PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
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(Name) ____________________________
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(Name) ____________________________
D 87 1
1 1
Time : 1 /4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
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sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall.
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12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
D-87-11
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
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[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. Which of the following data 5. Maximum number of edges in a n-

structure is Non-linear type ? Node undirected graph without self
loop is
(A) Strings
(A) n2 (B) n(n – 1)
(B) Lists
n(n – 1)
(C) n(n + 1) (D) 2
(C) Stacks
(D) None of the above
6. A hash table has space for 75
records, then the probability of
2. The total number of comparisons in collision before the table is 6% full.
a bubble sort is
(A) .25 (B) .20
(A) 0(log n)
(C) .35 (D) .30
(B) 0(n log n)
(C) 0(n) 7. BCC in the internet refers to
(D) None of the above (A) Black carbon copy
(B) Blind carbon copy
3. Which of the following is a bad (C) Blank carbon copy
example of recursion ? (D) Beautiful carbon copy
(A) Factorial
(B) Fibonacci numbers 8. Hub is a term used with
(C) Tower of Hanai (A) A Star Networks
(D) Tree traversal (B) A Ring Networks
(C) A Router

4. Domain and Range of the function (D) A Bridge

Y = – –2x + 3 is
3 3 9. The amount of uncertainty in a
(A) x ≥ 2, y ≥ 0 (B) x > 2, y ≤ 0 system of symbol is called
(A) Bandwidth (B) Entropy
3 3
(C) x ≥ 2, y ≤ 0 (D) x ≤ 2, y ≤ 0
(C) Loss (D) Quantum
Paper-II 2 D-87-11
10. Which of the following network 14. An SRS
access standard disassembler is used
for connection station to a packet (A) establishes the basis for
switched network ? agreement between client and
the supplier.
(A) X.3 (B) X.21
(B) provides a reference for
(C) X.25 (D) X.75 validation of the final product.
(C) is a prerequisite to high quality
11. A station in a network in a network software.
forward incoming packets by placing
(D) all of the above.
them on its shortest output queue.
What routing algorithm is being used ?
(A) Hot potato routing 15. McCabe’s cyclomatic metric V(G)
of a graph G with n vertices, e edges
(B) Flooding
and p connected component is
(C) Static routing
(A) e
(D) Delta routing
(B) n
(C) e–n+p
12. Start and stop bits are used in serial
(D) e – n + 2p
communications for
(A) Error detection
(B) Error correction 16. Emergency fixes known as patches
are result of
(C) Synchronization
(A) adaptive maintenance
(D) Slowing down the
communication (B) perfective maintenance
(C) corrective maintenance

13. For a data entry project for office (D) none of the above
staff who have never used computers
before (user interface and user-
friendliness are extremely 17. Design recovery from source code is
important), one will use done during

(A) Spiral model (A) reverse engineering

(B) Component based model (B) re-engineering

(C) Prototyping (C) reuse

(D) Waterfall model (D) all of the above

D-87-11 3 Paper-II
18. Following is used to demonstrate 22. Which command classes text file,
that the new release of software still which has been created using “SET
performs the old one did by ALTERNATIVE” <FILE NAME>
rerunning the old tests : “Command” ?
(A) Functional testing (A) SET ALTERNATE OFF
(B) CLOSE DATABASE
(B) Path testing
(C) CLOSE ALTERNATE
(C) Stress testing (D) CLEAR ALL
(D) Regression testing
23. Data security threats include
(A) privacy invasion
19. The post order traversal of a binary
tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre- (B) hardware failure
order traversal. (C) fraudulent manipulation of data
(D) encryption and decryption
(A) ABFCDE (B) ADBFEC
(C) ABDECF (D) ABDCEF
24. Which of the following statements is
true, when structure of database file
with 20 records is modified ?
20. B + tree are preferred to binary tree
(A) ? EOF ( ) Prints. T
in database because
(B) ? BOF ( ) Prints F
(A) Disk capacities are greater than
(C) ? BOF ( ) Prints T
memory capacities
(D) ? EOF ( ) Prints F
(B) Disk access much slower than
memory access
25. The SQL Expression
(C) Disk data transfer rates are Select distinct T. branch name from
much less than memory data branch T, branch S where T. assets >
transfer rate S. assets and S. branch-city
(D) Disk are more reliable than = DELHI, finds the name of
memory (A) all branches that have greater
asset than any branch located
in DELHI.
21. What deletes the entire file except (B) all branches that have greater
the file structure ? assets than allocated in
DELHI.
(A) ERASE
(C) the branch that has the greatest
(B) DELETE asset in DELHI.
(C) ZAP (D) any branch that has greater
asset than any branch located
(D) PACK in DELHI.
Paper-II 4 D-87-11
26. Dijkestra banking algorithm in an 30. Consider a logical address space of 8
operating system, solves the problem of pages of 1024 words mapped with
memory of 32 frames. How many
(A) deadlock avoidance
bits are there in the physical address ?
(B) deadlock recovery
(A) 9 bits (B) 11 bits
(C) mutual exclusion
(C) 13 bits (D) 15 bits
(D) context switching

27. The multiuser operating system, 20 31. CPU does not perform the operation
requests are made to use a particular
(A) data transfer
resource per hour, on an average the
probability that no request are made (B) logic operation
in 45 minutes is
(C) arithmetic operation
(A) e–15 (B) e–5
(D) all of the above
(C) 1 – e–5 (D) 1 – e–10

28. On receiving an interrupt from an 32. A chip having 150 gates will be
I/O device, the CPU classified as
(A) halts for predetermined time. (A) SSI (B) MSI
(B) branches off to the interrupt (C) LSI (D) VLSI
service routine after
completion of the current
instruction. 33. If an integer needs two bytes of
(C) branches off to the interrupt storage, then the maximum value of
service routine immediately. unsigned integer is

(D) hands over control of address (A) 216 – 1

bus and data bus to the
(B) 215 – 1
interrupting device.
(C) 216
29. The maximum amount of (D) 215
information that is available in one
portion of the disk access arm for a
removal disk pack (without further 34. Negative numbers cannot be
movement of the arm with multiple represented in
heads)
(A) signed magnitude form
(A) a plate of data
(B) a cylinder of data (B) 1’s complement form

(C) a track of data (C) 2’s complement form

(D) a block of data (D) none of the above
D-87-11 5 Paper-II
35. The cellular frequency reuse factor 39. All of the following are examples of
for the cluster size N is real security and privacy risks except
(A) N (A) Hackers

(B) N2 (B) Spam

1 (C) Viruses
(C)
N (D) Identify theft
1
(D)
N2
40. Identify the incorrect statement :
(A) The ATM adoption layer is not
36. X – = Y + 1 means service dependent.
(A) X = X – Y + 1 (B) Logical connections in ATM
are referred to as virtual
(B) X = –X – Y – 1
channel connections.
(C) X = –X + Y + 1
(C) ATM is streamlined protocol
(D) = X – Y – 1 with minimal error and flow
control capabilities
(D) ATM is also known as cell
37. Handoff is the mechanism that
delays.
(A) transfer an ongoing call from
one base station to another
41. Software risk estimation involves
(B) initiating a new call following two tasks :
(C) dropping an ongoing call (A) Risk magnitude and risk
(D) none of above impact
(B) Risk probability and risk
impact
38. Which one of the following
statement is false ? (C) Risk maintenance and risk
impact
(A) Context-free languages are
(D) Risk development and risk
closed under union.
impact
(B) Context-free languages are
closed under concatenation.
42. The number of bits required for an
(C) Context-free languages are
IPV address is
closed under intersection. 6

(D) Context-free languages are (A) 16 (B) 32

closed under Kleene closure. (C) 64 (D) 128
Paper-II 6 D-87-11
43. The proposition ~ qvp is equivalent 47. Web Mining is not used in which of
–
to the following areas ?
(A) Information filtering
(A) p → q (B) q →p
(B) Crime fighting on the internet
(C) p↔ q (D) p ∨ q
(C) Online transaction processing
(D) Click stream analysis.
44. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
(A) has existed for over a decade.
48. A telephone conference call is an
(B) does not integrate well with example of which type of
the functional areas other than communications ?
operations.
(A) same time / same place
(C) is inexpensive to implement.
(B) same time / different place
(D) automate and integrates the
majority of business processes. (C) different time / different place
(D) different time / same place
45. Which of the following is false
concerning Enterprise Resource
Planning (ERP) ? 49. What is the probability of choosing
correctly an unknown integer
(A) It attempts to automate and between 0 and 9 with 3 chances ?
integrate the majority of
963
business processes. (A) 1000
(B) It shares common data and
practices across the enterprise. 973
(B) 1000
(C) It is inexpensive to implement.
983
(D) It provides and access (C)
1000
information in a real-time
environment. 953
(D) 1000

46. To compare, overlay or cross

analyze to maps in GIS 50. The number of nodes in a complete
(A) both maps must be in digital binary tree of height h (with roots at
form level 0) is equal to

(B) both maps must be at the same (A) 20 + 21 + ….. 2h

equivalent scale. (B) 20 + 21 + ….. 2h – 1
(C) both maps must be on the same
(C) 20 + 21 + ….. 2h + 1
coordinate system
(D) All of the above (D) 21 + ….. 2h + 1

D-87-11 7 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

D-0109
Paper-II 8 P.T.O.
D-87-11
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
D 87 1 1
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top
of this page.
2. Answer to short answer/essay type questions are to be
given in the space provided below each question or
after the questions in the Test Booklet itself.
No Additional Sheets are to be used.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question
booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you
are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily
examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not
accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not
accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced
immediately by a correct booklet from the
invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given.
4. Read instructions given inside carefully.
5. One page is attached for Rough Work at the end of the
booklet before the Evaluation Sheet.
6. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except
for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may
disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ
any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
7. You have to return the test booklet to the invigilators at
the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
8. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
9. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
D-87-11
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 19
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5. ˆ¢Ö¸ü-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †®ŸÖ ´Öë Ûú““ÖÖ ÛúÖ´Ö (Rough Work) Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûêú
×»Ö‹ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö ¿Öß™ü ÃÖê ¯ÖÆü»Öê ‹Ûú ¯Öéšü פüµÖÖ Æãü†Ö Æîü …
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9. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûêú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖòÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü ÛúÖ
¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS

PAPER – III
¯ÖÏ¿−Ö¯Ö¡Ö – III

Note : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections. Candidates
are required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to the
detailed instructions given therein.
Answer to all questions must be written in English only.

D-87-11 2
 SECTION – I

Note : This section consists of two essay type questions of twenty (20) marks each, to be
answered in about five hundred (500) words each. (2 × 20 = 40 marks)

1. (a) Compare and contrast the TCP/IP Stack with the OSI model. What factor do
you think will affect setting an appropriate TCP time out period before the
sending host performs a retransmission ?
(b) Briefly explain the major difference between Ethernet V2.0 and IEEE 802.3.
OR
(a) What are the necessary and sufficient conditions for Deadlock ? Explain in
brief each of them.
(b) What is a semaphore and how it is used to prevent entry in the critical section ?

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2. (a) What do you mean by a software process ? What is the difference between a
methodology and a process ? What problem will a Software Development
house face if it does not follow any systematic process in its software
development efforts ?
(b) Which are the major phases in the waterfall model of software development ?
Which phase consumes the maximum effort ?
OR
(a) Show that a static two phase locking schedule satisfies the condition for
dynamic two phase locking. Is the converse true ?
(b) Propose a multi version protocol base on locking. Prove that the protocol is
safe. Compare the performance of this protocol with the one based on time
stemp ordering.

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SECTION – II
Note : This section contains three (3) questions. From each of the electives/specializations,
the candidate has to choose only one elective/specialization and answer all the three
questions contained therein. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks and is to be
answered in about three hundred (300) words. (3 × 15 = 45 Marks)
TOC
Elective – I
3. Suppose LCE* and for some positive integer n1 there are n strings in E* , any two of
which are distinguishable with respect to L. Prove that every FA reorganising L must
have at least n states.
4. If L1 & L2 are context free languages L1∪ L2, L1 L2 and L1* are also CFLs.

5. If L1 & L2 are recursively enumerable languages over Σ , then L1 ∪ L2 and L1 ∩ L2

are also recursively enumerable.
OR
Elective – II
Image Processing
3. (a) What are the kinds of degradation that can be easily restored ? Explain inverse
filteration and wiener filteration method.
(b) A source emits 6 symbols with probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16, 1/32, 1/32.
Determine its Huffman code.
D-87-11 11 P.T.O.
4. (a) State and prove Shannon channel capacity theorem.
(b) Explain sub band coding. What is the significance of down sampling and up
sampling in sub band coding ?
5. (a) What is image registration ? And explain image to image registration.
(b) Explain turbo and convulsional codes.
OR
Elective – III
3. Solve the following Linear Programming Problem by the Revised Simplex Method :
Maximize Z = 2x1 + 2x2
Subject to 3x1 + 4x2 ≤ 6
6x1 + x2 ≤ 3
x1, x2 ≥ 0

4. Goods have to be transported from source S1, S2 and S3 to destination D1, D2 and D3.
The transportation cost per unit, capacities of the sources and requirements of the
destination are given in the following table.
D1 D2 D3 Supply
S1 8 5 6 120
S2 15 10 12 80
S3 3 9 10 8
Demand 150 80 50

What schedule to be used to minimize the transportation cost ?

5. Using the Bellman – Ford Algorithm, find the shortest path.

OR
Elective – IV
3. Compare solving XOR problem using RBF and multilayer perception with one
hidden layer which one would you prefer & why ?

4. A neuron j receives inputs from four other neurons whose activity levels are 10, –20,
4, –2. The respective synaptic weights of neuron j are 0.8, 0.2, –1.0 and –0.9.
Calculate the output of neuron j for the following two situations :
(a) The neuron is linear.
(b) The neuron is represented by a Mc Culloch – Pitts model.
D-87-11 12
 5. Let x be a linguistic variable that measures a university’s academic excellence, which
takes values from the universe of discourse U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}. Suppose
the term set of x includes Excellent, Good, Fair and Bad. The membership functions
of these linguistic labels are listed below :
● µ Excellent = {(8, 0.2), (9, 0.6), (10, 1)}
● µ Good = {(6, 0.1) (7, 0.5) (8, 0.9), (9,1), (10,1)}
● µ Fair = {(2, 0.3) (3, 0.6) (4, 0.9) (5, 1) (6, 0.9) (7, 0.5) (8, 0.1)}
● µ Bad = {(1, 1) (2, 0.7) (3, 0.4) (4, 0.1)}

Construct the membership functions of the following compound sets :

● Not Bad but Not Very Good
● Good but Not Excellent
OR
Elective – V
UNIX
3. (a) Explain terminal emulator under X windows and also explain X clip board.
(b) What are 3 modes of Vi editor and various commands used in them ?

4. (a) What is the use of ‘grep’, ‘egrep’, ‘fgrep’ Command ?

(b) How is client server environment created in X ? Explain 3 command line
options handled by X client.

5. (a) Describe briefly six windows functions usually called while creating a
window.
(b) What is the difference between UNIX and Windows Navigation and directory
control commands ?

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SECTION – III
Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks each, each to be answered
in about fifty (50) words. (9 × 10 = 90 Marks)

6. What is the difference between centralized routing and distributed routing ?

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7. Can a system detect that some of its processes are starving ? If yes, then explain how
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 8. Show how a B– tree and B+ tree can be used to implement a priority queue. Also
show that any sequence of n insertion and minimum deletion can be performed in
o(nlogn) steps.

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9. Obtain the logic diagram of a master-slave JK flip flop with AND and NOR Gates,
include provision for setting and clearing the flip flop asynchronously.

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10. Two binary trees are similar if they are either empty or both non-empty and have
similar left and right sub trees. Write a function in C++ to decide whether two binary
trees are similar. What is the running time of your function ?

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11. Find the Normalization transformation that maps a windows whose lower left is at
(1,1) and Upper right (3, 5) onto a view port that has lower left corner at (0, 0) and
Upper right corner at (½, ½).

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 12. Consider the following piece of Knowledge: Mary, Micky and John are members of
rotary club. Every rotary club member who is not a swimmer is a mountain climber.
Mountain climber do not like rains. Any one who does not like water is not a
swimmer. Micky dislikes whatever Mary likes and likes whatever Mary dislikes.
Mary likes rain and water.
(a) Represent this Knowledge as predicate statement.
(b) Answer the query. Is there a member of Rotary club who is not a mountain
climber but a swimmer using resolution method.

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13. Compare the relative advantages of using the iterative waterfall model and the spiral
model of software development. Explain with the help of few suitable examples, the
types of problem for which you would adopt above models.

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14. What is the basic difference between optimistic concurrency control and other
concurrency control technique. Describe the different phases of an optimistic
concurrency control scheme.

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SECTION – IV
Note : This section contains five (5) questions of five (5) marks each. Each question should
be answered in about thirty (30) words. (5 × 5 = 25 Marks)

15. An eight way set associative cache consists of a total of 256 Blocks. The main
memory contains 8192 blocks, each consisting of 128 words.
(a) How many bits are there in the main memory address ?
(b) How many bits are there in TAG, SET and WORD fields ?

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D-87-11 28
 16. Why does LAN tend to use Broadcast Network ? Why not use Networks consisting of
multiplexer and switches ?

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17. How would you improve a software design that displays very low cohesion and high
coupling ?

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D-87-11 29 P.T.O.
 18. What are the types of collision resolution techniques and the method used in each of
these types ?

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19. Why are segmentation and paging sometimes combined into one scheme ?

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____________

D-87-11 30
 Space For Rough Work

D-87-11 31 P.T.O.
 FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
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D-87-11 32
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
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D 871
1 2
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D-87-12
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Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. Consider the circuit shown below. In a 5. If the disk head is located initially at
certain steady state, Y is at logical ‘l’. 32, find the number of disk moves
What are possible values of A, B, C ? required with FCFS if the disk queue
of I/O blocks requests are 98, 37, 14,
124, 65, 67.
(A) 239
(B) 310
(C) 321
(D) 325

