ROMÂNIA

MINISTERUL APĂRĂRII NAŢIONALE

ŞCOALA MILITARĂ DE MAIŞTRI MILITARI
ŞI SUBOFIŢERI A FORŢELOR TERESTRE
„BASARAB I”
____ august 2017
Anexă la nr. ________
- Piteşti -
Concurs de admitere la
Programul de studii postliceale cu durata de 2 ani
(pentru formarea maiştrilor militari, filiera directă) – SESIUNEA II
Sesiunea: AUGUST 2017

TEST GRILĂ LA LIMBA ENGLEZĂ

VARIANTA 1

Instrucţiuni:
Timpul de lucru este de 90 minute.
Toate subiectele sunt obligatorii.
Răspunsurile se scriu pe foaia de concurs.
Nota minimă de promovare a probei este 5,00 (20 itemi).

A. Partea I: CITIT
Read the texts below and choose the correct answer a, b, c or d.
I’ve always been a bit of an entertainer and played the funny man. I was a part-time comediant for
years, so I learned how to stand in front of audience. It made me sure of myself. I like being liked and I love
making everyone smile.
I’ve lived in London all my life and have just moved to a larger house with my wife Clare and our
two children, Jimmy and Madeleine. We spend a lot of time just singing and dancing around the house. I
grew up with music because my dad is the pianist, Chester Harriot – who’s still playing, by the way.
My working day is divided between television and writing cook books, though TV takes most of
my time. I spend about five days a fornight working on the cooking programmes I appear in. I eat all sorts of
things at home but I only buy quality food. When I’m cooking, I experiment with whatever is in the fridge –
it’s good practice for my TV series. I’m a football fan and enjoy going to matches, but I’m a home loving
person really. I don’t like going to the pub but we do go out to eat about twice a month. There is nothing
better than a night at home playing with the children. I rarely go to bed before midnight. In the evening is
when fresh thoughts on cooking usually come to me, so I often write or plan my programme.
1. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?
a. To say what makes him laugh;
b. To describe how he lives;
c. To talk about his cooking ideas;
d. To explain how he started in television.

2. What would a reader learn about him from the text?

a. He is a very good musician;
b. He is nervous about performing on stage;
c. He likes to plan the family meals;
d. He enjoys spending time with his family.

3. What does the writer say about himself?

a. He is very similar to his father;
b. He enjoys being popular;
c. He loves going out and meeting people;
d. He should go to bed earlier.
4. What does he say about his working life?
a. He usually gets his best ideas in the evening;
b. He would like to appear less on TV;
c. He prefers being a comediant;
d. He should practice cooking more.
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5. Who, in the writer’s family, plays the piano?
a. Clare;
b. Chester;
c. Madeleine;
d. Jimmy.
Bees are insects. Bees are special insects because they can fly. They can move through the air like
an airplane. Bees can fly because they have wings. They use their wings to fly. Bees can fly fast. Bees can
also fly slow. Bees can have three colors. They can be yellow, red and orange. All bees are black in some
places. Bees have three main parts. They have a head, a body and a stinger. The stinger is used to defend
against enemies. They also have six legs. They use their legs to stand and climb. They also use their legs to
eat and collect pollen. Bees live in many places. They live in Africa, Australia, Asia, Europe, North
America, South America. The only continent that bees do not live on is Antarctica. Most of the time, bees
are nice to humans. If you do not bother them, they will not bother you.
6. What does the text refer to?
a. the place where bees live;
b. natural environment of bees;
c. insects;
d. colors of bees.
7. Bees can fly using their ...
a. body;
b. wings;
c. head;
d. arms.
8. Where cannot we find bees?
a. Asia;
b. Africa;
c. Antarctica;
d. Europe.
9. What is the color that all bees have in some places?
a. yellow;
b. orange;
c. red;
d. black.
10. If bees can fly, this means they can:
a. swim through the water;
b. run very fast;
c. see very far;
d. move through the air.
Chocolate first came from Central America. The word chocolate comes from the Aztec language
and is the only Aztec word we use regularly in English. The Aztecs made a greasy, bitter drink called
Xocoatl, from cocoa beans mixed with cold water, spices and cornmeal. The Aztecs used the cocoa bean as a
form of money. According to HH Bancroft, who was a historian, “four beans bought some vegetables, ten
beans bought a woman and a slave cost 100”.
The explorer Cortes was the first person to bring chocolate to Europe. He presented it to the
Spanish Royal Court in Madrid and served it with herbs and pepper. Soon it became very fashionable to
drink it with sugar and vanilla and drunk warm.
Coenrad van Houten, who was Dutch, was the first person to extract the cocoa butter from cocoa
bean in 1827. In 1847, Joseph Fry, who lived in England, mixed the cocoa butter with other ingredients to
make a solid chocolate bar.
Daniel Peter, who was a confectioner in Switzerland, invented milk chocolate in the 1870s. Henri
Netle developed the process. The cocoa tree originally comes from the Amazon rainforests. Brazil, West
Africa and Ecuador now produce most of the 1,5 million – tonne world cocoa crop.
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11. What does the text refer to?
a. the Aztecs;
b. the greasy, bitter drink called Xocoatl;
c. the explorer Cortes;
d. the origins of chocolate.
12. What did Xocoatl consist of?
a. herbs and pepper;
b. cocoa beans mixed with cold water, spices and cornmeal;
c. sugar and vanilla;
d. some vegetables.
13. Who was the first person to bring chocolate to Europe?
a. Daniel Peter;
b. Coenrad van Houten;
c. the explorer Cortes;
d. HH Bancroft.
14. What did Joseph Fry do to make a solid chocolate bar?
a. He mixed cocoa beans with other ingredients;
b. He mixed cocoa butter with other ingredients;
c. He mixed spices with cold water;
d. He mixed sugar and vanilla.
15. Which countries produce most of the world cocoa crop?
a. Brazil, West Africa and Ecuador;
b. Switzerland and Denmark;
c. Central Africa and America;
d. Spain and England.

