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I = Total capital investment d = CCA tax rate PV (OCF) after-tax savings = 900K (1.5M)(1-0.4) Lease or buy scanner?

Tc = Corporate tax rate r = Discount rate Indiff L.P: Set NAL = 0 and solve for LP PV (OCF) = PVA [900K=PMT, 5=N, I=8%] CMP PV = 3,593,439 After-tax RD= (10%)(1-0.4) = 6%
Sn = Salvage value in year n n = Number of periods PV(ATLP) = 0 + initial cost - PV(CCATS) - PV(Salvage) PV(NCS) = -5m + 250,000/(1.08)^5 = -4,829,854 After-tax LP = ($9.35m)(1-0.4) = 5.61M
Solve for ATLP using calculator ATLP (PMT) = [ PV = ATLP, N, PV(CCATS) = [(5m)(0.25)(0.4)/(0.25+.08)]x(1.04/1.08) – PV(ATLP) = PVAD($5.61m, 4years, 6%) = $20,605,597
I, FV=0] [(250,000)(0.25)(0.4)/(0.25+.08)]x(1/(1.08)^5) = 1,407,475 PV(CCATS)=[(33.6m)(0.35)(0.4)/(0.35+0.06)]*[(1+0.5(0.06))/(1.0
BTLP = ATLP / (1-TC) PV (NWC) = -50K + 50K/((1.08)^5) = -15,971 6)] –[(4m)(0.35)(0.4)/(0.35+0.06)]*[1/(1.06)4]= $10,066,574
Types of Leases NPV = 3,593,439– 4,829,854 + 1,407,475 – 15,971 = $155,089 PV(Salvage) = $4m/(1.06)4= $3,168,375
1. Finacial = Longer-term, Lessee is responsible, not cancelable Original Machine = 200k initial cost, purchased 5y ago, salvage NAL = 33.6m –20,605,597–10,066,574 –3,168,375
2. Operating = Shorter-term, Lessor is responsible for today = 140k, salvage in 5y, = 20k New Machine =350k initial = $240,546 > 0 therefore buy the scanner
insurance, taxes and maintenance, Often cancelable. cost, 5yr life, salvage in 5y = 5k, cost savings = 55k/yr, both have B) What are CFs from lessor’s point of view, with 40% tax rate?
Criteria For Capital Lease (One of the following must be met) CCA of 20%, req. rate = 10%, Tax Rate = 40% do you replace? Lessor nal = -33.6m+20,605,597+10,066,574+3,168,375 = 240,546
Lease transfers ownership by the end of lease term PV(OCF)= PVA [55K=PMT, N=5, I=10%] CMP PV = 208, 493 C)What would the lease payment have to be for both the lessor and
Lessee can purchase asset at below market price PV(NCS*)= -(350K-140K)+(5K-20K/(1.1)^5) = - 219,314 lessee to be indifferent to the lease?
Lease term is for 75% or more of the life of the asset PV(CCATS) = [(210K)(0.2)(0.4)/(0.2+0.1)]x(1.05/1.1) – Set NAL = 0 and solve for LP:
PV lease pmt at least 90% of fair mkt value at the start of the lease [(-15K )(0.2)(0.4)/(0.2+0.1]x(1/(1.1)^5) = 55,938 NAL for lessee = 33.6m –PV(ATLP)–10,066,574 –3,168,375
Relevant CFs Include NPV Replacement = 208,493 – 219, 413 + 55,938 = 45,117 YES PV(ATLP) = 20,365,05
The saved cash outflow from purchase Machine A = 30K initial cost, 13K pre-tax operating cost, 5yr life. PV(ATLP) = 20,365,051 as PV in calc, n = 4, I = 6%, BGN mode
Direct cash outflows (lease payments) from leasing, Machine B = 20K initial cost, 15K pre-tax operating cost, 7yr life. Compute PMT = ATLP = $5,544,510
Indirect costs such as loss of CCA tax deductions and salvage value No change in NWC is required. Required return is 10%, CCA rate BTLP = ATLP/(1-TC) = $5,544,510/(1-0.4) = $9,240,850
*BUYING VS LEASING* NAL < 0 = BUY NAL > 0 = LEASE is 20%, and tax rate is 40%. Which machine do you buy?(EAC) D) What is the NAL if the lessee does not pay taxes?
