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UPSC PPT ANSKER KEY (10th March)

{GEOGRAPHY FULL LENGTH TEST}

Q1. Consider the following statements about Jupiter.


1. Jupiter, like Saturn and Uranus, has rings around it.
2. Jupiter has the fastest rotation amongst all the planets of the solar system, completing a rotation on
its axis in less than 10 hours.
3. The latest probe to visit Jupiter will be Juno, expected to arrive in July 2016.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above

Explanation:
Solution (d)
Some facts about Jupiter
Jupiter has the shortest day of all the planets: It turns on its axis once every 9 hours and 55 minutes. The
rapid rotation flattens the planet slightly, giving it an oblate shape.
Jupiter orbits the Sun once every 11.8 Earth years: From our point of view on Earth, it appears to move
slowly in the sky, taking months to move from one constellation to another.
Jupiter has a thin ring system: Its rings are composed mainly of dust particles ejected from some of
Jupiter’s smaller worlds during impacts from incoming comets and asteroids. The ring system begins
some 92,000 kilometres above Jupiter’s cloud tops and stretches out to more than 225,000 km from the
planet. They are between 2,000 to 12,500 kilometres thick.
Eight spacecraft have visited Jupiter: Pioneer 10 and 11, Voyager 1 and 2, Galileo, Cassini, Ulysses, and
New Horizons missions. The Juno mission is its way to Jupiter and will arrive in July 2016. Other future
missions may focus on the Jovian moons Europa , Ganymede, and Callisto , and their subsurface oceans.

Q2. With regard to Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following
1. MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India
2. MSP is decided based on the recommendations of Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee
3. MSP would ensure that the country’s agricultural output responds to the changing needs of its
consumers.
Select the correct answer using the given codes below:
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to ensure
agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced
by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the
recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP is price fixed by
Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper
production years. The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the
Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food
grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced
minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the
entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price.
MSP also ensures that the country’s agricultural output responds to the changing needs of its
consumers. This year, for instance, the prices of pulses have shot up sharply due to a sharp fall in
production in the just concluded rabi season. The Centre has thus hiked the MSP of pulses by a larger
margin than for paddy, to expand sowing of pulses in the coming year.

Q3. The International Astronomical Unit put Pluto in the category of a dwarf planet. Which of the
following condition/s was/were not fulfilled by Pluto for it to be called a Planet?
1. A planet should have attained a spheroid shape due to rotation on its axis.
2. A planet should have a fixed elliptical orbit around the sun
3. A planet should have cleared its orbit from other smaller bodies like asteroids etc. because of its
gravitational pull.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3
Explanation:
Solution (c)
According to International Astronomical Unit, three parameters have been chosen to decide whether an
orbiting celestial body should be called a planet or not.
 A planet should have attained a spheroid shape due to rotation on its axis.
 A planet should have a fixed elliptical orbit around the sun
 A planet should have cleared its orbit from other smaller bodies like asteroids etc. because of its
gravitational pull.
Out of these three, Pluto does not fulfill the third criterion, i.e. it has not cleared its orbit. Hence, its
status was changed from planet to a dwarf planet.
(Since New Horizon reached Pluto this year, a question can be expected from Pluto.)

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding adiabatic cooling of a rising air parcel-
1. The volume of the air parcel remains constant throughout.
2. There is only a transfer of energy and not of matter.
Choose the correct from the following options:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Adiabatic cooling takes place when an air parcel rises up in the atmosphere. There is no addition or
subtraction of heat energy. The volume keeps on increasing as atmospheric pressure decreases with
altitude. The increase in volume leads to wider spacing of air molecules which reduces the frequency of
intermolecular collisions leading to decreased temperature.

Q5. Consider the following statements


1. The planetary bodies in the outer Solar system are made of lighter elements.
2. The satellites of giant planets are composed mostly of ice.
3. All the satellites of Outer planets do not have tectonic activity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The outer planets consist of planets beyond the asteroid belt. These planets do not have a solid surface
and consists of gases (primarily hydrogen and some amount of helium with other gases in traces). These
are lighter.
As the distance of these planets from the sun is significantly large, the temperature is very low. Because
of this, the satellite of these planets consists of ice crystals.
Although the planets have a gaseous nature, their satellites have a solid crust in which the phenomenon
of plate tectonics occurs.
Q6. In drawing the isotherms on the world map for January, which of the following observations will be
incorrect ?
1. Isotherms will be more regular in the southern hemisphere.
2. Isotherms will move towards the equator on the continents.
3. Isotherms will cross the western coast of Africa at right angle.
Select the correct code:
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) Only 3
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Because of the presence of the cool ocean current along the western coast of Africa, the isotherm runs
almost parallel to the coast. So the third statement is wrong. Rest of the statements defines the
characteristic features of land-ocean variations in heating.

Q7. Consider the following statements


1. The diameter of moon is One sixth of the earth.
2. The moon takes 27 days to complete one revolution around the earth and exactly the same time to
complete one rotation on its axis.
3. Only one side of the moon can be seen from the surface of the earth.
Select the incorrect answer using the code given below.
a) None of the above.
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
Explanation:

Solution (b)
Our earth has only one satellite, that is, the moon. Its diameter is only one-quarter that of the earth. It
appears so big because it is nearer to our planet than other celestial bodies. It is about 3 ,84,400 km
away from us.The moon moves around the earth in about 27 days. It takes exactly the same time to
complete one spin. As a result, only one side of the moon is visible to us on the earth.

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ayurveda , Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani
, Siddha and Homoeopathy ( AYUSH)?
1. AYUSH is an autonomous body, which functions as a Department under the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
2. There has been a resurgence of AYUSH due to the increase in life style disorders and multi drug
resistant diseases.
3. AYUSH has launched National AYUSH Mission (NAM) during 12th Five Year Plan, to promote
AYUSH medical systems through cost effective AYUSH services and strengthening of educational
systems.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 only
Explanation:

Solution (a)
The Ministry of AYUSH was formed with effect from 9 November 2014 by elevation of the The
Department of AYUSH. The Department of Ayurveda , Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani , Siddha and
Homoeopathy, abbreviated as AYUSH, is a governmental body in India purposed with developing
education and research in ayurveda (Indian traditional medicine), yoga, naturopathy, unani , siddha ,
and homoeopathy, and other alternative medicine systems. The department was created in March 1995
as the Department of Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H). AYUSH received its
current name in March 2003. That time it was operated under the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare.
AYUSH has launched National AYUSH Mission (NAM) during 12th Plan for implementing through
States/UTs. The basic objective of NAM is to promote AYUSH medical systems through cost effective
AYUSH services, strengthening of educational systems, facilitate the enforcement of quality control of
Ayurveda , Siddha and Unani & Homoeopathy (ASU &H) drugs and sustainable availability of ASU & H
raw-materials. It envisages flexibility of implementation of the programmes which will lead to
substantial participation of the State Governments/UT. The NAM contemplates establishment of a
National Mission as well as corresponding Missions in the State level. NAM is likely to improve
significantly the Department’s outreach in terms of planning, supervision and monitoring of the
schemes. With the increase in the number of lifestyle disorder, there has been a resurgence of interest
in the AYUSH system of Medicine in the country and abroad. Knowing the potentials of AYUSH
Government of India made it to be a critical part of NRHM.

