthen dam is constructed with 40 m height and with a free board of 5 m, a flow net is
constructed with a four channel flow. The number of equipotential drops is 15. The tail water is at
a depth of 5m. The co-efficient of permeability of soil is 9 x 10-2 mm/sec The seepage occurring
in a dam over a length of 100 meters is _____ m³/sec.

43. Saturated stiff clay has weight of 2t/m³ and unconfined compressive strength of 2kg/cm² The
depth of tension crack would develop is at (∅=0)
(A) 3m (B) 6m (C) 8m (D) 10m
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44. A 500 mm wide square in section concrete pile, 10 m long is driven in a deep deposit of uniform
clay. Calculate the safe load capacity in kN considering average UCS value 80 kN/m2, adhesion
factor 0.9 and factor of safety 2.5.
(A) 320 kN (B) 324 kN (C) 328 kN (D) 332 kN

45. A 4 storey building has to be supported on a R.C. raft foundation of dimension 10m x 30m in clay
subsoil. qu of the soil is 2kN/sqm. The pressure on soil produced by this raft will be 150kN/sqm.
At what depth the raft should be placed to achieve a factor safety of 3 against shear failure, Unit
weight of the soil is 19kN/cum.
(A) 5.19m (B) 6.29m (C) 7.39m (D) 8.49m

46. A pelton wheel nozzle for which Cv=0.97 is 500m below the water surface of a lake. The jet
diameter is 100mm and pipe diameter is 6 times of jet diameter and length is 5km and f=0.033.
The bucket deflects the jet through 170º. ηm=92%. Friction reduces the relative velocity at outlet
by 15%. Bucket velocity is 0.48 of the inlet velocity. The shaft power is ______kW.

47. Oil at 30OC ( ρ = 900 kg / m3 and µ = 0.8kg / m.s ) is flowing through a 6 cm diameter and 50 m
long pipe. Inlet and exit presumes are measured to be 800 kPa and 100 kPa respectively. Assume
that the entrance effects are negligible and thus the flow is fully developed. The flow rate of oil
through the pipe assuming the pipe is inclined 15º upward is ________×10-3m3/sec.

15O

48. An isolated 4-hour storm occurred over a catchment as follows


Time 1st hour 2nd hour 3rd hour 4th hour
Rainfall (mm) 9 21 18 13

The ɸ - index for the catchment is 11 mm/h. The estimated runoff depth from the catchment due
to the above storm is ________mm.

49. A catchment of 200 hectares area has rainfalls of 7.5 cm, 2.0 cm and 5.0 cm in three consecutive
days. The average ϕ - index can be assumed to be 2.5 cm/day. Distribution-graph percentages of
the surface runoff which extended over 6 days for every rainfall of 1-day duration are 5, 15, 40,
25, 10 and 5. The maximum ordinate of the discharge hydrograph is_______________m3/s × 10-2

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50. Raw primary and waste activated sludge containing 4 % solids is to be aerobically digested at a
loading of 3kg /m3day. The total the hydraulic retention time for primary digester is
_______________ days

51. A water treatment plant is designed for 30 million gallons per day (mgd). The flocculate
dimensions are length = 100 ft. width = 50 ft, depth = 16ft. Revoking paddles attached to four
horizontal shafts rotate at 1.7rpm. Each shaft supports four paddles that 6 inch wide and 48 inc
long. Paddles are centered 6ft from shaft. Assume CD=1.9 and mean velocity of water is 35 % of
paddle velocity. Assuming velocity differential between paddles and water is 65% of rotational
velocity. The density of water is 1.94 lbs-S2/ft2 and viscosity is
2.73lbs/ f 2 .
The value of G is given as
(A) 15.50 s −1 (B) 12.5s −1 (C) 10.5 s −1 (D) 13.5s −1

52. A Clean filter is found to weigh 10.00g. After 24 h math volume sample, the filter plus dust
weight 10.10g. The air flow at start and end of the test was 60 and 40m3/min respectively. The
concentration of particulate matter?
(A) 33 µg m3 (B) 38ug m3 (C) 41ug m3 (D) 49 ug m3

53. Consider following data of a plain cement concrete pavement:


Width of expansion joint gap = 2.8 cm Temperature variation between summer and winter =25°C
coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete, C = 10-5 per Coefficient of friction ,f=1.5 unit
weight of concrete, w = 2400 kg/m3 allowable tensile stress in concrete pavement Sc = 0.8 kg/cm2
The expansion joint and contraction joint spacing Le and LC (in m) respectively of pavement are:
(A) Le = 56 m, Lc = 4.4 m (B) Le = 98m, Lc = 6.2 m
(C) L e = 67m, L C =13m (D) L e = 112m, L c = 21m

54. A train having 18 wagons weighing 15 tonnes each is to run at a speed of 60 km/h. The tractive
effort of a 2-8-2 locomotive with 21 tonnes load on each driving axles is 15 tonnes. The weight of
locomotive is 120 tonnes. What is having capacity (In tonnes) if coefficient of friction is
1/6 _____.

55. A Point 3000m away from the instrument is used to sight a vane 3.0m above the foot 0f a staff.
The observed angles of elevation was 2°30. The reduced level of trainer axis being 200m. The
reduced level of staff station is (consider correction for curvature of refraction)
(A) 327.952 m (B) 327.5857 n (C) 328.5857m (D) 328.9520 m

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