NPV(A) = PVA[(13K)(1-0.4), 5yrs, 10%] +(30K+0) PV(BTLP) = PVAD[9.35m, 4 yrs, 10%] = $32,602,066
Reasons to Lease = Tax Differences, Agency & Transaction Costs
+[(30K)(0.2)(0.4)/(0.2+0.1)x(1.05/1.1)-0] = -51,932 New PV(Salvage) = 4m/(1.1)4= $2,732,054
Good Reasons to Lease = Taxes may be reduced May reduce some
Do the same for machine B and put each NPVs as PV in calc. Use NAL = 33.6m –32,602,066–2,732,054 = -$1,734,120 buy scanner
uncertainty May have lower transaction costs May require fewer
respective Ns & 10% for I and compute PMT. Choose lowest EAC What is the NAL of the computer from ABCs point of view?
restrictive covenants May encumber fewer assets than borrowing
ABC to pay a dividend of $5/share next year. There has been steady PV(ATLP) = $7,769,284
CAPITAL STRUCTURE
growth in dividends of 3.95%/year and the market expects that to PV(CCATS) =
Capital restructuring involves changing the amount of leverage
continue. Current stock price is $25. What is cost of equity? [(12M)(0.4)(0.35)/(0.35+0.06))(1+(0.5)(0.06))/(1.06)] –
a firm has without changing the firm’s assets
DGM: Re =5/25 + 0.0395 = [(600K)(0.4)(0.35)/(0.35+0.06))(1/(1.06)^5] = $3,828,495
1. Increase leverage by issuing debt & repurchasing o/s shares
free rate is 4%. The market believes dividends will grow 5%/year PV(Salvage) = 600K/(1.06)^5 = 448,355 Cost of printer = 12M
2. Decrease leverage by issuing new shares and retiring o/s debt
and our last dividend was $3. Our stock is currently selling for NAL == 12,000,000 – 7,769,284 – 3,828,495 – 448,355 = -$46,134
What is the primary goal of financial managers?
$27.50. What is our cost of equity? Suppose ABC tax rate is 0% (not 40%). What is maximum amount
1. Choose capital structure that will maximize stockholder wealth
CAPM=4+(1.75)(7%)=16.25% per year that ABC would be willing to pay for the lease?
2. Maximize stockholder wealth by max. firm value or min. WACC
DGM = (3x1.05)/27.50 + 0.05 = 16.45% PV(Salvage) = 600,000/1.10^5 = 372,553
How does leverage affect the EPS and ROE of a firm?
Therefore cost of equity is between 16.25-16.45% NAL = Cost – PV(BTLP) – PV(Salvage) 0 = 12,000,000 –
When amount of debt financing increases, so does fixed interest
Bond issue currently outstanding that has 30 years left to maturity. PV(BTLP) – 372,553 PV(BTLP) = $11,627,447
expense. If we have good year, then we pay fixed cost and have
Coupon rate is 8% and coupons are paid semi-annually. Bond is PV = 11,627,447, N = 5, I = 10%, compute PMT = 2,788,447
more left over for stockholders If we have bad year, we still have to
currently selling for $904.50 per $1K bond. What is cost of debt? Suppose annual cost to maintain equipment is $2,500. Assuming
pay our fixed costs and we have less left over for our stockholders
N= 60(30x2) PMT= 40(1K)(.08)/2 FV= 1K PV = -904.50 ABCs tax rate is still 0% and the maintenance cost would be
The effect of financial leverage depends upon EBIT?
CMPT I = 4.459 x 2 = 8.92% is the cost of debt covered by the lease payment, how would the NAL be affected?
EBIT = High, EPS & ROE raises If EBIT > break-even = good
Your company has preferred stock that has an annual dividend of Annual maintenance cost = $2,500 N = 5, I = 10%, PMT = 2,500,
EBIT = Low, EPS & ROE lowers If EBIT < break-even = bad
$6. If the current price is $50, what is the cost of preferred stock? compute PV = $9,477 is the amount that would be increased
Modigliani and Miller (M&M) Theory of Capital Structure Rp = D/Po = 6/50 = 12% Capital Structure – CHP 16 (Approx. 11-12 Questions)
Proposition I – firm value & Proposition II – WACC You have a market value of equity equal to $100 million and a ABC has no debt outstanding and total market value of $8M. EBIT
Changing firm value = Change the CFs or risks of CFS market value of debt = $95 million. What cap. structure weights? is $900K next year. They consider debt issue of $5M with 10%
Assumptions Underlying M&M Model WE = E/V = 100/95 = 51.28% WD = D/V = 95/195 = 48.72% interest rate and will use the funds to buy back shares in the firm.
Equity Info = 500K shares, $25/share, Beta = 1.25, market risk There are currently 200K shares outstanding and no taxes in the
premium = 9%, risk free rate = 5%. Debt Info = $10M o/s debt, economy. What is breakeven level of EBIT between the two capital
current quote = 95, coupon rate = 8% (semi), 20 YTM, tax = 40%. structures?