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the nature of wind:


1. Had there been no coriolis effect, wind direction would always have followed the pressure gradient
with it’s flow making right angle with the isobars.
2. Had there been no friction, wind direction would have followed a path parallel to the isobars.
Choose the correct statements:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Solution (c)
The movement of air is a function of pressure gradient, coriolis effect and friction. In the absence of
coriolis effect , there won’t be any deflection in wind direction and it will follow the pressure gradient at
right angle with the isobars. In absence of friction, there is a balance between pressure gradient and
coriolis effect which gives rise to a wind that moves parallel to the isobars. In fact such movement is
possible in the upper atmosphere where the effect of friction is negligible. Wind moves parallel to the
isobars and is called a geostrophic wind.

Q10. Which of the followings are correct about Nitrogen dioxide?


1. It is a lung irritant and can lead to severe respiratory disorders in children.
2. It can damage leaves of plants and can retard the rate of Photosynthesis.
3. The red haze during heavy traffic is due to the presence of NO 2 in air.
4. It is harmful to various textile fibers and metals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) All of the above

b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
solution (a)
The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen. Higher
concentrations of NO2 damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen
dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living
tissues also. Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibres and metals.
Dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main constituents of air. These gases do not react with each other at a
normal temperature. At high altitudes when lightning strikes, they combine to form oxides of nitrogen.
NO2 is oxidised to nitrate ion, NO3 - which is washed into soil, where it serves as a fertilizer. In an
automobile engine, (at high temperature) when fossil fuel is burnt, dinitrogen and dioxygen combine to
yield significant quantities of nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide ( NO2 ) as given below:
N2 (g) + O2 (g) --> 1483K ® 2NO( g)
NO reacts instantly with oxygen to give NO2 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ® 2NO2 (g) Rate of production of NO2 is
faster when nitric oxide reacts with ozone in the stratosphere.
NO (g) + O3 (g) ® NO2 (g) + O2 (g)

Q11. The characteristics of photochemical smog are:


1. It is oxidizing in nature.
2. It consists of Ozone, Nitrogen Oxides, Sulphur Oxides and Hydrocarbons.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) None of the above
b) both 1 and 2
c) only 1
d) only 2

Explanation:
Solution (c)
The word smog is derived from smoke and fog. This is the most common example of air pollution that
occurs in many cities throughout the world. There are two types of smog:
 Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.
 Chemically it is a reducing mixture and so it is also called as reducing smog.
 Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. The main components of the
photochemical smog result from the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and
nitrogen oxides produced by automobiles and factories.
 Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents and is, therefore, called as
oxidising smog.
The point to be noted is that, in photochemical smog, there is no oxide of SULPHUR.

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding trade winds:


1. Trade winds are the most consistent and they never change their direction.
2. They bring enormous amounts of precipitation in the low lying islands on their path.
Choose the wrong option from the following options:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Solution (c)
There are exceptions to the consistency and direction of the trade winds, especially over the Indian
Ocean where seasonal reversal in the form of monsoon takes place annually. Moreover, trade winds
bring rain only to those areas where there is a topographical barrier. Low lying islands remain virtually
rain less.

Q13. Which of the following is incorrect about Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)?
a) ITCZ can never shift beyond the Tropic of Cancer
b) The minimum variation in the position of the ITCZ is observed on the eastern margin of the Pacific
c) Maximum variation in the location of ITCZ is associated with monsoon activity in Eurasia and
Australia
d) All are correct
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The shift in the location of ITCZ is closely associated with the weather and climatic characteristics of the
tropics. It can shift as much as 25 degrees north of the equator in July and 20 degrees south of the
equator in January. So, there is all possibility of the the ITCZ crossing the Tropic of Cancer.
Q14. Which of the following is not correct about mangrove forests?
1. They can survive in saline water.
2. Their roots are not exposed during low tide.
3. Some species have developed wide buttress roots.
4. Leaves are adapted to expel large amount of water.
Select the answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:

Solution (c)
Mangroves have had to physically adapt their leaves, their roots and their reproductive methods in
order to survive in a harsh, dynamic environment of soft, low oxygen soils and varying salinity.
Leaf adaptations to saline conditions
 Many mangrove species, such as the Grey Mangrove and the River Mangrove (common species
along the Redlands coast), have leaves with glands that excrete salt.
 Some species such as the Grey Mangrove can also tolerate the storage of large amounts of salt
in their leaves – which are discarded when the salt load is too high.
 Mangroves can also restrict the opening of their stomata (these are small pores through which
carbon dioxide and water vapour are exchanged during photosynthesis). This allows the
mangrove to conserve its fresh water, an ability vital to its survival in a saline environment.
 Mangroves are able to turn their leaves to reduce the surface area of the leaf exposed to the
hot sun.This enables them to reduce water loss through evaporation.Root adaptations to soft,
saline, low oxygen soils
 A distinctive feature of mangroves is their far-reaching, exposed roots. While these roots come
in many different shapes and sizes, they all perform an important function – structural support
in the soft soils.
 Some species of mangroves have pneumataphores , which are above-ground roots. These are
filled with spongy tissue and peppered with small holes that offer structural support and allow
oxygen to be transferred to the roots trapped below ground in the anaerobic (low oxygen) soils.
 The roots of many mangrove species are also adapted to stop the intake of a lot of the salt from
the water before it reaches the plant. Reproductive adaptations to tidal environment
 Some mangrove species have evolved to produce seeds that float. The tide acts as the method
of dispersal to avoid crowding of young plants.
 Other mangrove species are viviparous. They retain their seeds until after it has germinated and
a long, cylindrical propagule has formed. When it has matured to this stage, the parent tree
drops it into the water, where it remains dormant until it finds the soil and is able to put out
roots.

Q15. Occurrence of El Nino will normally result in which of the following?


1. Droughts in Indonesia, South India and Central America
2. Floods in Australia
3. Abnormally high temperature in eastern sub-tropical Pacific
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The occurrence of El Nino is usually associated with droughts in Australia, Indonesia, Central America
and India. Whereas areas like south-west United States, western Latin America etc receive high
precipitation and flooding. Abnormally high temperature occurs in the equatorial Pacific.
Q16. Consider the following characteristics of the climate of region:
1. Warm to hot all year
2. Distinct wet and dry seasons
3. Seasonal shifting of tropical wind and pressure belts, especially ITCZ
Which of the following represents the climatic characteristics given above?

a) Savanna climate
b) Monsoon climate
c) Tropical wet climate
d) Mediterranean climate
Explanation:
Solution (a)
All the characteristics indicate towards savanna climate.

