IECEP EST  4

29. Are intended to carry signalling or synchronization data

1. Which organization has authority over interstate and 15. What makes optical fibers immune to EMI?  Control channel
international commerce in the communications field?  They transmit signals in as light rather than
 FCC electric current. 30. Which category does not belong to control channel?
 targeted control channel
2. They are special-interest groups that quickly test, 16. For long distance communication we often make use of
evaluate, and standardize new technologies. fibre-optic cable. Which of the following statements is 31. Is used mainly for the transmission of the radio
 Forums correct? measurement data needed for radio resource
 Fibres made from glass can be used over management algorithms
3. Which agency developed standards for physical distances of several hundred kilometers.  Slow associated control channel (SACCH)
connection interfaces and electronic signaling
specifications? 17. A network topology wherein the whole network will goes 32. It is also possible that new calls are blocked even though
 EIA down when a computer’s network cable is broken. there are time slots available to support it. this is called
 bus  Soft blocking
4. It is a collection of many separate networks.
 An internet 18. What is the central device in star topology? 33. Are the most delay-sensitive applications, hence
 Hub/switch retransmissions are not normally performed.
5. A set of rules that governs data communications.  Conversational services
 protocol 19. What OSI layer does a network cable lies.
 physical 34. Which represents the amount of data traffic that
6. It is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet generates same interference levels than the original voice
standard. 20. A network topology wherein terminators are used. Erlangs?
 RFC  bus  Equivalent Data Erlangs

7. A mechanism used by hosts and gateways to send 21. It is a joint effort of several standardization, organizations 35. Is a protocol originally designed and optimized for fixed-
notification of datagram problems back to the sender. around the world targeting to produce specifications for a PS networks and may not be optimal for mobile networks
 ICMP global 3G cellular system. without a certain degree of optimization.
 3GPP  TCP
8. It provides support for newer applications such as voice
over the Internet. 22. Which technical specification group does not belong to 36. Effect which refers to the payload (throughput) offered
 SCTP 3GPP working organizations? by the radio access network to the transport and
 TSG EFA Error Function Aspects application layers.
9. A measure of how fast we can actually send data through  Data Link Throughput
a network. 23. The main benefit of the HSCSD feature compared to other
 throughput data enhancements introduced is that it is 37. Is measured from the PTT press to the indication of the
 an inexpensive way to implement higher data speak permission, it is the time the user has to wait
10. A problem if different packets of data encounter different rates before starting to speak.
delays and the application using the data at the receiver  Start to Speak (StS) Time
site is time-sensitive. 24. Is permanently allocated for one subscriber.
 jitter  static address 38. A scheme in which the transmitter alternately uses the
two antennas to transmit bursts or to decorrelate the
11. A digital interface standard for optical transmission. 25. Is a main component of the GPRS network, which handles fading profile of each alternate burst.
 SONET the mobility management and authentication and has  Antenna hopping
register function.
12. The adding of control information on either side of the  SGSN 39. Refers to a spatial diversity where transmission or
data text of a block. reception is performed simultaneously at two or more
 encapsulation 26. Layer that provides services for information transfer over base station sites and used to combat fast fading.
a physical channel between the MS and the network.  Macrodiversity
13. If 5 devices are going to be connected in a mesh topology,  physical link
determine the number of duplex-mode links. 27. Will enhance the throughput per timeslot for both HSCSD 40. Is the work-effort that is required to provide a given
 10 and GPRS. spectral efficiency at a given grade of service.
 EDGE  Spectral efficiency
14. If 5 devices are going to be connected in a mesh topology,
determine the number of I/O ports that must be 28. Are intended to carry either encoded speech or user data. 41. The ITU-R vision for 4G also calls for integration of
connected to every device.  Traffic channels technologies, commonly known as
  B3G systems
42. Is a special case of multicarrier transmission, where a
single data stream is transmitted over a number of lower-
rate subcarriers (SCs).
 OFDM
43. The variable-rate data modem in KATHRYN was built for
the high-frequency band. It used up to 34 parallel low-
rate phase-modulated channels with a spacing of 82 Hz.
 82 Hz
44. Guard interval of OFDM
 800 ns
45. OFDM symbol duration
 4 us
46. Is responsible for channel allocation procedures, protocol
data unit (PDU) addressing, frame formatting, error
checking, and fragmentation and reassembly.
 MAC sublayer
47. Provides MAC enhancements to support LAN applications
with QoS requirements
 IEEE 802.11e
48. Suffers a known plaintext attack; recovering the
pseudorandom string by XORing the plaintext and
ciphertext of challenge, which can be eavesdropped from
the air
 Shared-key authentication
49. Makes extensive use of protocols above the IEEE 802.11
MAC layer to provide authentication and key
management.
 robust security network (RSN)
50. Introduced the term PAN to denote a communication
between proximal electronic devices by using the body as
a conduit for information
 Zimmerman
51. Is a point-to-point, narrow-angle (30° cone), ad hoc data
transmission standard designed to operate over a
distance of 0 to 1m and at speeds of 9,600 bps to 16
Mbps
 IrDA
52. Routing through a tandem switch is an important
economic expedient for a telephone company or
administration. We could call a tandem switch a
 traffic concentrator
53. The unit for measuring how well we can hear a distant
party on the telephone is
 loudness rating
54. Is a location within a LATA that has been designated by an
access customer for the connection of its facilities with
those of a LEC.
 point of presence (POP)
55. The reference equivalent value, called the ___ was
indicative of how loud a telephone signal is
 overall reference equivalent (ORE)
56. TASO stands for
 Television Allocations Standards Organization
57. Phase distortion is often measured by a parameter called
 envelope delay distortion
58. Is one method of improving the traffic-handling
capabilities of switching configurations with limited
availability
 Grading
59. The method by which a waiting call is selected to be
served from the pool of waiting calls is called
 queue discipline
60. The SONET STS-1 SPE with a channel capacity of ___ has
been designed specifically to transport a DS3 tributary
signal
 50.11 Mbps
61. The payload pointer is contained in the ___ octets in the
line overhead (LOH) and designates the location of the
octet where the STS SPE begins
 H1 and H2
62. The __ (like the SONET pointer) allows flexible and
dynamic alignment of the VC-n within the AU-n frame
 AU-n pointer
63. This is the amount of time required to fill a cell at a rate
of 64 kbps—that is, the rate required to fill the cell with
digitized (PCM) voice samples
 packetization delay
64. Is used to provide transport for synchronous bit streams.
Its primary application is to adapt ATM cell transmission
to typically E1/DS1 and SDH/SONET circuits
 AAL-1
65. Potentially prevents overflow traffic from a selected trunk
group from advancing to any alternate route
 Cancel From
66. The telephone receiver, as a converter of electrical
energy to acoustic energy, has a comparatively low
efficiency, on the order of
 2% to 3%
67. Signaling limits of a subscriber loop are based on
 dc resistance
68. Attenuation at 1000 Hz (dB/km) of H88 type of loading
 0.69
69. Is a change of state in the bit stream, a change from a
binary 1 to a binary 0, and vice versa
 transition
70. The theoretical long-term mean rate of occurrence of
controlled frame or octet (time slot) slips under ideal
conditions in any 64-kbps channel is consequently not
greater than __ in 70 days per international digital link.
 1
71. In Digital Network Performance Requirements, a blocking
probability of ___ is the quality of service (QoS) objective.
With judicious use of alternative routing, a blocking
probability of 0.005 might be expected.