A) what is cost of equity? New shares = old # - shares repurchase = 200K–5M/$40(8M/200K)
Re = 5% + (1.25)(9) = 16.25% = 200K – 125K = 75K Now need to find breakeven of EBIT
B) what is the cost of debt? EBIT – 0 / 200K = EBIT – (5M)(0.1) /75K
N=40(20x2) FV=1K PMT= 40 (8%)(1K)/2 PV= -950 750K(EBIT) = 200K (EBIT-500K) * Divide both by 10K *
CMP I = 4.263 x 2 = 8.53% 7.5(EBIT) = 20 (EBIT-500K) or 7.5(EBIT) -20(EBIT) = -10M
C) what are capital structure weights? -12.5(EBIT) = -10M EBIT = $800,000
MVE = (500K)(25) = 12.5M MVD = (0.95)(10M) = 9.5M (Homemade Leverage) ABC in above example DOES NOT
V = 12.5M + 9.5M = 22M change its capital structure. An investor can replicate returns of the
WE = 12.5M/22M = 56.82% WD = 9.5M/22M = 43.18% proposed borrowing by making D/E ratio equal to that of the firm
There are no taxes, tax differentials, costs of financial distress & D) What is the WACC? under the proposed capital structure. If a shareholder owns 900
The SML Approach Advantages transaction costs. Investors can diversify and seek debt at the same WACC = (0.5682)(16.25) + (0.4318)(8.53)(1-0.4) = 11.44% shares but prefers the CFs she gets under the proposed capital
1.Explicitly adjusts for systematic risk rate/cost as firms. ABC considering project that will cost $150K. Project will generate structure: A) What strategy could she use to achieve those cash
2. Applicable to all companies, as long as we can compute beta Pecking Order Theory after-tax cash flows of $46.5K/year for 5 yrs. Firm’s WACC = 15% flows? B) What would be her CF? C)What would be her ROE?
Disadvantages Firms will use internal financing first, They will issue debt if target D/E ratio is 0.75. Floatation cost for equity is 6% and 4% for A) D/E = 5M/8M-5M = 5/3 Her equity = (900)(40) = 36K
1. Have to estimate expected market risk, which varies over time necessary, Equity is sold as a last resort. debt. What is NPV for project after adjusting flotation costs? To create 5/3 she must borrow (5/3)(36K) = 60K @ 10%
d. Have to estimate beta, which also varies over time DIVIDEND POLICY D/E = 0.75 = 0.75(debt)/1(equity) V = D+E = .75+1 = 1.75 Shares bought = 60K/40 = 1,500 shares
e. We are relying on the past to predict the future, which is not Regular cash div. = Cash pmts made to stockholders each quarter Wd = 0.75/1.75= 42.86% We =1/1.75 = 57.14% Therefore, she must borrow 60K and buy 1500 shares
always reliable Extra cash dividend = Indication that extra amount may not repeat Weighted FC = (0.4268)(4%) + (0.5714)(6%) = 5.143% B) Her CF = (shares owned)(EPS) – interest
DGM Approach Liquidating dividend = Some or all of the business has been sold Amt to raise = 150K/(1-0.05143) = $158, 133 Her CF = (900+1500) x (900K/200K) – (60K)(0.1) = 4800
Advantage – easy to understand and use Ex-dividend date = Occurs 2 business days before date of record If NPV FC = -158,133 + PVA [PMT 45.6K, N=5, 15%] = -2,258 C) Her ROE = Her CF/Her Equity = 4800/36K = 13.33%
Disadvantages you buy stock on or after this date, you will not receive dividend Leasing – CHP 22 (Approx. 5-6 Questions) Suppose ABC DOES change its capital structure. An investor can
1. Only applicable to companies currently paying dividends Stock price generally drops by about the amount of the dividend ABC needs new printer. The press would cost $950K if purchased replicate the returns of the original capital structure by selling
2. Not applicable if divs aren’t growing at reasonably constant rate Homemade Divs = Dividend policy is irrelevant when there are no and would depreciate at CCA rate of 30%. After its 5-year life, the shares in the ratio at which the firm is buying back and putting the
3. Extremely sensitive to estimated growth rate taxes or other market imperfections press could be sold for $75K. You can lease press for 5yrs at proceeds in the bank at the firm’s cost of borrowing. If a
4. Does not explicitly consider risk P0 = D1 / (1+R) + D2 / (1+R)2 ….. R = discount rate $220K/year and payments are due at the beginning of the year. Tax shareholder with 800 shares before the change prefers the cash
UNLEVERED FIRM = NO DEBT Shareholder who receives a div. greater than desired can rate 40% and firms cost of debt = 12%. Should you buy or lease? flows she would have received under the all-equity capital
LEASING reinvest excess. Those who receives a div. smaller than desired After-tax RD= (12%)(1-0.4) = 7.2% structure: A) What strategy could she use to achieve those cash
can sell extra shares of stock After-tax LP = ($220,000)(1-0.4) = 132,000 flows? B) What would be her CF? C)What would be her ROE?