Q17. Consider the following characteristics of the climate of region:


1. Warm/ hot summers
2. Mild winters
3. Year round mildness in coastal areas
4. Moderate precipitation concentrated in winter
Which of the following represents the climatic characteristics given above?
a) Monsoon climate
b) British type climate
c) China type climate
d) Mediterranean climate
Explanation:
Solution (d)
All the characteristics indicate towards Mediterranean climate.

Q18. Match the following


Critically Endangered species location
1. Hangul Kashmir
2. Large spotted Civet Western Ghats
3. Pygmy hog Manipur
4. Flying Squirrel Uttarakhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) all of the above
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
Solution (c)
The Kashmir stag also called hangul , is a subspecies of wapiti native to India, Kashmir stag is listed as
critically endangered by IUCN as population is counted 160 mature individuals in the 2008 census.
The Malabar large-spotted civet also known as the Malabar civet, is a viverrid endemic to the Western
Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered by IUCN as its population size is estimated to number
fewer than 250 mature individuals, with no subpopulation greater than 50 individuals.
The pygmy hog is a critically endangered suid , previously spread across India, Nepal, and Bhutan, but
now only found in Assam. The current world population is about 150 individuals or fewer The Namdapha
flying squirrel is an arboreal, nocturnal flying squirrel endemic to India. The known habitat is tall Mesua
ferrea jungles, often on hill slopes in the catchment area of Na Dihing river (particularly on the western
slope of Patkai range) in North eastern India.
Q19. Which of the following d oesn’t aid the formation of katabatic winds?
a) Gravity
b) Convection
c) Radiation cooling
d) Funneling through a narrow valley
Explanation:
Solution (b)
A katabatic wind originates from radiational cooling of air atop a plateau, a mountain, glacier, or even a
hill. Since the density of air is inversely proportional to temperature , the air will flow downwards,
warming adiabatically as it descends. The temperature of the wind depends on the temperature in the
source region and the amount of descent. In the case of the Santa Ana, for example, the wind can (but
does not always) become hot by the time it reaches sea level. In the case of Antarctica, by contrast, the
wind is still intensely cold.
As you know convection has no role to play in the formation of katabatic winds.

Q20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of La Nina?


a) Unusually cool water off the Indonesian coast
b) Stronger trade winds
c) Wetter Southeast Asia and Australia
d) Intense monsoons
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Water off the Indonesian coast becomes warmer than the usual. It leads to intensification of
precipitation in the region.
Q21. Which of the following are the immediate effects of earthquakes?
1. Differential ground settlement
2. Soil liquefaction.
3. Land and mud slides
4. Ground lurching.
5. Ground displacement.
6. Fires and Floods
Select the correct code
a) Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)
b) Only (2), (3), (4), (5) and (v6)
c) Only (1), (3), (4) and (5)
d) All of the Above
Explanation:
Solution (d)
The options are self-explanatory

Q22. Which of the following statements is/are true about the Earth's crust?
1. It is brittle in nature.
2. Oceanic crust is thicker than continental crust.
3. Oceanic crust has predominantly basalt in it.
4. It is the outermost solid part of the earth.
Select the correct code
a) Only (1) and (4)
b) Only (1), (2) and (4)
c) Only (1), (3) and (4)
d) All of the Above

Explanation:
Solution (c)
Oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust.

Q23. Standing crop means:


a) Net crop grown by a farmer in one season.
b) The mass of living material at a certain time in a certain trophic level.
c) Total dry mass of forest produce in a year.
d) None of the above.
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.
The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.
The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.

Q24. This type of volcanoes are the most explosive -


a) Calderas
b) Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes.
c) Shield Volcanoes.
d) Deccan Traps
Explanation:
Solution (a)
Calderas are the most explosive.

Q25. Consider the following statements


1. In the ocean, the temperature variations increases with increasing depth
2. The marine environment is thermally less stable than the land environment
Select the correct statement/s using code
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
Explanation: Solution (d)
Temperature variations go on decreasing with increasing depth and in Deep Ocean, seasonal
temperature variation become insignificant. Marine environment is thermally more stable than land
environment. The specific heat of water is higher than solid; it absorbs heat and loses it more slowly
than the land surface. Also, ocean temperatures remain in a far narrower range and change far more
slowly than land temperatures.
Q26. Consider the following statements:
1. The body waves are the last to report on seismograph.
2. These waves are more destructive than surface waves
3. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the
direction of the propagation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1only B. 3only
C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2
Explanation: Solution. B
1. There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are the
first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The surface waves are the last to
report on seismograph. Hence incorrect
2. Surface waves are more destructive than body waves. Thus incorrect
3. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the
direction of the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to
stretching and squeezing of the material. Other three waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of
propagation. So correct.

Q27. Which of the following is not true regarding the mantle of earth?
1. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km
2. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called aesthenosphere.
3. Aesthenosphere is considered to be the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during
volcanic eruptions.
A. 3only B. 1 only
C. 2 only D. All are true
Explanation: Solution. C
The Mantle
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s
discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word
astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that
finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3).
The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200
km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.

Q28. Consider the following about plate boundaries:


1. Subduction zones are the sites where the plates move away from each other.
2. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid oceanic ridges.
Choose the correct statement(s):
A. 1only B. 2 only
C. both D. none

Explanation: Solution. B
The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites.
The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone.
Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other.
Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic ridges. As the
eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a differential movement of a
portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth.
Q29. With reference to the thermal metamorphism, consider the following statements.
I. In Contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock
materials recrystallise under high temperature.
II. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava are added to the rocks.
Choose the incorrect statement.
A. I only B. II only
C. Both I and II D. None of the above
Explanation: Solution. D
Both the statements are correct.
There are two types of thermal metamorphism — contact metamorphism and regional metamorphism.
In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock
materials recrystallise under high temperatures. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava
are added to the rocks.

Q30. Choose the correct statement(s):


1. Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and tide induced currents and winds.
2. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion, transportation and
deposition are possible
A. I only B. II only
C. Both I and II D. None of the above
Explanation: Solution. C
Both statements are correct.
A process is a force applied on earth materials affecting the same. An agent is a mobile medium (like
running water, moving ice masses, wind, waves and currents etc.) which removes, transports and
deposits earth materials. Running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind, waves and currents, etc., can be
called geomorphic agents.
Gravity besides being a directional force activating all downslope movements of matter also causes
stresses on the earth’s materials. Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and tide induced currents
and winds. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion,
transportation and deposition are possible. So, gravitational stresses are as important as the other
geomorphic processes

Q31. Consider the following statements:


1. Water vapour, a variable gas in the atmosphere, increases with altitude.
2. It may account more for dry and cold areas of desert and polar region than the warm and wet tropics.
3. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat.
Choose the correct statement(s):
A. 3only B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. A
Water Vapour:
Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and
wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of
desert and polar regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Water vapour also decreases from
the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the
earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too
hot. Water vapour also contributes to the stability and instability in the air.
Hence only 3rd statement is correct.