 B = 0.01
72. Address signaling between switches is called
 interregister signaling
73. For North American Push-Button Codes, the digit “2” has
___ multifrequency Push-Button Tone
 697,1336 Hz
74. The CCITT recommends that if the mean round-trip
propagation time exceeds ___ for a particular circuit, an
echo suppressor or echo canceler should be used
 50 ms
75. Refers to traffic from VSAT(s) to hub
 inbound
76. A light source, perhaps more properly called a ____ , has
the fundamental function in a fiber-optic communication
system to efficiently convert electrical energy (current)
into optical energy (light) in a manner that permits the
light output to be effectively launched into the optical
fiber
 photon source
77. Typically show a standard organization of bits and octets
and describe the function of each to achieve a certain
objective
 Formats
78. Is a multiport device that allows centralization
 hub
79. For class B operation, the collector current flows for
 Half the cycle

80. Transformer coupling is an example of
 AC coupling
81. An audio amplifier operates in the frequency range of
 20 to 20 kHz
82. A tuned RF amplifier is
 Narrowband
83. He is “The Prophet of the Integrated Circuit”.
 Geoffrey Dummer
84. _____________________ is a harmful group of bacteria
which can live inside cooling towers as well as in hot
water systems, warm freshwater ponds, and creeks
 Legionella
85. He developed the oldest type of fuel cells which is the
Alkaline Fuel Cells
 Francis Bacon
86. There are few major tidal energy generating power plants
in operation. The main one is the __________________ in
Northern France built in 1966 and has a capacity of 240
MW.
 Ge Rance River
87. What is an impulse commutated inverter which relies on
LC circuit and on auxilary thyristor for commutation in the
load circuit?
 Auxiliary commutated inverter
88. What is the project that the Computer Society of the IEEE
started in 1985 in order to set standards to enable
intercommunication among equipment from a variety of
manufacturers?
 Project 802
89. What is the mechanism used by hosts and gateways to
send notification of datagram problems back to the
sender?
 Internet Control Message Protocol
90. Assume we need to download text documents at the rate
of 100 pages per minute. What is the required bit rate of
the channel?
 1.636 Mbps
91. Who designed a switch that comes before the banyan
switch and sorts the incoming packets according to their
final destinations.
 K.E. Batcher
92. How can we represent the number 21 in one’s
complement arithmetic using only four bits?
 6
93. What layer enables the user, whether human or software,
to access the network and provides user interfaces and
support for services such as electronic mail, remote file
access and transfer, shared database management, and
other types of distributed information services?
 Application Layer
94. What layer in the OSI model that is responsible for
process-to-process delivery of the entire message?
 Transport Layer
95. What OSI layer is responsible for the delivery of individual
packets from the source host to the destination host?
 Network Layer
96. What ISO layer is responsible for dialog control and
synchronization?
 Session Layer
97. In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent
faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per
second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1
kbps?
 1 bps
98. What results when the analog waveform rises or drops
too quickly and the codec may not be able to keep up
with the change?
 Slope Overload Noise
99. What is the modern standard for interconnecting many
types of peripheral devices to computers which is also a
digital interface that uses a standardized connector (plug)
for all serial and parallel type devices?
 Universal Serial Bus (USB)
100. What is a 56,000-bps dial-up modem standard approved
by a standards-making organization rather than a single
company; it is slightly incompatible with both x2 and
k56flex?
 V.90
101. What standard is an improvement of the V.90 standard
that provides a higher upstream data transfer rate and
also provides a call waiting service, in which a user’s data
connection is put on hold when someone calls the user’s
telephone number?
 V.92 standard
102. What is the combination of IP address and TCP port
number which is used to recognize an application on a
server?
 socket
103. What is an action that occurs when a transmitting or
receiving workstation has not received data or a response
in a specified period of time
 timeout
104. What is an electronic document, similar to a passport,
that establishes your credentials when you are
performing transactions on the World Wide Web?
 Certificate
105. What pertains to a person who tries to pick up someone
else’s wireless LAN signals?
 war driver
106. What is a large, complex program that can manage the
common resources on most local area networks, in
addition to performing the standard operating system
services?
 Network Operating System
107. What bridge is capable of passing a data frame from one
local area network to another when the two local area
networks are separated by long distance and there is a
wide area network connecting them?
 Remote bridge
108. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone)
signal is:
 approximately 3 kHz
109. Thermal noise is generated in:
 transistors and diodes, resistors, copper wire
(all of the above)
110. "Pink" noise has:
 equal power per octave
111. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:
 64 kb/s
112. Manchester coding:
 all of the above
113. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the
output of a vocoder is:
 not as good
114. The reference noise level for telephony is:
 1 pW
115. The cable used for local loops is mainly:
 twisted-pair copper wire
116. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK
117. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
 error-correction protocols
118. The official name for RS-232C is:
 EIA-232D
119. Hardware flow control uses:
 RTS and CTS
120. What is the modulation index of an FM carrier having a
carrier swing if 100 KHz and a modulating signal of 5 KHz.
 10
121. A BER tester sends bits at 2000 baud for 10 s. There are
total of 50 errors. What is the BER?
 1 in 400 bits
122. The minimum number of geostationary satellites required
for a global coverage is _____.
 3
123. A traffic of 720 Erlang is also equal to _____ CSS.
 25920
124. It is an elliptical zone between two microwave antennas,
where the total path distance nowhere varies by more
than half of the operating wavelength.
 Fresnel Zone
125. A packet switch type devices that operate at the OSI
network layer?
 Router
126. What is IEEE 802.6 protocol?
 MAN
127. A sublayer that defines how different stations can access
transmission medium?
 MAC
128. Designated at IEEE 802.3?
 LAN
129. Network that will fell between LAN and MAN?
 CAN
130. DSB Signals occupy ______ the bandwidth of SSB signals
 Twice
131. HSDPA is _______
 A specific implementation of W-CDMA
132. The first stage of a preamp is
 Small signal
133. The first stage of a preamp is
 Small signal
134. What antenna is often used vertically as either a mobile
or base antenna in VHF and UHF systems?
 5/8 λ antenna
135. A type of antenna array where the maximum radiation is
along the main axis of the antenna.
 End-fire array
136. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators used
at the ends of the wire antenna and has the effect of
adding a capacitance to the end of each wire.
 end effect
137. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals over a
narrow horizontal directional range is referred to as
 directivity
138. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one
or more additional conductors that are not connected to
the transmission line form a
 parasitic array
139. Generally used only on VHF and UHF bands because their
length becomes prohibitive at the lower frequencies.
 collinear antenna
140. It is a variable inductor, one or more variable capacitors,
or a combination of these components connected in
various configurations.
 antenna tuners
141. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave
dipoles spaced from one another by one-half wavelengths
is the
 broadside array
142. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission
line matches the output impedance of the transmitter
and the impedance of the antenna itself,
 maximum power transfer will take place
143. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced
transmission line of a specific impedance connected
between a load and a source in order to match
impedances is
 a Q section
144. The tendency of electrons flowing in a conductor to flow
near and or the outer surface of the conductor
frequencies in the VHF, UHF and microwave regions.
 skin effect
145. Passes all frequencies equally well over its design range
but has a fixed or predictable phase shift characteristics.
 all-pass filter
146. It is the rate of change of amplitude with frequency in a
filter.
 roll off
147. It provides the desired frequency response but have a
constant time delay in the passband.
 Bessel
148. It refers to any noise that has equal power per octave
rather than per hertz.
 pink noise
149. It uses a capacitive voltage divider instead of a tapped
inductor to provide feedback.
 Colpitts Oscillator
150. It uses switching techniques but with a scheme of pulse-
width modulation and are found primarily in audio
applications but have also been used in low and medium
frequency RF amplifiers such as those used in AM
broadcast transmitters
 Class S Amplifiers
151. To obtain selectivity while eliminating the image problem,
it is best to use a
 Dual-conversion Receiver
152. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission
line matches the output impedance of the transmitter
and the impedance of the antenna itself,
 maximum power transfer will take place
153. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced
transmission line of a specific impedance connected
between a load and a source in order to match
impedances is
 a Q section
154. It consists of 36 unique codes representing the 10 digits
and 26 uppercase letters
 code 39
155. The first fixed- length character code developed for
machines rather than for people
 Baudot Code
156. The early pioneer in the development of error-detection
and correction procedures
 Richard W. Hamming
157. The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for error
detection
 CRC
158. For the given parameters, determine the energy per bit-
to noise power density ratio
 22.2 dB
159. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive
with its voltage one-half the maximum value. What
proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced?