Capital Budgeting – CHP 9,10,14 (Approx. 5-6 Questions) PV(ATLP) = PVAD($132,000, 5 years, 7.2%) = $577,101 A) To undo recap, investor sells same % of shares that firm is
NAL = Initial Cost – PV(ATLP) – PV(CCATS) – PV (Salvage) ABC inc a new production system that will initially cost $5M .It
1. Find RD* = RD (1- Tc) = 15%(1-0.4) = 9% (dis S PV(CCATS)=[(950,000)(0.3)(0.4)/(0.3+0.072)]*[(1+0.5(0.072))/(1. buying back = use % debt added
will save the firm $1.5M/yr in inventory and receivables 072)] –[(75,000)(0.3)(0.4)/(0.3+0.072)]*[1/(1.072)5]= $279,071 % of debt = 5M/8M = 62.5% = she must sell 62.5% of shares
count rate w tax) management costs.The system is expected to last for 5yrs and will PV(Salvage) = 75,000/(1.072)5= 52,977 Shares to sell = (0.625)(800) = 500 shares
2. Find ATLP = LP (1-Tc) = (1,750,000)(1-0.4) = 1,050,000 be depreciated at a CCA rate of 25%.The system is expected to NAL for lessee = 950,000 –577,101–279,071–52,977= $40,851 She will put (500)(40) = 20K into account paying 10% interest
3. Find PV(ATLP) = PVAD = [PMT, N, I, FV = 0] have a salvage value of $250K at the end of yr 5.The project ABC is thinking about leasing a scanner costing $33.6M if Her strategy = Sell 500 shares & put proceeds in bank @ 10%
4. Find PV(CCATS) use RD*
requires 50K of NWC which will be recovered at the end of the purchased. CCA rate = 35%, tax rate = 40%. Salvage value of B) Her CF = (800-500) x (900K-500K/75K) + (20K)(0.1) = 3600
5. Find PV(salvage) salvage / (1+RD*)n project. Marginal tax rate = 40%. The required return = 8%. scanner after 4yrs = $4M. The firm can lease scanner for $9.35M/yr C) Her ROE = 3600/[(300)(40)+20K] = 11.25%
6. Solve for NAL
Should the firm purchase the equipment? (at start of year) for 4yrs. Pre-tax cost of borrowing is 10%.
ABC debating whether to convert its all-equity capital structure to EBIT/2,800= [EBIT –3,300]/2,200 many shares will he own after stock dividend has been paid? PV(OCF) = $3.5m PV(NCS) = -4.25m + 1.2m/(1.12)^5 = -4.25m +
one that is 30% debt. There are 15K shares outstanding, price per 2,200(EBIT)= (2,800)(EBIT –3,300) - S/H will own 3,000(1.2)= 3,600 shares 680,912 = -3,569,088 PV(CCATS) = [(4.25m)(0.25)(0.4)/(0.37)]
share = $70. EBIT is $135K per year forever. The interest rate on 600EBIT = -92,400  EBIT = $15,400 What will be the price of Inbox Inc. shares on the ex-dividend day? (1.06/1.12) – [(1.2m)(0.25)(0.4)/(0.37)](1/(1.12)^5) = 903,084
new debt is 6% and there are no taxes. DEF, a potential shareholder Plan 2: EBIT/2,800 = [EBIT –(0.10)($55,000)]/1,800 Total equity = $1.2m, total number of shares = (50K*(1.2)) = 60K NPV = 3.5m – 3,569,088 + 903,084 = $833,996
of the firm, has $49K to invest in the company. Suppose the firm EBIT/2,800= [EBIT –5,500]/1,800 Price = $1.2m/ 60,000= $20 In the previous question, suppose the new monitor also requires
does not convert but prefers the proposed capital structure with 1,800(EBIT)= (2,800)(EBIT –5,500) - Past Midterm Questions (NWC) by $15K when we buy it, and this investment will be
debt. If DEF replicates the proposed structure using homemade 1,000EBIT = -15.4m  EBIT = $15,400 KeeBored Inc. is deciding to lease or buy a new keyboard system recovered at the end of year 5. What would happen to the NPV?
