Physics 5300, Theoretical Mechanics Spring 2015

Assignment 3 solutions

Given: Wed, Jan 28, Due Tue Feb 3

The problems numbers below are from Classical Mechanics, John R. Taylor, University
Science Books (2005).

Problem 1 Taylor 7.1

Solution: We have
L=T −V (1)
1
T = m(ẋ2 + ẏ 2 + ż 2 ) (2)
2
V = mgz (3)
Thus
1
L = m(ẋ2 + ẏ 2 + ż 2 ) − mgz (4)
2
The Lagrange equations are
d ∂L ∂L
x: ( )− = 0, mẍ = 0 (5)
dt ∂ ẋ ∂x
d ∂L ∂L
y: ( )− = 0, mÿ = 0 (6)
dt ∂ ẏ ∂y
d ∂L ∂L
z: ( )− = 0, mz̈ + mg = 0 (7)
dt ∂ ż ∂z
These are as expected since the x and y directons feel no gorce, while the z moton gives
mz̈ = −mg so the projectile feels a downward force mg.

Problem 2 Taylor 7.2

Solution: The force F = −kx comes from a potential

1
V = kx2 (8)
2
since we have
d
F =− V (9)
dx

1
Then we get
1 1
L = T − V = mẋ2 − kx2 (10)
2 2
The Lagrange equation is
d ∂L ∂L
x: ( )− = 0, mẍ + kx = 0 (11)
dt ∂ ẋ ∂x
The solution is r
k
x = A cos( t + φ) (12)
m

Problem 3 Taylor 7.3

Solution: We have
1 1
L = m(ẋ2 + ẏ 2 ) − k(x2 + y 2 ) (13)
2 2
The Lagrange equations are
d ∂L ∂L
x: ( )− = 0, mẍ + kx = 0 (14)
dt ∂ ẋ ∂x
d ∂L ∂L
y: ( )− = 0, mÿ + ky = 0 (15)
dt ∂ ẏ ∂y

Problem 4 Taylor 7.10

Solution: The coordinates are ρ, φ. The half angle is α, and the cone points down.
Consider any z < 0. Then we have
ρ
tan α = (16)
(−z)

Thus
ρ
z=− (17)
tan α
We also have
x = ρ cos φ (18)
y = ρ sin φ (19)

Problem 5 Taylor 7.17

2
 Solution:
We have
1 1 1
T = m1 ẏ12 + m2 ẏ22 + Iω 2 (20)
2 2 2
V = m1 gy1 + m2 gy2 (21)
We have the constraint
y1 + y2 = Y = constant (22)
We solve this constraint. Thus
ẏ1 = ẏ2 (23)
We also have
v ẏ1
ω= = (24)
R R
where R is the radius of the pulley. Thus we have
1 I
T = (m1 + m2 + 2 )ẏ12 (25)
2 R
V = (m1 − m2 )gy1 + m2 gY (26)
1 I
L = T − V = (m1 + m2 + 2 )ẏ12 − (m1 − m2 )gy1 − m2 gY (27)
2 R
The Lagranges equation is
d ∂L ∂L
y1 : ( )− =0 (28)
dt ∂ ẏ1 ∂y1
I
(m1 + m2 + )ÿ1 − [−(m1 − m2 )g] = 0 (29)
R2
(m1 − m2 )g
ÿ1 = − (30)
(m1 + m2 + RI2 )
The solution is
1 (m1 − m2 )g 2
y1 = y10 + v10 t − t (31)
2 (m1 + m2 + RI2 )

Problem 6 Taylor 7.20

Solution: We have
ż = λφ̇ (32)
Thus
1 1 R2 1 R2
T = m(ż 2 + R2 φ̇2 ) = m(ż 2 + 2 ż 2 ) = m(1 + 2 )ż 2 (33)
2 2 λ 2 λ
V = mgz (34)

3
Thus
1 R2
L = m(1 + 2 )ż 2 − mgz (35)
2 λ
The Lagrange equation is

R2
z : m(1 + )z̈ − (−mg) = 0 (36)
λ2
g
z̈ = − R2
(37)
(1 + λ2
)
In the limit R → 0 we get
z̈ = −g (38)
which makes sense since in this case we just have a vertical wire, and the bead will slide
straight down with acceleration −g.