 0.876Vmax
160. Inaccuracies caused by the representation of a
continuously varying quantity as one of a number of
discrete values.
 quantizing errors
161. Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using
knowledge of the way in which voice sounds are
produced
 Vocoder
162. A coding scheme that records the change in signal level
since the precious sample
 delta modulation
163. Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate when
coding an analog signal for digital transmission
 Aliasing OR foldover distortion
164. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an
average of 12000 frames per minute with each frame
carrying an average of 10000 bits. What is the throughput
of this network?
 2 Mbps
165. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB above 40.
What is the minimum number of bits?
 6.35
166. The thick coaxial cable implementation of standard
Ethernet
 10 Base 5
167. A bit pattern or a character added to the beginning and
the end of a frame to separate the frames
 Flag
168. An IPv4 has an address space of how many?
 4294967296
169. What is the bit rate of STS – 1?
 51.84 Mbps
170. A block coding technique in which four bits are encoded
into a five bit code
 4B/5B Encoding
171. A national standards organization that defines standards
in the United States 184. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000
 ANSI pixels. If each pixel uses 1024 colors, how many bits are
needed to send the complete contents of a screen?
172. In asynchronous transmission, one or more bits to  12 Megabits
indicate the end of transmission
 stop bit 185. Combination of compression at the transmitter and
expansion at the receiver of communications system.
173. What is the overhead (number of extra bits) in the DS-3  Companding
service?
 1.368 Mbps 186. A device launches or receives a wave in a transmission
line or waveguide in one direction only.
174. The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist  directional coupler
Theorem 187. A type of linear-beam microwave tube that uses velocity
 twice the highest frequency of a signal modulation of the electron beam
175. It is used in wireless applications in which stations must  Klystron
be able to share the medium without interception by an
eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming 188. A series of pulses in which the amplitude of each pulse
from a malicious intruder represents the amplitude of the information signal at a
 spread spectrum given time.
 PAM
176. An error detection method which uses one’s complement
arithmetic 189. _______________ is used to position samples of the
 Checksum different message signals in non-overlapping time slots.
 TDM
177. It is a connecting device between two internetworks that
use different models 190. A ___________ is similar to a phasor diagram except that
 Gateway the entire phasor is not drawn.
 constellation diagram
178. It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of
data due to circuitry action which causes bits to arrive at 191. It was the first fixed length character code.
different times  Baudot Code
 Jitter
192. It involves transmitting each character twice.
179. In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input  Redundancy
voltage level to the smallest voltage level that can be
quantized 193. The __________ provides the mathematical justification
 Dynamic range for using a Gaussian Process as a model for a large
number of different physical phenomena in which the
180. A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a random variable, at a particular instant of time, is the
time slot of 2 bits, determine the frame duration. result of a large number of individual random events.
 20s  Central Limit Theorem
181. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords 194. A set of communication facilities allowing direct access to
( 10101, 11001) 64kpbs data streams (or multiples of) for drop and insert.
 Two A form of cell relay, supports B-ISDN.
 Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM)
182. An address space is the total number of addresses used
by the protocol, such as IPv4 and IPv6. What is the 195. A series of pulses, in which the timing of each pulse
address space of IPv6? represents the amplitude of the information signal at a
 2128 given time.
 Pulse Position Modulation
183. It is a standard designed by ITU to allow telephones in the
public telephone network to talk to computers/terminals 196. A line of sight radio link operating at a frequency of 6GHz
connected to the internet has a separation of 40km between antennas. An obstacle
 H.323
 in the path is located 10km form the transmitting antenna.
By how much must the beam clear the obstacle?
 11.6m
197. Variation in received field strength over time due to
changes in propagation conditions.
 Fading
198. The atomic weight of an element is approximately
determined by
 the number of protons and neutrons
199. Of the following substances the worst conductor is
 Air
200. The volt is the standard unit of
 electromotive force
201. Which of the following antenna types is not designed for
transmitting at 10 Ghz
 Zepp antenna
202. The type of radio wave responsible for long distance
communications by multiple skips is the:
 Direct Wave
203. Line of sight communications is not a factor in which
frequency range?
 HF
204. It refers to the rate of change of a signal on the
transmission medium after encoding and modulation
have occurred.
 Baud
205. It was the first fixed-length character code developed for
machines rather than people.
 Baudot Code
206. A receiver-transmitter station used to increase the
communications range of VHF, UHF and microwave
signals is called a(n):
 Repeater
207. It represents the simplest whole number ratio of the
various types of atoms in a compound.
 empirical formula
208. It is a term that is often misunderstood and commonly
confused with bit rate (bps)
 Baud
209. Defined as the optimum level of a test tone on a channel
at same point in a communication system.
 transmission level point
210. Duplicating each data unit for the purpose of detecting
errors is a form of error detection called ___________.
 Redundancy
211. Determine the wavelength of a 4 Ghz signal.
 0.075m
212. What is the device that converts energy from one form to
another?
 Transducer
213. It may be defined as any undesired voltages or currents
that ultimately end up appearing in the receiver output.
 Electrical noise
214. The channel capacity of a 5 kHz bandwidth binary system
is ____ bits/s. Assuming no noise.
 10,000
215. Microwaves are frequencies above _____ GHz.
 1
216. The government agencies that regulates radio
communications in the US is the ________.
 FCC (Federal Communications Commission)
217. A wave guide acts a/an _______ filter
 High-pass
218. Coax is not used beyond frequencies of about ______
GHz.
 6
219. Data Communications refers to the transmission of
________.
 Voice, video, Computer data (All of the
above)
220. Determine the peak frequency deviation for a binary FSK
signal with a mark frequency of 49 kHz, space frequency
of 51kHz and an input bit rate of 2kbps.
 1 kHz
221. It is often used to compare the performance of one digital
modulation technique to another.
 bandwidth efficiency
222. It is the process of converting an infinite number of
possibilities to a finite number of conditions.
 Quantization
223. For a PCM system with a maximum analog frequency of
4kHz, determine the minimum sample rate.
 8 kHz
224. It is another relatively simple form of redundancy error
checking where each character has a numerical value
assigned to it.
 Checksum
225. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that
distributes the signal and its sidebands over a very wide
bandwidth.
 Spread spectrum
226. The computers that hold shared files, programs and the
network operating system. They also provide access to
network resources to all the users of the network.
 Servers
227. It is defined by the ITU-T as a service that provides
transmission channels capable of supporting transmission
rates greater than the primary data rate.
 Broadband ISDN
228. It is the only error-correction scheme that actually
detects and corrects transmission errors when they are
received without requiring a transmission.
 Forward Error Correction
229. This OSI Layer is responsible for network availability, data
storage and processor capacity. It also determines the
type of dialogue available.
 Session layer
230. It is often defined as the loss incurred by an
electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight line
through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of
energy from nearby objects.
 free space path loss
231. What do you call the accumulation of additional sounds
such as wind, street noise; other voices that contribute to
what the listener hear?
 Ambience
232. It is a single transmission path from transmitter to
receiver with line of sight range.
 Hop
233. It is defined by the average rate at which energy is carried
out per unit area.
 Intensity
234. What happens to the frequency of the wave and to its
wavelength when a sound wave produced in one medium
enters another medium with a different speed?
 the frequency of the wave stays the same
while the wavelength changes.