leverage, what will be there total cash flow? Ignoring taxes, when will EPS be identical for plans I & II? for its business. The system will generate $500K in annual pre-tax PV(NWC) = -155,000 + 155,000/(1.12)^5 = -155,000 + 87,951 = -
D/E = 3/7 Old V = 1.05M (15K)(70) D = 315K (0.3)(1.05M) Set EPS from Plan I and Plan II equal to each other & solve EBIT, cost savings. The system costs $2.5 million and qualifies for a 40% 67,049 NPV declines by = $67,049
To Create 3/7 we must borrow (3/7)(49K) = 21k @ 6% [EBIT –3,300]/2,200 = [EBIT –5,500]/1,800 CCA rate. The system will have a salvage value of $200K in 4 Plate Inc has 12K bonds outstanding with par value of $1K. Bonds
The total 49K+21K= 70K will buy shares 70K/70 = 1000 shares (1,800)(EBIT –3,300)= (2,200)(EBIT –5,500) - years. Tax rate is 40%, and firm can borrow at 10%. AAA Corp. have a semi-annual coupon rate of 11%, mature in 11 years, and are
CFs = (1000)(135K/15K) – (21K)(0.06) = $7,740 400EBIT = -6.16m  EBIT = $15,400 has offered to lease system for payments of $600K/year. AAA trading at $805 each. Common shares sell for $58 and there are
OPA Inc. has a required return on assets of 16%, cost of debt of Assuming corporate tax rate is 40%. What happened to the break- policy requires that its lessees make payments at 30 of year 250K shares outstanding. The most recent dividend (paid
10%, and is 45% financed with debt. What is cost of equity? even levels of EBIT? What is the PV of the after-tax lease payments? yesterday) was $7.50, this dividend is expected to grow 6% a year
Re= 0.16 + (0.16 – 0.10) x (0.45/(1-0.45)) = 20.91% EBIT(1 –0.4)/2,800 = [EBIT –(0.10)($33,000)](1 –0.4)/2,200 After-tax cost of debt = 10% x (1 – 0.4) = 6% in perpetuity. ABC beta is 2.1 and the firm’s corporate tax rate is
Suppose cost of equity is 25%. What is the debt-to-equity ratio? 0.6EBIT/2,800 = (0.6)[EBIT –3,300]/2,200 After-tax lease payment = $600,000 x (1 – 0.4) = $360,000 40%. What is cost of equity capital?
25% = 0.16 + (0.16 – 0.10) x (D/E) 0.6(2,200)EBIT = (0.6)(2,800)[EBIT –3,300] BGN mode: N = 4, I = 6%, PMT = 360L CMPT PV = $1,322,284 RE = D1/P0 + g = (7.50)(1.06)/58 + 0.06 = 19.71%
9% = (0.06)(D/E) D/E =1.5 1,320EBIT = 1,680[EBIT –3,300] - Suppose now that the total present value of all of the after-tax lease What is Plate’s after-tax cost of debt?
What would be the weight of equity in OPA? 360EBIT =-5,544,000  EBIT = $15,400 payments is $1,600,000 (it’s not). What would be the NAL from N=22, PMT = $55, FV = 1K PV = -805, compute I = 7.308%
D/E = 1.5/1 D = 1.5 E = 1 V = 1.5+1 = 2.5 Dividend Policy – CHP 17 (Approx. 6-7 Questions) Acme Leasing Corp.’s point of view? AAA also faces a 40% tax cost debt = 14.616% after-tax cost debt =(14.616)(1–0.4) = 8.77%
We = 1/2.5 = 40% A $1 dividend declared on Aug 23 has a date of record of Sept 16 rate. PV(ATLP) = $1,600,000 Beleaf Inc. is considering an investment in new hardware
ABC has a debt/equity ratio of 5/3. WACC is 12%, and cost of debt and will be paid on Oc 27. What is ex-dividend date? PV(CCATS) = [((2.5m)(0.4)(0.4)/(0.46))(1+(0.5)(0.06))/(1.06)] – technology that would cost $8M, and would be financed with only
is 7.8%. There are no taxes. What is cost of equity capital? ex-div. date is 2 biz days before date of record = September 14th [(200,000)(0.4)(0.4)/(0.46))(1/(1.06)^4] = $789,853 equity. Flotation costs are 5.5% of the amount of common stock
D/E = 5/3 V=5+3=8 We = 3/8 = 37.5% Wd= 5/8 =62.5% Will a shareholder who purchases the stock on September 13th PV(Salvage) = 200,000/(1.06)^4 = 158,419 Cost of System = 2.5m issued and Beleaf’s WACC is 12%. How much equity would
12% = (0.375)(Re) + (0.625) (7.8) receive the dividend? September 14th? NAL = -2,500,000 + 1,600,000 + 789,853 + 158,419 = $48,271 Beleaf have to issue so that, after flotation costs are paid?
(0.375)Re = 7.12 Re = 19% Purchase stock on 13th = Yes 14th = No Assume that KeeBored has a corporate tax rate of 0%. What is the Amt to issue = 8m/(1-0.055) = $8,465,608
What is the company's unlevered cost of equity capital? Firm can either pay out dividends of $100K per year for next 2 lease payment indifferent between leasing and buying? Eminem Corp., produces candy files for bankruptcy. Eminem can
19 = RA+(RA-7.8)(5/3)  19 = RA+(5/3)(RA) -13 years or can pay $90K in 1 year, reinvest the other $10K into the PV(Salvage) = 200,000/(1.10)^4 = 136,603 either (1) pay a cost of $100K today to reorganize, after which the
32 = 8/3 RA  RA = 12% firm and then pay $111.2K in 2 years. Require a 12% return. NAL = Cost – PV(BTLP) – PV(Salvage) firm will earn annual cash flows of $187.5K forever, or (2)
What would the cost of equity be if the debt/equity ratio were 2? Assume that the dividend in the second year will be a liquidating 0 = 2.5m – PV(BTLP) – 136,603 liquidate all assets today for $1.8M What would discount rate have
If D = 2  We = 1/3 Wd = 2/3 dividend. What is the value of the firm in each case? PV(BTLP) = $2,363,397 to be to make firm indifferent between reorganizing & liquidating?