(A) A = 0, B = 0, C = 1
6. Component level design is concerned
(B) A = 0, B = C = 1 with
(C) A = 1, B = C = 0 (A) Flow oriented analysis
(D) A = B = 1, C = 1 (B) Class based analysis
(C) Both of the above
2. The worst case time complexity of
(D) None of the above
AVL tree is better in comparison to
binary search tree for
(A) Search and Insert Operations 7. The ‘C’ language is
(B) Search and Delete Operations (A) Context free language
(C) Insert and Delete Operations
(B) Context sensitive language
(D) Search, Insert and Delete
Operations (C) Regular language
(D) None of the above
3. The GSM network is divided into the
following three major systems : 8. The Mobile Application Protocol
(A) SS, BSS, OSS (MAP) typically runs on top of which
(B) BSS, BSC, MSC protocol ?
(C) CELL, BSC, OSS
(D) SS, CELL, MSC (A) SNMP (Simple Network
Management Protocol)
4. The power set of the set {} is (B) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer
(A) {} Protocol)
(B) {, {}} (C) SS7 (Signalling System 7)
(C) {0} (D) HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer
(D) {0, , {}} Protocol)
Paper-II 2 D-87-12
9. If a packet arrive with an M-bit value 14. Given memory partitions of 100 K,
is ‘l’ and a fragmentation offset value 500 K, 200 K, 300 K and 600 K (in
‘0’, then it is ______ fragment. order) and processes of 212 K, 417 K,
(A) First 112 K, and 426 K (in order), using the
(B) Middle first-fit algorithm, in which partition
would the process requiring 426 K be
(C) Last
placed ?
(D) All of the above (A) 500 K
(B) 200 K
10. The number of bit strings of length (C) 300 K
eight that will either start with a 1 bit (D) 600 K
or end with two bits 00 shall be
(A) 32 15. What is the size of the Unicode
(B) 64 character in Windows Operating
(C) 128 System ?
(D) 160 (A) 8-Bits
(B) 16-Bits
(C) 32-Bits
11. In compiler design ‘reducing the
strength’ refers to (D) 64-Bits
(A) reducing the range of values of
input variables. 16. In which tree, for every node the height
of its left subtree and right subtree
(B) code optimization using cheaper
differ almost by one ?
machine instructions.
(A) Binary search tree
(C) reducing efficiency of program. (B) AVL tree
(D) None of the above (C) Threaded Binary Tree
(D) Complete Binary Tree
12. In which addressing mode, the
effective address of the operand is 17. The design issue of Datalink Layer in
generated by adding a constant value to OSI Reference Model is
the contents of register ? (A) Framing
(A) Absolute (B) Representation of bits
(B) Indirect (C) Synchronization of bits
(C) Immediate (D) Connection control
(D) Index
18. Given the following expressions of a
13. Which of the following is true ? grammar
E  E * F / F + E / F
(A) A relation in BCNF is always in
3NF. F  F – F / id
(B) A relation in 3NF is always in Which of the following is true ?
BCNF. (A) * has higher precedence than +
(C) BCNF and 3NF are same. (B) – has higher precedence than *
(D) A relation in BCNF is not in (C) + and – have same precedence
3NF. (D) + has higher precedence than *
D-87-12 3 Paper-II
19. The maturity levels used to measure a 24. RAD stands for ______.
process are (A) Rapid and Design
(A) Initial, Repeatable, Defined,
Managed, Optimized. (B) Rapid Aided Development
(B) Primary, Secondary, Defined, (C) Rapid Application Development
Managed, Optimized. (D) Rapid Application Design
(C) Initial, Stating, Defined,
Managed, Optimized.
25. Suppose that someone starts with a
(D) None of the above
chain letter. Each person who receives
the letter is asked to send it on to 4
20. The problem of indefinite blockage of other people. Some people do this,
low-priority jobs in general priority while some do not send any letter.
scheduling algorithm can be solved How many people have seen the letter,
using : including the first person, if no one
(A) Parity bit receives more than one letter and if the
chain letter ends after there have been
(B) Aging
100 people who read it but did not send
(C) Compaction it out ? Also find how many people
(D) Timer sent out the letter ?
(A) 122 & 22
21. Which API is used to draw a circle ? (B) 111 & 11
(A) Circle ( )
(C) 133 & 33
(B) Ellipse ( )
(D) 144 & 44
(C) Round Rect ( )
(D) Pie ( )
26. A hash function f defined as f (key) =
22. In DML, RECONNCT command key mod 13, with linear probing is
cannot be used with used to insert keys 55, 58, 68, 91, 27,
145. What will be the location of 79 ?
(A) OPTIONAL Set
(B) FIXED Set (A) 1
(C) MANDATOR Set (B) 2
(D) All of the above (C) 3
(D) 4
23. Coaxial cables are categorized by
Radio Government rating are adapted
for specialized functions. Category 27. Which of the following is true while
RG-59 with impedance 75  used for converting CFG to LL(I) grammar ?
(A) Cable TV (A) Remove left recursion alone
(B) Ethernet (B) Factoring grammar alone
(C) Thin Ethernet (C) Both of the above
(D) Thick Ethernet (D) None of the above
Paper-II 4 D-87-12
28. Identify the Risk factors which are 32. The User Work Area (UWA) is a set
associated with Electronic payment of Program variables declared in the
system. host program to communicate the
contents of individual records between
(A) Fraudulent use of Credit Cards.
(A) DBMS & the Host record
(B) Sending Credit Card details over
(B) Host program and Host record
internet.
(C) Host program and DBMS
(C) Remote storage of Credit Card
(D) Host program and Host language
details.
(D) All of the above
33. Consider the tree given below :

29. Which of the following are two special

functions that are meant for handling
exception, that occur during exception
handling itself ?
(A) Void terminate ( ) and Void
unexpected ( )
(B) Non void terminate ( ) and void Using the property of eccentricity of a
unexpected ( ) vertex, find every vertex that is the
(C) Void terminate ( ) and non void centre of the given tree.
unexpected ( ) (A) d & h
(D) Non void terminate ( ) and non (B) c & k
void unexpected ( ) (C) g, b, c, h, i, m
(D) c & h

30. Which of the following memory

allocation scheme suffers from external 34. The maximum number of keys stored
fragmentation ? in a B-tree of order m and depth d is
(A) md + 1 – 1
(A) Segmentation
md+1 – 1
(B) Pure demand paging (B) m–1
(C) Swapping (C) (m – 1) (md + 1 – 1)
(D) Paging md – 1
(D) m – 1

31. Basis path testing falls under 35. Which of the following is the most
(A) system testing powerful parring method ?
(B) white box testing (A) LL(I)
(B) Canonical LR
(C) black box testing
(C) SLR
(D) unit testing (D) LALR
D-87-12 5 Paper-II
36. In UNIX, which of the following 40. Given an empty stack, after performing
command is used to set the task push (1), push (2), Pop, push (3), push
priority ? (4), Pop, Pop, push(5), Pop, what is the
(A) init value of the top of the stack ?
(B) nice (A) 4
(C) kill (B) 3
(D) PS (C) 2
(D) 1
37. AES is a round cipher based on the
Rijndal Algorithm that uses a 128-bit
41. Enumeration is a process of
block of data. AES has three different
configurations. ______ rounds with a (A) Declaring a set of numbers
key size of 128 bits, ______ rounds (B) Sorting a list of strings
with a key size of 192 bits and ______ (C) Assigning a legal values possible
rounds with a key size of 256 bits. for a variable
(A) 5, 7, 15 (D) Sequencing a list of operators
(B) 10, 12, 14
(C) 5, 6, 7 42. Which of the following mode
(D) 20, 12, 14 declaration is used in C++ to open a
file for input ?
38. Match the following IC families with (A) ios : : app
their basic circuits : (B) in : : ios
a. TTL 1. NAND (C) ios : : file
b. ECL 2. NOR
(D) ios : : in
c. CMOS 3. Inverter
Code :
a b c 43. Data Encryption Techniques are
particularly used for ______.
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 (A) protecting data in Data
Communication System.
(C) 2 3 1
(B) reduce Storage Space
(D) 2 1 3
Requirement.
(C) enhances Data Integrity.
39. Match the following with respect to (D) decreases Data Integrity.
C++ data types :
a. User defined type 1. Qualifier 44. Let L be a set accepted by a non-
b. Built in type 2. Union deterministic finite automaton. The
c. Derived type 3. Void number of states in non-deterministic
d. Long double 4. Pointer finite automaton is |Q|. The maximum
number of states in equivalent finite
Code :
automaton that accepts L is
a b c d
(A) |Q|
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2|Q|
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 2 3 (C) 2|Q| – 1
(D) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2|Q|

Paper-II 6 D-87-12
45. What is the result of the following 49. Identify the operation which is
expression ? commutative but not associative ?
(1 & 2) + (3 & 4) (A) OR
(A) 1 (B) NOR
(B) 3 (C) EX-OR
(C) 2 (D) NAND
(D) 0
50. Given a Relation POSITION (Posting-
46. Back propagation is a learning No, Skill), then query to retrieve all
technique that adjusts weights in the distinct pairs of posting-nos. requiring
neural network by propagating weight skill is
changes. (A) Select p.posting-No, p.posting-
(A) Forward from source to sink No
(B) Backward from sink to source from position p
(C) Forward from source to hidden where p.skill = p.skill
nodes and p.posting-No < p.posting-No
(D) Backward from since to hidden
nodes
(B) Select p1.posting-No, p2.posting-
No
47. Match the following : from position p1, position p2
a. TTL 1. High fan out
where p1.skill = p2.skill
b. ECL 2. Low propagation delay
c. CMOS 3. High power dissipation
(C) Select p1.posting-No, p2.posting-
Code :
No
a b c
from position p1, position p2
(A) 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 where p1.skill = p2.skill
(C) 1 3 2 and p1.posting-No < p2.posting-
(D) 3 1 2 No

48. ______ is an “umbrella” activity that is (D) Select p1.posting-No, p2.posting-

applied throughout the software No
engineering process. from position p1, position p2
(A) Debugging
where p1.skill = p2.skill
(B) Testing
and p1.posting-No = p2.posting-
(C) Designing
No
(D) Software quality assurance
D-87-12 7 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 8 D-87-12
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
D 871
1 2
Time : 2 /2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
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D-87-12
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.

1. Eco system is a Frame work for 5. ______ is process of extracting

(A) Building a Computer System previously non known valid and
(B) Building Internet Market actionable information from large data
(C) Building Offline Market to make crucial business and strategic
decisions.
(D) Building Market
(A) Data Management
2. The efficiency (E) and speed up (sp) (B) Data base
for Multiprocessor with p processors (C) Data Mining
satisfies : (D) Meta Data
(A) E  p and sp  p
(B) E  1 and sp  p 6. The aspect ratio of an image is defined
as
(C) E  p and sp  1
(A) The ratio of width to its height
(D) E  1 and sp  1 measured in unit length.
(B) The ratio of height to width
3. Match the following : measured in number of pixels.
List – I List – II (C) The ratio of depth to width
a. Critical region 1. Hoares Monitor measured in unit length.
b. Wait/signal 2. Mutual exclusion (D) The ratio of width to depth
measured in number of pixels.
c. Working set 3. Principal of
locality
d. Dead lock 4. Circular wait 7. Which of the following features will
Codes : characterize an OS as multi-
programmed OS ?
a b c d
(a) More than one program may be
(A) 2 1 3 4
loaded into main memory at the
(B) 1 2 4 3 same time.
(C) 2 3 1 4 (b) If a program waits for certain
(D) 1 3 2 4 event another program is
immediately scheduled.
4. The technique of temporarily delaying
outgoing acknowledgements so that (c) If the execution of a program
they can be hooked onto the next terminates, another program is
outgoing data frame is known as immediately scheduled.
(A) Bit stuffing (A) (a) only
(B) Piggy backing (B) (a) and (b) only
(C) Pipelining (C) (a) and (c) only
(D) Broadcasting (D) (a), (b) and (c) only

Paper-III 2 D-87-12
8. Using RSA algorithm, what is the 11. The time complexities of some
value of cipher text C, if the plain text standard graph algorithms are given.
M = 5 and p = 3, q = 11 & d = 7 ? Match each algorithm with its time
(A) 33 complexity ? (n and m are no. of nodes
(B) 5 and edges respectively)
(C) 25 a. Bellman Ford 1. O (m log n)
(D) 26 algorithm
b. Kruskals algorithm 2. O (n3)
9. You are given an OR problem and a c. Floyd Warshall 3. O(mn)
XOR problem to solve. Then, which algorithm
one of the following statements is
true ? d. Topological sorting 4. O(n + m)
(A) Both OR and XOR problems Codes :
can be solved using single layer a b c d
perception. (A) 3 1 2 4
(B) OR problem can be solved using
(B) 2 4 3 1
single layer perception and XOR
problem can be solved using self (C) 3 4 1 2
organizing maps. (D) 2 1 3 4
(C) OR problem can be solved using
radial basis function and XOR
problem can be solved using 12. Let V1 = 2I – J + K and V2 = I + J – K,
single layer perception. then the angle between V1 & V2 and a
(D) OR problem can be solved using vector perpendicular to both V1 & V2
single layer perception and XOR shall be :
problem can be solved using
radial basis function. (A) 90 and (–2I + J – 3K)
(B) 60 and (2I + J + 3K)
10. Match the following : (C) 90 and (2I + J – 3K)
List – I List – II (D) 90 and (–2I – J + 3K)
a. Application 1. TCP
layer
b. Transport 2. HDLC 13. Consider a fuzzy set A defined on the
layer interval X = [0, 10] of integers by the
membership Junction
c. Network 3. HTTP
layer x
A(x) = x + 2
d. Data link 4. BGP
layer Then the  cut corresponding to
Codes :  = 0.5 will be
a b c d (A) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3 (D) { }

D-87-12 3 Paper-III
14. Let T(n) be the function defined by 19. Identify the following activation
T(n) = 1 and T(n) = 2T (n/2) + n, function :
which of the following is TRUE ? 1
(V) = Z + 1 + exp (– x V + Y) ,
(A) T(n) = O( n) *
(B) T(n) = O(log2n) Z, X, Y are parameters
(C) T(n) = O(n) (A) Step function
(D) T(n) = O(n2) (B) Ramp function
(C) Sigmoid function
15. In classful addressing, an IP address (D) Gaussian function
123.23.156.4 belongs to ______ class
format. 20. The no. of ways to distribute n
(A) A distinguishable objects into k
(B) B distinguishable boxes, so that ni objects
(C) C are placed into box i, i = 1, 2, …. k
(D) D equals which of the following ?
n!
16. The Mandelbrot set used for the (A) n ! + n ! + ..... + n !
1 2 k
construction of beautiful images is
n1! + n2! + ..... + nk!
based on the following transformation : (B) n1! n2! n3! ..... nk!
xn + 1= x2n + z
Here, n!
(C) n1! n2! n3! ..... nk!
(A) Both x & z are real numbers.
(B) Both x & z are complex numbers. n1! n2! ..... nk!
(D) n1! – n2! – n3! ..... – nk!
(C) x is real & z is complex.
(D) x is complex & z is real.
21. How many solutions do the following
17. Which of the following permutations equation have
can be obtained in the output using a
x1 + x2 + x3 = 11
stack of size 3 elements assuming that
input, sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ? where x1  1, x2  2, x3  3
(A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (A) C(7, 11)
(B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) C(11, 3)
(C) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 (C) C(14, 11)
(D) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 (D) C(7, 5)

18. In a Linear Programming Problem,

22. Which provides an interface to the
suppose there are 3 basic variables and
TCP/IP suit protocols in Windows95
2 non-basic variables, then the possible
and Windows NT ?
number of basic solutions are
(A) 6 (A) FTP Active-X Control
(B) 8 (B) TCP/IP Active-X Control
(C) 10 (C) Calinsock Active-X Control
(D) 12 (D) HTML Active-X Control
Paper-III 4 D-87-12
23. What are the final values of Q1 and Q0 27. In an enhancement of a CPU design,
after 4 clock cycles, if initial values are the speed of a floating point unit has
00 in the sequential circuit shown been increased by 20% and the speed
below : of a fixed point unit has been increased
by 10%. What is the overall speed
achieved if the ratio of the number of
floating point operations to the number
of fixed point operations is 2 : 3 and
the floating point operation used to
(A) 11 take twice the time taken by the fixed
point operation in original design ?
(B) 10
(C) 01 (A) 1.62
(D) 00 (B) 1.55
(C) 1.85
24. If dual has an unbounded solution, then
its corresponding primal has (D) 1.285
(A) no feasible solution
(B) unbounded solution
28. The initial basic feasible solution to the
(C) feasible solution following transportation problem using
(D) none of these Vogel’s approximation method is
D1 D2 D3 D4 Supply
25. The number of distinct bracelets of five
beads made up of red, blue, and green S1 1 2 1 4 30
beads (two bracelets are S2 3 3 2 1 50
indistinguishable if the rotation of one
yield another) is, S3 4 2 5 9 20
(A) 243 Demand 20 40 30 10
(B) 81
(A) x11 = 20, x13 = 10, x21 = 20,
(C) 51
x23 = 20, x24 = 10, x32 = 10,
(D) 47
Total cost = 180

26. Which are the classifications of data (B) x11 = 20, x12 = 20, x13 = 10,
used in Mobile Applications ?
x22 = 20, x23 = 20, x24 = 10,
(A) Private data, User data, Shared
data. Total cost = 180
(B) Public data, User data, Virtual
(C) x11 = 20, x13 = 10, x22 = 20,
data.
x23 = 20, x24 = 10, x32 = 10,
(C) Private data, Public data, Shared
data. Total cost = 180
(D) Public data, Virtual data, User
data. (D) None of the above

D-87-12 5 Paper-III
29. 58 lamps are to be connected to a single 33. The Z-buffer algorithm is used for
electric outlet by using an extension Hidden surface removal of objects. The
board each of which has four outlets. maximum number of objects that can
The number of extension boards needed be handled by this algorithm shall
to connect all the light is (A) Depend on the application
(A) 29 (B) be arbitrary no. of objects
(B) 28 (C) Depend on the memory
(C) 20 availability
(D) 19 (D) Depend on the processor

30. Match the following with respect to the 34. The power set of AUB, where
Mobile Computing Architecture. A = {2, 3, 5, 7} and B = {2, 5, 8, 9} is
a. Downlink 1. 100 Mbps (A) 256
control (B) 64
b. Radio 2. Residency (C) 16
communication latency (RL) (D) 4
data rate
c. The average 3. Sending data
duration of user’s from a BS to 35. In Win32, which function is used to
stay in cell MD create Windows Applications ?
d. FDDI 4. 2-Mbps (A) Win APP
bandwidth (B) Win API
Codes : (C) Win Main
a b c d (D) Win Void
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1 36. Suppose a processor does not have any
stack pointer registers, which of the
(C) 4 1 2 1
following statements is true ?
(D) 4 3 1 2
(A) It cannot have subroutine call
instruction.
31. Which of the following flags are set (B) It cannot have nested subroutine
when ‘JMP’ instruction is executed ? calls.
(A) SF and CF (C) Interrupts are not possible.
(B) AF and CF (D) All subroutine calls and
(C) All flags interrupts are possible.
(D) No flag is set
37. Everything below the system call
32. A thread is a light weight process. In interface and above the physical
the above statement, weight refers to hardware is known as ______.
(A) time (A) Kernel
(B) number of resources (B) Bus
(C) speed (C) Shell
(D) All the above (D) Stub
Paper-III 6 D-87-12
38. Which is not the correct statement ? 42. The grammar ‘G1’
(A) The class of regular sets is closed S  OSO| ISI | 0|1| and the grammar
under homomorphisms. ‘G2’ is
S  as |asb| X, X  Xa | a.
(B) The class of regular sets is not
Which is the correct statement ?
closed under inverse
homomorphisms. (A) G1 is ambiguous, G2 is
unambiguous
(C) The class of regular sets is closed (B) G1 is unambiguous, G2 is
under quotient. ambiguous
(D) The class of regular sets is closed (C) Both G1 and G2 are ambiguous
under substitution. (D) Both G1 and G2 are
unambiguous

39. When a programming Language has 43. Consider n processes sharing the CPU
the capacity to produce new datatype, in round robin fashion. Assuming that
it is called as, each process switch takes s seconds.
(A) Overloaded Language What must be the quantum size q such
that the overhead resulting from
(B) Extensible Language
process switching is minimized but, at
(C) Encapsulated Language the same time each process is
guaranteed to get its turn at the CPU at
(D) Abstraction Language
least every t seconds ?
t – ns
(A) q  n – 1
40. Which of the following operating
system is better for implementing t – ns
(B) q  n – 1
client-server network ?
t – ns
(A) Windows 95 (C) q  n + 1
(B) Windows 98 t – ns
(D) q  n + 1
(C) Windows 2000
(D) All of these
44. The Default Parameter Passing
Mechanism is called as
41. Consider a system having m resources (A) Call by Value
of the same type. These resources are (B) Call by Reference
shared by 3 processes A, B and C (C) Call by Address
which have peak demands of 3, 4 and 6 (D) Call by Name
respectively. For what value of m
deadlock will not occur ?
45. Which of the following regular
(A) 7 expression identities are true ?
(B) 9 (A) (r + s)* = r* s*
(B) (r + s)* = r* + s*
(C) 10
(C) (r + s)* = (r*s*)*
(D) 13 (D) r* s* = r* + s*
D-87-12 7 Paper-III
46. Two graphs A and B are shown below : 50. Which of the following definitions
Which one of the following statement generates the same Language as L,
is true ? where L = {WWR | W  {a, b}*}
(A) S  asb|bsa|
(B) S  asa|bsb|
(C) S  asb|bsa|asa|bsb|
(D) S  asb|bsa|asa|bsb

