MODEL QUESTIONS – MDS

1. Which of the following is not found in the substance of parotid gland

a. Branch of auricular nerve
b. Sternocarotid artery
c. Superficial temporal artery
d. Facial nerve
2. Pain in TMJ is transmitted by
a. Auriculo temporal nerve in the capsule
b. Maxillary branch of trigeminal in the retro discal pad and capsule
c. Maxillary branch of trigeminal in the meniscus and retro discal pad.
d. Auriculo temporal nerve in the articular surfaces of the mandible and temporal bones.
3. Main nerve which passes through foramen rotundum
a. Facial nerve
b. Maxillary nerve
c. Mandibular nerve
d. Ophthalmic nerve
4. Which of the following muscles of soft palate is not supplied by pharyngeal plexus
a. Tensor palate
b. Levator palate
c. Palatoglossus
d. Palatopharyngeus.
5. Facial nerve has motor supply to
a. Temporal muscle
b. Lateral pterygoid muscle
c. Tensor veli palate muscle
d. Buccinator.
6. What is normal pH of human blood?
a. 7.0
b. 7.2
c. 7.4
d. 7.6
7. Which among the following fattyacid is essential fattyacid for human
a. Palmitic acid
b. Oleic acid
c. Linoleic acid
d. Ricinoleic acid
8. Kwashiokor is associated with
a. Low blood cholesterol
b. Low plasma gamma globulin
c. Low blood glucose
d. Low plasma albumin
9. Normal fasting blood sugar level in mg/100ml is usually
a. 60
b. 70
c. 90
d. 110
10. Which of the following is an excitory neurotransmitter
a. GABA
b. Histamine
c. Melatonin
d. Acetyl choline
11. Which of the following have least density
a. Dentin
b. Enamel
c. Gold
d. Porcelain
12. In which of the following is inherentally hydrophilic in nature
a. Poly ether
b. Additional silicones
c. Condensation silicones
d. Polysulfide.
13. Universal bonding agent is
a. HEMA
b. NPG:GMA
c. META
d. EDTA
14. Smear layer can be removed with
a. Ca(OH)2
b. Dilute EDTA
c. ZnO eugenol
d. Rubbing with cotton
15. Commonly used viscosity controller in composites
a. Bis GMA
b. UDMA
c. TEGDMA
d. Methyl methacrylate
16. The drug most often used to dry secretions in the oral cavity
a. Propantheline
b. Diazepam
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Promethazine
17. Which of the following is not an amide type of local anesthetic
a. Mepivacine
b. Prilocaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Procaine
18. All of the following are known to have viral etiology except
a. Whooping cough
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. Herpes simplex
19. One of the major locations for streptococcus salivarius in the oral cavity
a. Cheek
 b. Plaque
c. Tongue
d. Gingival crevice
20. The most abundant immunoglobulin in human serum belongs to the class
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgE
21. Ricketssiae causes
a. Dengue
b. Rift valley fever
c. Q fever
d. Yellow fever
22. A serious oral manifestation of advanced leishmaniasis is
a. Cancrum oris
b. Negri bodies
c. Cold sore
d. Kala azar
23. The seeding process of mineralization in dentin is called
a. Calcification
b. Epistasis
c. Epitaxy
d. Phosphorylation
24. Weils zone in pulp organ is
a. Cell rich zone
b. Odontoblastic zone
c. Cell free zone
d. Neurovascular zone
25. The resorption of the roots of a primary teeth begins above the age of
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
26. Which type of fibres are principal fibres of periodontal ligament
a. Reticular
b. Elastic
c. Collagenous
d. Collagenous and elastic
27. In which of the following instances is the anatomic crown of a tooth shorter than the clinical crown
a. Gingival recession
b. Impaction
c. Occlusal wear
28. Reading time is prolonged in
a. Von villebrands disease
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Hemophilia
d. Warfarin therapy
29. Which is non absorbable suture?
a. Polypropylene
b. Polyglycolic acid
c. Vicryl
d. Collagen
30. Tracheostomy should be done through
a. 1st tracheal ring
b. 2nd and 4th tracheal ring
c. 5th and 7th tracheal ring
d. Cricothyroid membrane
31. A pathologic fracture of maxilla or mandible wound not occur in
a. Bone cysts
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Myositis ossificans
d. Giant cell tumour of bone
32. Contracture of the skin gives a mask like appearance to the face is
a. Cranio facial dysostosis
b. Systemic sclerosis
c. Achondroplasia
d. Solar elastosis
33. Marcus gun phenomenon is characteristic of
a. Marin Amat syndrome
b. Jaw winking syndrome
c. Horner’s syndrome
d. Eagle’s syndrome
34. Carpet tack extensions are characteristic of
a. Psoriasis
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Lichen planus
d. Bullous pemphigoid
35. Reilly’s bodies seen in Hurler’s syndrome are found in
a. Neutrophils
b. Monocytes
c. Basophils
d. Lymphocytes
36. Which of the following conditions may be histologically mis diagnosed as benign lesion
a. Lentigo maligna
b. Lympho epithelioma
c. Verrucous carcinoma
d. Basal cell carcinoma
37. The odontoma which resembles anatomy of normal teeth is a
a. Composite odontoma
b. Compound odontoma
c. Complex odontoma
d. Complex and compound odontoma
38. Which of the following candidal infection is called thrush
a. Acute pseudomembranous
 b. Acute atrophic
c. Chronic atrophic
d. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
39. Prevelance refers to
a. Cumulative effects of a disease
b. Number of new cases detected
c. Rate of disease transmission
d. Proportion of population affected by a disease
40. 1 ppm of fluoride in water gives a final concentration of
a. 1%
b. 0.1%
c. 0.001%
d. 0.0001%
41. Durophat is
a. NaF varnish
b. Silane fluoride varnish
c. Another name for APF gel
d. snF2 varnish
42. The following is used to evaluate significant difference between two means
a. Pie square test
b. T test
c. F test
d. Z test
43. Case control study is also called
a. Retrospective
b. Prospective
c. Prevelance
d. Incidence