235. An interest rate of 10% compounded continuously is
desired of an investment of P15,000. How many years will
be required to recover the capital with the desired
interest if P2,500 is received each year?
 9.375 years
236. What is the pH level of toilet soap?
 10
237. The process of combining multiple audio signals into one
track is called?
 audio mixing
238. The speed of sequence of musical notes is called?
 Tempo
239. If the frequency of a sound is increased, what will happen
to its pitch?
 Increases
240. A type of microwave protection system where each
working channel has a dedicated back up or spare
channel.
 Hot Standby
241. A method of nonspontaneous lysing (splitting) of a
substance by the input of electrical energy, and is often
used to decompose a compound into its elements.
 Electrolysis
242. Also known as Pin 21 of the RS-232 interface on D
connector, this connection allows signals to be
transmitted from the DCE to the attached DTE whenever
there is a high probability of an error in the received data
due to the quality of the circuit falling below a predefined
level.
 signal quality detector
243. It is the electrostatic forces of attraction between
oppositely charged ions.
 ionic bonding
244. ______ which means that 2 or more bits in the data unit
have changed?
 burst error
245. It is a four-wire Gigabit Ethernet implementation.
 1000 Base-T
246. It is a digital process that allows several connections to
share the high bandwidth of a link.
 TDM
247. IEEE 802.11 is define in which MAC sublayer?
 (b) and (c) – PCF, DCF
248. It is the oldest microwave tube design which is commonly
used in radar transmitters where they can generate peak
power levels in the megawatt range.
 Magnetron
249. A modulation process wherein both frequence and phase
remains constant while the amplitude changes.
 ASK
250. It is the most powerful redundancy checking technique
which is based on binary division.
 Cyclic redundancy check
251. What do you call the element with electrical properties
between those of an insulator and a conductor?
 Semiconductor
252. In pulse-code modulation, it translates the quantized
samples into digital code words.
 Encoder
253. It is an error detection technique in which a redundant bit
is appended to every data unit so that the total number
of 1s in the unit (including the parity bit) becomes even.
 vertical redundancy check
254. A local area network topology in which the individual
terminal, microcomputers or workstations are connected
directly to a central computer.
 Star
255. The only way to achieve high data rates with a
narrowband channel is to increase the number of bits per
symbol, the most reliable way to do this is to use a
combination of amplitude and phase modulation known
as _________.
 quadrature amplitude modulation
256. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM
system using 16-bit quantizing.
 98.08 dB
257. Compute the baud rate for a 72000 bps 64-QAM signal.
 12000 baud
258. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination.
Calculate the via net loss required for an acceptable
amount of echo.
 0.8 dB
259. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches,
and not to individual customers.
 tandem office
260. It is a form of digital modulation similar to PSK except the
digital information is contained in both amplitude and the
phase of the transmitted carrier.
 QAM
261. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary
FSK signals.
 PLL
262. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 4KHz.What
is the bandwidth needed if we modulate the signal using
AM? Ignore FCC regulations for now.
 8 KHz
263. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 4 MHz.
what is the bandwidth if we modulate the signal using
FM? Ignore FCC regulations.
 40
264. For PCM system with the following parameters determine
the minimum number of bits used.
Maximum analog frequency= 4 kHz, maximum decoded
voltage=±2.55, Minimum dynamic range = 199.5
 8
265. A network topology in which data circulates from one
computer to the next in sequence.
 Ring
266. Find the maximum dynamic range for linear PCM system
using 8-bit quantizing
 49.92 dB
267. What frequencies would be generated by a telephone
using DTMF signalling, when the number 8 is pressed?
 852 Hz and 1336 Hz
268. It is a means of transmitting data by shifting the phase
angle of the transmitted signal.
 PSK
269. The name given for a set of standards for communicating
among computers in which the primary purpose is to
serve as a structural guideline for exchanging information
between computers, workstations and networks.
 OSI
270. Any transmission system which conveys more than one
signal simultaneously can experience this type of
interference due to the reception of portions of a signal
from one channel in another channel.
 Crosstalk
271. What type of digital modulation scheme uses two or
more different output frequencies?
 FSK
272. It is an error-correcting code used for correcting
transmission errors in synchronous data streams.
 Hamming Code

273. A suite of protocols that allows a wide variety of
computers to share the same network.
 TCP/IP
274. Noise that is primarily caused by lightning. Often called as
Static Noise.
 atmospheric noise
275. Is a form of constant –amplitude angle modulation similar
to standard frequency modulation except the modulating
signal is a binary signal that varies between two discrete
voltage levels rather than a continuously changing analog
waveform.
 FSK
276. The highest layer in the hierarchy and is analogous to the
general manager of the network by providing access to
the OSI environment.
 Application layer
277. What is the equation for Hartley’s Law?
 I=ktB
278. Network topology wherein individual terminals,
microcomputers and workstations are connected directly
to a central computer.
 Star
279. The loss of data that occurs when two stations transmit at
the same time on a network
 Collision
280. A term used to describe a telephone instrument whose
handset is on its cradle, ready to receive a ring signal
 On hook
281. The most commonly used digital modulation scheme.
 PCM
282. Simple form of redundancy error checking where each
character has a numerical value assigned to it. The
characters within a message are combined together to
produce an error checking character.
 Checksum
283. Is an eight-bit fixed length character set developed in
1962 by the International Business Machines Corporation.
 EBCDIC code
284. An attempt is made to transmit base band frequency of
30khz using a digital audio system with a sampling rate of
44.1khz. What audible frequency would result?
 14.1KHz
285. Calculate the capacity of a telephone channel that has a
S/N of 1023?
 30,000 b/s
286. Designed to send characters of the message with the
specified bit rate but without any fixed timing
relationship from one character to the next.
 asynchronous
287. Token Ring Standard
 802.5
288. It is the process of extracting a phase-coherent reference
carrier from a receiver signal.
 Carrier Recovery
289. It is a potential problem whenever two metallic
conductors carrying different signals are located in close
proximity to each other.
 Crosstalk
290. What is the termed refer as the rapid degradation of
output signal quality with channel induced errors?
 threshold effect
291. What was the first fixed-length character code developed
for machines rather than for people?
 Baudot code
292. A source whose output satisfies the condition of
statistical independence among letters in the sequence is
said to be_____.
 Memoryless
293. Calculate the minimum data rate needed to transmit
audio with sampling rate of 30 Khz and 14 bits per sample.
 420 Kb/s
294. Handles error recovery, flow control (synchronization),
and sequencing (which terminals are sending and which
are receiving). It is considered the “media access control
layer”.
 Data Link Layer
295. A MAC protocol for LANs, with stations connected
topologically or logically in a ring. Or the IEEE 802.5 LAN
standard.
 Token Ring
296. A network topology where each device is connected to a
centre point and all data is routed through that point.
 Star network
297. A lasers use organic dyes enclosed in a glass tube for an
active medium, dye is circulated into the tube with a
pump. A powerful pulse of light excites the organic dye.
 Liquid Lasers
298. Codes that have a restriction on the number of
consecutive 1s or 0s in a sequence.
 Run length limited code
299. Contains seven bytes (56 bits) of alternating 0s and 1s
that alert the receiving system to the coming frame and
enable it to synchronize its input timing
 Preamble
300. Every letter was encoded into fixed length of binary code
words of length 5.
 Baudot Code
301. The composite signal that modulates the FM carrier.
 Baseband
302. It is a simple means of error detection. It involves the
addition of one extra bit to the bits that encode a
character.
 Parity
303. A data compression scheme that uses fewer bits to
represent more frequently occurring characters or bit
patterns and more bits to represent those occur less
frequently.
 Huffman coding
304. Speed at which symbols are transmitted in a digital
communication systems.
 Baud rate
305. It is the process of converting an infinite number of
possibilities to a finite number of conditions.