Q32. Assertion: The lower concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions.
Reason: Due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions.
Choose the correct option:
A. Assertion is correct and reason is correctly explaining it.
B. Assertion is correct but reason is not correctly explaining it.
C. Assertion is not correct but reason is correct
D. Both are incorrect.
Explanation: Solution. C
Assertion: The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions. So
its incorrect.
Reason : The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to
dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei
around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.

Q33. Which of the following is true regarding troposphere?


1. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights
by strong convectional currents.
2. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer.
3. This is the most important layer for all biological activity.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. All are true
Explanation: Solution. D
All the statements are true.

The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends
roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere
is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this
layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 C for every 165m of height. This is the
most important layer for all biological activity.

Q34. Consider the following for spatial distribution of Insolation at the Earth’s Surface:
1. Maximum insolation is received over the Equator.
2. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans.
3. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. B
The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70
Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally, at the
same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and
higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
Q35. Choose the incorrect statement(s):
1. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.
2. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
Both statements are correct.
Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the
situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature.
Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies
and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by
early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is
normal throughout the year.

Q36. Which of the following is/are not true?


1. The continental slope is the shallowest part of the ocean typically ends at a very steep slope, called
the shelf break.
2. Massive sedimentary deposits received over a long time by the continental slopes, become the source
of fossil fuels.
3. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.

A. 2only B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. 3only
Explanation: Solution. C
1. The continental shelf is the shallowest part of the ocean typically ends at a very steep slope, called the
shelf break. The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively
shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even
less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. Hence not true
2. The continental shelves are covered with variable thicknesses of sediments brought down by rivers,
glaciers, wind, from the land and distributed by waves and currents. Massive sedimentary deposits
received over a long time by the continental shelves, become the source of fossil fuels. So not true.
3. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the
bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope region
varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The slope
boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region. So true

Q37. Consider these statements:


1. The temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount
of insolation decreases poleward.
2. The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat than the oceans in the southern
hemisphere.
3. The enclosed seas in the high latitudes record relatively higher temperature than the open seas;
whereas the enclosed seas in the low latitudes have lower temperature than the open seas.
Choose the correct statement(s):
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. A
Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution
1. Latitude : the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because
the amount of insolation decreases poleward.
2. Unequal distribution of land and water :
the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land
than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.
3. The enclosed seas in the low latitudes record relatively higher temperature than the open seas;
whereas the enclosed seas in the high latitudes have lower temperature than the open seas.

Q38. With reference to the prevailing wind over the ocean, consider these:
1. The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans results in the upwelling of cold water from
below.
2. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature.

Which of the above is/are correct?


A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Explanation: Solution. C
both statements are correct.
the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away form the coast
resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results into the longitudinal variation in the
temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the
temperature.

Q39. Choose the correct statement(s):


1. Thermocline is the boundary region, from where there is a rapid increase of temperature.
2. About 90 per cent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Explanation: Solution. B
The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with the
increasing depth. The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the
deeper layers. The boundary usually begins around 100 - 400 m below the sea surface and extends
several hundred of metres downward. This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease of
temperature, is called the thermocline. About 90 per cent of the total volume of water is found below
the thermocline in the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C.

Q40. On which of the following factors does the salinity of ocean waters depends?
1. Evaporation and precipitation.
2. fresh water flow
3. freezing and thawing of ice
4. Wind
A. 1 and 2only B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Solution. D
Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:
(i) The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
(ii) Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in
polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.
(iii) Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
(iv) The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water
are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an
area.

Q41. Consider these statements:


1. The horizontal motion of ocean water refers to the ocean currents, waves and tides.
2. When the tide is channeled between islands or into bays and estuaries, they are called tidal currents.

3. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction of the
moon and sun.
Select the correct statement(s):
A. 2 and 3 B. 3only
C. 2only D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. C
1. The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water bodies. The horizontal motion refers
to the ocean currents and waves. The vertical motion refers to tides. So this is not correct.
2. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-
oceanic islands they become low. The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the
intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the tide is channeled
between islands or into bays and estuaries they are called tidal currents. Thus correct
3. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between these two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction
of the moon and the centrifugal force. On the surface of the earth, nearest the moon, pull or the
attractive force of the moon is greater than the centrifugal force, and so there is a net force causing a
bulge towards the moon. On the opposite side of the earth, the attractive force is less, as it is farther
away from the moon, the centrifugal force is dominant. Not corrects

Q42. Which of the following is/are correct?


1. Totality of the physical and chemical factors that constitute the general environment is called
ecosystem.
2. A habitat consists of biotic components only.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
A habitat in the ecological sense is the totality of the physical and chemical factors that constitute the
general environment. A system consisting of biotic and abiotic components is known as ecosystem.

Q43. Choose the correct statement(s):


1. Some components in ecosystem are inter related and interact with each other while some does not
show this character.
2. Different types of ecosystems exist with varying ranges of environmental conditions showing
phenomenon known as ecological adaptation.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Explanation: Solution. B
All these components in ecosystem are inter related and interact with each other. Different types of
ecosystems exist with varying ranges of environmental conditions where various plants and animal
species have got adapted through evolution. This phenomenon is known as ecological adaptation.

Q44. Consider the following:


1. Total assemblage of plant and animal species interacting within specific conditions is defined as
biome.
2. Aquatic ecosystem can be further classified into ‘biomes’.
3. Marine ecosystem includes the oceans, estuaries and coral reefs.
Select the correct statement(s):
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. C
Ecosystems are of two major types: terrestrial
and aquatic. Terrestrial ecosystem can be further be classified into ‘biomes’. A biome is a plant and
animal community that covers a large geographical area. The boundaries of different biomes on land are
determined mainly by climate. Therefore, a biome can be defined as the total assemblage of plant and
animal species interacting within specific conditions. These include rainfall, temperature, humidity and
soil conditions. Some of the major biomes of the world are: forest, grassland, desert and tundra biomes.
Aquatic ecosystems can be classed as marine and freshwater ecosystems. Marine ecosystem includes
the oceans, estuaries and coral reefs.

Q45. Which of the following is true with respect to Asia Continent?


1. The most commonly accepted boundaries place Asia to the east of the Suez Canal, the Ural River, and
the Ural Mountains, and south of the Caucasus Mountains and the Caspian and Black Seas.
2. Asia has the second largest nominal GDP of all continents, after Europe, but the largest when
measured in purchasing power parity
3. Asia is Earth's largest and most populous continent
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. D

Q46. Consider the following statements:


1. From the values of longitude, it is understood that the southern part of the country lies within the
tropics and the northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone.
2. This location is responsible for large variations in land forms, climate, soil types and natural
vegetation in the country.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1only B. 2only
C. Both D. None
Explanation: Solution. B
Only 2 is correct.
The distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two
latitudes remains the same everywhere.
From the values of latitude, it is understood that the southern part of the country lies within the tropics
and the northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone. This location is
responsible for large variations in land forms, climate, soil types and natural vegetation in the country.
Now, let us observe the longitudinal extent and its implications on the Indian people. From the values of
longitude, it is quite discernible that there is a variation of nearly 30 degrees, which causes a time
difference of nearly two hours between the easternmost and the westernmost parts of our country.