51. Suppose there are logn sorted lists of n

(A) Both A and B are planar. logn elements each. The time
(B) Neither A nor B is planar.
complexity of producing a sorted list of
(C) A is planar and B is not. all these elements is
(D) B is planar and A is not. (use heap data structure)
(A) O (n log logn)
47. The minimum number of states of the
non-deterministic finite automation (B)  (n logn)
which accepts the language (C)  (n logn)
{a b a bn|n  0}  {a b an|n  0} is (D)  (n3/2)
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 52. Consider the program below in a
hypothetical programming language
48. Functions defined with class name are which allows global variables and a
called as choice of static or dynamic scoping
(A) Inline function int i;
(B) Friend function program Main( )
(C) Constructor {
(D) Static function i = 10;
call f ( );
}
49. Let f be the fraction of a computation
(in terms of time) that is parallelizable, procedure f( )
P the number of processors in the {
system, and sp the speed up achievable int i = 20;
call g ( );
in comparison with sequential }
execution – then the sp can be
procedure g( )
calculated using the relation : {
1 print i;
(A) 1 – f – f/P
}
P Let x be the value printed under static
(B) scoping and y be the value printed
P – f(P + 1)
under dynamic scoping. Then x and y
1 are
(C) 1 – f + f/P (A) x = 10, y = 20
(B) x = 20, y = 10
P (C) x = 20, y = 20
(D) P + f(P – 1)
(D) x = 10, y = 10
Paper-III 8 D-87-12
53. If the parse tree of a word w generated
by a Chomsky normal form grammar
has no path of length greater than i,
then the word w is of length
(A) no greater than 2i+1
(B) no greater than 2i
(C) no greater than 2i–1
(D) no greater than i
54. The Object Modelling Technique
(OMT) uses the following three kinds
of model to describe a system
(A) Class Model, Object Model and
Analysis Model.
(B) Object Model, Dynamic Model,
and Functional Model.
(C) Class Model, Dynamic Model
and Functional Model.
(D) Object Model, Analysis Model
and Dynamic Model.
55. The factors that determine the quality
of a software system are
(A) correctness, reliability
(B) efficiency, usability, maintain-
ability
(C) testability, portability, accuracy,
error tolerances, expandability,
access control, audit.
(D) All of the above
56. If a relation with a Schema R is
decomposed into two relations R1 and
R2 such that (R1  R2) = R1 then
which one of the following is to be
satisfied for a lossless joint
decomposition ( indicates functional
dependency)
(A) (R1  R2)  R1 or R1  R2  R2
(B) R1  R2  R1
(C) R1  R2  R2
(D) R1  R2  R1and R1  R2  R2
D-87-12
57. Given the following statements :
(i) Recursive enumerable sets are
closed under complementation.
(ii) Recursive sets are closed under
complementation.
Which is/are the correct statements ?
(A) only (i)
(B) only (ii)
(C) both (i) and (ii)
(D) neither (i) nor (ii)
58. Skolmization is the process of
(A) bringing all the quantifiers in the
beginning of a formula in FDL.
(B) removing all the universal
quantifiers.
(C) removing all the existential
quantifiers.
(D) all of the above.
59. Which level of Abstraction describes
how data are stored in the data base ?
(A) Physical level
(B) View level
(C) Abstraction level
(D) Logical level
60. The transform which possesses the
“multi-resolution” property is
(A) Fourier transform
(B) Short-time-Fourier transform
(C) Wavelet transform
(D) Karhunen-Loere transform
61. Which one is a collection of templates
and rules ?
(A) XML
(B) CSS
(C) DHTML
(D) XSL
9 Paper-III
62. A program P calls two subprograms P1 66. Match the following with respect to
and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 HTML tags and usage.
40% times. Then P can fail a. CITE 1. Italic
representation
(A) 50%
b. EM 2. Represents output
(B) 60% from programmes
(C) 10% c. VAR 3. Represents to
(D) 70% other source
d. SAMP 4. Argument to a
programme
63. Third normal form is based on the Codes :
concept of ______.
a b c d
(A) Closure Dependency
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) Transitive Dependency (B) 2 3 1 4
(C) Normal Dependency (C) 4 2 3 1
(D) Functional Dependency (D) 1 3 4 1

64. If the Fourier transform of the function 67. An expert system shell is an expert
f(x, y) is F(m, n), then the Fourier system without
transform of the function f(2x, 2y) is : (A) domain knowledge
1 m n  (B) explanation facility
(A) 4 F  2 , 2
  (C) reasoning with knowledge
1 (D) all of the above
(B) 4 F (2m, 2n)
1 68. An example of a dictionary-based
(C) 4 F (m, n) coding technique is
1 m n  (A) Run-length coding
(D) 4 F  4 , 4
  (B) Huffman coding
(C) Predictive coding
65. ______ establishes information about (D) LZW coding
when, why and by whom changes are
made in a software.
69. Which is the method used to retrieve
(A) Software Configuration the current state of a check box ?
Management.
(A) get State ( )
(B) Change Control.
(B) put State ( )
(C) Version Control. (C) retrieve State ( )
(D) An Audit Trail. (D) write State ( )
Paper-III 10 D-87-12
70. Referential integrity is directly related 73. Match the following :
to a. Supervised 1. The decision
learning system receives
(A) Relation key
rewards for its
(B) Foreign key action at the end
of a sequence of
(C) Primary key steps.
(D) Candidate key b. Unsupervised 2. Manual labels of
learning inputs are not
used.
c. Re- 3. Manual labels of
71. You are given four images represented inforcement inputs are used.
as learning
 0 0   0 1  d. Inductive 4. System learns by
I1 =   , I2 =  ,
 0 0   0 0  learning example
Codes :
 0 1   1 1 
I3 =   , I4 =   a b c d
 1 0   1 0 
(A) 1 2 3 4
The value of entropy is maximum for (B) 2 3 1 4
image
(C) 3 2 4 1
(A) I1 (D) 3 2 1 4

(B) I2
74. A* algorithm is guaranteed to find an
(C) I3 optimal solution if
(A) h' is always 0.
(D) I4 (B) g is always 1.
(C) h' never overestimates h.
(D) h' never underestimates h.
72. A cryptarithmetic problem of the type
SEND 75. Let (x, y, z) be the statement “x + y = z”
and let there be two quantifications
+ MORE
given as
MONEY (i) x y Z (x, y, z)
Can be solved efficiently using (ii) Z x y (x, y, z)
Where x, y, z are real numbers. Then
(A) depth first technique which one of the following is correct ?
(B) breadth first technique (A) (i) is true and (ii) is true.
(B) (i) is true and (ii) is false.
(C) constraint satisfaction technique (C) (i) is false and (ii) is true.
(D) bidirectional technique (D) (i) is false and (ii) is false.

D-87-12 11 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 12 D-87-12
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
D 871
1 3
Time : 1 /4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will
not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate
copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
D-87-13
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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ÝÖμÖê ÆüÖë μÖÖ ÃÖß׸üμÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆüÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖË ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü Ûúß
¡Öã×™ü¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü ®Ö Ûú¸ëü ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ˆÃÖê
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‡ÃÖÛêú ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ü פüμÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛêú ²ÖÖ¤ü ®Ö
ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛúß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖμÖêÝÖß †Öî¸ü ®Ö Æüß †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. When data and acknowledgement are 6. FAN IN of a component A is defined

sent in the same frame, this is called as
as (A) Number of components that
(A) Piggy packing can call or pass control to
component A.
(B) Piggy backing
(B) Number of components that are
(C) Back packing called by component A.
(D) Good packing (C) Number of components related
to component A.
2. Encryption and Decryption is the (D) Number of components
responsibility of _______ Layer. dependent on component A.
(A) Physical
7. The relationship of data elements in a
(B) Network
module is called
(C) Application
(A) Coupling
(D) Datalink (B) Modularity
(C) Cohesion
3. An analog signal carries 4 bits in (D) Granularity
each signal unit. If 1000 signal units
are sent per second, then baud rate
8. Software Configuration Management
and bit rate of the signal are _______
is the discipline for systematically
and _______.
controlling
(A) 4000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps (A) the changes due to the
(B) 2000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps evolution of work products as
(C) 1000 bauds \ sec & 500 bps the project proceeds.
(D) 1000 bauds \ sec & 4000 bps (B) the changes due to defects
(bugs) being found and then
fixed.
4. The VLF and LF bauds use _______ (C) the changes due to requirement
propagation for communication. changes
(A) Ground (B) Sky (D) all of the above
(C) Line of sight (D) Space
9. Which one of the following is not a
5. Using the RSA public key crypto step of requirement engineering ?
system, if p = 13, q = 31 and d = 7, (A) Requirement elicitation
then the value of e is (B) Requirement analysis
(A) 101 (B) 103 (C) Requirement design
(C) 105 (D) 107 (D) Requirement documentation
Paper-II 2 D-87-13
10. Testing of software with actual data 15. Data Integrity control uses _______
and in actual environment is called (A) Upper and lower limits on
(A) Alpha testing numeric data.
(B) Beta testing (B) Passwords to prohibit
unauthorised access to files.
(C) Regression testing (C) Data dictionary to keep the data
(D) None of the above (D) Data dictionary to find last
access of data
11. The student marks should not be
greater than 100. This is 16. What does the following declaration
(A) Integrity constraint mean ?
int (*ptr) [10];
(B) Referential constraint (A) ptr is an array of pointers of 10
(C) Over-defined constraint integers.
(D) Feasible constraint (B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10
integers.
(C) ptr is an array of 10 integers.
12. GO BOTTOM and SKIP-3
(D) none of the above.
commands are given one after
another in a database file of 30
17. Which of the following has
records. It shifts the control to
compilation error in C ?
(A) 28th record (B) 27th record (A) int n = 32 ;
(C) 3rd record (D) 4th record (B) char ch = 65 ;
(C) float f = (float) 3.2 ;
13. An ER Model includes (D) none of the above
I. An ER diagram portraying
18. Which of the following operators can
entity types.
not be overloaded in C+ + ?
II. Attributes for each entity type (A) ∗ (B) + =
III. Relationships among entity (C) = = (D) : :
types.
IV. Semantic integrity constraints 19. _________ allows to create classes
that reflects the business rules which are derived from other classes,
about data not captured in the so that they automatically include
ER diagram. some of its “parent’s” members, plus
(A) I, II, III & IV (B) I & IV its own members.
(C) I, II & IV (D) I & III (A) Overloading
(B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism
14. Based on the cardinality ratio and (D) Encapsulation
participation ________ associated
with a relationship type, choose 20. The correct way to round off a floating
either the Foreign Key Design, the number x to an integer value is
Cross Referencing Design or Mutual (A) y = (int) (x + 0.5)
Referencing Design. (B) y = int (x + 0.5)
(A) Entity (B) Constraints (C) y = (int) x + 0.5
(C) Rules (D) Keys (D) y = (int) ((int)x + 0.5)
D-87-13 3 Paper-II
21. What is the value of the postfix 26. Given the following statements :
expression ? S1 : SLR uses follow information to
a b c d + – ∗ (where a = 8, b = 4, guide reductions. In case of LR
c = 2 and d = 5) and LALR parsers, the look-
3 8 aheads are associated with the
(A) – 8 (B) –
3 items and they make use of the
(C) 24 (D) –24 left context available to the parser.
S2 : LR grammar is a larger sub-
22. If the queue is implemented with a class of context free grammar
linked list, keeping track of a front as compared to that SLR and
pointer and a rear pointer, which of LALR grammars.
these pointers will change during an Which of the following is true ?
insertion into a non-empty queue ? (A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not
(A) Neither of the pointers change correct.
(B) Only front pointer changes (B) S1 is not correct and S2 is
(C) Only rear pointer changes correct.
(D) Both of the pointers changes (C) S1 is correct and S2 is not
correct.
23. _______ is often used to prove the (D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
correctness of a recursive function.
(A) Diagonalization 27. The context free grammar for the
(B) Communitivity language
(C) Mathematical Induction L = {an bm | n ≤ m + 3, n ≥ 0, m ≥ 0} is
(A) S → aaa A; A → aAb | B,
(D) Matrix Multiplication
B → Bb | λ
(B) S → aaaA|λ, A → aAb | B,
24. For any B-tree of minimum degree
B → Bb | λ
t ≥ 2, every node other than the root
(C) S → aaaA | aa A | λ, A → aAb | B,
must have atleast ________ keys and
B → Bb| λ
every node can have at most
________ keys. (D) S → aaaA | aa A | aA | λ, A →
aAb | B, B → Bb | λ
(A) t – 1, 2t + 1
(B) t + 1, 2t + 1
28. Given the following statements :
(C) t – 1, 2t – 1 S1 : If L is a regular language then
(D) t + 1, 2t – 1
the language {uv | u ∈ L, v ∈ LR}
is also regular.
25. Given two sorted list of size ‘m’ and S2 : L = {wwR} is regular language.
‘n’ respectively. The number of
comparison needed in the worst case Which of the following is true ?
by the merge sort algorithm will be (A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not
(A) m × n correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(B) max (m, n)
(C) min (m, n) (C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) m + n – 1 (D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
Paper-II 4 D-87-13
29. The process of assigning load 33. The sum of products expansion for
addresses to the various parts of the the function
program and adjusting the code and
F(x, y, z) = (x + y)–z is given as
data in the program to reflect the
assigned addresses is called _______. (A) –x yz
– + xy–z + –x y–z
(A) Symbol resolution
(B) xyz + xy–z + xy– –z
(B) Parsing
(C) x y– –z + –x y– –z + xy–z
(C) Assembly
(D) Relocation (D) x y–z + xy– –z + –x y–z

30. Which of the following derivations 34. Let P(m, n) be the statement
does a top-down parser use while “m divides n” where the universe of
parsing an input string ? The input is discourse for both the variables is the
scanned from left to right. set of positive integers. Determine
(A) Leftmost derivation the truth values of each of the
(B) Leftmost derivation traced out following propositions :
in reverse I. ∀m ∀n P(m, n),
(C) Rightmost derivation traced out II. ∃m ∀n P(m, n)
in reverse
(A) Both I and II are true
(D) Rightmost derivation
(B) Both I and II are false
(C) I – false & II – true
31. The dual of a Boolean expression is
obtained by interchanging (D) I – true & II – false
(A) Boolean sums and Boolean
products 35. Big – O estimate for
(B) Boolean sums and Boolean f(x) = (x + 1) log(x2 + 1) + 3x2 is
products or interchanging 0’s given as
and 1’s (A) O(x log x)
(C) Boolean sums and Boolean
(B) O(x2)
products and interchanging 0’s
& 1’s (C) O(x3)
(D) Interchanging 0’s and 1’s (D) O(x2 log x)

32. Given that (292)10 = (1204)x in some 36. How many edges are there in a forest
of t-trees containing a total of n
number system x. The base x of that
vertices ?
number system is
(A) 2 (A) n + t
(B) 8 (B) n–t
(C) 10 (C) n∗t
(D) None of the above (D) nt
D-87-13 5 Paper-II
37. Let f and g be the functions from the 41. Active X controls are Pentium binary
set of integers to the set integers programs that can be embedded in
defined by ________
f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 2 (A) Word pages
Then the composition of f and g and (B) URL pages
g and f is given as (C) Script pages
(A) 6x + 7, 6x + 11 (D) Web pages
(B) 6x + 11, 6x + 7
(C) 5x + 5, 5x + 5 42. Match the following :
(D) None of the above
List – I List – II
a. Wireless i. HTTP
38. If n and r are non-negative integers
Application
and n ≥ r, then p(n + 1, r) equals to Environment
p(n, r) (n + 1)
(A) b. Wireless ii. IP
(n + 1 – r)
Transaction
p(n, r) (n + 1) Protocol
(B) (n – 1 + r)
c. Wireless iii. Scripts
p(n, r) (n – 1) Datagram
(C) (n + 1 – r) Protocol
p(n, r) (n + 1) d. Wireless iv. UDP
(D) (n + 1 + r) Codes :
a b c d
39. A graph is non-planar if and only if it
(A) ii iv i iii
contains a subgraph homomorphic to
(B) iv iii ii i
(A) K3, 2 or K5 (B) K3, 3 and K6
(C) iv iii i ii
(C) K3, 3 or K5 (D) K2, 3 and K5
(D) iii i iv ii

40. Which of the following statements 43. Which of the following is widely
are true ? used inside the telephone system for
I. A circuit that adds two bits, long-haul data traffic ?
producing a sum bit and a carry (A) ISDN
bit is called half adder. (B) ATM
II. A circuit that adds two bits, (C) Frame Relay
producing a sum bit and a carry
(D) ISTN
bit is called full adder.
III. A circuit that adds two bits and
a carry bit producing a sum bit 44. The document standards for EDI
and a carry bit is called full were first developed by large
adder. business house during the 1970s and
IV. A device that accepts the value are now under the control of the
of a Boolean variable as input following standard organisation :
and produces its complement is (A) ISO
called an inverter. (B) ANSI
(A) I & II (B) II & III (C) ITU-T
(C) I, II, III (D) I, III & IV (D) IEEE
Paper-II 6 D-87-13
45. Electronic Data Interchange Software
consists of the following four layers :
(A) Business application, Internal
format conversion, Network
translator, EDI envelope
(B) Business application, Internal
format conversion, EDI
translator, EDI envelope
(C) Application layer, Transport
layer, EDI translator, EDI
envelope
(D) Application layer, Transport
layer, IP layer, EDI envelope
46. Consider a preemptive priority based
scheduling algorithm based on
dynamically changing priority.
Larger priority number implies
higher priority. When the process is
waiting for CPU in the ready queue
(but not yet started execution), its
priority changes at a rate a = 2. When
it starts running, its priority changes
at a rate b = 1. All the processes are
assigned priority value 0 when they
enter ready queue. Assume that the
following processes want to execute :
Process Arrival Service
ID Time Time
P1 0 4
P2 1 1
P3 2 2
P4 3 1
The time quantum q = 1. When two
processes want to join ready queue
simultaneously, the process which
has not executed recently is given
priority. The finish time of processes
P1, P2, P3 and P4 will respectively
be
(A) 4, 5, 7 and 8
(B) 8, 2, 7 and 5
(C) 2, 5, 7 and 8
(D) 8, 2, 5 and 7
47. The virtual address generated by a
CPU is 32 bits. The Translation
Look-aside Buffer (TLB) can hold
total 64 page table entries and a
4-way set associative (i.e. with 4-
cache lines in the set). The page size
is 4 KB. The minimum size of TLB
tag is
(A) 12 bits
(B) 15 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 20 bits
48. Consider a disk queue with request
for input/output to block on cylinders
98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67
in that order. Assume that disk head
is initially positioned at cylinder 53
and moving towards cylinder number
0. The total number of head
movements using Shortest Seek Time
First (SSTF) and SCAN algorithms
are respectively
(A) 236 and 252 cylinders
(B) 640 and 236 cylinders
(C) 235 and 640 cylinders
(D) 235 and 252 cylinders
49. How much space will be required to
store the bit map of a 1.3 GB disk
with 512 bytes block size ?
(A) 332.8 KB
(B) 83.6 KB
(C) 266.2 KB
(D) 256.6 KB
50. Linux operating system uses
(A) Affinity Scheduling
(B) Fair Preemptive Scheduling
(C) Hand Shaking
(D) Highest Penalty Ratio Next