B. Partea a II-a: ELEMENTE DE GRAMATICĂ ŞI VOCABULAR

Choose the correct answer a, b, c, or d:
16. Look! It is really ___________ now.
a. rains;
b. are raining;
c. raining;
d. is raining.
17. The train ___________ before I reached the platform.
a. have arrived;
b. arrive;
c. had arrived;
d. was arriving.
18. Please, tell me ___________ names.
a. their’s;
b. theyr;
c. their;
d. theirs.
19. All hospital personnel ___________ wear uniform.
a. must;
b. might;
c. won’t;
d. shan’t.

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20. Cats usually catch ___________.
a. mouses;
b. mice;
c. mices;
d. mousis.

21. If he passes the exam, he ___________ the job next week.

a. have received;
b. receives;
c. received;
d. receive.

22. Your car is ___________ than mine.

a. faster;
b. fast;
c. more faster;
d. fastest.

23. Where ___________ my money?

a. are;
b. have;
c. is;
d. has.

24. ___________ you ever ___________ joining the army?

a. Have, consider;
b. Has, considered;
c. Have, considered;
d. Has, consider.

25. Don’t touch that book! It’s ___________.

a. mine’s;
b. my;
c. mine;
d. my’s.

26. ___________ food includes fatty and unhealthy ingredients.

a. Diet;
b. Busy;
c. Elegant;
d. Junk.

27. My father works in a hospital. He is a ___________

a. nursery;
b. surgery;
c. surgeon;
d. assistant.

28. Mary has not drunk anything for 2 days. She must be ___________.
a. hungry;
b. funny;
c. bored;
d. thirsty.

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29. If yesterday was Monday, the day after tomorrow will be ___________.
a. Friday;
b. Tuesday;
c. Wednesday;
d. Thursday.

30. The film was very ___________, so I left the cinema.

a. interesting;
b. bored;
c. interested;
d. boring.

31. Hannah is a very ___________ person. People always rely on her judgement.
a. correct;
b. punctual;
c. strict;
d. caring.

32. For heaven’s ___________, behave yourself and be reasonable!

a. love;
b. behalf;
c. name;
d. sake.

33. Don’t you feel ___________ living here in the middle of nowhere?
a. solo;
b. alone;
c. single;
d. lonely.

34. She took it easy.

a. Her head hurt.
b. She smoked less.
c. She rested.
d. She couldn’t hear very clearly.

35. I like my house because it has lots of ___________.

a. floor;
b. place;
c. space;
d. area.

C. Partea a III-a: SCRIS

Choose the correct answer a, b, c, or d:

36. How do you begin a formal letter?

a. Dear Jane,
b. Dear Sirs,
c. Hi,
d. Hello,
37. What do you write on a card for someone who’s in hospital?
a. Get well soon!
b. Best of luck!
c. Break a leg!
d. Congratulations!