 Quantization
306. It is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the
smallest possible magnitude that can easily be decoded
by the digital to analog converter in the receiver.
 Dynamic Range
307. It is the institution that developed the ASCII (American
Standard Code for Information Intertchange).
 ANSI
308. In early 1900s, he showed that any composite signal is a
sum of a set of sine waves of different frequencies,
phases and amplitudes.
 Jean-Baptiste Fourier
309. Find the binary equivalent of x8+x3+x+1.
 100001011
310. Given a bandwidth of 6000 Hz for an ASK signal, what is
the baud rate?
 6000 Hz
311. Compute the bit rate for a 2000 baud 16-QAM signal.
  8000 bps
312. It is an electronic device that is used for computer
communications through telephone lines.
 Modem
313. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 4.5 kHz and a signal-
to-noise ratio of 40dB. A signal is transmitted down this
line using a four level code. What is the maximum
theoretical data rate?
 18 kbps
314. Showed mathematically that it is possible to reconstruct a
band-limited analog signal from periodic samples, as long
as the sampling rate is at least twice the frequency of the
highest frequency component of the signal.
 Harry Nyquist
315. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM
system using 8-bit quantizing.
 49.92 dB
316. In operation, many modern codecs achieved compression
by first encoding the signals using a 12-bit linear PCM
code, then converting the 12-bit linear code into an 8-bit
compressed code by discarding some of the bits. This is a
simple example of:
 Digital Signal Processing
317. Sampling of an analog signal using a sample-and-hold
circuit such that the sample has the same amplitude for
its whole duration.
 Flat-topped Sampling
318. The basic building block of the FDM hierarchy.
 Message Channel
319. The GSM radio system uses GMSK in a 200 kHz channel,
with a channel data rate of 270.883 kbps. Calculate the
frequency shift between mark and space.
 135.4165 kHz
320. For Ethernet system with a length of 2.5km on coaxial
cable with a velocity factor of 0.66. What is the
propagation delay?
 12.6µs
321. A signal at the input to a µ-Law compressor is positive,
with its volatage one-half the maximum value. What
proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced?
 0.876Vo
322. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination.
Calculate the via net loss required for an acceptable
amount of echo
 0.8dB
323. Who invented the telegraph?
 Samuel F.B Morse
324. The simplest modulation technique, where a binary
information signal modulates the amplitude of an analog
carrier.
 Amplitude-Shift Keying
325. Is the lowest Open System Interconnection hierarchy and
is responsible for the actual propagation of unstructured
data bits (1s and 0s) through a transmission medium.
 Physical Layer
326. Error-correction scheme that actually detect and corrects
transmission errors when they are received without
requiring a retransmission.
 Forward Error Correction
327. It allows the overall complexity of the system to be
broken down into individual function –layers- that
operate essentially by themselves.
 Transparency
328. These are very useful pictorial representations that
clearly show the protocol operations such as words or
conventional drawings.
 State Transition Diagram
329. Pair of wires that connects the central office to the user’s
phone
 Local loop
330. How long does it take to dial the number 784-3745 using
pulse dialing with .5s inter digit time?
 6.8s
331. Network that connects users who are in the same general
location
 LAN
332. A balanced modulator that will used in conjuction with a
microwave generator, power amplifier, and band-pass
filter, up-converts the IF carrier to an RF carrier and
amplifies the RF to the desired output power.
 Transmit Modulator
333. What is the equation for Hartley’s Law?
 I=ktB
334. The loss of data that occurs when two stations transmit at
the same time on a network
 Collision
335. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 5 MHz.
What is the bandwidth modulate the signal using FM?
Ignore FCC regulation.
 50 MHz
336. Used to established a point to point connection across a
network.
 TCP
337. An attempt is made to transmit a baseband frequency of
25kHz using digital audio system with a sampling rate of
44.1 kHz. What audible frequency would result?
 19.1 kHz
338. Defines the rules of the conversation the message passing
among the network users
 network protocol
339. Responsible for providing signals to the loop sensing
activity and sending phone signals at the end of the loop
 SLIC
340. The typical amount of voltage in dc use in the battery of
the central office with respect to ground
 -48
341. A network that is composed of a smaller LAN that are
closely link. It is needed for areas spread out
geographically
 WAN
342. How many central office allotted for each exchange?
 1
343. It is a method of switching that provides a separate
physical path for each symbol
 space switching
344. The central office detects a request for service from a
telephone by:
 a flow of loop current
345. The OSI Layer responsible for data tracking as it moves
through a network. It controls and ensures the end – to –
end integrity of the data message propagated through
the network between two devices.
 Transport
346. It is used on long – distance circuits, in an effort to
overcome echoes caused by circuit imbalances.
 Echo Suppressors
347. The sensitivity of a radio receiver is given in terms of dBm.
If the receiver is receiving 200 mW, what is the
corresponding dBm of this signal?
  23 dBm
348. An antenna with a noise temperature of 75 Kelvin is
connected to a receiver input with a noise temperature of
300 K. Given the reference temperature T0 = 290 K, find
the noise figure of the system.
 3.6 dB
349. modulation index of an AM radio station is 0.75. If the
carrier power is 500W, what is the total transmitted
power?
 641 W
350. An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal
oscillator to generate a very stable 108MHz final carrier
frequency. The output of the crystal oscillator is fed to a
x36 multiplier circuit then mixed with a 34.5 MHz signal.
The sum output of the mixer is filtered out, while the
difference is fed to another multiplier in order to
generate the final carrier frequency. What is the
multiplier value?
 72
351. A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the upper
frequency is double the lower frequency.
 Octave
352. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband
FM receiver with deviation maximum of 10 kHz and a
maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz. The S/N input
is 3:1.
 10
353. A small variable capacitance in parallel with each section
of ganged capacitor is called _______.
 Trimmer
354. How many wavelengths long are required for a pair of
conductors to be considered as a transmission line?
 1/10λ
355. Determine the time taken for a signal to travel down a 10
m transmission line, if its velocity factor is 0.7.
 47.6 ns
356. The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U foam
coaxial cable is 52 V and its minimum voltage is 17 V. How
many percent of the incident power is the reflected
power?
 26%
357. At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited
transmission line behaves as a(an) ___________ circuit.
 parallel-resonant
358. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay
of a 4 MHz signal to a 75-ft cable with a dielectric
constant of 2.3.
 108 degrees
359. Which of the following is a flat conductor separated by an
insulating dielectric from a large ground plane that is
usually one-quarter or one-half wavelength long?
 microstrip
360. One complete revolution around a Smith Chart
represents _________ wavelengths
 ½λ
361. A mismatched transmission line is also referred to as a
___________ line.
 Resonant
362. It is the ratio of the speed of propagation on a line to that
of light in free-space.
 velocity factor
363. Which of the following is the most widely used UTP cable
that can carry baseband data at rates up to 100 Mbps at a
range up to 100m?
 CAT 5
364. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the
unmodulated carrier value is 85V. What is the modulation
index?
 0.47
365. The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast
transmitter with a carrier power of 50kW when
modulated 80 percent is:
 66 kW
366. One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great deal
of power. Which of the following is the reason why it is
not widely used?
 the signal is difficult to demodulate
367. If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the
system is called a _______________________.
 high-level modulator
368. The input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the
frequency deviation caused by the noise if the modulating
frequency is 1.5KHz and the permitted deviation is 4KHz?
 547.8 Hz
369. What circuit is used to return the frequency response of a
signal to its normal, “flat” level?
 de-emphasis
370. It is the most common means of overcoming the
problems of quantizing error and noise.
