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Explanation:
Solution (d)
Some facts about Jupiter
Jupiter has the shortest day of all the planets: It turns on its axis once every 9 hours and 55 minutes. The
rapid rotation flattens the planet slightly, giving it an oblate shape.
Jupiter orbits the Sun once every 11.8 Earth years: From our point of view on Earth, it appears to move
slowly in the sky, taking months to move from one constellation to another.
Jupiter has a thin ring system: Its rings are composed mainly of dust particles ejected from some of
Jupiter’s smaller worlds during impacts from incoming comets and asteroids. The ring system begins
some 92,000 kilometres above Jupiter’s cloud tops and stretches out to more than 225,000 km from the
planet. They are between 2,000 to 12,500 kilometres thick.
Eight spacecraft have visited Jupiter: Pioneer 10 and 11, Voyager 1 and 2, Galileo, Cassini, Ulysses, and
New Horizons missions. The Juno mission is its way to Jupiter and will arrive in July 2016. Other future
missions may focus on the Jovian moons Europa , Ganymede, and Callisto , and their subsurface oceans.
Q2. With regard to Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following
1. MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India
2. MSP is decided based on the recommendations of Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee
3. MSP would ensure that the country’s agricultural output responds to the changing needs of its
consumers.
Select the correct answer using the given codes below:
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to ensure
agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced
by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the
recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP is price fixed by
Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper
production years. The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the
Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food
grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced
minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the
entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price.
MSP also ensures that the country’s agricultural output responds to the changing needs of its
consumers. This year, for instance, the prices of pulses have shot up sharply due to a sharp fall in
production in the just concluded rabi season. The Centre has thus hiked the MSP of pulses by a larger
margin than for paddy, to expand sowing of pulses in the coming year.
Q3. The International Astronomical Unit put Pluto in the category of a dwarf planet. Which of the
following condition/s was/were not fulfilled by Pluto for it to be called a Planet?
1. A planet should have attained a spheroid shape due to rotation on its axis.
2. A planet should have a fixed elliptical orbit around the sun
3. A planet should have cleared its orbit from other smaller bodies like asteroids etc. because of its
gravitational pull.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3
Explanation:
Solution (c)
According to International Astronomical Unit, three parameters have been chosen to decide whether an
orbiting celestial body should be called a planet or not.
A planet should have attained a spheroid shape due to rotation on its axis.
A planet should have a fixed elliptical orbit around the sun
A planet should have cleared its orbit from other smaller bodies like asteroids etc. because of its
gravitational pull.
Out of these three, Pluto does not fulfill the third criterion, i.e. it has not cleared its orbit. Hence, its
status was changed from planet to a dwarf planet.
(Since New Horizon reached Pluto this year, a question can be expected from Pluto.)
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding adiabatic cooling of a rising air parcel-
1. The volume of the air parcel remains constant throughout.
2. There is only a transfer of energy and not of matter.
Choose the correct from the following options:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Adiabatic cooling takes place when an air parcel rises up in the atmosphere. There is no addition or
subtraction of heat energy. The volume keeps on increasing as atmospheric pressure decreases with
altitude. The increase in volume leads to wider spacing of air molecules which reduces the frequency of
intermolecular collisions leading to decreased temperature.
Solution (b)
Our earth has only one satellite, that is, the moon. Its diameter is only one-quarter that of the earth. It
appears so big because it is nearer to our planet than other celestial bodies. It is about 3 ,84,400 km
away from us.The moon moves around the earth in about 27 days. It takes exactly the same time to
complete one spin. As a result, only one side of the moon is visible to us on the earth.
Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ayurveda , Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani
, Siddha and Homoeopathy ( AYUSH)?
1. AYUSH is an autonomous body, which functions as a Department under the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
2. There has been a resurgence of AYUSH due to the increase in life style disorders and multi drug
resistant diseases.
3. AYUSH has launched National AYUSH Mission (NAM) during 12th Five Year Plan, to promote
AYUSH medical systems through cost effective AYUSH services and strengthening of educational
systems.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 only
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The Ministry of AYUSH was formed with effect from 9 November 2014 by elevation of the The
Department of AYUSH. The Department of Ayurveda , Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani , Siddha and
Homoeopathy, abbreviated as AYUSH, is a governmental body in India purposed with developing
education and research in ayurveda (Indian traditional medicine), yoga, naturopathy, unani , siddha ,
and homoeopathy, and other alternative medicine systems. The department was created in March 1995
as the Department of Indian Systems of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H). AYUSH received its
current name in March 2003. That time it was operated under the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare.