Q47. Which of these mountain passes are correctly matched?


1. Khyber pass - Sibi & Quetta
2. Nathula - India & Bhutan
3. Shipkila – India & Tibet
4. Bolan pass – Afghanistan & Pakistan
A. 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4 only D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. A
The Himalayas, together with other ranges, have acted as a formidable physical barrier in the past.
Except for a few mountain passes such as the Khyber, the Bolan, the Shipkila, the Nathula, the Bomdila,
etc. it was difficult to cross it. It has contributed towards the evolving of a unique regional identity of the
Indian subcontinent.
1. Khyber pass - Afghanistan & Pakistan
2. Nathula - India & Bhutan
3. Shipkila – India & Tibet
4. Bolan pass –Sibi & Quetta (Pakistan)
5. Bomdila – India & Bhutan

Q48. Consider the following:


1. India standard meridian passes through 5 states of India
2. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states of India
3. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Strait of Mannar.
Choose the incorrect statement(s):
A. 1 and 3 B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. 3only
Explanation: Solution. D
1. India standard meridian passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. (5 states)
2. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states of India- Gujrat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
3. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait. The difference between a gulf
and strait is –
Strait- it’s a narrow water way connecting two larger water bodies.
Gulf- Technical name of a very large Bay, where a bay is a water body enclosed on 3 sides by land and
with a wide mouth that opens into ocean.

Q49. Consider these statements and select the correct code:


1. Where Karakoram, Ladakh and Zaskar forms part of Kashmir Himalayas, Pir Panjal is a part of
Himachal Himalayas.
2. Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewas.
3. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. B

Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas


It comprise a series of ranges such as the Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal. Hence 1st is
incorrect.
The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of
Zafran, a local variety of saffron. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials
embedded with moraines.
Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river. Dal Lake
in Srinagar presents an interesting physical feature. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth
stage and yet forms meanders – a typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of
fluvial land form. In Kashmir Valley, the meanders in Jhelum river are caused by the local base level
provided by the erstwhile larger lake of which the present Dal Lake is a small part.

Q50. Match the following:


1. Zoji La a. Zaskar
2. Banihal b. Pir Panjal
3. Photu La c. Ladakh
4. Khardung La d. Great Himalayas
A. 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a B. 1-a 2-c 3-d 4-b
C. 1-d 2-b 3-a 4-c D. 1- b 2-c 3-a 4-d
Explanation: Solution. C
Some of the important passes of the Kashmir Himalayas are Zoji La on the Great Himalayas, Banihal on
the Pir Panjal, Photu La on the Zaskar and Khardung La on the Ladakh range

Q51. Which of the following statements is/are not true?


1. In Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas, all the three ranges of Himalayas are prominent.
2. From the point of view of physiography, the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Duar formations’ are the two
distinguishing features of this region
3. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this region.
A. 1only B. 1 and 3
C. 2only D. 1 and 2
Explanation: Solution. C
The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas
This part lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali (a tributary of Ghaghara) in the
east. It is drained by two major river systems of India, i.e. the Indus and the Ganga.
1. All the three ranges of Himalayas are prominent in this section also. These are the Great Himalayan
range, the Lesser Himalayas (which is locally known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in
Uttarakhand) and the Shiwalik range from the North to the South.
2. The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are the
‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Duars are not related to this region rather they are the part of the
Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas. Hence not true.
3. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this region. The places of pilgrimage such as the
Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, Badrinath and Hemkund Sahib are also situated in this part. The region
is also known to have five famous Prayags.

Q52. Which of the following North eastern state of India is also known as “Molassis basin”?
A. Mizoram B. Nagaland
C. Assam D. Manipur
Explanation: Solution. A
The Eastern Hills and Mountains
These are part of the Himalayan mountain system having their general alignment from the north to the
south direction. They are known by different local names. In the north, they are known as Patkai Bum,
Naga hills, the Manipur hills and in the south as Mizo or Lushai hills. These are low hills, inhabited by
numerous tribal groups practising Jhum cultivation Most of these ranges are separated from each other
by numerous small rivers. The Barak is an important river in Manipur and Mizoram. The physiography of
Manipur is unique by the presence of a large lake known as ‘Loktak’ lake at the centre, surrounded by
mountains from all sides. Mizoram which is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft
unconsolidated deposits. Most of the rivers in Nagaland form the tributary of the Brahmaputra.

Q53. Identify the prominent relief feature:


1. Classic example of the relict mountains
2. Highly denuded
3. Discontinuous ranges
4. On one side it has been covered by the longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-shaped sand dunes
called barchans
A. The Deccan Plateau
B. The Central Highlands
C. The Northeastern Plateau
D. None of the above
Explanation: Solution. B
The Central Highlands
They are bounded to the west by the Aravali range. The Satpura range is formed by a series of scarped
plateaus on the south, generally at an elevation varying between 600-900 m above the mean sea level.
This forms the northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau. It is a classic example of the relict
mountains which are highly denuded and form discontinuous ranges. The extension of the Peninsular
plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West, where it has been covered by the longitudinal sand
ridges and crescent-shaped sand dunes called barchans. This region has undergone metamorphic
processes in its geological history, which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks
such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.

Q54. Consider the following regarding the Islands of India:


1. The Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labrynth island are the two principal groups of islets in the Bay of
Bengal.
2. Andaman and Nicobar are separated by a water body which is called the Eleven degree channel.

3. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains, however, some
smaller islands are volcanic in origin.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2only D. 1 and 3
Explanation: Solution. D
There are two major island groups in India – one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in the Arabian Sea.
The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between
6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the
Labrynth island. The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the
north and the Nicobar in the south. They are separated by a water body which is called the Ten degree
channel. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. However,
some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Barren island, the only active volcano in India is also situated
in the Nicobar islands.

Q55. Consider these:


1. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south.
2. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
3. ‘Kayals’ are the distinguishing features of the Konkan and Malabar coast.
Select the true statement(s):
A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. C
On the basis of the location and active geomorphological processes, it can be broadly divided into two:
(i) the western coastal plains; (ii) the eastern coastal plains. The western coastal plains are an example of
submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian
mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because of this submergence it is a
narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla,
Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important
natural ports located along the west coast. Extending from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala
coast in the south, the western coast may be divided into following divisions – the Kachchh and
Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast and Malabar coast in Karnataka
and Kerala respectively.
1. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south.
2. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.

3. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which
are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists. Every year the
famous Nehru Trophy Vallamkali (boat race) is held in Punnamada Kayal in Kerala.

Q56. Which of the following is/are correct?