D-87-13 7 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 8 D-87-13
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
D 87 1 3
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
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any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
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identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
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OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate
copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
D-87-13
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
1. If the primal Linear Programming 5. Function points can be calculated by
problem has unbounded solution, (A) UFP ∗ CAF
then it’s dual problem will have (B) UFP ∗ FAC
(C) UFP ∗ Cost
(A) feasible solution (D) UFP ∗ Productivity
(B) alternative solution
(C) no feasible solution at all 6. Match the following :
(D) no bounded solution at all List – I List – II
a. Data i. Module A and
2. Given the problem to maximize coupling Module B have
f(x), X = (x1, x2,......xn) shared data
b. Stamp ii. Dependency between
subject to m number of inequality coupling modules is based on
constraints. the fact they
gi(x) ≤ bi, i = 1, 2......m communicate by
including the non-negativity only passing of data
constraints x ≥ 0. c. Common iii. When complete data
Which of the following conditions is coupling structure is passed
a Kuhn-Tucker necessary condition from one module to
another
for a local maxima at –x ? d. Content iv. When the control is
– – – coupling passed from one
∂L(X, λ , S)
(A) = 0, j = 1, 2….m module to the middle
∂xj of another
– – Codes :
(B) λi [gi (X) – bi]= 0, i = 1, 2 ….m a b c d
– (A) iii ii i iv
(C) gi (X) ≤ bi, i = 1, 2 ….m (B) ii iii i iv
(D) All of these (C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii ii iv i
3. The following Linear Programming
problem has : 7. A process which defines a series of
tasks that have the following four
Max Z = x1 + x2 primary objectives is known as
Subject to x1 – x2 ≥ 0 1. to identify all items that collectively
define the software configuration.
3x1 – x2 ≤ –3 2. to manage changes to one or more
and x1, x2 ≥ 0 of these items.
3. to facilitate the construction of
(A) Feasible solution different versions of an application.
(B) No feasible solution 4. to ensure that software quality is
(C) Unbounded solution maintained as the configuration
(D) Single point as solution evolves over time.
4. Given a flow graph with 10 nodes, (A) Software Quality Management
13 edges and one connected Process
components, the number of regions (B) Software Configuration
Management Process
and the number of predicate (decision) (C) Software Version Management
nodes in the flow graph will be Process
(A) 4, 5 (B) 5, 4 (D) Software Change Management
(C) 3, 1 (D) 13, 8 Process
Paper-III 2 D-87-13
8. One weakness of boundary value 11. Match the following style rules for
analysis and equivalence partitioning is reusability :
(A) they are not effective. List – I List – II
(B) they do not explore a. Keep i. Write a method to
combinations of input methods get the last element
circumstances. coherent of a list
(C) they explore combinations of
b. Keep ii. Maintain parallel
input circumstances.
methods structure when
(D) none of the above.
small possible
9. Which once of the following is not a c. Keep iii. Breaking a method
software myth ? methods into smaller parts
(A) Once we write the program and consistent
get it to work, our job is done. d. Provide iv. Performs a single
(B) Project requirements continually uniform function or a group
change, but change can be coverage of closely related
easily accommodated because functions.
software is flexible. Codes :
(C) If we get behind schedule, we a b c d
can add more programmers and
(A) iv iii ii i
catch up.
(D) If an organization does not (B) ii i iv iii
understand how to control (C) iii iv ii i
software projects internally, it (D) ii iii iv i
will invariably struggle when it
outsources software projects. 12. Which is the protocol for performing
RPCs between applications in a
10. Match the following with respect to
language and system independent
relationship between objects and classes :
way ?
List – I List – II
a. State i. Useful for both (A) Hyper Text Transmission
diagram abstract modelling Protocol (HTTP)
and for designing (B) Simple Network Management
actual program Protocol (SNMP)
b. Object ii. Describes object (C) Simple Object Access Protocol
diagram classes (SOAP)
c. Class iii. Useful for (D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
diagram documenting test (SMTP)
cases
d. Instance iv. Describing the 13. The document that is used by XSLT
diagram behaviour of a single to indicate, how to transform the
class of objects. elements of the XML document to
Codes : another format is
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii (A) HTML page
(B) ii iii iv i (B) DOC type procedure
(C) iii iv ii i (C) Style sheet
(D) ii iv i iii (D) Stored procedure
D-87-13 3 Paper-III
14. Which of the following concepts 19. Important advantage of using new
means adding new concepts to a and delete operators in C++ is
program as it runs ? (A) Allocation of memory
(A) Data hiding (B) Frees the memory previously
(B) Dynamic loading allocated
(C) Dynamic typing (C) Initialization of memory easily
(D) Dynamic binding (D) Allocation of memory and
frees the memory previously
15. Which of the following correctly allocated.
describes overloading of functions ?
(A) Virtual polymorphism 20. Match the following control
(B) Transient polymorphism strategies of prolog :
(C) Ad-hoc polymorphism List – I List – II
(D) Pseudo polymorphism a. Forward i. Variable can be
movement done with a
16. Match the following with respect to constant, another
programming languages : variable or a
List – I List – II function.
a. Structured i. JAVA b. Unifica- ii. The entire
Language tion conjunctive goal is
b. Non-structured ii. BASIC executed.
Language c. Deep back- iii. Previous sub goal
c. Object Oriented iii. PASCAL tracking to find alternative
Programming solutions.
Language d. Shallow iv. Chooses sub goal
d. Interpreted iv. FORTRAN
back- with possible
Programming
Language tracking unifier.
Codes : Codes :
a b c d a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii (A) iv i ii iii
(B) iv iii ii i (B) ii iv i iii
(C) ii iv i iii (C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iii iv i (D) ii iii iv i
17. The compiler converts all operands upto 21. Given the following statements :
the type of the largest operand is called S1 : The grammars S → asb | bsa |
(A) Type Promotion
ss | a and S → asb | bsa | a are
(B) Type Evaluation
(C) Type Conversion not equivalent.
(D) Type Declaration S2 : The grammars S → ss | sss |
asb | bsa | λ and S → ss | asb |
18. C++ actually supports the following
bsa | λ are equivalent.
two complete dynamic systems :
(A) One defined by C++ and the Which of the following is true ?
other not defined by C. (A) S1 is correct and S2 is not
(B) One defined by C and one correct.
specific to C++ (B) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
(C) Both are specific to C++ (C) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(D) Both of them are improvements
of C (D) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.

Paper-III 4 D-87-13
22. What are the final values of Q1 and Q0 26. The mean-end analysis process
after 4 clock cycles, if initial values are centers around the detection of
00 in the sequential circuit shown differences between the current state
below : and goal state. Once such a
difference is isolated, an operator that
can reduce the difference must be
found. But perhaps that operator can
not be applied to the current state. So
a sub-problem of getting to a state in
which it can be applied is set up. The
kind of backward chaining in which
(A) 11 (B) 10 operators are selected and then sub
(C) 01 (D) 00 goals are set up to establish the
precondition of operators is called
23. High level knowledge which relates (A) backward planning
to the use of sentences in (B) goal stack planning
different contexts and how the (C) operator subgoaling
context affect the meaning of the (D) operator overloading
sentences ? 27. In alpha-beta pruning, _________ is
(A) Morphological used to cut off the search at
(B) Syntactic maximizing level only and
(C) Semantic _________ is used to cut off the
(D) Pragmatic search at minimizing level only.
(A) alpha, beta
(B) beta, alpha
24. The objective of ________
(C) alpha, alpha
procedure is to discover at least one
(D) beta, beta
________ that causes two literals to
match. 28. If A and B are two fuzzy sets with
(A) unification, validation membership functions
(B) unification, substitution μA(x) = {0.2, 0.5, 0.6, 0.1, 0.9}
(C) substitution, unification μB(x) = {0.1, 0.5, 0.2, 0.7, 0.8}
(D) minimax, maximum Then the value of μA ∩ B will be
(A) {0.2, 0.5, 0.6, 0.7, 0.9}
25. If h* represents an estimate of (B) {0.2, 0.5, 0.2, 0.1, 0.8}
the cost of getting from the current (C) {0.1, 0.5, 0.6, 0.1, 0.8}
node N to the goal node and h (D) {0.1, 0.5, 0.2, 0.1, 0.8}
represents actual cost of getting from
the current node to the goal node, 29. The height h(A) of a fuzzy set A is
then A* algorithm gives an optimal defined as
solution if h(A) = sup A(x)
(A) h* is equal to h x∈A
Then the fuzzy set A is called normal
(B) h* overestimates h when
(C) h* underestimates h (A) h(A) = 0 (B) h(A) < 0
(D) none of these (C) h(A) = 1 (D) h(A) < 1

D-87-13 5 Paper-III
30. An artificial neuron receives n inputs 33. The message 11001001 is to be
x1, x2,...., xn with weights w1, w2,...., wn transmitted using the CRC
attached to the input links. The polynomial x3 + 1 to protect it from
weighted sum ________ is computed errors. The message that should be
to be passed on to a non-linear filter transmitted is
φ called activation function to release (A) 110010011001
the output. (B) 11001001
(A) Σ wi (B) Σ xi (C) 110010011001001
(C) Σ wi + Σ xi (D) Σ wi ⋅ xi (D) 11001001011

31. Consider the formula in image 34. _________ comparisons are

processing necessary in the worst case to find
1 both the maximum and minimum of
RD = 1 – C n numbers.
R
n1 (A) 2n – 2
Where CR = n (B) n + floor (lg n) – 2
2 ⎛3n⎞
(C) floor ⎜ 2 ⎟ – 2
CR is called as compression ratio ⎝ ⎠
n1 and n2 denotes the number of (D) 2 lg n – 2
information carrying units in two
datasets that represent the same 35. Let A and B be two n × n matrices.
information. In this situation RD is The efficient algorithm to multiply
called as relative _________ of the the two matrices has the time
first data set. complexity
(A) Data Compression (A) O(n3) (B) O(n2.81)
(B) Data Redundancy (C) O(n2.67) (D) O(n2)
(C) Data Relation
(D) Data Representation ⎛n⎞
36. The recurrence relation T(n) = m T⎜2⎟ tan2
⎝ ⎠
32. Find the false statement : is satisfied by
(A) In Modern Cryptography,
symmetric key algorithms use (A) O(n2) (B) O(n1g m)
same key both for Encryption (C) O(n2 lg n) (D) O(n 1g n)
and Decryption.
(B) The symmetric cipher DES 37. The longest common subsequence of
(Data Encryption Standard) the sequences X = <A, B, C, B, D, A,
was widely used in the industry B> and Y = <B, D, C, A, B, A> has
for security product. length
(C) The AES (Advanced (A) 2 (B) 3
Encryption Standard) (C) 4 (D) 5
cryptosystem allows variable
key lengths of size 56 bits and 38. Assuming there are n keys and
124 bits. each key is in the range [0, m – 1].
(D) Public key algorithms use two The run time of bucket sort is
different keys for Encryption (A) O(n) (B) O(n lgn)
and Decryption. (C) O(n lgm) (D) O(n + m)
Paper-III 6 D-87-13
39. A _________ complete subgraph and 43. What is the bit rate for transmitting
a _________ subset of vertices of a uncompressed 800 × 600 pixel colour
graph G = (V, E) are a clique and a frames with 8 bits/pixel at 40
vertex cover respectively. frames/second ?
(A) minimal, maximal (A) 2.4 Mbps
(B) minimal, minimal (B) 15.36 Mbps
(C) maximal, maximal (C) 153.6 Mbps
(D) maximal, minimal (D) 1536 Mbps
44. In IPV 4, the IP address
40. Pumping lemma for context-free
200.200.200.200 belongs to
languages states :
(A) Class A (B) Class B
Let L be an infinite context free (C) Class C (D) Class D
language. Then there exists some
positive integer m such that any w ∈ L 45. Which layer of OSI reference model
with |w| ≥ m can be decomposed as is responsible for decomposition
w = uv xy Z with |vxy| _________ of messages and generation of
. . sequence numbers to ensure correct
and |vy| _________ such that uvz xyz
re-composition from end to end of
.
Z ∈ L for all z = 0, 1, 2, ....... . the network ?
(A) ≤ m, ≤ 1 (B) ≤ m, ≥ 1 (A) Physical (B) Data-link
(C) ≥ m, ≤ 1 (D) ≥ m, ≥ 1 (C) Transport (D) Application

41. The Greibach normal form grammar 46. A client-server system uses a satellite
for the language L = {an bn + 1 | n ≥ 0} network, with the satellite at a height
is of 40,000 kms. What is the best-case
delay in response to a request ? (Note
(A) S → a SB, B → bB | λ
that the speed of light in air is
(B) S → a SB, B → bB | b 3,00,000 km/second).
(C) S → a SB | b, B → b (A) 133.33 m sec
(D) S → a Sb | b (B) 266.67 m sec
(C) 400.00 m sec
42. Given the following statements : (D) 533.33 m sec
S1 : Every context-sensitive
language L is recursive. 47. The start and stop bits are used in
serial communication for
S2 : There exists a recursive
(A) error detection
language that is not context (B) error correction
sensitive. (C) synchronization
Which statement is correct ? (D) slowing down the
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not communication
correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is 48. _________ is a type of transmission
correct. impairment in which the signal
looses strength due to the resistance
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not
of the transmission medium.
correct. (A) Attenuation (B) Distortion
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct. (C) Noise (D) Decibel
D-87-13 7 Paper-III
49. Match the following : 52. Serial access memories are useful in
List – I List – II applications where
a. Indexed i. is not used when an (A) Data consists of numbers
Addressing operand is moved (B) Short access time is required
from memory into a (C) Each stored word is processed
register or from a differently.
register to memory.
b. Direct ii. Memory address is (D) None of these
Addressing computed by
adding up two 53. What will be the output of the
registers plus an following logic diagram ?
(optional) offset.
c. Register iii. Addressing
Addressing memory by giving
a register plus a
content offset.
d. Base- iv. can only be used to
Indexed access global (A) x OR y
Addressing variables whose (B) x AND y
address is known (C) x XOR y
at compile time. (D) x XNOR y
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii 54. The essential difference between
(B) ii iv i iii traps and interrupts is
(C) iii iv i ii (A) traps are asynchronous and
(D) iii i iv ii interrupts are synchronous with
the program.
50. Which of the following is a design (B) traps are synchronous and
criteria for instruction formats ? interrupts are asynchronous
(A) The size of instructions with the program.
(B) The number of bits in the (C) traps are synchronous and
address fields interrupts are asynchronous
(C) The sufficient space in the with the I/O devices.
instruction format to express all (D) None of these.
the operations desired.
(D) All of these
55. Consider the following ER diagram :
51. Synchronization is achieved by a
timing device called a ________
which generates a periodic train of
________.
(A) clock generator, clock pulse The minimum number of tables
(B) master generator, clock pulse required to represent M, N, P, R1, R2
(C) generator, clock is
(D) master clock generator, clock (A) 2 (B) 3
pulse (C) 4 (D) 5
Paper-III 8 D-87-13
56. Consider the following schemas : 58. Consider the table
Branch = (Branch-name, Assets, Student (stuid, name, course, marks).
Branch-city) Which one of the following two
queries is correct to find the highest
Customer = (Customer-name, Bank
marks student in course 5 ?
name, Customer-city)
Q.1. Select S.stuid
Borrow = (Branch-name, loan From student S
number, customer account-number) Where not exists
Deposit = (Branch-name, Account- (select ∗ from student e where
number, Customer-name, Balance) e course = ‘5’ and e marks ≥ s
Using relational Algebra, the Query marks)
that finds customers who have Q.2. Select s.stu.id
balance more than 10,000 is _______ From student S
(A) πcustomer-name (σbalance > Where s ⋅ marks > any
(select distinct marks from
10000(Deposit) student S where s ⋅ course = 5)
(B) σcustomer-name (σbalance > (A) Q. 1
(B) Q. 2
10000(Deposit)
(C) Both Q. 1 and Q. 2
(C) πcustomer-name (σbalance > (D) Neither Q. 1 nor Q. 2
10000(Borrow)
59. Armstrong (1974) proposed
(D) σcustomer-name (πbalance > systematic approach to derive
10000(Borrow)
functional dependencies. Match the
following w.r.t. functional
dependencies :
57. Find the false statement : List – I List – II
(A) The relationship construct a. Decom- i. If X → Y and
known as the weak relationship position Z → W then
type was defined by Dey,
rule {X, Z} → {Y, W}
Storey & Barron (1999) b. Union rule ii. If X → Y and
(B) A weak relationship occurs {Y, W}→Z then
{X, W} → Z
when two relationship types are
linked by either Event-
c. Com- iii. If X → Y and X → Z
position then X → {Y, Z}
Precedent sequence or rule
Condition-Precedent sequence. d. Pseudo iv. If X → {Y, Z}
(C) Conceptual model is not transitivity then X → Y and
accurate representation of rule X→Z
“Universe of interest”. Codes :
(D) Ternary, Quaternary and a b c d
Quintary relationships are (A) iii ii iv i
shown through a series of (B) i iii iv ii
application scenario’s and (C) ii i iii iv
vignette’s. (D) iv iii i ii
D-87-13 9 Paper-III
60. Match the following : 63. Given below are three basic rules :
List – I List – II I. Squash and Stretch
a. Secondary i. Functional II. Slow-in and Slow-out
III. To stage the action properly
Index Dependency These rules are applied in case of
b. Non- ii. B-Tree (A) Rendering
procedural (B) Morphing
Query (C) Animation
Language (D) All the above
c. Closure of iii. Relational Algebraic 64. Which of the following points lies on
set of Operation the same side as the origin, with
Attributes reference to the line 3x + 7y = 2 ?
d. Natural iv. Domain Calculus (A) (3, 0) (B) (1, 0)
(C) (0.5, 0.5) (D) (0.5, 0)
JOIN
Codes : 65. The transformation matrix required
a b c d for conversion of CMY colour model
(A) i ii iv iii to RGB colour model is given as :
(B) ii i iv iii ⎡ R ⎤ ⎡ C ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤
(C) i iii iv ii (A) ⎢⎢ G ⎥⎥ = ⎢⎢ M ⎥⎥ – ⎢⎢ 1 ⎥⎥
(D) ii iv i iii ⎣ B ⎦ ⎣ Y ⎦ ⎣ 1 ⎦
⎡ R ⎤ ⎡ C ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤
61. Which of the following is not true (B) ⎢⎢ G ⎥⎥ = ⎢⎢ M ⎥⎥ – ⎢⎢ 2 ⎥⎥
with respect to a trackball and/or ⎣ B ⎦ ⎣ Y ⎦ ⎣ 3 ⎦
spaceball ? ⎡ R ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤ ⎡ C ⎤
I. A trackball is a two (C) ⎢⎢ G ⎥⎥ = ⎢⎢ 1 ⎥⎥ – ⎢⎢ M ⎥⎥
dimensional positioning device ⎣ B ⎦ ⎣ 1 ⎦ ⎣ Y ⎦
while as a spaceball provides ⎡ R ⎤ ⎡ C ⎤ ⎡ 0.5 ⎤
six degrees of freedom. (D) ⎢⎢ G ⎥⎥ = ⎢⎢ M ⎥⎥ – ⎢⎢ 0.5 ⎥⎥
II. Unlike the trackball a spaceball ⎣ B ⎦ ⎣ Y ⎦ ⎣ 0.5 ⎦
does not actually move. 66. What steps shall be required to rotate
III. A trackball is a three an object about the point P1 (as shown
dimensional positioning device
while as a spaceball provides in fig. 1) and its placement such that
six degrees of freedom. what was at P1 is now reduced and is
(A) I & II (B) II & III at P2 (as shown in fig. 2) ?
(C) II only (D) III only
62. Which of the following statement(s)
is (are) true ?
I. Two successive translations are
additive.
II. Two successive rotations are I. Translate P1 to origin
additive.
III. Two successive scaling II. Scale as required
III. Rotate
operations are multiplicative.
IV. Translate to the final position P2.
(A) I and II
(B) I and III (A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) II and III (C) I, III & IV
(D) All the above (D) All of the above
Paper-III 10 D-87-13
67. In Unix, how do you check that 72. The directory structure used in Unix
two given strings a and b are file system is called
equal ? (A) Hierarchical directory
(A) test $a –eq $b
(B) test $a –equal $b (B) Tree structured directory
(C) test $a = $b (C) Directed acyclic graph
(D) Sh –C test $a = = $b (D) Graph structured directory
68. In windows 2000 operating system
all the processor-dependent code is 73. Which statement is not true about
isolated in a dynamic link library process O in the Unix operating
called system ?
(A) NTFS file system (A) Process O is called init process.
(B) Hardware abstraction layer
(C) Microkernel (B) Process O is not created by
(D) Process Manager fork system call.
(C) After forking process 1,
69. To place a sound into a word process O becomes swapper
document, following feature of process.
windows is used :
(A) Clip board (D) Process O is a special
(B) Task switching process created when system
(C) C Win App boots.
(D) OLE

70. Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) is 74. Which of the following commands
(A) a cache-memory in which would return process_id of sleep
item to be searched is command ?
compared one-by-one with the (A) Sleep 1 and echo $?
keys.
(B) Sleep 1 and echo $#
(B) a cache-memory in which item
to be searched is compared (C) Sleep 1 and echo $×
with all the keys (D) Sleep 1 and echo $!
simultaneously.
(C) an associative memory in
which item to be searched is 75. Possible thread states in
compared one-by-one with the Windows 2000 operating system
keys. include :
(D) an associative memory in (A) Ready, running and waiting
which item to be searched is
compared with all the keys (B) Ready, standby, running,
simultaneously. waiting, transition and
terminated
71. Simplest way of deadlock recovery is
(C) Ready, running, waiting,
(A) Roll back
(B) Preempt resource transition and terminated
(C) Lock one of the processes (D) Standby, running, transition
(D) Kill one of the processes and terminated