12 = (1/3)(RE)+(2/3)(7.8)  1/3(RE) = 6.8 RE = 20.40% Option I: PV = 100,000/1.12 + 100,000/(1.12)2= 169,005.10 N = 4, I = 10%, PV = $2,363,397, compute PMT = $677,803(BGN) -100,000 + 187,500/r = 1.8m  187,500/r = 1.9m
(M&M Case II) 2 firms are identical except capital structure of Option II: PV = 90,000/1.12 + 111,200 /(1.12)2= 169,005.10 How are the cost savings mentioned in the problem dealt with in R = 187,500/1.9m R = 9.87%
one is all-equity and other has a mix of debt/equity. Both firms ABC is all-equity that will pay div. of $24/share next year and the NAL calculation for KeeBored Inc.? A firm is 100% equity financed and generates operating cash flows
have annual EBIT of $100K per year forever and 40% tax rate. The liquid div. of $18 at end of 2nd year. Current stock price The cost savings are irrelevant to KeeBored’s lease vs buy decision. of $3M per year. The corporate tax rate is 40%, and unlevered cost
levered firm has $125K in 8% debt. What are annual CF for both? $36.69/share. No tax, discount rate =10%. If investor with 1K ABC is a firm that generates a perpetual EBIT of $1.5M per year. of equity (RU) is 20%. firm raises $4.5M of debt at an interest rate
NI (unlevered) = (100,000 –0)(1 –0.4) = $60,000 shares used homemade divs. to generate equal divs. each period, Firm has no debt and has 250K shares outstanding. The cost of of 10% and using the proceeds to repurchase shares.
NI (levered) = [100,000 –(125,000)(0.08)](1 –0.4) = $54,000 how many shares need to be bought/sold at end of the 1st year? capital is 12% and the beta of firm is 1.25. Firm is thinking of W(bond/unlev) Y(share/unlev) X(bond/lev) Z(share/lev)
CF from assets (unlevered) = CF to shareholders = $60,000 PV=36.69, N=2, FV = 0, I = 10%, Solve PMT= $21.14 issuing $6M in debt and using the proceeds to repurchase equity. What is the value of all? W = 0 X= 4.5M(0.10) = 450K
CF from assets (levered) = $54,000 + 10,000 = $64,000 Investor wants 1K * 21.14= $21,140 but gets 1K * 24= $24,000. Firm borrows funds @ 7%. If there are no corporate taxes and Z = [3m – (4.5m)(0.1)](1 – 0.4) = $1.53M
Annual debt tax shield = (0.4)(10,000) = $4,000 Investor has $2,860 extra = buys $2,860 worth of shares at T1. M&M Proposition I holds, what would be the market value of Soil Corp., an all-equity firm, generates EBIT of $570K/year in
PV(debt tax shield) = $4,000/0.08 = $50K OR P1= 18/1.1= $16.36  $2,860/16.36= 174.82 shares Vyolin Corp. if it issues the debt and repurchases shares? perpetuity. There are currently 100K shares o/s and firm’s cost of
PV(debt tax shield) = D(RD)(TC)/RD= DTC= $125K(0.4) = $50K Instead, investor wants first div. to double the size of second div. According to Proposition I (no-tax), the value of the firm will capital is 15%. The firm wants to recapitalize, where it would issue
5Step Corp. expects an EBIT of $180,000 every year forever. The what would size of the first div. and how would it be achieved? remain unchanged. VU = 1.5m/0.12 = 12.5m VL = 12.5m $1.5M in debt and use the proceeds to repurchase equity. Soil Corp.
firm currently has no debt, and its cost of equity is 15%. The firm $36.69= 2D/1.1+ D/(1.1)^2  Solve for D: Assume now that ABCs corporate tax rate is 40%. If the firm does can issue the debt at a 7.5% What is Plate’s cost of equity capital?
can borrow $600,000 at 12% and buy back shares. The corporate 36.69(1.1)^2 = 2D(1.1)+ D the planned recapitalization, what would be the required return on If there no corporate taxes, no bankruptcy costs, or any other
tax rate is 40%. What would be the value of the levered firm? 3.2D = 44.39  D= $13.87  D1= 2D2= (2)(13.87) = 27.7 equity and its overall weighted average cost of capital? market frictions, what would be the market value of Soil Corp. if it
VU= EBIT * (1-Tc)/r= $180,000(1 –0.4)/0.15 = $720,000 Investor wants 1K * 27.74= $27,740 but gets 1K * 24= $24K. VU = (1.5m)(1-0.4)/0.12 = 7.5m VL = 7.5m + (6m)(0.4) = 9.9m issues the debt and repurchases shares? (Hint: MM Case I)
VL= VU + (TC*D) = 720,000+ 600,000(0.4) = $960,000 Investor is short $3,740 and will sell shares D/E ratio = 6m/(9.9m-6m) = 1.5385 VU = 570,000/0.15 = $3.8m  VL = $3.8 million
What would be the value of the equity? P1= 18/1.1= $16.36  $3,740/16.36= 228.61 shares RE = 12 + (12 – 7)(1.5385)(1-0.4) = 16.62% Assume corp. tax is 40%. What is req. return of equity?