1. Trend of people moving away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city is better
known as Sub-Urbanization.
2. There is no uniformity in the hierarchy of the functions provided by rural and urban settlements
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Explanation: Solution. C
1. Sub-Urbanization is a new trend of people moving away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas
outside the city in search of a better quality of living. Important suburbs develop around major cities and
everyday thousands of people commute from their homes in the sub urbs to their work places in the
city.
2. Differentiations between rural and urbanon the basis of functions are more meaningful even though
there is no uniformity in the hierarchy of the functions provided by rural and urban settlements. Petrol
pumps are considered as a lower order function in the United States while it is an urban function in
India. Even within a country, rating of functions may vary according to the regional economy. Facilities
available in the villages of developed countries may be considered rare in villages of developing and less
developed countries.

Q57. As per the census of India, 1991 urban settlements are defined as
1. places which have notified town area committee
2. have a minimum population of 10000 persons
3. at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
4. a density of population of at least 4000 persons per square kilometers are urban
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
Explanation: Solution. A
The census of India, 1991 defines urban settlements as “All places which have
municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee and have a
minimum population of 5000 persons, at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-
agricultural pursuits and a density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban.

Q58. Consider the following:


1. In low lying river basins people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are “dry points”
2. Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land.
3. In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy lands

Which of the above is/are correct?


A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above3
Explanation: Solution. D
All the settlements are correct.
Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land. They are dominated by primary activities
such as agriculture, animal husbandary, fishing etc. The settlements size is relatively small.
Upland which is not prone to flooding was chosen to prevent damage to houses and loss of life. Thus, in
low lying river basins people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are “dry points”. In tropical
countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy lands to protect themselves from flood, insects
and animal pests.

Q59. World Health Organisation (WHO) suggests that, among other things, a ‘healthy city’ must have:
1. A ’Clean’ and ‘Safe’ environment.
2. Meets the ‘Basic Needs’ of ‘All’ its inhabitants.
3. Involves the ‘Community’ in local government.
4. Provides easily accessible ‘Health’ service.
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Solution. D
World Health Organisation (WHO) suggests that, among other things, a ‘healthy city’ must have:
1. A ’Clean’ and ‘Safe’ environment.
2. Meets the ‘Basic Needs’ of ‘All’ its inhabitants.
3. Involves the ‘Community’ in local government.
4. Provides easily accessible ‘Health’ service.

Q60. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has outlined the priorities as part of its
‘Urban Strategy’. Which of the following is not part of it?
1. Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
2. Improving women’s access to ‘Basic Services’ and government facilities.
3. Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative Transport’ systems.
4. Reducing ‘Air Pollution
A. 3only B. 1 and 3
C. 4only D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
All of the above are part of UNDP’s Urban Stratergy.
It includes:
 Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
 Provision of basic urban services such as
 ‘Education’, ‘Primary Health care’, ‘Clean
 Water and Sanitation’.
 Improving women’s access to ‘Basic
 Services’ and government facilities.
 Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative
 ‘Transport’ systems.
 Reducing ‘Air Pollution

Q61. Consider these statements:


1. One of the great advantages of water transportation is that it is easier to construct routes for the
water transport.
2. The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes.

3. Water transport is divided into sea routes and inland waterways.


Which of the above is/are not true?
A. 2only B. 3only
C. 1only D. All are true
Explanation: Solution. C
One of the great advantages of water transportation is that it does not require route construction. The
oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes. All that is needed is to
provide port facilities at the two ends. It is much cheaper because the friction of water is far less than
that of land. The energy cost of water transportation is lower. Water transport is divided into sea routes
and inland waterways.

Q62. Identify this international sea route:


1. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that of the rest of the world combined.
2. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this route
3. It is, therefore, the busiest in the world and otherwise, called the Big Trunk Route.
A. The Mediterranean–Indian Ocean Sea Route
B. The Northern Atlantic Sea Route
C. The Cape of Good Hope Sea Route
D. The North Pacific Sea Route
Explanation: Solution. B
The Northern Atlantic Sea Route
This links North-eastern U.S.A. and Northwestern Europe, the two industrially developed regions of the
world. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that of the rest of the world combined. One
fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this route. It is, therefore, the busiest in the world and
otherwise, called the Big Trunk Route. Both the coasts have highly advanced ports and harbour facilities.
Q63. Choose the incorrect statement(s):
1. The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary
employment as the basis for economic growth
2. Unlike some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can not be outsourced.
3. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 3only D. None
Explanation: Solution. B
Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production and dissemination of
information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities centre around research,
development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and
technical skills.
The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary
employment as the basis for economic growth. Over half of all workers In developed economies are in
the ‘Knowledge Sector’ and there has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of
information based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and
statisticians. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms,
hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of
services. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced.
They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.

Q64. Consider the following:


1. Quinary activities represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly
paid skills
2. Often they are referred to as ‘white collar’ professions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1only B. 2only
C. Both D. None
Explanation: Solution. A
Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and
existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies. Often referred to as
‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special
and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial
and legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the structure of advanced economies far outweighs their
numbers.

Q65. Select the incorrect statement(s) w.r.t Foot loose industries:


1. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
2. They produce in bulk quantity and also employ a large labour force
3. These are generally not polluting industries.
A. 3only B. 1 and 3
C. 2only D. 1 and 2
Explanation: Solution. C
Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific
raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be
obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are
generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network
Q66. Arrange the following Iron and Steel plants of India from North to South.
1. Bhilai 2. Jamshedpur
3. Bokaro 4. Rourkela
A. 3-1-2-4 B. 3-2-4-1
C. 4-2-1-3 D. 2-1-4-3
Explanation: Solution. B
The correct order of these iron and steel plants from north to south is:
Bokaro-Jamshedpur-Rourkela-Bhilai.
Kindly refer Atlas for their exact location.

Q67. Assertion: Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce Cloth rather than
yarn.

Reason: The rapid development of this industry in Tamil Nadu is the result of the abundant availability of
hydel power for the mills.
A. Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason correctly explains Assertion.
B. Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason does not correctly explains Assertion.
C. Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
D. Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
Explanation: Solution. D
Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce yarn rather than cloth.
Coimbatore has emerged as the most important centre with nearly half the mills located there. Chennai,
Madurai, Tirunelveli, Tuticorin, Thanjavur, Ramanathapuram and Salem are the other important centres.
The development of hydro-electricity also favoured the location of the cotton textile mills away from the
cotton producing areas. The rapid development of this industry in Tamil Nadu is the result of the
abundant availability of hydel power for the mills.

Q68. Consider the following:


1. Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing
ferro alloys.
2. Manganese deposits are exclusively found in Dharwar system of geological formation.
3. Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese.
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. A
Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro
alloys. Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly
associated with Dharwar system. Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Major mines in Odisha
are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh,
Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir. Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are
located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and
Tumkur. Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara
and Ratnagiri districts. The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel plants.
The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and
Jhabua districts. Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.

Q69. Which of the following statements is/are correct?