D-87-13 11 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 12 D-87-13
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
S
1
87 1 3
Time : 1 /4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
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S-87-13
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
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[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
The candidates are required to select the most appropriate answer for each question.
All questions are compulsory.
1. A file is downloaded in a home
computer using a 56 kbps MODEM
connected to an Internet Service
Provider. If the download of file
completes in 2 minutes, what is the
maximum size of data downloaded ?
(A) 112 Mbits (B) 6.72 Mbits
(C) 67.20 Mbits (D) 672 Mbits
2. In ______ CSMA protocol, after the
station finds the line idle, it sends or
refrains from sending based on the
outcome of a random number generator.
(A) Non-persistent
(B) 0-persistent
(C) 1-persistent
(D) p-persistent
3. Which of the following substitution
technique have the relationship
between a character in the plaintext
and a character in the ciphertext as
one-to-many ?
(A) Monoalphabetic
(B) Polyalphabetic
(C) Transpositional
(D) None of the above
4. What is the maximum length of
CAT-5 UTP cable in Fast Ethernet
network ?
(A) 100 meters (B) 200 meters
(C) 1000 meters (D) 2000 meters
5. The ______ is a set of standards that
defines how a dynamic web document
should be written, how input data
should be supplied to the program, and
how the output result should be used.
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) File Transfer Protocol
(C) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(D) Common Gateway Interface
Paper-II
6. The count-to-infinity problem is
associated with
(A) Flooding algorithm
(B) Hierarchical routing algorithm
(C) Distance vector routing
algorithm
(D) Link state routing algorithm
7. The IEEE single-precision and
double-precision format to represent
floating-point numbers, has a length
of ______ and ______ respectively.
(A) 8 bits and 16 bits
(B) 16 bits and 32 bits
(C) 32 bits and 64 bits
(D) 64 bits and 128 bits
8. Consider an undirected graph G with
100 nodes. The maximum number of
edges to be included in G so that the
graph is not connected is
(A) 2451 (B) 4950
(C) 4851 (D) 9900
9. The amortized time complexity to
perform ______ operation(s) in Splay
trees is O(Ig n).
(A) Search
(B) Search and Insert
(C) Search and Delete
(D) Search, Insert and Delete
10. Suppose that the splits at every level of
Quicksort are in proportion 1-β to β,
where 0 < β ≤ 0.5 is a constant. The
number of elements in an array is n.
The maximum depth is approximately
(A) 0.5 β Ig n
(B) 0.5 (1 – β) Ig n
(C) – (Ig n)/(Ig β)
(D) – (Ig n)/Ig (1 – β)
2 S-87-13
11. The minimum number of nodes in a 16. LL grammar for the language
binary tree of depth d (root is at level 0) L = {an bm cn+m | m≥0, n≥0} is
is (A) S → aSc | S1 ; S1 → bS1c | λ
(A) 2d – 1 (B) 2d + 1 – 1
(C) d + 1 (D) d (B) S → aSc | S1| λ ; S1 → bS1c
(C) S → aSc | S1| λ ; S1 → bS1c| λ
12. The efficient data structure to (D) S → aSc | λ ; S1 → bS1c| λ
insert/delete a number in a stored set
of numbers is
(A) Queue 17. Assume the statements S1 and S2
(B) Linked list given as :
(C) Doubly linked list S1 : Given a context free grammar
(D) Binary tree G, there exists an algorithm for
determining whether L(G) is
13. The number of states in a minimal infinite.
deterministic finite automaton S2 : There exists an algorithm to
corresponding to the language
determine whether two context
L = { an | n≥4 } is
free grammars generate the
(A) 3 (B) 4 same language.
(C) 5 (D) 6
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is correct and S2 is not
14. Regular expression for the language
L = { w ∈ {0, 1}* | w has no pair of correct.
consecutive zeros} is (B) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
(A) (1 + 010)* (C) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.
(B) (01 + 10)*
(D) S1 is not correct and S2 is
(C) (1 + 010)* (0 + λ)
correct.
(D) (1 + 01)* (0 + λ)

15. Consider the following two 18. The number of eight-bit strings
languages : beginning with either 111 or 101 is
______.
L1 = {an bl ak | n + l +k>5 }
(A) 64
L2 = {an bl ak |n>5, l >3, k≤ l }
(B) 128
Which of the following is true ? (C) 265
(A) L1 is regular language and L2 is
(D) None of the above
not regular language.
(B) Both L1 and L2 are regular
19. Find the number of ways to paint 12
languages. offices so that 3 of them will be
(C) Both L1 and L2 are not regular green, 2 of them pink, 2 of them
languages. yellow and the rest ones white.
(D) L1 is not regular language and (A) 55,440 (B) 1,66,320
L2 is regular language. (C) 4.790E+08 (D) 39,91,680
S-87-13 3 Paper-II
20. Consider the following statements : 24. The quantification ∃!x P(x) denotes
(i) A graph in which there is a the proposition “There exists a
unique path between every pair unique x such that P(x) is true”,
of vertices is a tree. express the quantification using
(ii) A connected graph with e = v – 1 universal and existential
is a tree. quantifications and logical operators :
(A) ∃x P(x) ∨ ∀x∀y ((P(x) ∨ P(y))
(iii) A graph with e = v – 1 that has
no circuit is a tree. → x = y)
(B) ∀ x P(x) ∧ ∀x∀y ((P(x) ∨ P(y))
Which of the above statements is/are
→ x = y)
true ?
(C) ∃x P(x) ∧ ∀x∀y ((P(x) ∧ P(y))
(A) (i) & (iii)
→ x = y)
(B) (ii) & (iii) (D) ∃x P(x) ∧ ∃x∃y ((P(x) ∨ P(y))
(C) (i) & (ii) → x = y)
(D) All of the above
25. If F and G are Boolean functions of
21. Consider the In-order and Post-order degree n. Then, which of the
traversals of a tree as given below : following is true ?
(A) F ≤ F + G and F G ≤ F
In-order : j e n k o p b f a c l g m d h i
(B) G ≤ F + G and F G ≥ G
Post-order : j n o p k e f b c l m g h i d a (C) F ≥ F + G and F G ≤ F
The Pre-order traversal of the tree (D) G ≥ F + G and F G ≤ F
shall be
(A) a b f e j k n o p c d g l m h i 26. Match the following identities/laws
(B) a b c d e f j k n o p g l m h i to their corresponding name :
(C) a b e j k n o p f c d g l m h i (a) x + x = x i. Dominance
x•x=x
(D) j e n o p k f b c l m g h i d a
(b) x + 0 = x ii. Absorption
x•1=x
22. A simple graph G with n-vertices is (c) x + 1 = 1 iii. Idempotent
connected if the graph has x•0=0
(A) (n – 1) (n – 2)/2 edges (d) x • (x + y) = x iv. Identity
(B) more than (n – 1) (n – 2)/2 Codes :
edges (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iii iv i ii
(C) less than (n – 1) (n – 2)/2 edges
(B) iv iii i ii
(D) ∑ki=1 C(ni, 2) edges (C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv ii i
23. Which one of the following set of
27. In which one of the following,
gates is best suited for ‘parity’
continuous process improvement is
checking and ‘parity’ generation ?
done ?
(A) AND, OR, NOT (A) ISO9001
(B) NAND, NOR (B) RMMM
(C) EX-OR, EX-NOR (C) CMM
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above

Paper-II 4 S-87-13
28. The ______ of a program or 33. What is the size of the following
computing system is the structure or Union ? Assume that the size of
structures of the system, which int = 2, size of float = 4, size of
comprise software components, the char = 1
externally visible properties of these union tag {
components, and the relationship int a;
among them. float b;
(A) E-R diagram char c;
(B) Data flow diagram
};
(C) Software architecture
(D) Software design (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 7
29. Working software is not available
until late in the process in 34. What is the output of the following
(A) Waterfall model program segment ?
(B) Prototyping model sum(n)
(C) Incremental model {
(D) Evolutionary Development if ( n < 1 ) return n;
model else return (n + sum(n–1));
}
30. Equivalence partitioning is a ______ main()
testing method that divides the input
{
domain of a program into classes of
data from which test cases can be printf(“%d”, sum(5));
derived. }
(A) White box (B) Black box (A) 10 (B) 16
(C) Regression (D) Smoke (C) 15 (D) 14

31. Consider the following characteristics : 35. Assume that x and y are non-zero
(i) Correct and unambiguous positive integers. What does the
(ii) Complete and consistent following program segment perform ?
(iii) Ranked for importance and/or while (x!=0)
stability and verifiable {
(iv) Modifiable and Traceable if (x>y)
Which of the following is true for a
x = x-y
good SRS ?
else
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) y=y-x;
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) printf(“%d”,x);
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (A) Computes LCM of two
numbers
32. Linked Lists are not suitable for (B) Computes GCD of two
_____. numbers
(A) Binary Search (C) Divides large number with
(B) Polynomial Manipulation small number
(C) Insertion (D) Subtracts smaller number from
(D) Radix Sort large number
S-87-13 5 Paper-II
36. Consider the following program 42. A method to provide secure
segment : transmission of email is called ____.
d=0; (A) TLS (B) SA
for(i=1; i<31, ++i) (C) IPSec (D) PGP
for(j=1; j<31, ++j)
for(k=1; k<31, ++k) 43. Thoma’s-write rule is ______.
if ((i+j+k)%3)= = 0); (A) Two phase locking protocol
d = d + 1;
(B) Timestamp ordering protocol
printf(“%d”, d);
(C) One phase locking protocol
The output will be
(A) 9000 (B) 3000 (D) Sliding window protocol
(C) 90 (D) 2700
44. Match the following :
37. Usage of Preemption and Transaction List – I List - II
Rollback prevents ______. Process state Reason for
(A) Unauthorised usage of data file transition transition
(B) Deadlock situation a Ready→ i. Request made
(C) Data manipulation Running by the process
(D) File preemption is satisfied or
an event for
38. The _____ language was originally which it was
designed as the Transformation waiting occurs.
Language for Style Sheet facility. b Blocked→ ii. Process wishes
(A) XSTL (B) XML Ready to wait for
(C) XQuery (D) XPath some action by
another
39. Views are useful for _____ unwanted process.
information, and for collecting c Running→ iii. The process is
together information from more than Blocked dispatched.
one relation into a single view. d Running→ iv. The process is
(A) Hiding Ready preempted.
(B) Deleting Codes :
(C) Highlighting a b c d
(D) All of the above
(A) iii i ii iv
40. The decision tree classifier is a (B) iv i iii ii
widely used technique for ______. (C) iv iii i ii
(A) Classification (B) Association (D) iii iii ii i
(C) Partition (D) Clustering
45. The hit ratio of a Translation Look
41. Cross_tab displays permit users to Aside Buffer (TLAB) is 80%. It
view ______ of multidimensional takes 20 nanoseconds (ns) to search
data at a time. TLAB and 100 ns to access main
(A) One dimension memory. The effective memory
(B) Two dimensions access time is ______.
(C) Three dimensions (A) 36 ns (B) 140 ns
(D) Multidimensions (C) 122 ns (D) 40 ns
Paper-II 6 S-87-13
46. Consider the input/output (I/O) 48. Which of the following set of Unix
requests made at different instants of commands will always display
time directed at a hypothetical disk “WELCOME” ?
having 200 tracks as given in the (A) export title=WELCOME; Echo
following table : $title
Serial 1 2 3 4 5 (B) title = WELCOME; export $
No. title ; sh –c “echo $title”
Track 12 85 40 100 75 (C) title = WELCOME; export title ;
No. sh –c “echo $title”
Time of 65 80 110 100 175 (D) title = WELCOME; echo $title
arrival
Assume that : 49. What type of logic circuit is
Current head position is at track no. represented by the figure shown
65 below ?
Direction of last movement is
towards higher numbered tracks
Current clock time is 160
milliseconds
Head movement time per track is
1 millisecond.

“look” is a variant of “SCAN” disk- (A) XOR (B) XNOR

arm scheduling algorithm. In this (C) XAND (D) XNAND
algorithm, if no more I/O requests
are left in current direction, the disk 50. The speed up of a pipeline processing
head reverses its direction. The seek over an equivalent non-pipeline
times in Shortest Seek First (SSF) processing is defined by the ratio :
and “look” disk-arm scheduling n tn
algorithms respectively are : (A) S = (k + n – 1)t
p
(A) 144 and 123 milliseconds
(B) 143 and 123 milliseconds n tn
(B) S = (k + n + 1)t
(C) 149 and 124 milliseconds p
(D) 256 and 186 milliseconds n tn
(C) S = (k – n + 1)t
47. Assume that an implementation of p
Unix operating system uses i-nodes (k + n – 1)tp
to keep track of data blocks allocated (D) S = n tn
to a file. It supports 12 direct block
addresses, one indirect block address Where n → no. of tasks
and one double indirect block tn → time of completion of
address. The file system has 256 each task
bytes block size and 2 bytes for disk
k → no. of segments of
block address. The maximum
pipeline
possible size of a file in this system is
tp → clock cycle time
(A) 16 MB (B) 16 KB
(C) 70 KB (D) 71 KB S → speed up ratio

S-87-13 7 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 8 S-87-13
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
S
1
87 1 3
Time : 2 /2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off
the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not
accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without
polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the
Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra
time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
S-87-13
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ›ãü¯»ÖßÛêú™ü ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
11. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûîú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) μÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü ÛúÖ
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
The candidates are required to select the most appropriate answer for each question.
All questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following is a correct 5. The Blocks World Problem in
predicate logic statement for “Every Artificial Intelligence is normally
Natural number has one successor” ? discussed to explain a _______
(A) ∀x∃y (succ(x, y) ∧ (∃z succ(x, (A) Search technique
z) ⇒ equal (y, z))) (B) Planning system
(B) ∀x∃y (succ(x, y) ∨ (∃z succ(x, (C) Constraint satisfaction system
z) ⇒ equal (y, z))) (D) Knowledge base system
(C) ∃y∀x (succ(x, y) ∧ (∃z succ(x,
z) ⇒ equal (y, z))) 6. Means-Ends Analysis process centres
around the detection of difference
(D) ∀x∃y succ (x, y)
between the current state and the goal
state. Once such a difference is
2. α – β cutoffs are applied to ______ found, then to reduce the difference
(A) Depth first search one applies ______
(B) Best first search (A) a forward search that can
(C) Minimax search reduce the difference.
(D) Breadth first search (B) a backward search that can
reduce the difference.
3. Assume that each alphabet can have a (C) a bidirectional search that can
value between 0 to 9 in a reduce the difference.
CROSS (D) an operator that can reduce the
+ROADS . difference.
cryptoarithmetic problem - - - - - - - -
-DANGER
-------
Which of the following statement is 7. Suppose a file of 10,000 characters is
true ? to be sent over a line at 2400 bps.
(i) No two alphabets can have the Assume that the data is sent in
same numeric value. frames. Each frame consists of 1000
(ii) Any two alphabets may have the characters and an overhead of 48 bits
same numeric value. per frame. Using synchronous
transmission, the total overhead time
(iii) D = 0
is ______.
(iv) D = 1
(A) 0.05 second (B) 0.1 second
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) 0.2 second (D) 2.0 second
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
8. Which of the following is the size of
4. Which of the following is not a part Network bits and Host bits of Class
of an expert system shell ? A of IP address ?
(A) Knowledge Base (A) Network bits 7, Host bits 24
(B) Inference Engine (B) Network bits 14, Host bits 16
(C) Explanation Facility (C) Network bits 15, Host bits 16
(D) None of the above (D) Network bits 16, Host bits 16
Paper-III 2 S-87-13
9. Which of the following field of the 14. An optimal assignment requires that
TCP header tells how many bytes the minimum number of horizontal
may be sent starting at the byte and vertical lines that can be drawn
acknowledged ? to cover all zeros be equal to the
(A) TCP header length number of
(B) Window size (A) rows or columns
(C) Acknowledgement number (B) rows + columns
(D) Urgent pointer (C) rows + columns – 1
(D) rows + columns + 1
10. Which of the following is a bit rate of
an 8-PSK signal having 2500 Hz 15. Which of the following is the
bandwidth ? minimum cost for an assignment
(A) 2500 bps (B) 5000 bps problem given below ?
(C) 7500 bps (D) 20000 bps Jobs
A B C D
11. Match the following : I 5 3 2 8
(a) UDP (i) Message Transfer II 7 9 2 6
Workers
Protocol III 6 4 5 7
(b) OSPF (ii) Bit-oriented Protocol IV 5 7 7 8
(c) SMTP (iii) Interior Gateway (A) 13 (B) 16
Routing Protocol (C) 17 (D) 18
(d) HDLC (iv) Connectionless
Transport Protocol 16. Assume, L is regular language. Let
Codes : statements S1 and S2 be defined as :
(a) (b) (c) (d) S1 : SQRT(L) = { x| for some y
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) with |y| = |x|2, xy ∈L}.
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) S2 : LOG(L) = { x| for some y with
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) |y| = 2|x|, xy ∈ L}.
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is correct and S2 is not
12. Given the IP address 201.14.78.65
correct.
and the subnet mask
(B) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
255.255.255.224. What is the subnet
address ? (C) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.
(A) 201.14.78.32 (B) 201.14.78.64 (D) S1 is not correct and S2 is
(C) 201.14.78.65 (D) 201.14.78.224 correct.

13. If an artificial variable is present in
the ‘basic variable’ of optimal
simplex table then the solution is
______
(A) Alternative solution
(B) Infeasible solution
(C) Unbounded solution
(D) Degenerate solution
S-87-13
17. A regular grammar for the language
L = {anbm | n is even and m is
even}is given by
(A) S→aSb | S1; S1 → bS1a | λ
(B) S→aaS | S1; S1 → bSb | λ
(C) S→aSb | S1; S1 → S1ab | λ
(D) S→aaS | S1; S1 → bbS1 | λ
3 Paper-III
18. Given the following productions of a 21. Assume statements S1 and S2 defined
grammar : as :
S→ aA| aBB; S1 : L2-L1 is recursive enumerable
A→aaA |λ ; where L1 and L2 are recursive
B→ bB| bbC; and recursive enumerable
C→ B respectively.
Which of the following is true ? S2 : The set of all Turing machines
(A) The language corresponding to
is countable.
the given grammar is a set of
even number of a’s. Which of the following is true ?
(B) The language corresponding to (A) S1 is correct and S2 is not
the given grammar is a set of correct.
odd number of a’s. (B) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
(C) The language corresponding to
the given grammar is a set of (C) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.
even number of a’s followed by (D) S1 is not correct and S2 is
odd number of b’s. correct.
(D) The language corresponding to
the given grammar is a set of 22. Non-deterministic pushdown automaton
odd number of a’s followed by that accepts the language generated by
even number of b’s. the grammar: S→aSS | ab is
(A) δ(q0, λ, z) = { (q1, z)};
19. The language accepted by the non-
deterministic pushdown automaton δ(q0, a, S) = { (q1, SS)}, (q1, B) }
M= ({q0, q1, q2}, {a, b}, {a, b, z}, δ, δ(q0, b, B) = { (q1, λ)},
q0, z, {q2}) with transitions δ(q1, λ, z) = { (qf, λ)}
δ (q0 a, z) = { (q1 a), (q2 λ)};
(B) δ(q0, λ, z) = { (q1, Sz)};
δ (q1, b, a) = { (q1, b)}
δ(q0, a, S) = { (q1, SS)}, (q1, B) }
δ (q1, b, b) ={ (q1 b)}, δ (q1, a, b) =
δ(q0, b, B) = { (q1, λ)},
{ (q2, λ)}
δ(q1, λ, z) = { (qf, λ)}
is
(A) L(abb*a) (C) δ(q0, λ, z) = { (q1, Sz)};
(B) {a} U L(abb*a)
δ(q0, a, S) = { (q1, S)}, (q1, B) }
(C) L(ab*a)
(D) {a} U L(ab*a) δ(q0, b, λ) = { (q1, B)},
δ(q1, λ, z) = { (qf, λ)}
20. The language L = | n ≥ 0,
{an bn am bm
m ≥ 0} is (D) δ(q0, λ, z) = { (q1, z)};
(A) Context free but not linear δ(q0, a, S) = { (q1, SS)}, (q1, B) }
(B) Context free and linear
δ(q0, b, λ) = { (q1, B)},
(C) Not Context free and not linear
(D) Not Context free but linear δ(q1, λ, z) = { (qf, λ)}