E = VL–D = 960,000 –600,000 = 360,000 ABC is all-equity firm that will pay a div. of $10/share next year WACC = (3.9/9.9m)(16.62) + (6m/9.9m)(7)(1-0.4) = 9.09% VU = (570K)(1-0.4)/0.15 = 2.28m VL = 2.28m + (1.5m)(0.4) =
What would be the cost of equity and WACC after the and a liquidating div. of $18.50 at the end of the 2nd year. Current What would be the beta of the firm after it does the 2.88m E = 2.88m – 1.5m = 1.38m D/E ratio = 1.5m/1.38m
recapitalization? stock price = $23.68/share. No tax and discount rate of 12%. If recapitalization? ABC faces a tax rate of 40%. RE = 15 + (15 – 7.5)(1.5/1.38)(1-0.4) = 19.89%
RE= = 15%+ (15% –12%)(600/360)(1–0.4) = 18% investor w/ 500 shares wants to generate equal divs. in each period, Beta = (unlevered beta)(1 + D/E) = (1.25)(1+6m/3.9m) = 3.17 What is required return on equity is 21%. What is WACC?
WACC = (360/960)(18%) + (600/960)(12%)(1–0.4) = 11.25% how many shares need to be bought or sold next year (year 1)? You own 1,000 shares in CuppaJoe. If you were to use homemade WACC = (1.38/2.88)(21) + (1.5/2.88)(7.5)(1-0.4) = 12.41%
EBIT = $50 million; tax rate = 40% Debt = $150 million; cost of N = 2, I = 12%, PV = $23.68 PMT = $14.01 dividends to generate equal dividends over the next two years, how Snarcos Inc. is an unlevered firm with 350K shares o/s trading at
debt = 9% Unlevered cost of capital = 12% What is firm’s equity? Investor wants: $7,005 (500)(14.01) Investor gets: (500)(10) = 5K many shares would you need to buy or sell at end of first year? $64. The firm changes cap. structure & issues $8.96 of debt at 8%
VU= 50m(1 –0.4)/0.12 = $250M VL= 250m+ (150m)(0.4) =$310M Difference = 7,005–5,000 = $2,005 SHORT PV = 110, N = 2, I = 8%, compute PMT = $61.68 and using the proceeds to repurchase shares. No corp. tax or market
E = 310m–150m= $160 million Investor has to sell shares at time 1. P1 = $18.50/(1.12) = $16.52 The investor wants 1000 x 61.68 = 61,680 frictions. EPS of $10. Indifference EBIT between cap structures?
What is the firm’s cost of equity? # Shares sold = 2,005/16.52= 121.37 shares The investor gets 1000 x 10.80 = 10,800. shares repur. = 8.96m/64 = 140K shares o/s = 350K–140K = 210K
RE= 12%+ (12% –9%)(150/160)(1–0.4) = 13.69% Another investor with 500 shares wants exactly $3,500 (in total) at The investor is $50,880 short, and so will sell shares. EBIT/350K = (EBIT – 716.8K)/210K
What is the firm’s WACC? year 1, how many shares would need to be bought or sold at year 1? Price at time 1 = 116.64/1.08 = $108 210K EBIT = (350K)(EBIT – 716.8K)  -14EBIT = -25,088,000
WACC = (160/310)(13.69%) + (150/310)(9%)(1–0.4) = 9.68% Investor wants: $3,500 Investor gets: (500)($10) = $5,000 Investor will sell 50,880/108 = 471.11 shares. EBIT = 1.792 million
Suppose the firm changes its capital structure so that the D/E ratio Difference = 1,500 EXTRA! Investor buy shares at time 1. Suppose instead that you, as a very picky holder of 1K shares, want Dexter owns 1,200 shares. Firm remains all-equity, but Dexter
becomes 1.5. What will happen to the cost of equity and WACC P1 = $18.50/(1.12) = $16.52 the second dividend to be 12 times the size of the 1st dividend. prefers the CFs he would have received under the proposed capital
under this new capital structure? # Shares bought = 1,500/16.52 = 90.8 shares How many shares would you be buying or selling to do this? structure. Using HM leverage what would is his value of cash flow?