1. India has abundant non-ferrous metallic minerals.
2. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits.
3. It is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of
peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3
Explanation: Solution. B

1. India is poorly endowed with non-ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite. Hence statement is
incorrect.
2. Bauxite is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary
deposits.
3. It is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of
peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country. Odisha happens to be the largest producer
of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers. The other two areas which have been
increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput.

Q70. Which of the following minerals is known as brown diamond?


A. Manganese B. Mica
C. Iron D. Lignite
Explanation: Solution. D
Lignite is a mineral known as brown diamond. Easily combustible with carbon content upto 60-70%.

Q71. Which of the following is/are not true regarding watershed management?
1. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater.
2. Watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources –
natural and human.
3. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand
and society on the other.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 3only D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
All of the above statements are true.
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and
groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater
through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed
management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land,
water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed. Watershed management aims at bringing
about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of
watershed development largely depends upon community participation.

Q72. On the basis of percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and tube wells, arrange the
following states from smallest to largest.
1. Maharashtra 2. Tamil Nadu
3. Rajasthan 4. Uttar Pradesh
A. 3-1-2-4 B. 2-1-3-4
C. 2-4-1-3 D. 3-2-1-4
Explanation: Solution. C
Percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and Tube-wells:
State Percentage
Gujarat 86.6
Rajasthan 77.2

Madhya Pradesh 66.5


Maharashtra 65
Uttar Pradesh 58.21
West Bengal 57.6
Tamil Nadu 54.7
For details, refer NCERT- India: People and Economy.

Q73. Choose the correctly matched:


1. Culturable Wasteland : left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year
2. Barren and Wastelands : cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology.
3. Current Fallow: Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this
category.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2only
C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. B
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows :
(i) Forests : It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as
forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth.
The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there may be an increase in this
category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
(ii) Land put to Non-agricultural Uses : Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads,
canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc. are included in this category. An expansion in the secondary and
tertiary activities would lead to an increase in this category of land-use.
(iii) Barren and Wastelands : The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly
terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available
technology.
(iv) Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands : Most of this type land is owned by the village
‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned. The land owned
by the village panchayat comes under ‘Common Property Resources’.
(v) Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves(Not included is Net sown Area) : The land under
orchards and fruit trees are included in this category. Much of this land is privately owned.
(vi) Culturable Waste-Land : Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is
included in this category. It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation
practices.
(vii) Current Fallow : This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural
year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility
through natural processes.
(viii) Fallow other than Current Fallow : This is also a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more
than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be
categorised as culturable wasteland. (ix) Net Area Sown : The physical extent of land on which crops are
sown and harvested is known as net sown area.

Q74. Which of the following is/are not Kharif crops in Northern states of India?
1. Rapeseeds 2. Tur
3. Bajra 4. Barley
A. 1 and 4 B. 2only
C. 2 and 3 D. 1only
Explanation: Solution. A
Kharif (June-September ) Rice, Cotton, Bajra, Maize, Tur and Jowar.
Rabi (October – March) Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds and Mustard, Barley.
Zaid (April–June) Vegetables, Fruits, Fodder.

Q75. Consider the following:


1. Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under semi-arid climatic conditions and over inferior
soils
2. Maize cultivation is not concentrated in any specific region
3. It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. D
Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under semi-arid climatic conditions and over inferior soils.
This crop occupies only about 3.6 per cent of total cropped area. Maize cultivation is not concentrated in
any specific region. It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions. The leading
producers of maize are the states of Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Rajasthan
and Uttar Pradesh. Yield level of maize is higher than other coarse cereals. It is high in southern states
and declines towards central parts.

Q76. Consider the following regarding demographic transition:


1. Population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as
society progresses from rural agrarian to urban industrial society.
2. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
3. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably and the population is always stable.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. B
Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area.
The theory tells us that population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births
and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate
society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle. The first
stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths
due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are
engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly
illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were
in this stage.
Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by
reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality.
Because of this gap the net addition to population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality
decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes
urbanised, literate and has high technical knowhow and deliberately controls the family size. Hence
statement 3 is incorrect.

Q77. Which one of the following is not a push factor?


A. Unemployment B. Epidemics
C. Medical facilities D. Water shortage
Explanation: Solution. D
People migrate for a better economic and social life. There are two sets of factors that influence
migration.
The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor
living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socio-economic
backwardness. The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of
origin for reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life
and property and pleasant climate.

Q78. Choose the incorrect statement(s):


1. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population only.
2. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in
each age group.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. Both D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
Both the statements are correct.
The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups.
A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. The shape of the
population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of
males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.
Additional info:
Expanding Populations:
The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria as you can see is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is
typical of less developed countries. These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth
rates.
Constant Population: Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows
birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
Declining Populations:
The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The
population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative.

Q79. Consider the following:


1. In Western countries, males outnumber females in rural areas and females outnumber the males in
urban areas.
2. Farming in these developed countries is also highly mechanised and remains largely a male
occupation.
3. It is also worth noting that in countries like India, female participation in farming activity in rural area
is fairly high.
Which of the above is/are true?
A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1and 3
Explanation: Solution. C
All are true.
The rural and urban differences in sex ratio in Canada and West European countries like Finland are just
the opposite of those in African and Asian countries like Zimbabwe and Nepal respectively. In Western
countries, males outnumber females in rural areas and females outnumber the males in urban areas. In
countries like Nepal, Pakistan and India the case is reverse. The excess of females in urban areas of
U.S.A., Canada and Europe is the result of influx of females from rural areas to avail of the vast job
opportunities. Farming in these developed countries is also highly mechanised and remains largely a
male occupation. By contrast the sex ratio in Asian urban areas remains male dominated due to the
predominance of male migration. It is also worth noting that in countries like India, female participation
in farming activity in rural area is fairly high. Shortage of housing, high cost of living, paucity of job
opportunities and lack of security in cities, discourage women to migrate from rural to urban areas.

Q80. Which of the following is/are related to the capability approach to Human Development?
1. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to
increasing human development
2. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising
expenditure on welfare.
3. This approach is associated with Prof. Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq.
A. 1only B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 D. 2 only
Explanation: Solution. A
Approaches to human development:
(a) Income Approach
This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being
linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys.
Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.
(b) Welfare Approach
This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The
approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and
amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is
responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.
(c) Basic Needs Approach
This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.:
health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human
choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.
(d) Capability Approach
This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health,
education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

Q81. Consider the following:


1. The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from
mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance.
2. In the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from north to south in summers and vice-versa in
winters.
3. Unlike nomadic herding, livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above
Explanation: Solution. B
Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from
one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. The process of migration from plain areas to
pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters
is known as transhumance. In mountain regions, such as Himalayas, Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and
Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the mountains in summers and to the plains from the high altitude
pastures in winters. Similarly, in the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from south to north in
summers and from north to south in winters.
Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on
permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels, which are
fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another
parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.