44. The first country to adopt salt fluoridation

a. France
b. Germany
c. Jamaica
d. Switzerland
45. Vaccine for caries is based on which immunoglobulin
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgM
46. Indian dentist act was formulated in
a. 1942
b. 1947
c. 1948
d. 1949
47. The direction of the bevel of the chisel during bone cutting is
a. Away from the bone to be sacrificed
b. Towards the bone to be sacrificed
 c. Independent of the bone to be sacrificed
d. Parallel to stress line
48. Which of the following is the preferred local anesthetic technique for hemophilics
a. Nerve block
b. Supra periosteal
c. Intra ligamentary
d. Field block
49. Surgery is carried out in which stage of general anesthesia
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
50. Longest acting local anesthesia is
a. Bupivacaine
b. Tetracaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Procaine
51. The prime purpose of bibeveled chisel is
a. Split teeth
b. Sharpen the angles
c. Remove bone
d. Engage point establishment
52. Which is best monitor of level of analgesia?
a. Eye movements
b. Respiratory movements
c. Muscle tone
d. Verbal response
53. Commonly advised extra oral radiograph to see the maxillary sinus is
a. AP skull view
b. Submento vertex view
c. Occipito mental view
d. Lateral skull view
54. The following muscle is most frequently encountered in an incorrect infra orbital nerve block
a. Orbicularis oris
b. Triangularis
c. Quadratus labii superioris
d. Risorius
55. Epithelial attachment is derived from
a. Sulcular epithelium
b. Reduced enamel epithelium
c. Outer enamel epithelium
d. Periodontal ligament
56. Periodontal ligament is widest at
a. Alveolar crest
b. Apical region
c. At fulcrum of rotation
d. Mid root level
57. A cup like resorptive area at the crest of the alveolar bone is indicative of
a. Gingivitis
b. Trauma from occlusion
c. ANUG
d. Early periodontitis
58. The following is critical for success of a subgingival curettage procedure
a. Removal of free gingival
b. Removal of epithelial lining of pocket
c. Removal of cement enamel junction
d. Placement of sutures
59. Which of the following procedures cannot increase the width of keratinized gingival
a. Laterally displaced flap
b. Modified widman flap
c. Apically positioned flap
d. Free gingival flap
60. Which of the following is alloplastic material
a. Iliac crest graft
b. Freeze dried bone graft
c. Bone bled
d. Tricalcium phosphate
61. Ideal thickness of graft should be
a. 1 to 1.5mm
b. 0.25 to 0.5mm
c. 0.5 to 1mm
d. 2 to 3mm
62. In which type of lesion ebernation of dentin is seen
a. Acute caries
b. Chronic caries
c. Arrested caries
d. Root caries
63. Copal varnish is
a. znO resin
b. znO Ca(OH)2
c. znO glycerin
d. all the above
64. pH of polycaboxylate liquid is
a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. 1.7
65. Corrosion in amalgam cracks can be described as
a. Wet corrosion
b. Stress corrosion
c. Crevice corrosion
d. Electrolytic corrosion
66. Best marginal integrity is obtained with
a. GIC
 b. Gold foil
c. Gold inlay
d. Amalgam
67. Biocompatibility is best for
a. Beta titanium
b. Stainless steel
c. Nitinol
d. Base metal alloy
68. Beilby layer is synonym for
a. Protective oxide layer formed
b. Over glaze
c. Tarnish and corrosion
d. Molecular disorganized surface on a highly polished metal
69. Endosealer containing polyketone is
a. Diaket
b. Cavit
c. Ah26
d. Hydrane
70. The temperature for testing the vitality by heat test should not exceed
a. 65.5 C
b. 65.5 F
c. 32.5 F
d. 32.5 C
71. Peer pressure is maximum in
a. Toddlers
b. Puberty
c. Teen age
d. Children below 12 years
72. The phallic stage defined by Freud is seen in the following age group
a. 1 to 2 yrs
b. 2 to 3 yrs
c. 1 to 5 yrs
d. 3 to 6 yrs
73. Arch criminal in caries
a. Sucrose
b. Complex carbohydrate
c. Xylitol
d. Glucose
74. Aspertame is a
a. Non caloric sweetener
b. Caloric sweetener
c. Sugar complex
d. None of the above
75. Cvek pulpotomy refers to
a. Partial pulpotomy
b. Complete pulpotomy
c. Incomplete pulpotomy
 d. None of the above
76. Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs in which stage of tooth development
a. Initiation
b. Histo differentiation
c. Morpho differentiation
d. Maturation
77. Reinforcement technique is based on
a. Social learning theory
b. Psychoanalytical theory
c. Skinners theory
d. Massler’s theory