Paper-III 4 S-87-13
23. Match the following : 26. Let A be the set of comfortable
(a) Dangling (i) Buffer houses given as
pointer replacement ⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 ⎫
A = ⎨0.8, 0.9, 0.1, 0.7⎬
policy ⎩ ⎭
(b) Page fault (ii) Variable- and B be the set of affordable houses
length ⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 ⎫
records B = ⎨0.9, 0.8, 0.6, 0.2⎬
⎩ ⎭
(c) List (iii) Object Then the set of comfortable and
representation identifier affordable houses is
(d) Toss- (iv) Pointer-
⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 ⎫
immediate swizzling (A) ⎨0.8, 0.8, 0.1, 0.2⎬
Codes : ⎩ ⎭
(a) (b) (c) (d) ⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 ⎫
(B) ⎨0.9, 0.9, 0.6, 0.7⎬
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) ⎩ ⎭
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) ⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 ⎫
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (C) ⎨0.8, 0.8, 0.6, 0.7⎬
⎩ ⎭
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 ⎫
(D) ⎨0.7, 0.7, 0.7, 0.9⎬
24. _______ constraints ensure that a ⎩ ⎭
value that appears in one relation for
a given set of attributes also appears 27. Support of a fuzzy set
for a certain set of attributes in ⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 ⎫
A = ⎨0.2, 0.15, 0.9, 0.95, 0.15⎬
another relation. ⎩ ⎭
(A) Logical Integrity within a universal set X is given as
(B) Referential Integrity ⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 ⎫
(C) Domain Integrity (A) ⎨0.15, 0.15, 0.15, 0.15, 0.15⎬
⎩ ⎭
(D) Data Integrity
⎧ x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 ⎫
(B) ⎨0.95, 0.95, 0.95, 0.95, 0.95⎬
25. The SQL expression ⎩ ⎭
Select distinct T, branch_name from (C) {x3, x4}
branch T, branch S (D) {x1, x2, x3, x4, x5}
where T.assets>S.assets and
S.branch_city=”Mumbai” finds the 28. In a single perceptron, the updation
names of rule of weight vector is given by
(A) All branches that have greater (A) w(n + 1)=w(n)+η[d(n)-y(n)]
assets than some branch (B) w(n + 1)=w(n)–η[d(n)-y(n)]
located in Mumbai.
(C) w(n + 1)=w(n)+η[d(n)-y(n)]* x (n)
(B) All branches that have greater (D) w(n + 1)=w(n)–η[d(n)-y(n)]* x (n)
assets than all branches in
Mumbai. 29. ______ refers to the discrepancy
(C) The branch that has greatest among a computed, observed or
asset in Mumbai. measured value and the true specified
(D) Any branch that has greater or theoretically correct values.
assets than any branch in (A) Fault (B) Failure
Mumbai. (C) Defect (D) Error
S-87-13 5 Paper-III
30. Which logic family dissipates the 36. A binary ripple counter is required to
minimum power ? count up to 16383. How many flip-
(A) DTL (B) TTL flops are required ?
(C) ECL (D) CMOS (A) 16382 (B) 8191
(C) 512 (D) 14
31. Which of the following electronic
component is not found in IC’s ? 37. The time complexity of recurrence
relation
(A) Diode (B) Resistor
T(n) = T(n/3) + T(2n/3) + O(n) is
(C) Transistor (D) Inductor
(A) O(Ig n) (B) O(n)
(C) O(n Ig n) (D) O(n2 )
32. A given memory chip has 14 address
pins and 8 data pins. It has the 38. How many people must there be in a
following number of locations. room before there is a 50% chance
(A) 28 (B) 214 that two of them were born on the
(C) 26 (D) 212 same day of the year ?
(A) At least 23 (B) At least 183
33. The instruction: MOV CL, [BX] [DI] (C) At least 366 (D) At least 730
+ 8 represents the _____ addressing
mode. 39. The number of possible
(A) Based Relative parenthesizations of a sequence of n
(B) Based Indexed matrices is
(C) Indexed Relative (A) O(n)
(D) Register Indexed (B) θ(n Ig n)
(C) Ω(2n)
(D) None of the above
34. The power dissipation of a flip-flop
is 3 mW. The power dissipation of a
40. The time complexity of an efficient
digital system with 4 flip-flops is
algorithm to find the longest
given by
monotonically increasing
(A) 34 mW (B) 43 mW subsequence of n numbers is
(C) 4/3 mW (D) 12 mW (A) O(n)
(B) O(n Ig n)
35. An astable multivibrator using the (C) O(n2)
555 timer to generate a square wave (D) None of the above
of 5 KHz with 70% duty cycle will
have 41. Given a binary search trees for a set
(A) RA = 40.4 KΩ, RB = 17.25 KΩ, of n=5 keys with the following
C = 2000 pF probabilities :
(B) RA = 17.25 KΩ, RB = 40.4 KΩ, i 0 1 2 3 4 5
C = 2000 pF pi – 0.15 0.10 0.05 0.10 0.20
(C) RA = 40.4 KΩ, RB = 17.25 KΩ, qi 0.05 0.10 0.05 0.05 0.05 0.10
C = 5000 pF The expected optimal cost of the
(D) RA = 17.25 KΩ, RB = 40.4 KΩ, search is
(A) 2.65 (B) 2.70
C = 5000 pF (C) 2.75 (D) 2.80
Paper-III 6 S-87-13
42. Given 0-1 knapsack problem and
fractional knapsack problem and the
following statements :
S1 : 0-1 knapsack is efficiently
solved using Greedy algorithm.
S2 : Fractional knapsack is
efficiently solved using
Dynamic programming.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
(C) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.
(D) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
43. Equivalence class partitioning
approach is used to divide the input
domain into a set of equivalence
classes, so that if a program works
correctly for a value, then it will
work correctly for all the other values
in that class. This is used _____.
(A) to partition the program in the
form of classes.
(B) to reduce the number of test
cases required.
(C) for designing test cases in
white box testing.
(D) all of the above.
44. The failure intensity for a basic model
as a function of failures experienced is
given as λ(μ)-λ0[1 – (μ)/(V0)]
where λ0 is the initial failure intensity
at the start of the execution, μ is the
average or expected number of failures
at a given point in time, the quantity
V0 is the total number of failures that
would occur in infinite time.
Assume that a program will experience
100 failures in infinite time, the initial
failure intensity was 10 failures/CPU
hr. Then the decrement of failures
intensity per failure will be
(A) 10 per CPU hr.
(B) 0.1 per CPU hr.
(C) –0.1 per CPU hr.
(D) 90 per CPU hr.
S-87-13
45. Improving processing efficiency or
performance or restructuring of software
to improve changeability is known as
(A) Corrective maintenance
(B) Perfective maintenance
(C) Adaptive maintenance
(D) Code maintenance
46. In ____,modules A and B make use
of a common data type, but perhaps
perform different operations on it.
(A) Data coupling
(B) Stamp coupling
(C) Control coupling
(D) Content coupling
47. Consider the following schemas :
Branch_Schema = (branch_name, assets,
city)
Customer_Schema = (cutstomer_name,
street, city)
Deposit_Schema = (branch_name,
account_number, customer_name,
balance)
Borrow_Schema = (branch_name,
loan_number, customer_name, amount)
Which of the following tuple
relational calculus finds all customers
who have loan amount more than
` 12,000 ?
(A) {t(customer_name) | t∈borrow[?]
t[amount]>12000}
(B) {t |t(customer_name) |
t∈borrow[?] t[amount]>12000}
(C) {t |[?] ∈ borrow
(t(customer_name=s(customer_
name))[?] [amount]>12000}
(D) {t |[?] ∈ borrow
(t(customer_name)[?] s[amount]
>12000}
48. Match the following :
(a) Create (i) The E-R Model
(b) Select (ii) Relationship Model
(c) Rectangle (iii) DDL
(d) Record (iv) DML
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
7 Paper-III
49. Match the following : 52. Assume that we have constructor
(i) One to one function for both Base and Derived
relationship classes. Now consider the declaration :
(a) main ( )
(ii) Relationship Base *p = new Derived;
(b) In what sequence, the constructor
will be executed ?
(iii) Many to many
(c) (A) Derived class constructor is
relationship
followed by Base class
(iv) Many to one constructor.
(d) relationship (B) Base class constructor is
followed by Derived class
Codes : constructor.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (C) Base class constructor is never
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) called.
(D) Derived class constructor is
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
never called.
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 53. What is the output of the following
program ?
50. Sixty (60) reusable components were
#include<stdio.h>
available for an application. If only
main( )
70% of these components can be used,
rest 30% would have to be developed {
from scratch. If average component is int a, b = 0;
100 LOC and cost of each LOC is static int c[10] =
` 14, what will be the risk exposure if {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0};
risk probability is 80% ? for (a=0; a<10;++a);
(A) ` 25,200 (B) ` 20,160 if ((c[a]%2)= =0) b+=c[a];
(C) ` 25,160 (D) ` 20,400 printf(“%d”,b);
}
51. Consider the following two function (A) 15 (B) 25
declarations : (C) 45 (D) 20
(i) int *f( ) (ii) int (*f)( )
54. A Program contains the following
Which of the following is true ? declarations and initial assignments
(A) Both are identical. int i = 8, j = 5;
(B) The first is a correct declaration double x = 0.005, y = –0.01;
and the second is wrong. char c=’c’, d=’d’;
(C) Both are different ways of Determine the value of the following
declaring pointer to a function. expressions which involve the use of
library functions:
(D) The first declaration is a
function returning a pointer to abs(i-2*j) ; log(exp(x)) ;
an integer and the second is a toupper(d)
pointer to function returning (A) 2; 0.005; D (B) 1; 0.005; D
integer. (C) 2; 0.005; E (D) 1; 0.005; e
Paper-III 8 S-87-13
55. MPEG involves both spatial 61. Which of the following is/are
compression and temporal fundamental method(s) of
compression. The spatial antialiasing ?
compression is similar to JPEG and
temporal compression removes (i) Increase of sample rate.
______ frames. (ii) Treating a pixel as a finite area
(A) Temporal (B) Voice rather than as a point.
(C) Spatial (D) Redundant (iii) Decrease of sample rate.
56. If the data unit is 111111 and the (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
divisor is 1010. In CRC method, (C) (i) only (D) (ii) only
what is the dividend at the
transmission before division ?
(A) 1111110000 (B) 1111111010 62. The two color systems – the HSV
(C) 111111000 (D) 111111 and HLS are
57. If user A wants to send an encrypted (A) Hue, Saturation, Value and
message to user B. The plain text of A is Hue, Lightness, Saturation.
encrypted with the _______. (B) High, Standard, Value and
(A) Public Key of user A High, Lightness, Saturation.
(B) Public Key of user B
(C) Private Key of user A (C) Highly, Saturated, Value and
(D) Private Key of user B Highly, Lightened, Saturation.
58. A _____ can forward or block (D) Highly, Standard, Value and
packets based on the information in Hue, Lightness, Saturation.
the network layer and transport layer
header. 63. The parametric representation of the
(A) Proxy firewall line segment between the position
(B) Firewall
(C) Packet filter firewall vectors P1(2, 3) and P2(5, 4) is given as
(D) Message digest firewall (A) x(t)= 2+7t, y(t) = 0≤t≤∝
59. Which of the following graphics 3+7t
devices are known as active graphics (B) x(t)=2+10t, y(t) = 0≤t≤1
devices ? 3+12t
(i) Alphanumeric devices
(ii) Thumb wheels (C) x(t)= 2+3t, 0≤t≤1
(iii) Digitizers y(t)=3+t
(iv) Joystics (D) t(x, y) = 14t 0≤t≤1
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) 64. Consider the following
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) transformation matrix for
60. A diametric projection is said to be rotation(clockwise) :
trimetric projection when ⎡ –sinθ
cosθ sinθ 0 0
⎤
(i) two of the three foreshortening
[T] =
⎢ cosθ 0 0 ⎥
factors are equal and third is
⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥
arbitrary.
(ii) all of the three foreshortening ⎣ 0 0 0 1 ⎦
factors are equal. This matrix rotates an object by an
(iii) all of the three foreshortening angle θ about :
factors are arbitrary. (A) X-axis
Which of the above is true ? (B) Y-axis
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) Z-axis
(C) (i) only (D) (iii) only (D) All of the above
S-87-13 9 Paper-III
65. Consider the following sequence of
operations :
(i) Pointer p1 is set to point at a
new heap-dynamic variable.
(ii) Pointer p2 is assigned p1’s
value.
(iii) The heap dynamic variable
pointed to by p1 is explicitly
de-allocated, but p2 is not
changed by the operation.
This situation leads to which of the
following :
(A) p1 becomes a dangling pointer
(B) p2 becomes a dangling pointer
(C) Both p1 and p2 are now
dangling pointers
(D) Neither p1 nor p2 is now a
dangling pointer
66. The programming languages C and
C++ are not strongly typed languages
because :
(A) Both C and C++ allow
functions for which parameters
are not type checked.
(B) Both C and C++ allow
functions for which parameters
are type checked.
(C) Both C and C++ allow
functions for which parameters
are not type checked and also
the union types in these
languages are not type checked.
(D) Union types in these (C and
C++) languages are not type
checked.
67. The tracing model in Prolog
describes program execution in terms
of certain events. These events are
(A) call and exit
(B) call and fail
(C) call, exit and redo
(D) call, exit, redo and fail
Paper-III
68. Which of the following statements is
not correct with reference to
distributed systems ?
(A) Distributed system represents a
global view of the network and
considers it as a virtual uni-
processor system by controlling
and managing resources across
the network on all the sites.
(B) Distributed system is built on
bare machine, not an add-on to
the existing software.
(C) In a distributed system, kernel
provides smallest possible set
of services on which other
services are built. This kernel is
called microkernel. Open
servers provide other services
and access to shared resources.
(D) In a distributed system, if a
user wants to run the program
on other nodes or share the
resources on remote sites due
to their beneficial aspects, user
has to log on to that site.
69. A system contains 10 units of
resource of same type. The resource
requirement and current allocation of
these resources for three processes P,
Q and R are as follows :
P Q R
Maximum requirement 8 7 5
Current allocation 4 1 3
Now, consider the following resource
requests :
(i) P makes a request for 2 resource units.
(ii) Q makes request for 2 resources units.
(iii) R makes a request of 2 resource units.
For a safe state, which of the
following options must be satisfied ?
(A) Only request (i)
(B) Only request (ii)
(C) Only request (iii)
(D) Request (i) and (ii)
70. Consider the following set of
processes with the length of CPU
burst time in milliseconds (ms) :
Process A B C D E
Burst time 6 1 2 1 5
Priority 3 1 3 4 2
Assume that processes are stored in
ready queue in following order :
A–B–C–D–E
Using round robin scheduling with
time slice of 1 ms, the average turn
around time is
(A) 8.4 ms (B) 12.4 ms
(C) 9.2 ms (D) 9.4 ms
10 S-87-13
71. Consider a main memory with 3 page 75. Which of the following statements is
frames for the following page
reference string : not true for UNIX Operating System ?
5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 4, 3, 4, 1, 4
Assuming that the execution of
process is initiated after loading page
5 in memory, the number of page (A) Major strength of UNIX
faults in FIFO and second chance
replacement respectively are Operating System is its open
(A) 8 and 9 (B) 10 and 11
(C) 7 and 9 (D) 9 and 8 standards which enabled large
72. Which of the following shell scripts will number of organizations
produce the output “my first script” ?
(A) for i in my first script { echo –i $i} ranging from academicia to
(B) for my first script; do echo –n; done
(C) for i in my first script; do echo industries to participate in its
–i $i; done
(D) for n in my first script; do echo development.
–i $i; done
73. The portion of Windows 2000 operating
system which is not portable is
(A) processor management (B) UNIX kernel uses modules
(B) user interface
(C) device management with well specified interfaces
(D) virtual memory management
and provides advantages like
74. Match the following for Windows
Operating System : simplified testing and
(a) Hard- (i) Starting all processes,
ware emulation of different maintenance of kernel. It has
abstra- operating systems,
ction security functions, better extensibility as the
layer transform character
based applications to kernel is not monolithic.
graphical
representation.
(b) Kernel (ii) Export a virtual
memory interface, (C) UNIX is kernel based operating
support for symmetric
multiprocessing, system with two main
administration, details
of mapping memory, components viz. process
configuring I/O buses,
setting up DMA. management subsystem and
(c) Exe- (iii) Thread scheduling,
cutive interrupt and exception file management subsystem.
handling, recovery
after power failure.
(d) Win32 (iv) Object manager, virtual (D) All devices are represented as
sub- memory manager,
system process manager, plug- files which simplify the
and-play and power
manager. management of I/O devices and
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d) files. The directories structure
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) used is directed acyclic graph.
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

S-87-13 11 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 12 S-87-13
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
D 871
1 4
Time : 1 /4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will
not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
D-87-14
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. Consider a set A = {1, 2, 3, …….., 1000}. How many members of A shall be divisible by
3 or by 5 or by both 3 and 5 ?
(A) 533 (B) 599

(C) 467 (D) 66

2. A certain tree has two vertices of degree 4, one vertex of degree 3 and one vertex of
degree 2. If the other vertices have degree 1, how many vertices are there in the graph ?

(A) 5 (B) n–3

(C) 20 (D) 11

3. Consider the Graph shown below :

This graph is a __________.

(A) Complete Graph (B) Bipartite Graph

(C) Hamiltonian Graph (D) All of the above

4. A computer program selects an integer in the set {k : 1 ≤ k ≤ 10,00,000} at random and

prints out the result. This process is repeated 1 million times. What is the probability that
the value k = 1 appears in the printout atleast once ?

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.704

(C) 0.632121 (D) 0.68

Paper-II 2 D-87-14
5. If we define the functions f, g and h that map R into R by :
f(x) = x4, g(x) = x2 + 1, h(x) = x2 + 72, then the value of the composite functions ho(gof)
and (hog)of are given as
(A) x8 – 71 and x8 – 71 (B) x8 – 73 and x8 – 73
(C) x8 + 71 and x8 + 71 (D) x8 + 73 and x8 + 73

6. The BCD adder to add two decimal digits needs minimum of

(A) 6 full adders and 2 half adders
(B) 5 full adders and 3 half adders
(C) 4 full adders and 3 half adders
(D) 5 full adders and 2 half adders

7. The Excess-3 decimal code is a self-complementing code because

(A) The binary sum of a code and its 9’s complement is equal to 9.
(B) It is a weighted code.
(C) Complement can be generated by inverting each bit pattern.
(D) The binary sum of a code and its 10’s complement is equal to 9.

8. How many PUSH and POP operations will be needed to evaluate the following expression
by reverse polish notation in a stack machine (A ∗ B) + (C ∗ D/E) ?
(A) 4 PUSH and 3 POP instructions (B) 5 PUSH and 4 POP instructions
(C) 6 PUSH and 2 POP instructions (D) 5 PUSH and 3 POP instructions

9. The range of representable normalized numbers in the floating point binary fractional
representation in a 32-bit word with 1-bit sign, 8-bit excess 128 biased exponent and
23-bit mantissa is
(A) 2–128 to (1 – 2–23) × 2127 (B) (1 – 2–23) × 2–127 to 2128
(C) (1 – 2–23) × 2–127 to 223 (D) 2–129 to (1 – 2–23) × 2127

10. The size of the ROM required to build an 8-bit adder/subtractor with mode control, carry
input, carry output and two’s complement overflow output is given as
(A) 216 × 8 (B) 218 × 10
(C) 216 × 10 (D) 218 × 8

D-87-14 3 Paper-II
11. What will be the output of the following ‘C’ code ?
main ( )
{ int x = 128;
printf (“\n%d”, 1 + x ++);
}
(A) 128 (B) 129
(C) 130 (D) 131

12. What does the following expression means ?

char ∗(∗(∗ a[N]) ( )) ( );
(A) a pointer to a function returning array of n pointers to function returning character
pointers.
(B) a function return array of N pointers to functions returning pointers to characters
(C) an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to characters
(D) an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to functions returning pointers to
characters.

13. Which of the following is not a member of class ?

(A) Static function (B) Friend function
(C) Const function (D) Virtual function

14. When an array is passed as parameter to a function, which of the following statements is
correct ?
(A) The function can change values in the original array.
(B) In C, parameters are passed by value, the function cannot change the original value
in the array.
(C) It results in compilation error when the function tries to access the elements in the
array.
(D) Results in a run time error when the function tries to access the elements in the
array.

Paper-II 4 D-87-14
15. Which of the following differentiates between overloaded functions and overridden
functions ?
(A) Overloading is a dynamic or runtime binding and overridden is a static or compile
time binding.
(B) Overloading is a static or compile time binding and overriding is dynamic or
runtime binding.
(C) Redefining a function in a friend class is called overloading, while redefining a
function in a derived class is called as overridden function.
(D) Redefining a function in a derived class is called function overloading, while
redefining a function in a friend class is called function overriding.

16. Division operation is ideally suited to handle queries of the type :

(A) customers who have no account in any of the branches in Delhi.
(B) customers who have an account at all branches in Delhi.
(C) customers who have an account in atleast one branch in Delhi.
(D) customers who have only joint account in any one branch in Delhi

17. Which of the following is true ?

I. Implementation of self-join is possible in SQL with table alias.
II. Outer-join operation is basic operation in relational algebra.
III. Natural join and outer join operations are equivalent.
(A) I and II are correct. (B) II and III are correct.
(C) Only III is correct. (D) Only I is correct.