 Companding
371. ________________ means that the characteristics and
performance of an antenna are the same whether the
antenna is radiating or intercepting an electromagnetic
signal.
 antenna reciprocity
372. Which of the following methods is used to lower the
resonant frequency of a shortened vertical antenna?
 top hat loading
373. Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a parabolic
antenna that has a diameter of 3 m, an efficiency of 60%
and operates at a frequency of 4 GHz.
 39.8 dBi
374. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators used
at the ends of the wire antenna.
 end effect
375. Which of the following is not a reason why most half-
wave antennas are mounted horizontally at low
frequencies?
 more cost-effective
376. The shape of the electromagnetic energy radiated from or
received by an antenna is called the
 radiation pattern
377. Antennas that transmit an equal amount of energy in the
horizontal direction are called
 Omnidirectional
378. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals over a
narrow horizontal directional range is referred to as
 Directivity
379. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one
or more additional conductors that are not connected to
the transmission line form a
 parasitic array
380. An antenna made up of a driven element and one or
more parasitic elements is generally referred to as a
 Yagi antenna
381. Which antennas usually consist of two or more half-wave
dipoles mounted end to end?
 Collinear
382. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave
dipoles spaced from one another by one-half wavelengths
is the
 broadside array

383. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission
line matches the output impedance of the transmitter
and the impedance of the antenna itself,
 maximum power transfer will take place
384. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced
transmission line of a specific impedance connected
between a load and a source in order to match
impedances is
 a Q section
385. By how much should two antennas be separated for
space diversity in the 11 GHz band?
 5.5 m
386. What is the phase velocity of a rectangular waveguide
with a wall separation of 3 cm and a desired frequency of
operation of 6 GHz?
 5.43 x 108 m/s
387. A transmitter and a receiver is 45 km apart. Suppose that
there is an obstacle midway between the transmitter and
receiver. By how much must the path between the
towers clear the obstacle in order to avoid diffraction at a
frequency of 11 GHz?
 10.51 m
388. How far from the transmitter could a signal be received if
the transmitting and receiving antennas where 40 m and
20 m, respectively, above level terrain?
 44.5 km
389. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of
electric intensity change between two further walls, and
no component of the electric field in the direction of
propagation. The mode is
 TE20
390. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss
of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator, and the
load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much power is
dissipated in the load?
 638 mW
391. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss
of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator, and the
load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much power
returns to the source?
 5.43 x 108 m/s
392. It is a microwave device that allows RF energy to pass
through in one direction with very little loss, but absorbs
RF power in the opposite direction.
 Isolator
393. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna aperture
to eliminate sidelobes interfering nearby stations is called
 Shroud
394. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide _________.
 is greater than in free space
395. Geostationary satellites are located at ____ with respect
to the equator.
 00 latitude
396. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the
______ ratio.
 G/T
397. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by
several kHz during a low earth orbit satellite pass?
 The distance between the satellite and
ground station is changing, causing the
Doppler effect
398. The most ambitious LEO constellation to date is ______.
 Teledesic
399. A satellite-dish owner has a 3 meter dish designed for C-
band (4 GHz) operation. The owner wants to use the
same dish with a new feedhorn, for Ku-band (12 GHz)
satellites. What effect will the change in frequency have
on the gain and beamwidth of the antenna?
 Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth
decreases to 1/3 of its former value.
400. The moon orbits the earth with a period of approximately
28 days. How far away is it? Assume circular orbit.
 384 Mm
401. What is the length of the path to a geostationary satellite
from an Earth station if the angle of elevation is 300?
 39000 km
402. What is the nominal uplink frequency for the Ku band?
 14 GHz
403. To cover all inhabited regions of the earth, the number of
polar-orbit satellites required is
 1
404. A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67 ohms
and a loss resistance of 5 ohms, measured at the
feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency.
 93%
405. Two antennas have gains of 5.3 dBi and 4.5 dBd,
respectively. Which has a greater gain?
 The second antenna has a higher gain.
406. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
 Hertz antenna
407. An antenna's beamwidth is measured
 between half-power points
408. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's
radiation pattern caused by
 radio signals reflecting off the ground
409. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using
 all of the choices (a shorted stub, an LC
network, a loading coil)
410. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased
 the number of lobes increases
411. LPDA stands for
 Log-Periodic Dipole Array
412. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured
with
 a field-strength meter
413. A receiving antenna with a built-in preamplifier
 active antenna
414. The height above mean sea level of a satellite in a
geosynchronous orbit around Earth is:
 35,786 km
415. The location of a satellite is generally specified in terms of
 latitude & longitude
416. A point in the orbit of an object orbiting the earth that is
located closest to Earth.
 Perigee
417. Find the velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit 500 km
above the earth’s surface.
 7.6 km/s
418. Find the orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit
36,000 km above the earth’s surface if the earth’s radius
is 6400 km.
 1440 mins
419. The outline of a communications satellite antenna
pattern on the earth is known as:
 Footprint
420. Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary
satellite from an earth station where the angle of
elevation is 30. (earth’s radius = 6400 km, height of
satellite above earth is 36 X 103 km)
 39,000 km
421. A satellite access technique where each earth station
transmits a short burst of information during a specific
time slot.
 TDMA ( Time Division Multiple Access)
422. An earth station antenna look angle is determined by :
 azimuth & elevation
423. An ITU radiocommunication standards for satellite
services which provides information on the range of
frequencies that can be used by fixed satellite service
systems for emergency and disaster relief operations.
 ITU-R S.1001-2
424. As per Philippine standard, frequency allocation of AM
Radio Broadcasting is from
 526.5 to 1705 kHz
425. Part of broadcasting in a day that refers to that period of
time between 1000 UTC to 2200 UTC. UTC stands for
Universal Time Coordinates.
 nighttime period
426. An AM broadcast service area in which groundwave field
of 1mV/m (60dBu) is not subject to objectionable
interference or objectionable fading.
 primary service area
427. In antenna mast or tower construction, the required
obstruction painting and/or lighting must be imposed on
mast or tower more than … from the ground level.
 250 ft or 150 ft
428. Regarding the design of AM antenna, what should be the
polarization of the radiator?
 Vertical
429. As per Phillipine standard, what is the minimum
frequency separation in any service area for adjacent AM
radio stations?
 36 kHz
430. What is the maximum power allowable for remote pick-
up stations used as broadcast auxillary services for AM
and FM broadcast stations?
 35 W
431. What is the classification of an FM station having an ERP
not exceeding 30kW?
 Class B
432. What is the modulation used for the stereophonic
subcarrier of FM composite baseband signal?
 AM DSB SC
433. What is the pilot subcarrier frequency used in FM
stereophonic transmission?
 19 kHz
434. The output power of an FM transmitter is 5 kW. If the
power loss in transmission line is around 10 W and the
antenna has a power gain of 6 dB, what is the ERP of the
station in kW?
 19.96 kW
435. Frequency allocation of FM broadcast in the Philippines…
 88 – 108 MHz
436. What is the color TV system adopted by the Philippines?
 NTSC
437. Exact value of color subcarrier frequency (MHz) is …
 3.579545
438. Determine the visual carrier frequency of TV channel 9
 187.25 MHz
439. What is the maximum allowable ERPs for channels 7 – 13
in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu?
 1 MW
440. At NTSC standard, the number of lines per frame =
________ lines/frame
 525
441. At NTSC standard, line frequency = 15734.264 Hz. What is
the equivalent line period?
 63.556 usec
442. Nominal RF bandwidth of NTSC TV channel…
 6 MHz
443. A land mobile station used for the transmission of TV
program materials and related communications from the
scenes of events occuring at remote points from TV
broadcast station studios to TV broadcast station.
 TV Pick-up station
444. For a total capacity of 36 Mbps and 64-QAM of digital
modulation, what is the ideal RF bandwidth?