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38. What is the most appropriate line in a letter of application?
a. Give me the job offered online.
b. I would like to tell you to hire me for the job online.
c. I would like to apply for the position you posted on the internet.
d. I would like the job you posted on the internet.

39. Which is the correct order?

a. I usually have black coffee in the morning.
b. I have coffee black usually in the morning.
c. In the morning I usually have coffee black.
d. Black coffee I have usually in the morning.

40. Which is correct when you give directions?

a. At the roundabout, take the first turning on your left.
b. Take the first roundabout turning on your left.
c. Take the first turning left on your roundabout.
d. At the left roundabout take the first turning on.

41. Which is the correct formal invitation?

a. We are to invite you pleased to our fifth anniversary.
b. To our fifth anniversary we pleased are to invite you.
c. We are pleased to invite our fifth anniversary you.
d. We are pleased to invite you to our fifth anniversary.

42. How do you finish a formal letter?

a. Best wishes,
b. Respectfully yours,
c. Best regards,
d. I’m waiting for your reply,

43. How do you make formal suggestion?

a. Would you like to join me to the theatre?
b. Please, join me to the theatre!
c. Join me to the theatre!
d. Do you want to join me to the theatre?

44. How do you finish an informal letter?

a. Faithfully yours,
b. Best wishes,
c. Respectfully,
d. Sincerely yours,

45. When addressing to your superior, you should use:

a. formal language;
b. informal language;
c. a dictionary;
d. the internet.

NOTĂ: Evaluarea se efectuează astfel:

1. Partea I = 3 puncte (15 itemi x 0,2 puncte = 3 puncte);
2. Partea a II-a = 4 puncte (20 itemi x 0,2 puncte = 4 puncte);
3. Partea a III-a = 2 puncte (10 itemi x 0,2 puncte = 2 puncte);
4. Se acordă 1 punct din oficiu.

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 GRILA DE EVALUARE

1 a b c d 16 a b c d 31 a b c d
2 a b c d 17 a b c d 32 a b c d
3 a b c d 18 a b c d 33 a b c d
4 a b c d 19 a b c d 34 a b c d
5 a b c d 20 a b c d 35 a b c d
6 a b c d 21 a b c d 36 a b c d
7 a b c d 22 a b c d 37 a b c d
8 a b c d 23 a b c d 38 a b c d
9 a b c d 24 a b c d 39 a b c d
10 a b c d 25 a b c d 40 a b c d
11 a b c d 26 a b c d 41 a b c d
12 a b c d 27 a b c d 42 a b c d
13 a b c d 28 a b c d 43 a b c d
14 a b c d 29 a b c d 44 a b c d
15 a b c d 30 a b c d 45 a b c d

NOMOGRAMA DE TRANSFORMARE
A ITEMILOR REZOLVAŢI CORECT ÎN PUNCTAJ ŞI NOTĂ

Nr. de Nr. de Nr. de

itemi itemi itemi
Punctaj Nota Punctaj Nota Punctaj Nota
rezolvaţi rezolvaţi rezolvaţi
corect corect corect
0 0 1,00
1 0,20 1,20 16 3,20 4,20 31. 6,20 7,20
2 0,40 1,40 17 3,40 4,40 32. 6,40 7,40
3 0,60 1,60 18 3,60 4,60 33. 6,60 7,60
4 0,80 1,80 19 3,80 4,80 34. 6,80 7,80
5 1,00 2,00 20 4,00 5,00 35. 7,00 8,00
6 1,20 2,20 21 4,20 5,20 36. 7,20 8,20
7 1,40 2,40 22 4,40 5,40 37. 7,40 8,40
8 1,60 2,60 23. 4,60 5,60 38. 7,60 8,60
9 1,80 2,80 24. 4,80 5,80 39. 7,80 8,80
10 2,00 3,00 25. 5,00 6,00 40. 8,00 9,00
11 2,20 3,20 26. 5,20 6,20 41. 8,20 9,20
12 2,40 3,40 27. 5,40 6,40 42. 8,40 9,40
13 2,60 3,60 28. 5,60 6,60 43. 8,60 9,60
14 2,80 3,80 29. 5,80 6,80 44. 8,80 9,80
15 3,00 4,00 30. 6,00 7,00 45. 9,00 10

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