18. What kind of mechanism is to be taken into account for converting a weak entity set into
strong entity set in entity-relationship diagram ?
(A) Generalization (B) Aggregation
(C) Specialization (D) Adding suitable attributes

19. The best normal form of relation scheme R(A, B, C, D) along with the set of functional
dependencies F = {AB → C, AB → D, C → A, D → B} is
(A) Boyce-Codd Normal form (B) Third Normal form
(C) Second Normal form (D) First Normal form

20. Identify the minimal key for relational scheme R(A, B, C, D, E) with functional
dependencies F = {A → B, B → C, AC → D}
(A) A (B) AE
(C) BE (D) CE
D-87-14 5 Paper-II
21. Convert the following infix expression into its equivalent post fix expression
(A + B^ D) / (E – F) + G
(A) ABD^ + EF – / G+ (B) ABD + ^EF – / G+
(C) ABD + ^EF / – G+ (D) ABD^ + EF / – G+

22. You have to sort a list L, consisting of a sorted list followed by a few ‘random’ elements.
Which of the following sorting method would be most suitable for such a task ?
(A) Bubble sort (B) Selection sort
(C) Quick sort (D) Insertion sort

23. The directory can be viewed as ________ that translates filenames into their directory
entries.
(A) Symbol table (B) Partition
(C) Swap space (D) Cache

24. Consider an array A[20, 10], assume 4 words per memory cell and the base address of
array A is 100. What is the address of A[11, 5] ? Assume row major storage.
(A) 560 (B) 565
(C) 570 (D) 575

25. A full binary tree with n leaves contains

(A) n nodes (B) log2 n nodes

(C) 2n –1 nodes (D) 2n nodes

26. The period of a signal is 10 ms. What is its frequency in Hertz ?

(A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 1000 (D) 10000

27. In a classful addressing, first four bits in Class A IP address is

(A) 1010 (B) 1100
(C) 1011 (D) 1110

Paper-II 6 D-87-14
28. Which of the following algorithms is not a broadcast routing algorithm ?
(A) Flooding (B) Multidestination routing
(C) Reverse path forwarding (D) All of the above

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 6000 bps and a baud rate of 2000 baud. How many data
elements are carried by each signal element ?
(A) 0.336 bits/baud (B) 3 bits/baud
(C) 120,00,000 bits/baud (D) None of the above

30. How many distinct stages are there in DES algorithm, which is parameterized by a 56-bit
key ?
(A) 16 (B) 17
(C) 18 (D) 19

31. Shift-Reduce parsers perform the following :

(A) Shift step that advances in the input stream by K(K > 1) symbols and Reduce step
that applies a completed grammar rule to some recent parse trees, joining them
together as one tree with a new root symbol.
(B) Shift step that advances in the input stream by one symbol and Reduce step that
applies a completed grammar rule to some recent parse trees, joining them together
as one tree with a new root symbol.
(C) Shift step that advances in the input stream by K(K = 2) symbols and Reduce step
that applies a completed grammar rule to form a single tree.
(D) Shift step that does not advance in the input stream and Reduce step that applies a
completed grammar rule to form a single tree.

32. Which of the following is true ?

(A) Canonical LR parser is LR (1) parser with single look ahead terminal
(B) All LR(K) parsers with K > 1 can be transformed into LR(1) parsers.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

D-87-14 7 Paper-II
33. In a two-pass assembler, symbol table is
(A) Generated in first pass
(B) Generated in second pass
(C) Not generated at all
(D) Generated and used only in second pass

34. Debugger is a program that

(A) allows to examine and modify the contents of registers
(B) does not allow execution of a segment of program
(C) allows to set breakpoints, execute a segment of program and display contents of
register
(D) All of the above

35. The following Context-Free Grammar (CFG) :

S → aB | bA
A → a | as | bAA
B → b | bs | aBB
will generate
(A) odd numbers of a’s and odd numbers of b’s
(B) even numbers of a’s and even numbers of b’s
(C) equal numbers of a’s and b’s
(D) different numbers of a’s and b’s

36. Consider the following justifications for commonly using the two-level CPU scheduling :
I. It is used when memory is too small to hold all the ready processes.
II. Because its performance is same as that of the FIFO.
III. Because it facilitates putting some set of processes into memory and a choice is
made from that.
IV. Because it does not allow to adjust the set of in-core processes.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) I, III and IV (B) I and II
(C) III and IV (D) I and III
Paper-II 8 D-87-14
37. A specific editor has 200 K of program text, 15 K of initial stack, 50 K of initialized data,
and 70 K of bootstrap code. If five editors are started simultaneously, how much physical
memory is needed if shared text is used ?
(A) 1135 K (B) 335 K
(C) 1065 K (D) 320 K

38. Which of the following conditions does not hold good for a solution to a critical section
problem ?
(A) No assumptions may be made about speeds or the number of CPUs.
(B) No two processes may be simultaneously inside their critical sections.
(C) Processes running outside its critical section may block other processes.
(D) Processes do not wait forever to enter its critical section.

39. For the implementation of a paging scheme, suppose the average process size be x bytes,
the page size be y bytes, and each page entry requires z bytes. The optimum page size that
minimizes the total overhead due to the page table and the internal fragmentation loss is
given by
x xz
(A) (B)
2 2

xz
(C) 2xz (D) 2

40. In a demand paging memory system, page table is held in registers. The time taken to
service a page fault is 8 m.sec. if an empty frame is available or if the replaced page is not
modified, and it takes 20 m.secs., if the replaced page is modified. What is the average
access time to service a page fault assuming that the page to be replaced is modified 70%
of the time ?
(A) 11.6 m.sec. (B) 16.4 m.sec.
(C) 28 m.sec. (D) 14 m.sec.

41. __________ are applied throughout the software process.

(A) Framework activities (B) Umbrella activities
(C) Planning activities (D) Construction activities

D-87-14 9 Paper-II
42. Requirement Development, Organizational Process Focus, Organizational Training, Risk
Management and Integrated Supplier Management are process areas required to achieve
maturity level
(A) Performed
(B) Managed
(C) Defined
(D) Optimized

43. The software _________ of a program or a computing system is the structure or structures
of the system, which comprise software components, the externally visible properties of
those components, and the relationships among them.
(A) Design
(B) Architecture
(C) Process
(D) Requirement

44. Which one of the following set of attributes should not be encompassed by effective
software metrics ?
(A) Simple and computable
(B) Consistent and objective
(C) Consistent in the use of units and dimensions
(D) Programming language dependent

45. Which one of the following is used to compute cyclomatic complexity ?

(A) The number of regions – 1
(B) E – N + 1, where E is the number of flow graph edges and N is the number of flow
graph nodes.
(C) P – 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.
(D) P + 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.

Paper-II 10 D-87-14
46. Consider the following statements S1 and S2 :
S1 : A hard handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is retained and used
for a while in parallel with the channel in the target cell.
S2 : A soft handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is released and only
then the channel in the target cell is engaged.
(A) S1 is true and S2 is not true. (B) S1 is not true and S2 is true.
(C) Both S1 and S2 are true. (D) Both S1 and S2 are not true.

47. Fact-less fact table in a data warehouse contains

(A) only measures (B) only dimensions
(C) keys and measures (D) only surrogate keys

48. Which e-business model allows consumers to name their own price for products and
services ?
(A) B2 B (B) B2 G
(C) C2 C (D) C2 B

49. __________ model is designed to bring prices down by increasing the number of
customers who buy a particular product at once.
(A) Economic Order Quantity (B) Inventory
(C) Data Mining (D) Demand-Sensitive Pricing

50. Match the following :

List – I List – II
a. Call control protocol i. Interface between Base Transceiver Station
(BTS) and Base Station Controller (BSC)
b. A-bis ii. Spread spectrum
c. BSMAP iii. Connection management
d. CDMA iv. Works between Mobile Switching Centre
(MSC) and Base Station Subsystem (BSS)
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) iv iii ii i
_______________

D-87-14 11 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 12 D-87-14
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
D 87 1 4
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
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in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
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place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
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any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
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identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
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9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
D-87-14
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. A hierarchical memory system that uses cache memory has cache access time of 50 nano
seconds, main memory access time of 300 nano seconds, 75% of memory requests are for
read, hit ratio of 0.8 for read access and the write-through scheme is used. What will be
the average access time of the system both for read and write requests ?
(A) 157.5 n.sec. (B) 110 n.sec.
(C) 75 n.sec. (D) 82.5 n.sec.

2. For switching from a CPU user mode to the supervisor mode following type of interrupt is
most appropriate
(A) Internal interrupts (B) External interrupts
(C) Software interrupts (D) None of the above

3. In a dot matrix printer the time to print a character is 6 m.sec., time to space in between
characters is 2 m.sec., and the number of characters in a line are 200. The printing speed
of the dot matrix printer in characters per second and the time to print a character line are
given by which of the following options ?
(A) 125 chars/second and 0.8 seconds
(B) 250 chars/second and 0.6 seconds
(C) 166 chars/second and 0.8 seconds
(D) 250 chars/second and 0.4 seconds

4. Match the following 8085 instructions with the flags :

List – I List – II
a. XCHG i. only carry flag is affected.
b. SUB ii. no flags are affected.
c. STC iii. all flags other than carry flag are affected.
d. DCR iv. all flags are affected.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv i iii ii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii iii i iv
(D) ii iv i iii
Paper-III 2 D-87-14
5. How many times will the following loop be executed ?
LXI B, 0007 H
LOP : DCX B
MOV A, B
ORA C
JNZ LOP
(A) 05 (B) 07
(C) 09 (D) 00

6. Specify the contents of the accumulator and the status of the S, Z and CY flags when 8085
microprocessor performs addition of 87 H and 79 H.
(A) 11, 1, 1, 1 (B) 10, 0, 1, 0
(C) 01, 1, 0, 0 (D) 00, 0, 1, 1

7. Location transparency allows :

I. Users to treat the data as if it is done at one location.
II. Programmers to treat the data as if it is at one location.
III. Managers to treat the data as if it is at one location.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II only
(C) II and III only (D) II only

8. Which of the following is correct ?

I. Two phase locking is an optimistic protocol.
II. Two phase locking is pessimistic protocol
III. Time stamping is an optimistic protocol.
IV. Time stamping is pessimistic protocol.
(A) I and III (B) II and IV
(C) I and IV (D) II and III

9. __________ rules used to limit the volume of log information that has to be handled and
processed in the event of system failure involving the loss of volatile information.
(A) Write-ahead log (B) Check-pointing
(C) Log buffer (D) Thomas

10. Let R = ABCDE is a relational scheme with functional dependency set F = {A → B, B → C,

AC → D}. The attribute closures of A and E are
(A) ABCD, φ (B) ABCD, E
(C) Φ, φ (D) ABC, E
D-87-14 3 Paper-III
11. Consider the following statements :
I. Re-construction operation used in mixed fragmentation satisfies commutative rule.
II. Re-construction operation used in vertical fragmentation satisfies commutative rule
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of the statements are correct.

12. Which of the following is false ?

(A) Every binary relation is never be in BCNF.
(B) Every BCNF relation is in 3NF.
(C) 1 NF, 2 NF, 3 NF and BCNF are based on functional dependencies.
(D) Multivalued Dependency (MVD) is a special case of Join Dependency (JD).

13. Which of the following categories of languages do not refer to animation languages ?
(A) Graphical languages (B) General-purpose languages
(C) Linear-list notations (D) None of the above

14. Match the following :

List – I List – II
a. Tablet, Joystick i. Continuous devices
b. Light Pen, Touch Screen ii. Direct devices
c. Locator, Keyboard iii. Logical devices
d. Data Globe, Sonic Pen iv. 3D interaction devices
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) iv iii ii i

15. A technique used to approximate halftones without reducing spatial resolution is known as
_________.
(A) Halftoning (B) Dithering
(C) Error diffusion (D) None of the above
Paper-III 4 D-87-14
16. Consider a triangle represented by A(0, 0), B(1, 1), C(5, 2). The triangle is rotated by 45
degrees about a point P(–1, –1). The co-ordinates of the new triangle obtained after
rotation shall be _______
3 9 
(A) A' (–1, 2 – 1), B'(–1, 2 2 – 1), C' 2 – 1 , 2 – 1
2 2 
3 9 
(B) A' ( 2 – 1, –1), B'(2 2 – 1, –1), C' 2 – 1 , 2 – 1
 2 2 
3 9 
(C) A' (–1, 2 – 1), B'(2 2 – 1, –1), C' 2 – 1 , 2 – 1
 2 2 
9 3 
(D) A' (–1, 2 – 1), B'(2 2 – 1, –1), C'2 2 – 1 , 2 2 – 1
 

17. In Cyrus-Beck algorithm for line clipping the value of t parameter is computed by the
relation :
(Here P1 and P2 are the two end points of the line, f is a point on the boundary, n1 is inner
normal)
(P1 – fi) ⋅ ni (fi – P1) ⋅ ni
(A) (B)
(P2 – P1) ⋅ ni (P2 – P1) ⋅ ni
(P2 – fi) ⋅ ni (fi – P2) ⋅ ni
(C) (D)
(P1 – P2) ⋅ ni (P1 – P2) ⋅ ni

18. Match the following :

a. Cavalier Projection i. The direction of projection is chosen so
that there is no foreshortening of lines
perpendicular to the xy plane.
b. Cabinet Projection ii. The direction of projection is chosen so
that lines perpendicular to the xy planes
are foreshortened by half their lengths.
c. Isometric Projection iii. The direction of projection makes equal
angles with all of the principal axis.
d. Orthographic Projection iv. Projections are characterized by the fact
that the direction of projection is
perpendicular to the view plane.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i ii iii iv
D-87-14 5 Paper-III
19. Consider the following statements S1, S2 and S3 :
S1 : In call-by-value, anything that is passed into a function call is unchanged in the
caller’s scope when the function returns.
S2 : In call-by-reference, a function receives implicit reference to a variable used as
argument.
S3 : In call-by-reference, caller is unable to see the modified variable used as argument.
(A) S3 and S2 are true. (B) S3 and S1 are true.
(C) S2 and S1 are true. (D) S1, S2, S3 are true.

20. How many tokens will be generated by the scanner for the following statement ?
x = x ∗ (a + b) – 5;
(A) 12 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 07

21. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(A) MPI_Isend and MPI_Irecv are non-blocking message passing routines of MPI.
(B) MPI_Issend and MPI_Ibsend are non-blocking message passing routines of MPI.
(C) MPI_Send and MPI_Recv are non-blocking message passing routines of MPI.
(D) MPI_Ssend and MPI_Bsend are blocking message passing routines of MPI.

22. The pushdown automation M = ({q0, q1, q2}, {a, b}, {0, 1}, δ, q0, 0, {q0}) with
δ(q0, a, 0) = {(q1, 10)}
δ(q1, a, 1) = {(q1, 11)}
δ(q1, b, 1) = {(q2, λ)}
δ(q2, b, 1) = {(q2, λ)}
δ(q2, λ, 0) = {(q0, λ)}
Accepts the language
(A) L = {an bm | n, m ≥ 0} (B) L = {an bn | n ≥ 0}
(C) L = {an bm | n, m > 0} (D) L = {an bn | n > 0}

23. Given two languages :

L1 = {(ab)n ak | n > k, k ≥ 0}
L2 = {an bm | n ≠ m}
Using pumping lemma for regular language, it can be shown that
(A) L1 is regular and L2 is not regular.
(B) L1 is not regular and L2 is regular.
(C) L1 is regular and L2 is regular.
(D) L1 is not regular and L2 is not regular.

24. Regular expression for the complement of language L = {an bm | n ≥ 4, m ≤ 3} is

(A) (a + b)* ba(a + b)*
(B) a* bbbbb*
(C) (λ + a + aa + aaa)b* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*
(D) None of the above
Paper-III 6 D-87-14
25. For n devices in a network, ________ number of duplex-mode links are required for a
mesh topology.
(A) n(n + 1) (B) n (n – 1)
(C) n(n + 1)/2 (D) n(n – 1)/2

26. How many characters per second (7 bits + 1 parity) can be transmitted over a 3200 bps
line if the transfer is asynchronous ? (Assuming 1 start bit and 1 stop bit)
(A) 300 (B) 320
(C) 360 (D) 400

27. Which of the following is not a field in TCP header ?

(A) Sequence number (B) Fragment offset
(C) Checksum (D) Window size

28. What is the propagation time if the distance between the two points is 48,000 ? Assume
the propagation speed to be 2.4 × 108 metre/second in cable.
(A) 0.5 ms (B) 20 ms
(C) 50 ms (D) 200 ms

29. __________ is a bit-oriented protocol for communication over point-to-point and

multipoint links.
(A) Stop-and-wait (B) HDLC
(C) Sliding window (D) Go-back-N

30. Which one of the following is true for asymmetric-key cryptography ?

(A) Private key is kept by the receiver and public key is announced to the public.
(B) Public key is kept by the receiver and private key is announced to the public.
(C) Both private key and public key are kept by the receiver.
(D) Both private key and public key are announced to the public.

31. Any decision tree that sorts n elements has height

(A) Ω(n) (B) Ω(lgn)
(C) Ω(nlgn) (D) Ω(n2)

32. Match the following :

List – I List – II
a. Bucket sort i. O(n3lgn)
b. Matrix chain multiplication ii. O(n3)
c. Huffman codes iii. O(nlgn)
d. All pairs shortest paths iv. O(n)
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv ii i iii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii ii iv i
D-87-14 7 Paper-III
33. We can show that the clique problem is NP-hard by proving that
(A) CLIQUE ≤ P 3-CNF_SAT
(B) CLIQUE ≤ P VERTEX_COVER
(C) CLIQUE ≤ P SUBSET_SUM
(D) None of the above

34. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a

_________, and the Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all
pairs of vertices, is a _________
(A) Greedy algorithm, Divide-conquer algorithm
(B) Divide-conquer algorithm, Greedy algorithm
(C) Greedy algorithm, Dynamic programming algorithm
(D) Dynamic programming algorithm, Greedy algorithm

35. Consider the problem of a chain <A1, A2, A3> of three matrices. Suppose that the
dimensions of the matrices are 10 × 100, 100 × 5 and 5 × 50 respectively. There are two
different ways of parenthesization : (i) ((A1 A2)A3) and (ii) (A1(A2 A3)). Computing the
product according to the first parenthesization is ________ times faster in comparison to
the second parenthesization.
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 20 (D) 100

36. Suppose that we have numbers between 1 and 1000 in a binary search tree and we want to
search for the number 365. Which of the following sequences could not be the sequence of
nodes examined ?
(A) 4, 254, 403, 400, 332, 346, 399, 365
(B) 926, 222, 913, 246, 900, 260, 364, 365
(C) 927, 204,913, 242, 914, 247, 365
(D) 4, 401, 389, 221, 268, 384, 383, 280, 365

37. Which methods are utilized to control the access to an object in multi-threaded
programming ?
(A) Asynchronized methods (B) Synchronized methods
(C) Serialized methods (D) None of the above

38. How to express that some person keeps animals as pets ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Paper-III 8 D-87-14
39. Converting a primitive type data into its corresponding wrapper class object instance is
called
(A) Boxing (B) Wrapping
(C) Instantiation (D) Autoboxing
40. The behaviour of the document elements in XML can be defined by
(A) Using document object
(B) Registering appropriate event handlers
(C) Using element object
(D) All of the above
41. What is true about UML stereotypes ?
(A) Stereotype is used for extending the UML language.
(B) Stereotyped class must be abstract
(C) The stereotype indicates that the UML element cannot be changed
(D) UML profiles can be stereotyped for backward compatibility
42. Which method is called first by an applet program ?
(A) start( ) (B) run( )
(C) init( ) (D) begin( )
43. Which one of the following is not a source code metric ?
(A) Halstead metric (B) Function point metric
(C) Complexity metric (D) Length metric
44. To compute function points (FP), the following relationship is used
FP = Count – total × (0.65 + 0.01 × Σ(Fi)) where Fi (i = 1 to n) are value adjustment
factors (VAF) based on n questions. The value of n is
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 16 (D) 18
45. Assume that the software team defines a project risk with 80% probability of occurrence
of risk in the following manner :
Only 70 percent of the software components scheduled for reuse will be integrated into the
application and the remaining functionality will have to be custom developed. If 60
reusable components were planned with average component size as 100 LOC and
software engineering cost for each LOC as $ 14, then the risk exposure would be
(A) $ 25,200 (B) $ 20,160
(C) $ 17,640 (D) $ 15,120
46. Maximum possible value of reliability is
(A) 100 (B) 10
(C) 1 (D) 0
47. ‘FAN IN’ of a component A is defined as
(A) Count of the number of components that can call, or pass control, to a component A
(B) Number of components related to component A
(C) Number of components dependent on component A
(D) None of the above
D-87-14 9 Paper-III
48. Temporal cohesion means
(A) Coincidental cohesion
(B) Cohesion between temporary variables
(C) Cohesion between local variables
(D) Cohesion with respect to time

49. Various storage devices used by an operating system can be arranged as follows in
increasing order of accessing speed :
(A) Magnetic tapes → magnetic disks → optical disks → electronic disks → main
memory → cache → registers
(B) Magnetic tapes → magnetic disks → electronic disks → optical disks → main
memory → cache → registers
(C) Magnetic tapes → electronic disks → magnetic disks → optical disks → main
memory → cache → registers
(D) Magnetic tapes → optical disks → magnetic disks → electronic disks → main
memory → cache → registers

50. How many disk blocks are required to keep list of free disk blocks in a 16 GB hard disk
with 1 kB block size using linked list of free disk blocks ? Assume that the disk block
number is stored in 32 bits.
(A) 1024 blocks (B) 16794 blocks
(C) 20000 blocks (D) 1048576 blocks

51. Consider an imaginary disk with 40 cylinders. A request come to read a block on cylinder
11. While the seek to cylinder 11 is in progress, new requests come in for cylinders 1, 36,
16, 34, 9 and 12 in that order. The number of arm motions using shortest seek first
algorithm is
(A) 111 (B) 112
(C) 60 (D) 61