 6 MHz
445. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that utilized
ionosphere as a medium of transmission and / or
reception of radio signals?
 sky wave
446. What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling at a
frequency of 220 MHz in a coaxial line having Teflon foam
as its dielectric, εr = 2?
 0.96 m
447. What is the angle of refraction in a Teflon (εr2 = 2)
medium of a radio wave from air (εr1 = 1.0) if its angle of
incidence is 45°?
 30°
448. An ionosphere layer also termed as “absorption layer”
because it absorbs most of the frequencies above 100 kHz
is known as the … layer.
 D
449. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength
Classifications, what is the classification of Super High
Frequency?
 Centimetric
450. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) separate
antennas and receivers for each single transmitter?
 space diversity
451. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) different
frequencies in a simplex path?
 frequency diversity
452. What is the critical frequency of a layer if the maximum
value of electron density is 2 x 106 per cm3?
 13 MHz
453. A radio communication link is to be established via the
ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of the layer is
110 km. at the midpoint of the path and the critical
frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between the radio
stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the
optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
 8.4 MHz
454. The power density is inversely proportional to the square
of the distance from the source. This law is known as…
 Inverse Square law
455. The lowest portion of the ionosphere that is useful for
long-distance communication by amateurs; about 100 to
115 km above the earth is known as the… layer. This is
often termed as the Kennely-Heavyside layer.
 E
456. A graph which shows the radiation in actual field strength
of electromagnetic fields at all points which are at equal
distance from the antenna is known as…
 Radiation Pattern
457. The efficiency of an antenna is 82 %. Its radiation
resistance is 30 Ω. What is the value of its loss
resistance?
 6.58 Ω
458. A phenomenon on the surface of the sun with
appearance and disappearance of dark irregularly shaped
areas.
 11-year sunspot
459. What should be done to increase the transmission
distance at frequencies higher than HF bands?
 increase antenna height
460. Which of the following factors must be considered in the
transmission of a surface wave to reduce attenuation?
 electrical properties of the terrain, antenna
polarization, frequency (all choices)
461. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength. What is
the designated band of station’s frequency?
 HF
462. What is the total radio horizon distance between an 80 ft
transmitting station and a 20 ft receiving station?
 18.97 mi
463. A power density of 1.57 x 10-4 W/m2 is measured 50
meters from a test antenna whose directive gain is 2.15
dB. How much power was fed into the test antenna?
 3W
464. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a
country are distinguished by their ___.
 area codes
465. Telephone traffic is measured ____.
 in erlangs
466. In a cellular telephone system, each cell site contains a
____.
 Repeater
467. When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a
certain level, what action occurs?
 the unit is “handed off” to a closer cell
468. In a cellular telephone system, group of cells is called ___.
 Cluster
469. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are transmissions
from base stations to mobile units (Downlink)
 forward links
470. A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from the
base as -100 dBm. What should the mobile transmitter
power be set to as a first approximation, considering - 76
dB at mobile power contol?
 250 mW
471. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination.
Calculate the via net loss required for an acceptable
amount of echo.
 0.8 dB
472. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is
 48 volts DC
473. Central offices are connected by:
 trunk lines
474. In telephony, call blocking is:
 occurs when the central office capacity is
exceeded
475. The cable used for local loops in telephone system is
mainly
 twisted-pair copper wire
476. In DTMF, the four vertical frequencies are ____.
 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
477. In DTMF, the Horizontal frequencies are
 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz
478. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are transmissions
from mobile units to base stations (Uplink)
 reverse links
479. In DTMF, the horizontal frequencies is also known as
 high group frequencies
480. In DTMF, the Vertical frequencies is also known as
 low group frequencies
481. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone
system is restricted in order to:
 allow signals to be multiplexed
482. This is the highest-ranking office in the DDD network in
telephony in terms of the size of the geographical area
served and the trunking options available.
 regional center
483. In Cellular Radio, AMPS stand for:
 Advanced Mobile Phone Service
484. In Cellular Radio, BSC stands for:
 Base Station Controller
485. In Cellular Radio, MSC stands for:
 Mobile Switching Center
486. In GSM, voice channels are called:
 traffic channels
487. In Mobile Communications, GSM uses:
 frequency hopping
488. In Mobile Communications, IMSI stands for:
 International Mobile Subscriber Identification
489. An acoustical phenomenon wherein the sound continues
to persist after the cause of sound has stopped resulting
in repeated reflections is called…
 Reverberation
490. A group of filters has 1/3 octave of spacing. If the initial
frequency is 25 Hz, what is the next frequency available
for the filter?
 31.5 Hz
491. + 26 dBu is how many volts?
 15.5 V
492. A type of microphone that uses the principle of a
capacitor as a means of transduction. It uses a polarizing
voltage of between 9 and 48 V of DC supply applied to its
diaphragm by an external power supply.
 Condenser
493. Determine the sound power in Watts produced by the
bank’s alarm if a by-stander heard the alarm at a sound
pressure level of 100 dB-SPL. The by-stander is 100 ft
away from the bank
 58.65 W
494. A loudspeaker produces an SPL of 85dB-SPL at 1 meter
distance and input electrical power of 1 W. How loud is
the SPL at distance of 20 meters if this speaker is driven
to 10 W of electrical power?
 69 dB-SPL
495. A number from 0 to 1 representing the ability of a surface
material to absorb sound energy is known as…
 Absorption Coefficient
496. The difference in dB between the loudest level of sound
and the softest passage of sound is known as ______
 dynamic range
497. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave
propagation between two specific points on earth’s
surface.
 Critical Frequency
498. Variation in signal loss caused by natural weather
disturbances.
 Fading
499. Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna that
is 200 m high and a receiving antenna that is 100 m high
  99.5km 513. The light energy that is always emitted or absorbed in
discrete units
500. The height above the earth’s surface from which a  Quanta
refracted wave appears to have been reflected…
 virtual height 514. Which of the following Ethernet fiber optic standard uses
synchronous, Centralized Clock?
501. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave  10 Base-FB (Backbone)
propagation between two specific points on earth’s
surface. 515. It is a mixed, multiple-service standard to allow the
 Critical Frequency transmission of voice and video over an FDDJ network.
 FDDI – II
502. Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the
horizon level. 516. It is a layer of plastic that surrounds a fiber or group of
 sky waves fibers
 Buffer Tube
503. The most common light used in fiber-optic links is
 Infrared 517. The angular separation between the two half-power
points on the power density radiation pattern.
504. In the telecommunications industry, the most commonly  Beamwidth
used fiber(s) are
 50 and 62.5 micron 518. Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of the
electromagnetic wave radiated from an antenna and is
505. The abrupt change in refractive index from core to parallel to the antenna itself.
cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the  Polarization
 Step index
519. Placing a metallic array on the antenna effects to increase
506. A technique that is used to minimize the pulse dispersion the current at the base of the antenna, and also to make
effect is to the current distribution more uniform. What is this
 Minimize the core diameter called?
 Top loading
507. Which is not an important characteristic of a light
detector? 520. What principle that states that the properties of an
 Power consumption antenna are independent of whether it is used for
transmission or reception.
508. The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a  Reciprocity
portion of the light energy traveling in the cladding is
called 521. Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m
 Waveguide dispersion paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz. Note: such reflectors
are often used at that frequency as antennas outside
509. Recent laser developments for fiber-optic communication broadcast television microwave links.
include  3.50
 Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical cavity
surface emitting (VCSEL) 522. This is often used to cure the problem of great thickness
required of lenses used at lower microwave frequencies
510. Which of the following considerations is important when or for strong curved wavefronts.
deciding between using a diode laser or an LED?  Zoning
 Response time
511. In 1815, the correct explanation of diffraction was given 523. A structure-generally metallic and sometimes very
by complex-designed to provide an efficient coupling
 Fresnel between space and the output of a transmitter or input
to a receiver.