RE= 12 + (12 –9)(1.5)(1–0.4) = 14.7% Firm needs $20 million for new investments. D/E ratio is 2/3. Net 110 = D/1.08 + 12D/(1.08)^2 = 110(1.08)^2 = 1.08D + 12D D/E = $8.96m/[(350K)(64) – 8.96m] = 2/3.
WACC = (0.4)(14.7) + (0.6)(9)(1–0.4) = 9.12% Income this year will be $16M If firm follows a residual div. 13.08D = 128.3040 D = 9.81 He needs to borrow 2/3X = (2/3)($64)(1200) = $51,200.
ABC expects its EBIT to be $450K every year forever. The firm policy, what would be amount of the dividend? The investor wants (1,000)(9.81) = 9,810 He takes 51.2K and buy 51,200/64 = 800 more shares in the firm.
currently has no debt, and can borrow funds at 10%. The firm is D/E = 2/3, V = 2 + 3 = 5, so D/V = 2/5 = 40% E/V = 3/5 = 60% The investor gets (1,000)(10.80) = 10,800. His CF = ($10)(1200+800) – (51,200)(0.08) = $15,904.
thinking of borrowing $1.5M and using the proceeds to buy back Finding div.:40% financed w/ debt: Debt need = 0.4 x $20m = 8M The investor has $990 extra, so they will buy shares. Switch Inc. is an all-equity firm worth $6M w/ 100K shares o/s.
shares. Cost of equity is 15%. Tax rate is 40%. What would be the 60% financed with equity: Equity need = 0.6 x $20m = 12M Price at time 1 = 116.64/1.08 = $108 corporate tax rate is 40%. They decided to issue $2.5M of debt at
cost of equity and WACC for this firm after the recapitalization? Dividend = max(Earnings–Equity need, 0) Investor will buy 990/108 = 9.17 shares. 7% intrest and will use the proceeds to repurchase shares. What
VU= 450,000(1–0.4)/0.15 = $1,800,000 = max($16million -$12million, 0)= $4M A 10-for-4 stock split is equivalent to a ___stock dividend would be the stock price of Switch Inc. after it has announced the
VL= 1,800,000 + (1,500,000)(0.4) = $2,400,000 Firm needs $14M for new investments. D/E ratio is 1.5. Its net 10-4 stock split is equivalent to (10 – 4)/4 = 150% stock dividend. debt issue to the market but before it repurchases the shares?
E = 2.4M –1.5M = $900,000 income this year will be $4M. If the firm follows a residual Computer costs $4.25M has a depreciation rate of 25% per year, Debt Issue = $2,500,000; debt tax shield = (2.5M)(0.4) = 1M
RE= 15 + (15–10)(1500/900)(1–0.4)= 20% dividend policy, what would be the amount of the dividend? and would be worth $1,200,000 in five years. The new monitor Old price = $6,000,000/100,000 = $60
WACC = (900/2400)(20) + (1500/2400)(10)(1–0.4) = 11.25% D = 1.5, E = 1 V = 2.5 wD= 1.5/2.5 = 60%, wE= 1/2.5 = 40% would save the firm $1,540,000 per year before taxes on operating New stock price = = $60 + 1m/100K = $70
ABC currently an all-equity firm with 2,800 shares outstanding, is Equity need= ($14m)(0.4) = $5.6m costs. There is no impact on net working capital. The firm’s Theory Accept IRR > Req R, HM Leverage = Case 1
thinking of changing its capital structure. Two other options it is Dividend = max($4m –5.6m, 0) = max(-$1.6m, 0)= 0 weighted average cost of capital is 12% and the corporate tax rate is when tax rates are same, the NAL = 0 for both (False)
considering are as follows: Plan I = 2.2K shares of stock & $33K in The balance sheet for ABC. as of Sept. 30th, 2017 is Cash=1M, 40%. What would be the total PV of the after-tax cost? operating lease on balance sheet (False), Increase Lev by selling
debt. Plan II = 1.8K shares of stock & $55K in debt. The interest Assets=400K, Debt=200K, Equity=1.2M a day before the ex- After-tax cost savings = 1.54m(1 – 0.4) = 924,000 shares/paying debt, No structure = Case I, Structure Offset = P2,C1
rate on the debt is 10%. ignoring taxes, what are the break-even dividend day. On Sept. 12th, firm declared a 20% stock div. Firm PV(OCF) = PVA[924,000, 5yrs, 12%] = $3,330,813 the after-tax cost of debt(correct) Fin distress = place covenants,
levels of EBIT for each plan? has 50K shares o/s before the payment of the stock dividend. A Pretend that your answer to the previous question was $3,500,000. increase # shares by payin div. and 2-1, GMA buy shares w high
Plan 1: EBIT/2,800 = [EBIT –(0.10)($33,000)]/2,200 shareholder currently (at Sept. 30th) owns 3K shares of ABC. How What would be the NPV of purchasing this system? div. Bonus = If on line A right of X, decr debt to lower fin distress

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