AYUSH has launched National AYUSH Mission (NAM) during 12th Plan for implementing through
States/UTs. The basic objective of NAM is to promote AYUSH medical systems through cost effective
AYUSH services, strengthening of educational systems, facilitate the enforcement of quality control of
Ayurveda , Siddha and Unani & Homoeopathy (ASU &H) drugs and sustainable availability of ASU & H
raw-materials. It envisages flexibility of implementation of the programmes which will lead to
substantial participation of the State Governments/UT. The NAM contemplates establishment of a
National Mission as well as corresponding Missions in the State level. NAM is likely to improve
significantly the Department’s outreach in terms of planning, supervision and monitoring of the
schemes. With the increase in the number of lifestyle disorder, there has been a resurgence of interest
in the AYUSH system of Medicine in the country and abroad. Knowing the potentials of AYUSH
Government of India made it to be a critical part of NRHM.
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
solution (a)
The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of nitrogen. Higher
concentrations of NO2 damage the leaves of plants and retard the rate of photosynthesis. Nitrogen
dioxide is a lung irritant that can lead to an acute respiratory disease in children. It is toxic to living
tissues also. Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibres and metals.
Dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main constituents of air. These gases do not react with each other at a
normal temperature. At high altitudes when lightning strikes, they combine to form oxides of nitrogen.
NO2 is oxidised to nitrate ion, NO3 - which is washed into soil, where it serves as a fertilizer. In an
automobile engine, (at high temperature) when fossil fuel is burnt, dinitrogen and dioxygen combine to
yield significant quantities of nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide ( NO2 ) as given below:
N2 (g) + O2 (g) --> 1483K ® 2NO( g)
NO reacts instantly with oxygen to give NO2 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ® 2NO2 (g) Rate of production of NO2 is
faster when nitric oxide reacts with ozone in the stratosphere.
NO (g) + O3 (g) ® NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
Explanation:
Solution (c)
The word smog is derived from smoke and fog. This is the most common example of air pollution that
occurs in many cities throughout the world. There are two types of smog:
Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.
Chemically it is a reducing mixture and so it is also called as reducing smog.
Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. The main components of the
photochemical smog result from the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and
nitrogen oxides produced by automobiles and factories.
Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents and is, therefore, called as
oxidising smog.
The point to be noted is that, in photochemical smog, there is no oxide of SULPHUR.
Q13. Which of the following is incorrect about Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)?
a) ITCZ can never shift beyond the Tropic of Cancer
b) The minimum variation in the position of the ITCZ is observed on the eastern margin of the Pacific
c) Maximum variation in the location of ITCZ is associated with monsoon activity in Eurasia and
Australia
d) All are correct
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The shift in the location of ITCZ is closely associated with the weather and climatic characteristics of the
tropics. It can shift as much as 25 degrees north of the equator in July and 20 degrees south of the
equator in January. So, there is all possibility of the the ITCZ crossing the Tropic of Cancer.
Q14. Which of the following is not correct about mangrove forests?
1. They can survive in saline water.
2. Their roots are not exposed during low tide.
3. Some species have developed wide buttress roots.
4. Leaves are adapted to expel large amount of water.
Select the answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Mangroves have had to physically adapt their leaves, their roots and their reproductive methods in
order to survive in a harsh, dynamic environment of soft, low oxygen soils and varying salinity.
Leaf adaptations to saline conditions
Many mangrove species, such as the Grey Mangrove and the River Mangrove (common species
along the Redlands coast), have leaves with glands that excrete salt.
Some species such as the Grey Mangrove can also tolerate the storage of large amounts of salt
in their leaves – which are discarded when the salt load is too high.
Mangroves can also restrict the opening of their stomata (these are small pores through which
carbon dioxide and water vapour are exchanged during photosynthesis). This allows the
mangrove to conserve its fresh water, an ability vital to its survival in a saline environment.
Mangroves are able to turn their leaves to reduce the surface area of the leaf exposed to the
hot sun.This enables them to reduce water loss through evaporation.Root adaptations to soft,
saline, low oxygen soils
A distinctive feature of mangroves is their far-reaching, exposed roots. While these roots come
in many different shapes and sizes, they all perform an important function – structural support
in the soft soils.
Some species of mangroves have pneumataphores , which are above-ground roots. These are
filled with spongy tissue and peppered with small holes that offer structural support and allow
oxygen to be transferred to the roots trapped below ground in the anaerobic (low oxygen) soils.