512. It is the central part of the optical communication system  Antenna
 Optical Fiber
524. The ratio comparing the power density generated by a
practical antenna in some direction, with that due to an
isotopic antenna radiating the same total power.
 Directive gain
525. Any array that is directional at right angles to the plane of
the array is said, by inference, to have __________.
 Broadside action
526. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter is
called __________ of the parabola, just as in camera
lenses.
 Aperture
527. Corresponds to a resonant transmission line, and the
dipole antennas describe so far have been resonant.
 Resonant antenna
528. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of
1.55 and is clad with another glass with a refractive index
of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What numerical
aperture does the fiber have?
 0.352
529. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of
1.55 and is clad with another glass with a refractive index
of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What is the
acceptance angle?
 20.6◦
530. For a single-mode optical cable with 0.25-dB/km loss,
determine the optical power 100km from a 0.1-mW light
source.
 -35dBm
531. For an optical fiber 10km long with a pulse-spreading
constant of 5ns/km, determine the maximum digital
transmission rates for return-to-zero.
 20Mbps
532. In fiber optics, it is a measure of the conversion efficiency
of a photodetector. It is the ratio of the output current of
a photodiode to the input optical power and has the unit
of amperes per watt
 Responsivity
533. A phenomenon also called stress corrosion resulting if the
glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high humidity?
 Static fatigue
534. The theory which states that when visible light or high-
frequency electromagnetic radiation illuminates a
metallic surface, electrons are emitted.
 Planck’s law
535. The science of measuring only light waves that are visible
to the human eye
 Photometry
536. The process of constructing an ILD that is similar to LED
except that the ends are highly polished.
 Lasing
537. A phenomenon in optical fibers communication system
that is caused by the difference in the propagation times
of light rays that take different paths down the fiber.
 Pulse spreading
538. For an electronic device operating at a temperature of
17°C with a bandwidth of 10 kHz, determine the thermal
noise power in dBm.
 -134dBm
539. A 300Ω resistor is connected across the 300Ω antenna
input of a television receiver. The bandwidth of the
receiver is 6MHz, and the resistor is at room
temperature .Find the noise voltage applied to the
receiver input.
 5.4 µV
540. The signal power at the input to an amplifier is 100µW
and the noise power is 1 µW. At the output, the signal
power is 1W and the noise power is 30mW. What is the
amplifier noise figure, as a ratio?
 3
541. It is desired to operate a receiver with NF = 8dB at S/N =
15 dB over a 200-KHz bandwidth at ambient temperature.
Calculate the receiver’s sensitivity.
 -98dBm
542. A Satellite receiving system includes a dish antenna ( Teq =
35 K) connected via a coupling network (Teq= 40 K) to a
microwave receiver (Teq=52 K referred to its input). What
is the noise power to the receiver’s input over a 1-MHz
frequency range?
 1.75 x 10-15
543. Equivalent temperature of a passive system having the
same noise power output of a given system.
 noise temperature
544. The noise voltage produced across a 50Ω is input
resistance at a temperature of 302°C with a bandwidth of
6 MHz is ______.
 2.24µV
545. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a broadcast FM
program that has a maximum intelligence frequency of 5
kHz. The input S/N is 2
 30 560. A procedure that decides which device has permission to
transmit at a given time is called
546. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to  Line Control
generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by
comparing the phase of two successive data bits is 561. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
 DPSK  Slope overload
547. A special digital modulation technique that achieves high 562. The AT&T T1 lines
data rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called  Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice
 Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) channels
548. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude- 563. The ground wire in a USB cable is ______.
modulation systems with respect to  Brown
 Ionospheric fading characteristics
564. A(n) ________ is used to allow a digital signal to be
549. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data transmitted on an analog channel.
bits that provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity  Modem
is called a(n)
 Eye pattern 565. The bit ________ is the amount of power in a digital bit
for a given amount of time.
550. The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly  Energy
switched transmissions is known as
 Spread spectrum 566. The relationship for bit rate to ________ bandwidth is
defined by the Shannon-Hartley theorem.
551. The acronym CDMA refers to ________.  Channel
 Code-division multiple-access systems
567. In an S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled
552. The acronym OFDM refers to ________. voltage is
 Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing  Aperture time
553. Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular 568. Error signals associated with the sampling process are
phenomenon without human monitors is known as called
 Radio telemetry  Foldover distortion and aliasing
554. The acronym for the form of data transmission in which 569. A(n) ________ is a single LSI chip containing both the ADC
the modulating wave shifts the output between two and DAC circuitry.
predetermined frequencies is _____.  Codec
 FSK
570. The NRZ digital signal-encoding format has a ________
555. Pseudorandom implies a sequence that can be _____ but component in the waveform.
has the properties of randomness.  DC
 re-created
571. Reed–Solomon codes utilize a technique called ________
556. ______ implies that both analog and digital signals share to rearrange the data into a nonlinear ordering scheme to
the same channel bandwidth. improve the chance of data correction.
 Hybrid  Interleaving
557. Telemetry may be defined as _____ metering. 572. The electric field intensity is measured in:
 Remote  V/m
558. Which is not a type of pulse modulation? 573. It is a result of an increase in the charge density in
 Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) dielectric materials.
 Polarization
559. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in
 Noise characteristics 574. It refers to the maximum antenna gain.
 Directivity
 589. Which is properly terminated antenna?
575. The maximum horizontal distance between the  Rhombic 603. Is used to interface DTEs to digital transmission channels
transmitter and the receiver for line of sight propagation  Channel service unit
is known as: 590. Occurs when the radio beam is at point of grazing over an
 radio horizon obstacle. 604. Modulation which combines encoding and modulation to
 Diffraction reduce the probability of error
576. Typical mode of radiation of helical antenna is:  TCM
 end fire 591. A microwave communications system, space loss
calculation formula is 605. Is an empirical record of a system’s actual bit error
577. The electric field is perpendicular to the earth’s surface,  92.4 + 20log F + 20 log D performance
the polarization is  BER
 Vertical 592. Is an OSI Layer which is responsible for providing error-
free communications across the physical link connecting 606. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting
578. In what major RF band is ground wave basically applied? primary and secondary stations (nodes) transmission errors in synchronous data streams.
 MF (Medium Frequency)  Data Link layer  Hamming code

579. A measure of mismatch in a transmission line
 standing wave ratio
580. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by
the ionosphere, if wave is sent vertically upward.
 critical frequency
581. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to
the receiving antenna.
 space wave
582. VLF waves are for some types of services because
 they are very reliable
593. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the
smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the
digital-to-analog converter.
 Dynamic range
594. Is a PCM system which uses a single bit PCM code to
achieve digital transmission of analog signals.
 Delta modulation
595. Is a redundancy error detection scheme that uses parity
to determine if a transmission error has occurred within a
message and is sometimes called message parity.
 Longitudinal redundancy check

583. It is the distance between two wave fronts having the

same phase at any given instant. 596. Is an n-bit data register inside the UART that keeps track
 Wavelength of the UART’s transmit and receive buffer registers.
 Status Word register

584. It is a piece of transmission line which is normally short- 597. Is an access method used primarily with LANs configured
circuited at the far end. in a bus topology.
 Stub  CSMA/CD

585. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm
resistive load. Calculate the reflection coefficient
 0.25
586. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does
not depend upon its
 Length
587. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the
impedance measured at the _______ when its length is
infinite
 Input
588. Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for
long-distance night time communications?
 F layer
598. IP version 4 address length is
 32 bits
599. Is a multiport bridge that provides bridging function.
 Switch
600. Is a device which operates in the Network layer and it
makes forwarding decisions on the basis of network
addresses.
 Router
601. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is
 51.84 Mbps
602. Is one in which all computers share their resources with
all the other computers on the network.
 Peer-to-peer client/server network