Q82. Identify the farming type:


1. This type of agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.
2. Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population.
3. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.
4. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour.
A. Plantation Agriculture
B. Primitive Subsistence Agriculture
C. Intensive Subsistence Agriculture
D. Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation
Explanation: Solution. C
Intensive Subsistence Agriculture
This type of agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia. Basically, there
are two types of intensive subsistence agriculture. (i) Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by
wet paddy cultivation: This type of agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land
holdings are very small due to the high density of population. Farmers work with the help of family
labour leading to intensive use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural
operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In
this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low. (ii) Intensive
subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy: Due to the difference in relief, climate,
soil and some of the other geographical factors, it is not practical to grow paddy in many parts of
monsoon Asia. Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in northern China, Manchuria, North
Korea and North Japan. In India wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains and millets
are grown in dry parts of western and southern India. Most of the characteristics of this type of
agriculture are similar to those dominated by wet paddy except that irrigation is often used.

Q83. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?


1. Mediterranean agriculture - Viticulture is a speciality
2. Market gardening - The regions where farmers specialise in vegetables only.
3. Truck farming - cultivation of high value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers
A. 1 and 2 B. 1only
C. 2 and 3 D. All are correct.
Explanation: Solution. C
Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture. It is practised in the countries on
either side of the Mediterranean sea in Europe and in north Africa from Tunisia to Atlantic coast,
southern California, central Chile, south western parts of South Africa and south and south western
parts of Australia. This region is an important supplier of citrus fruits. Viticulture or grape cultivation is a
speciality of the Mediterranean region. Best quality wines in the world with distinctive flavours are
produced from high quality grapes in various countries of this region.
Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation of high value crops such as vegetables,
fruits and flowers, solely for the urban markets. Farms are small and are located where there are good
transportation links with the urban centre where high income group of consumers is located. It is both
labour and capital intensive.
The regions where farmers specialise in vegetables only, the farming is know as truck farming. The
distance of truck farms from the market is governed by the distance that a truck can cover overnight,
hence the name truck farming.

Q84. To improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural
production for self-sufficiency model of Kolkhoz was introduced in:
A. Soviet Union B. Europe
C. USA D. Australia
Explanation: Solution. A
Collective Farming
The basic principle behind this types of farming is based on social ownership of the means of production
and collective labour. Collective farming or the model of Kolkhoz was introduced in erstwhile Soviet
Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural
production for self-sufficiency. The farmers used to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and
labour. However, they were allowed to retain very small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily
requirements.

Q85. Choose the incorrect code:


1. Balance of trade opens up economies for trading with other economies
2. Trade liberalization records the volume of goods and services imported as well as exported.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. Both D. None
Explanation: Solution. C
Balance of trade records the volume of goods and services imported as well as exported by a country to
other countries. If the value of imports is more than the value of a country’s exports, the country has
negative or unfavourable balance of trade. If the value of exports is more than the value of imports,
then the country has a positive or favourable balance of trade. Balance of trade and balance of
payments have serious implications for a country’s economy.
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done
by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from
everywhere to compete with domestic products and services

Q86. Consider the following statements:

1. Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun established as an


autonomous organisation under Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, carries
out the holistic research on forestry species.
2. Recently, three institutes of Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE),
Dehradun, have developed 20 high-yielding varieties of plant species.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q86. Answer: c. Both are correct.

Q87. Consider the following statements:

1. NOTA was introduced in India following the 2013 Supreme Court directive in the People’s Union
for Civil Liberties v. Union of India judgment.
2. India became the 14th country to institute negative voting.
3. Significantly, NOTA in India does not provide for a ‘right to reject’.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All three

Q87. Answer: d. All are correct

Q88. “INS Vikramaditya” was recently in the news. What is it?

a) Aircraft Carrier
b) A nuclear submarine
c) A Frigate
d) An offshore patrol vessel

Q88. Ans: a. Aircraft Carrier

Q89. Consider the following statements:

1. Ukraine is bordered by the waters of the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
2. Ukraine borders with seven countries: Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Russia,
and Belarus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

89.Ans: c. Both are correct

Q90. Which of the following organizations bring out the report known as ‘World Happiness Report’?

a) Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)


b) The United Nations Development Programme
c) The World Economic Forum
d) The World Bank

Q90.Ans: a. Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)

Q91. Which authority sets the price caps on medical devices in India?

a) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority


b) National Medical Regulatory Authority
c) Medical council of India
d) Drug Regulatory Authority

Q91.Ans: a. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority

Q92. Consider the following statements:

1. Autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance is provided under the Fifth Schedule only.
2. Tribal people have right to free and prior informed consent in event of their displacement and
resettlement.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Both 1 and 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 Only
d) 2 Only

Q92.Ans: d.2 only

 It is given in the Sixth Schedule also.


Q93. Consider the following statements:

1. Land boundary agreement was signed between India and Bangladesh in 2011.
2. Bangladesh and India exchanged 162 adversely-held enclaves.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Both 1 and 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 Only
d) 2 Only

Q93.Ans:d. 2 only

 The agreement was signed in 1974. The Additional Protocol to this agreement was signed in
2011.

Q94.Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is India’s only active volcano.


2. It is the only active volcano along a chain of volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q94.Ans: c. Both are correct.

Q95. Which of the following organizations bring out the report known as ‘World Investment Report’?

a) UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development)


b) United Nations Development Programme
c) World Economic Forum
d) World Bank

Q95.Ans: a. UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development)

Q96. Which of the following organizations bring out the report known as ‘World Oil Outlook’?

a) OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries)


b) United Nations Development Programme
c) World Economic Forum
d) World Bank

Q96. Ans: a.OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries)

Q97. Consider the following statements, regarding MUDRA Bank:

1. This Bank would be responsible for regulating and refinancing all Micro-finance Institutions
(MFI) which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities engaged in
manufacturing, trading and services activities..
2. The Bank would partner with state level/regional level coordinators to provide finance to Last
Mile Financer of small/micro business enterprises.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q97. Ans: c. Both are correct.

Q98. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The ‘Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism’ was proposed first by India in 1996.
2. The CCIT provides a legal framework which makes it binding on all signatories to deny funds and
safe havens to terrorist groups.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q98. Ans: c. Both are correct

Q99. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku and Kyushu are the four main islands of Japan.
2. Mt. Fuji in Japan is a dormant volcano.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q99. Ans: c. Both are correct.

Q100. Consider the following statements:

1. Hangul of Kashmir has been listed as critically endangered under IUCN Red List.
2. The brow-antlered deer or Sangai is Mizoram’s State Animal.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q100.Ans: a. 1 only
Sangai: Manipur’s State animal, the brow-antlered deer or Sangai, which lives on the floating morass
of Loktak Lake, is also fighting for survival with numbers down to around 200.

Kashmir stag: It is listed as critically endangered under IUCN Red List. It is also called as hangul and it
is the state animal of Kashmir.These are found in the high altitude regions of Northern India and
Pakistan. Now it has been seen only in Dachigam National Park in Kashmir. The habitat destruction,
over-grazing by domestic livestock, and poaching are the major threats faced by the Kashmir stag.

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