The roots of many mangrove species are also adapted to stop the intake of a lot of the salt from
the water before it reaches the plant. Reproductive adaptations to tidal environment
Some mangrove species have evolved to produce seeds that float. The tide acts as the method
of dispersal to avoid crowding of young plants.
Other mangrove species are viviparous. They retain their seeds until after it has germinated and
a long, cylindrical propagule has formed. When it has matured to this stage, the parent tree
drops it into the water, where it remains dormant until it finds the soil and is able to put out
roots.
a) Savanna climate
b) Monsoon climate
c) Tropical wet climate
d) Mediterranean climate
Explanation:
Solution (a)
All the characteristics indicate towards savanna climate.
Q22. Which of the following statements is/are true about the Earth's crust?
1. It is brittle in nature.
2. Oceanic crust is thicker than continental crust.
3. Oceanic crust has predominantly basalt in it.
4. It is the outermost solid part of the earth.
Select the correct code
a) Only (1) and (4)
b) Only (1), (2) and (4)
c) Only (1), (3) and (4)
d) All of the Above
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Oceanic crust is thinner than the continental crust.
Q27. Which of the following is not true regarding the mantle of earth?
1. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km
2. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called aesthenosphere.
3. Aesthenosphere is considered to be the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during
volcanic eruptions.
A. 3only B. 1 only
C. 2 only D. All are true
Explanation: Solution. C
The Mantle
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s
discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word
astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that
finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3).
The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200
km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.
Explanation: Solution. B
The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites.
The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone.
Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other.
Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic ridges. As the
eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a differential movement of a
portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth.
Q29. With reference to the thermal metamorphism, consider the following statements.
I. In Contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock
materials recrystallise under high temperature.
II. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava are added to the rocks.
Choose the incorrect statement.
A. I only B. II only
C. Both I and II D. None of the above
Explanation: Solution. D
Both the statements are correct.
There are two types of thermal metamorphism — contact metamorphism and regional metamorphism.
In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock
materials recrystallise under high temperatures. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava
are added to the rocks.
Q32. Assertion: The lower concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions.
Reason: Due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions.
Choose the correct option:
A. Assertion is correct and reason is correctly explaining it.
B. Assertion is correct but reason is not correctly explaining it.
C. Assertion is not correct but reason is correct
D. Both are incorrect.
Explanation: Solution. C
Assertion: The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions. So
its incorrect.
Reason : The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to
dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei
around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends
roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere
is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this
layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 C for every 165m of height. This is the
most important layer for all biological activity.
Q34. Consider the following for spatial distribution of Insolation at the Earth’s Surface:
1. Maximum insolation is received over the Equator.
2. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans.
3. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. 1,2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. B
The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70
Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally, at the
same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and
higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
Q35. Choose the incorrect statement(s):
1. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.
2. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
Both statements are correct.
Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the
situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature.
Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies
and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by
early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is
normal throughout the year.
A. 2only B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. 3only
Explanation: Solution. C
1. The continental shelf is the shallowest part of the ocean typically ends at a very steep slope, called the
shelf break. The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively
shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even
less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. Hence not true
2. The continental shelves are covered with variable thicknesses of sediments brought down by rivers,
glaciers, wind, from the land and distributed by waves and currents. Massive sedimentary deposits
received over a long time by the continental shelves, become the source of fossil fuels. So not true.
3. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the
bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope region
varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The slope
boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region. So true
Q38. With reference to the prevailing wind over the ocean, consider these:
1. The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans results in the upwelling of cold water from
below.
2. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature.
Q40. On which of the following factors does the salinity of ocean waters depends?
1. Evaporation and precipitation.
2. fresh water flow
3. freezing and thawing of ice
4. Wind
A. 1 and 2only B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Solution. D
Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:
(i) The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
(ii) Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in
polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.
(iii) Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
(iv) The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water
are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an
area.
3. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction of the
moon and sun.
Select the correct statement(s):
A. 2 and 3 B. 3only
C. 2only D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Solution. C
1. The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water bodies. The horizontal motion refers
to the ocean currents and waves. The vertical motion refers to tides. So this is not correct.
2. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-
oceanic islands they become low. The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the
intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the tide is channeled
between islands or into bays and estuaries they are called tidal currents. Thus correct
3. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between these two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction
of the moon and the centrifugal force. On the surface of the earth, nearest the moon, pull or the
attractive force of the moon is greater than the centrifugal force, and so there is a net force causing a
bulge towards the moon. On the opposite side of the earth, the attractive force is less, as it is farther
away from the moon, the centrifugal force is dominant. Not corrects
Q52. Which of the following North eastern state of India is also known as “Molassis basin”?