78. The V principle of growth is best illustrated by

a. Body of mandible
b. Mandibular ramus
c. Mandibular symphysis
d. Sphenooccipital synchondrosis
79. Normal naso labial angle
a. 80
b. 110
c. 70
d. 140
80. The angle of convexity is
a. SNA
b. ANB
c. NA-POG
d. SNB
81. Angle SNA
a. 81 degree
b. 82 degree
c. 80 degree
d. 79 degree
82. Incomplete overbite is
a. Open bite
b. Deep bite
c. Over bite with no over jet
d. Over jet with no over bite
83. In translation centre of rotation is at
a. Apical 1/3rd
b. Coronal 1/3rd
c. Infinity
d. Apex
84. Normal facial index is
a. 65 to 75%
b. 75 to 80%
c. 80 to 90%
 d. 100%
85. Differential force concept is mainly used in
a. Straight wire appliance
b. Lingual appliance
c. Beggs light wire appliance
d. Frankel appliance
86. Emergency retentive force is
a. Atmospheric pressure
b. Surface tension
c. Cohesion
d. Adhesion
87. Which muscle has dual function as related to complete denture
a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
c. Buccinators
d. Lateral pterygoid
88. Number of swallowing per day
a. 300
b. 400
c. 1500
d. 600
89. Structural durability is a
a. Biological phenomenon
b. Mechanical phenomenon
c. Structural phenomenon
d. None of the above
90. Wrech like grip is obtained with
a. Mesial half crown
b. Three fourth crown
c. Dowel crown
d. Jacket crown
91. Intra enamel depth preparation in porcelain laminate veneer
a. 0.5mm
b. 0.75mm
c. 1mm
d. 2mm
92. The clasps for partial dentures should be made of
a. Gold
b. Iridioplatinum
c. Platinum
d. Silver
93. Heel raising movement of a RPD is prevented by
a. Occlusal rest
b. Minor connector
c. Direct retainer
d. Indirect retainer
94. The inherent filtration of Xray machine range from thickness of aluminium
 a. 0.5 to 2mm
b. 1.5 to 2.5mm
c. 2.5 to 5mm
d. 1 to 2.5mm
95. Mean exposure of radiation from an intra oral periapical radiograph
a. 300mR
b. 90mR
c. 0.03R
d. 10mR
96. Radiodensity can be increased by
a. Decreased milliampearage
b. Decreased kilovoltage
c. Decreased target film distance
d. Increased target film distance
97. Reversal lines are characteristic on the radiograph of
a. Osteoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Epidermoid cyst
d. Pagets disease of bone
98. All of the following are precancerous conditions except
a. SLE
b. Peutz jeghers syndrome
c. Plummer Vinson syndrome
d. Xeroderma
99. The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is
a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Heart
100. Trotters syndrome involves
a. pharynx
b. oropharynx
c. larynx
d. nasopharynx

ANSWER KEY
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. C
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. A
39. D
40. D
41. A
42. B
43. A
44. D
45. B
46. C
47. B
48. C
49. C
50. B
51. A
52. D
53. C
54. C
55. B
56. A
57. D
58. B
59. B
60. D
61. A
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. C
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. A
70. A
71. C
72. D
73. A
74. A
75. A
76. B
77. C
78. B
79. B
80. C
81. B
82. D
83. C
84. C
85. C
86. A
87. A
88. D
89. B
90. B
91. A
92. A
93. D
94. A
95. A
96. C
97. D
98. D
99. A
100. D