A. Mizoram B. Nagaland
C. Assam D. Manipur
Explanation: Solution. A
The Eastern Hills and Mountains
These are part of the Himalayan mountain system having their general alignment from the north to the
south direction. They are known by different local names. In the north, they are known as Patkai Bum,
Naga hills, the Manipur hills and in the south as Mizo or Lushai hills. These are low hills, inhabited by
numerous tribal groups practising Jhum cultivation Most of these ranges are separated from each other
by numerous small rivers. The Barak is an important river in Manipur and Mizoram. The physiography of
Manipur is unique by the presence of a large lake known as ‘Loktak’ lake at the centre, surrounded by
mountains from all sides. Mizoram which is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft
unconsolidated deposits. Most of the rivers in Nagaland form the tributary of the Brahmaputra.
3. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains, however, some
smaller islands are volcanic in origin.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2only D. 1 and 3
Explanation: Solution. D
There are two major island groups in India – one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in the Arabian Sea.
The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between
6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the
Labrynth island. The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the
north and the Nicobar in the south. They are separated by a water body which is called the Ten degree
channel. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. However,
some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Barren island, the only active volcano in India is also situated
in the Nicobar islands.
3. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which
are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists. Every year the
famous Nehru Trophy Vallamkali (boat race) is held in Punnamada Kayal in Kerala.
Q57. As per the census of India, 1991 urban settlements are defined as
1. places which have notified town area committee
2. have a minimum population of 10000 persons
3. at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
4. a density of population of at least 4000 persons per square kilometers are urban
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
Explanation: Solution. A
The census of India, 1991 defines urban settlements as “All places which have
municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee and have a
minimum population of 5000 persons, at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-
agricultural pursuits and a density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban.
Q59. World Health Organisation (WHO) suggests that, among other things, a ‘healthy city’ must have:
1. A ’Clean’ and ‘Safe’ environment.
2. Meets the ‘Basic Needs’ of ‘All’ its inhabitants.
3. Involves the ‘Community’ in local government.
4. Provides easily accessible ‘Health’ service.
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Solution. D
World Health Organisation (WHO) suggests that, among other things, a ‘healthy city’ must have:
1. A ’Clean’ and ‘Safe’ environment.
2. Meets the ‘Basic Needs’ of ‘All’ its inhabitants.
3. Involves the ‘Community’ in local government.
4. Provides easily accessible ‘Health’ service.
Q60. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has outlined the priorities as part of its
‘Urban Strategy’. Which of the following is not part of it?
1. Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
2. Improving women’s access to ‘Basic Services’ and government facilities.
3. Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative Transport’ systems.
4. Reducing ‘Air Pollution
A. 3only B. 1 and 3
C. 4only D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
All of the above are part of UNDP’s Urban Stratergy.
It includes:
Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
Provision of basic urban services such as
‘Education’, ‘Primary Health care’, ‘Clean
Water and Sanitation’.
Improving women’s access to ‘Basic
Services’ and government facilities.
Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative
‘Transport’ systems.
Reducing ‘Air Pollution
Q67. Assertion: Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce Cloth rather than
yarn.
Reason: The rapid development of this industry in Tamil Nadu is the result of the abundant availability of
hydel power for the mills.
A. Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason correctly explains Assertion.
B. Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason does not correctly explains Assertion.
C. Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
D. Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
Explanation: Solution. D
Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce yarn rather than cloth.
Coimbatore has emerged as the most important centre with nearly half the mills located there. Chennai,
Madurai, Tirunelveli, Tuticorin, Thanjavur, Ramanathapuram and Salem are the other important centres.
The development of hydro-electricity also favoured the location of the cotton textile mills away from the
cotton producing areas. The rapid development of this industry in Tamil Nadu is the result of the
abundant availability of hydel power for the mills.
1. India is poorly endowed with non-ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite. Hence statement is
incorrect.
2. Bauxite is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary
deposits.
3. It is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of
peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country. Odisha happens to be the largest producer
of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers. The other two areas which have been
increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput.
Q71. Which of the following is/are not true regarding watershed management?
1. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater.
2. Watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources –
natural and human.
3. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand
and society on the other.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 3only D. None
Explanation: Solution. D
All of the above statements are true.
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and
groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater
through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed
management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land,
water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed. Watershed management aims at bringing
about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of
watershed development largely depends upon community participation.
Q72. On the basis of percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and tube wells, arrange the
following states from smallest to largest.
1. Maharashtra 2. Tamil Nadu
3. Rajasthan 4. Uttar Pradesh
A. 3-1-2-4 B. 2-1-3-4
C. 2-4-1-3 D. 3-2-1-4
Explanation: Solution. C
Percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and Tube-wells:
State Percentage
Gujarat 86.6
Rajasthan 77.2
Q74. Which of the following is/are not Kharif crops in Northern states of India?
1. Rapeseeds 2. Tur
3. Bajra 4. Barley
A. 1 and 4 B. 2only
C. 2 and 3 D. 1only
Explanation: Solution. A
Kharif (June-September ) Rice, Cotton, Bajra, Maize, Tur and Jowar.
Rabi (October – March) Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds and Mustard, Barley.
Zaid (April–June) Vegetables, Fruits, Fodder.
Q80. Which of the following is/are related to the capability approach to Human Development?
1. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to
increasing human development
2. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising
expenditure on welfare.
3. This approach is associated with Prof. Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq.
A. 1only B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 D. 2 only
Explanation: Solution. A
Approaches to human development:
(a) Income Approach
This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being
linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys.
Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.
(b) Welfare Approach
This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The
approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and
amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is
responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.
(c) Basic Needs Approach
This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.:
health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human
choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.
(d) Capability Approach
This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health,
education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.
Q84. To improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural
production for self-sufficiency model of Kolkhoz was introduced in:
A. Soviet Union B. Europe
C. USA D. Australia
Explanation: Solution. A
Collective Farming
The basic principle behind this types of farming is based on social ownership of the means of production
and collective labour. Collective farming or the model of Kolkhoz was introduced in erstwhile Soviet
Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural
production for self-sufficiency. The farmers used to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and
labour. However, they were allowed to retain very small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily
requirements.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. NOTA was introduced in India following the 2013 Supreme Court directive in the People’s Union
for Civil Liberties v. Union of India judgment.
2. India became the 14th country to institute negative voting.
3. Significantly, NOTA in India does not provide for a ‘right to reject’.
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All three
a) Aircraft Carrier
b) A nuclear submarine
c) A Frigate
d) An offshore patrol vessel
1. Ukraine is bordered by the waters of the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
2. Ukraine borders with seven countries: Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Russia,
and Belarus.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q90. Which of the following organizations bring out the report known as ‘World Happiness Report’?
Q91. Which authority sets the price caps on medical devices in India?
1. Autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance is provided under the Fifth Schedule only.
2. Tribal people have right to free and prior informed consent in event of their displacement and
resettlement.
a) Both 1 and 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 Only
d) 2 Only
1. Land boundary agreement was signed between India and Bangladesh in 2011.
2. Bangladesh and India exchanged 162 adversely-held enclaves.
a) Both 1 and 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 Only
d) 2 Only
Q93.Ans:d. 2 only
The agreement was signed in 1974. The Additional Protocol to this agreement was signed in
2011.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q95. Which of the following organizations bring out the report known as ‘World Investment Report’?
Q96. Which of the following organizations bring out the report known as ‘World Oil Outlook’?
1. This Bank would be responsible for regulating and refinancing all Micro-finance Institutions
(MFI) which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities engaged in
manufacturing, trading and services activities..
2. The Bank would partner with state level/regional level coordinators to provide finance to Last
Mile Financer of small/micro business enterprises.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The ‘Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism’ was proposed first by India in 1996.
2. The CCIT provides a legal framework which makes it binding on all signatories to deny funds and
safe havens to terrorist groups.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku and Kyushu are the four main islands of Japan.
2. Mt. Fuji in Japan is a dormant volcano.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Hangul of Kashmir has been listed as critically endangered under IUCN Red List.
2. The brow-antlered deer or Sangai is Mizoram’s State Animal.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q100.Ans: a. 1 only
Sangai: Manipur’s State animal, the brow-antlered deer or Sangai, which lives on the floating morass
of Loktak Lake, is also fighting for survival with numbers down to around 200.
Kashmir stag: It is listed as critically endangered under IUCN Red List. It is also called as hangul and it
is the state animal of Kashmir.These are found in the high altitude regions of Northern India and
Pakistan. Now it has been seen only in Dachigam National Park in Kashmir. The habitat destruction,
over-grazing by domestic livestock, and poaching are the major threats faced by the Kashmir stag.