52. An operating system has 13 tape drives. There are three processes P1, P2 & P3. Maximum
requirement of P1 is 11 tape drives, P2 is 5 tape drives and P3 is 8 tape drives. Currently,
P1 is allocated 6 tape drives, P2 is allocated 3 tape drives and P3 is allocated 2 tape drives.
Which of the following sequences represent a safe state ?
(A) P2 P1 P3 (B) P2 P3 P1
(C) P1 P2 P3 (D) P1 P3 P2

53. Monitor is an Interprocess Communication (IPC) technique which can be described as

(A) It is higher level synchronization primitive and is a collection of procedures,
variables, and data structures grouped together in a special package.
(B) It is a non-negative integer which apart from initialization can be acted upon by wait
and signal operations.
(C) It uses two primitives, send and receive which are system calls rather than language
constructs.
(D) It consists of the IPC primitives implemented as system calls to block the process
when they are not allowed to enter critical region to save CPU time.
Paper-III 10 D-87-14
54. In a distributed computing environment, distributed shared memory is used which is
(A) Logical combination of virtual memories on the nodes.
(B) Logical combination of physical memories on the nodes.
(C) Logical combination of the secondary memories on all the nodes.
(D) All of the above

55. Equivalent logical expression for the Well Formed Formula (WFF),
~(∀x) F[x]
is
(A) ∀x (~F[x]) (B) ~(∃x) F[x]
(C) ∃x (~F[x]) (D) ∀x F[x]

56. An A* algorithm is a heuristic search technique which

(A) is like a depth-first search where most promising child is selected for expansion
(B) generates all successor nodes and computes an estimate of distance (cost) from start
node to a goal node through each of the successors. It then chooses the successor
with shortest cost.
(C) saves all path lengths (costs) from start node to all generated nodes and chooses
shortest path for further expansion.
(D) none of the above

57. The resolvent of the set of clauses

(A ∨ B, ~A ∨ D, C ∨ ~B) is
(A) A ∨ B (B) C∨D
(C) A ∨ C (D) A∨D

58. Match the following :

a. Script i. Directed graph with labelled nodes for
graphical representation of knowledge
b. Conceptual Dependencies ii. Knowledge about objects and events is
stored in record-like structures consisting
of slots and slot values.
c. Frames iii. Primitive concepts and rules to represent
natural language statements
d. Associative Network iv. Frame like structures used to represent
stereotypical patterns for commonly
occurring events in terms of actors, roles,
props and scenes
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv ii i iii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) i iii iv ii
D-87-14 11 Paper-III
59. Match the following components of an expert system :
a. I/O interface i. Accepts user’s queries and
responds to question through I/O
interface
b. Explanation module ii. Contains facts and rules about the
domain
c. Inference engine iii. Gives the user, the ability to follow
inferencing steps at any time during
consultation
d. Knowledge base iv. Permits the user to communicate
with the system in a natural way
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) iv i iii ii

60. A computer based information system is needed :

I. as it is difficult for administrative staff to process data.
II. due to rapid growth of information and communication technology.
III. due to growing size of organizations which need to process large volume of data.
IV. as timely and accurate decisions are to be taken.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true ?
(A) I and II
(B) III and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV

61. Given the recursively enumerable language (LRE), the context sensitive language (LCS),
the recursive language (LREC), the context free language (LCF) and deterministic context
free language (LDCF). The relationship between these families is given by
(A) LCF ⊆ LDCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LRE ⊆ LREC
(B) LCF ⊆ LDCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LREC ⊆ LRE
(C) LDCF ⊆ LCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LRE ⊆ LREC
(D) LDCF ⊆ LCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LREC ⊆ LRE

Paper-III 12 D-87-14
62. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Context free grammar i. Linear bounded automaton
b. Regular grammar ii. Pushdown automaton
c. Context sensitive grammar iii. Turing machine
d. Unrestricted grammar iv. Deterministic finite automaton
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i iv iii ii

63. According to pumping lemma for context free languages :

Let L be an infinite context free language, then there exists some positive integer m such
that any w ∈ L with | w | ≥ m can be decomposed as w = u v x y z
(A) with | vxy | ≤ m such that uvi xyi z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2
(B) with | vxy | ≤ m, and | vy | ≥ 1, such that uvi xyi z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2, …….
(C) with | vxy | ≥ m, and | vy | ≤ 1, such that uvi xyi z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2, …….
(D) with | vxy | ≥ m, and | vy | ≥ 1, such that uvi xyi z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2, …….

64. Given two spatial masks

 0 1 0   1 1 1 
S1 =  1 –4 0  and S2 =  1 –8 1 
 
 0 1 0   1 1 1 
The Laplacian of an image at all points (x, y) can be implemented by convolving the
image with spatial mask. Which of the following can be used as the spatial mask ?
(A) only S1 (B) only S2
(C) Both S1 and S2 (D) None of these

65. Given a simple image of size 10 × 10 whose histogram models the symbol probabilities
and is given by
p1 p2 p3 p4
a b c d
The first order estimate of image entropy is maximum when
1 1
(A) a = 0, b = 0, c = 0, d = 1 (B) a = 2, b = 2, c = 0, d = 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) a = 3, b = 3, c = 3, d = 0 (D) a = 4, b = 4, c = 4, d = 4

D-87-14 13 Paper-III
66. A Butterworth lowpass filter of order n, with a cutoff frequency at distance D0 from the
origin, has the transfer function H(u, v) given by
1 1
(A) 2n (B)
D(u, v) D(u, v)n
1+ D  1+ D 
 0   0 
1 1
(C) (D)
 D0  2n  D0 n
1+  1+ 
D(u, v) D(u, v)

67. If an artificial variable is present in the ‘basic variable’ column of optimal simplex table,
then the solution is
(A) Optimum (B) Infeasible
(C) Unbounded (D) Degenerate

68. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
(A) total supply equals total demand
(B) total supply does not equal total demand
(C) the solution so obtained is not feasible
(D) none of these

69. Five men are available to do five different jobs. From past records, the time (in hours) that
each man takes to do each job is known and is given in the following table :
Jobs
I II III IV V
P 2 9 2 7 1
Q 6 8 7 6 1
Men R 4 6 5 3 1
S 4 2 7 3 1
T 5 3 9 5 1
Find out the minimum time required to complete all the jobs.
(A) 5 (B) 11
(C) 13 (D) 15

70. Consider the following statements about a perception :

I. Feature detector can be any function of the input parameters.
II. Learning procedure only adjusts the connection weights to the output layer.
Identify the correct statement out of the following :
(A) I is false and II is false. (B) I is true and II is false.
(C) I is false and II is true. (D) I is true and II is true.

Paper-III 14 D-87-14
71. A _________ point of a fuzzy set A is a point x ∈ X at which µA(x) = 0.5
(A) core (B) support
(C) crossover (D) α-cut

72. Match the following learning modes w.r.t. characteristics of available information for
learning :
a. Supervised i. Instructive information on desired responses,
explicitly specified by a teacher.
b. Recording ii. A priori design information for memory storing
c. Reinforcement iii. Partial information about desired responses, or
only “right” or “wrong” evaluative information
d. Unsupervised iv. No information about desired responses
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) ii iii iv i

73. Which of the following versions of Windows O.S. contain built-in partition manager
which allows us to shrink and expand pre-defined drives ?
(A) Windows Vista (B) Windows 2000
(C) Windows NT (D) Windows 98

74. A Trojan horse is

(A) A program that performs a legitimate function that is known to an operating system
or its user and also has a hidden component that can be used for nefarious purposes
like attacks on message security or impersonation.
(B) A piece of code that can attach itself to other programs in the system and spread to
other systems when programs are copied or transferred.
(C) A program that spreads to other computer systems by exploiting security holes like
weaknesses in facilities for creation of remote processes
(D) All of the above

75. Which of the following computing models is not an example of distributed computing
environment ?
(A) Cloud computing (B) Parallel computing
(C) Cluster computing (D) Peer-to-peer computing
_____________
D-87-14 15 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 16 D-87-14
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
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J 871
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J-87-14
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Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. Infrared signals can be used for short 6. A grammar G is LL(1) if and only if
range communication in a closed the following conditions hold for two
area using _______ propagation. distinct productions A → α | β
(A) ground (B) sky I. First (α) ∩ First (β) ≠ {a} where
(C) line of sight (D) space a is some terminal symbol of the
grammar.
2. A bridge has access to _______ II. First (α) ∩ First (β) ≠ λ
address in the same network. III. First (α) ∩ Follow (A) = φ if λ ∈
(A) Physical (B) Network First (β)
(C) Datalink (D) Application (A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) II and III (D) I, II and III
3. The minimum frame length for
10 Mbps Ethernet is _______ bytes 7. Which of the following suffices to convert
and maximum is _______ bytes. an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar ?
(A) Removing left recursion alone
(A) 64 & 128 (B) 128 & 1518
(B) Removing the grammar alone
(C) 1518 & 3036 (D) 64 & 1518 (C) Removing left recursion and
4. The bit rate of a signal is 3000 bps. If factoring the grammar
each signal unit carries 6 bits, the baud (D) None of the above
rate of the signal is _______. 8. A shift reduce parser suffers from
(A) 500 baud/sec (A) shift reduce conflict only
(B) 1000 baud/sec (B) reduce reduce conflict only
(C) 3000 baud/sec (C) both shift reduce conflict and
reduce reduce conflict
(D) 18000 baud/sec. (D) shift handle and reduce handle
5. Match the following : conflicts
List – I List – II 9. The context free grammar for the
a. Physical i. Allow resources to language L = {anbmck | k = |n – m|,
layer network access n > 0, m > 0, k > 0} is
b. Datalink ii. Move packets from (A) S → S1S3, S1 → aS1c | S2| λ,
layer one destination to
S2 → aS2b|λ, S3 → aS3b| S4 | λ,
other
c. Network iii. Process to process S4 → bS4c|λ
layer message delivery (B) S → S1S3, S1→ aS1S2c | λ,
d. Transport iv. Transmission of S2 → aS2b|λ, S3 → aS3b| S4 |λ,
layer bit stream
e. Application v. Formation of S4 → bS4c|λ
Layer frames (C) S → S1|S2, S1→ aS1S2c | λ,
Codes : S2 → aS2b | λ, S3 → aS3b | S4 |λ,
a b c d e S4 → bS4c|λ
(A) iv v ii iii i
(B) v iv i ii iii (D) S → S1 | S3, S1→ aS1c|S2 | λ,
(C) i iii ii v iv S2 → aS2b | λ, S3 → a S3b| S4 | λ,
(D) i ii iv iii v S4 → bS4c | λ
Paper-II 2 J-87-14
10. The regular grammar for the language
L = {w|na(w) and nb(w) are both even,
w ∈ {a, b}*} is given by :
(Assume, p, q, r and s are states)
(A) p → aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap
r → as | bp, s → ar | bq, p and s
are initial and final states.
(B) p → aq | br, q → bs | ap
r → as | bp, s → ar | bq, p and s
are initial and final states.
(C) p → aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap
r → as | bp, s → ar | bq
p is both initial and final states.
(D) p → aq | br, q → bs | ap
r → as | bp, s → ar | bq
p is both initial and final states.
11. KPA in CMM stands for
(A) Key Process Area
(B) Key Product Area
(C) Key Principal Area
(D) Key Performance Area
12. Which one of the following is not a
risk management technique for
managing the risk due to unrealistic
schedules and budgets ?
(A) Detailed multi source cost and
schedule estimation.
(B) Design cost
(C) Incremental development
(D) Information hiding
13. _______ of a system is the structure or
structures of the system which
comprise software elements, the
externally visible properties of these
elements and the relationship amongst
them.
(A) Software construction
(B) Software evolution
(C) Software architecture
(D) Software reuse
14. In function point analysis, the number
of complexity adjustment factors is
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 20
J-87-14
15. Regression testing is primarily related to
(A) Functional testing
(B) Development testing
(C) Data flow testing
(D) Maintenance testing
16. How many different truth tables of the
compound propositions are there that
involve the propositions p & q ?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16
17. A Boolean function F is called self-
dual if and only if
– – –
F(x1, x2, … xn) = F(x 1, x2, … x n)
How many Boolean functions of
degree n are self-dual ?
n
(A) 2n (B) (2)2
2 n–1
(C) (2) n (D) (2) 2
18. Which of the following statement(s) is
(are) not correct ?
i. The 2’s complement of 0 is 0.
ii. In 2’s complement, the left most
bit cannot be used to express a
quantity.
iii. For an n-bit word (2’s
complement) which includes the
sign bit, there are 2n–1 positive
integers, 2n+1 negative integers
and one 0 for a total of 2n unique
states.
iv. In 2’s complement the significant
information is contained in the
1’s of positive numbers and 0’s
of the negative numbers.
(A) i & iv (B) i & ii
(C) iii (D) iv
19. The notation ∃!xP(x) denotes the
proposition “there exists a unique x
such that P(x) is true”.
Give the truth values of the following
statements :
I. ∃!xP(x) → ∃xP(x)
II. ∃!x ¬ P(x) → ¬∀xP(x)
(A) Both I & II are true.
(B) Both I & II are false.
(C) I – false, II – true
(D) I – true, II – false
3 Paper-II
20. Give a compound proposition 23. Consider a complete bipartite graph
involving propositions p, q and r that is km,n. For which values of m and n does
true when exactly two of p, q and r are
true and is false otherwise. this, complete graph have a Hamilton
(A) (p∨q∧¬r) ∧ (p∧¬q∧r) ∧ (¬p∧q∧r) circuit
(B) (p∧q∧¬r) ∧ (p∨q∧¬r) ∧ (¬p∧q∧r) (A) m = 3, n = 2 (B) m = 2, n = 3
(C) (p∧q∧¬r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧r) ∧ (¬p∧q∧r) (C) m = n > 2 (D) m = n > 3
(D) (p∧q∧¬r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧r) ∨ (¬p∧q∧r)
21. Consider the graph given below as : 24. Big-O estimates for the factorial
function and the logarithm of the
factorial function i.e. n! and log n! is
given by
(A) O(n!) and O(n log n)
(B) O(nn) and O(n log n)
(C) O(n!) and O(log n!)
Which one of the following graph is (D) O(nn) and O(log n!)
isomorphic to the above graph ?
25. How many cards must be chosen from
a deck to guarantee that atleast
(A) i. two aces of two kinds are chosen.
ii. two aces are chosen.
iii. two cards of the same kind are
chosen.
iv. two cards of two different kinds
(B) are chosen.
(A) 50, 50, 14, 5 (B) 51, 51, 15, 7
(C) 52, 52, 14, 5 (D) 51, 51, 14, 5
26. Match the following with respect to the
mobile computing technologies :
(C) List – I List – II
a. GPRS i. An integrated digital
radio standard
b. GSM ii. 3G wireless/Mobile
technology
(D) c. UMTS iii. Nine different
schemes for
modulation and error
22. The upper bound and lower bound for correction
the number of leaves in a B-tree of d. EDGE iv. An emerging wireless
degree K with height h is given by : service that offers a
h–1 mobile data
(A) Kh and 2K/2
Codes :
h–1 a b c d
(B) K*h and 2K/2
(A) iii iv ii i
h–1
(C) Kh and 2K/2 (B) iv i ii iii
h–1 (C) ii iii iv i
(D) K*h and 2K/2 (D) ii i iv iii
Paper-II 4 J-87-14
27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is 32. Match the following :
I. A software program that runs on List – I List – II
the client as well as on the a. Multilevel i. Time-slicing
application server. feedback queue
II. A software program that runs on b. FCFS ii. Criteria to
the client side only. move processes
III. A software program that runs on between queues
the application server, where c. Shortest iii. Batch
most of the components reside. process next processing
(A) I, II & III (B) I & II d. Round robin iv. Exponential
(C) II & III (D) I only scheduling smoothening
28. A software agent is defined as Codes :
I. A software developed for a b c d
accomplishing a given task. (A) i iii ii iv
II. A computer program which is (B) iv iii ii i
capable of acting on behalf of the (C) iii i iv i
user in order to accomplish a (D) ii iii iv i
given computational task. 33. Consider a system with five processes
III. An open source software for
accomplishing a given task. P0 through P4 and three resource types
(A) I R1, R2 and R3. Resource type R1 has
(B) II
(C) III 10 instances, R2 has 5 instances and R3
(D) All of the above has 7 instances. Suppose that at time
29. Match the following : T0, the following snapshot of the
List – I List – II system has been taken :
a. Classification i. Principal
component Allocation
analysis R1 R2 R3
b. Clustering ii. Branch and Bound P0 0 1 0
c. Feature iii. K-nearest
Extraction neighbour P1 2 0 0
d. Feature iv. K-means P2 3 0 2
Selection
Codes : P3 2 1 1
a b c d P4 0 2 2
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iv iii i ii Max
(C) iii iv i ii R1 R2 R3
(D) iv iii ii i 7 5 3
30. SET, an open encryption and security 3 2 2
specification model that is designed for 9 0 2
protecting credit card transactions on 2 2 2
the internet, stands for 4 3 3
(A) Secure Electronic Transaction
(B) Secular Enterprise for Transaction Available
(C) Security Electronic Transmission R1 R2 R3
(D) Secured Electronic Termination 3 3 2
31. In a paged memory management Assume that now the process P1 requests
algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes
30 nanoseconds to search Translation one additional instance of type R1 and
Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 two instances of resource type R3. The
nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the
effective memory access time is state resulting after this allocation will be
(A) 91 ns (B) 69 ns (A) Ready state (B) Safe state
(C) 200 ns (D) 160 ns (C) Blocked state (D) Unsafe state
J-87-14 5 Paper-II
34. Match the following : 38. Searching for an element in the hash
List – I List – II table requires O(1) time for the
a. Contiguous i. This scheme ________ time, whereas for direct
allocation supports very addressing it holds for the ________
large file sizes. time.
b. Linked ii. This allocation
allocation technique (A) worst-case, average
supports only (B) worst-case, worst-case
sequential files. (C) average, worst-case
c. Indexed iii. Number of (D) best, average
allocation disks required
to access file is 39. An algorithm is made up of 2 modules
minimal. M1 and M2. If time complexity of
d. Multi-level iv. This technique modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n)
indexed suffers from
maximum respectively, the time complexity of
wastage of the algorithm is
space in storing (A) min (h(n), g(n))
pointers. (B) max (h(n), g(n))
Codes : (C) h(n) + g(n)
a b c d (D) h(n) * g(n)
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iii ii iv i 40. What is the maximum number of
(C) i ii iv iii parenthesis that will appear on the
(D) i iv ii iii stack at any one time for parenthesis
expression given by
35. Which of the following commands will (( ) ( ( ) ) ( ( ) ) )
output “onetwothree” ? (A) 2 (B) 3
(A) for val; do echo-n $val; done <
one two three (C) 4 (D) 5
(B) for one two three; do echo-n-; 41. Match the following :
done List – I List – II
(C) for n in one two three; do echo-n a. Automatic i. Scope of the
$n; done storage class variable is global.
(D) for n in one two three {echo –n $ n}
b. Register ii. Value of the
36. Mergesort makes two recursive calls. storage class variable persists
Which statement is true after these two between different
recursive calls finish, but before the function calls.
merge step ? c. Static iii. Value stored in
(A) The array elements form a heap. storage class memory and
(B) Elements in each half of the array local to the block
are sorted amongst themselves.
(C) Elements in the first half of the in which the
array are less than or equal to variable is
elements in second half of the array. defined.
(D) All of the above d. External iv. Value stored in
storage class CPU registers.
37. A text is made up of the characters α, Codes :
β, γ, δ and σ with the probability 0.12, a b c d
0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively.
The optimal coding technique will (A) iii iv i ii
have the average length of (B) iii iv ii i
(A) 1.7 (B) 2.15 (C) iv iii ii i
(C) 3.4 (D) 3.8 (D) iv iii i ii
Paper-II 6 J-87-14
42. When we pass an array as an argument 47. Which of the following statements is
to a function, what actually gets passed ? false ?
(A) Address of the array (A) Any relation with two attributes
(B) Values of the elements of the is in BCNF.
array (B) A relation in which every key
has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C) Base address of the array
(C) A prime attribute can be
(D) Number of elements of the array
transitively dependent on a key
in 3NF relation.
43. While (87) printf(“computer”); (D) A prime attribute can be
The above C statement will transitively dependent on a key
in BCNF relation.
(A) print “computer” 87 times
(B) print “computer” 0 times
48. A clustering index is created when
(C) print “computer” 1 times _______.
(D) print “computer” infinite times (A) primary key is declared and
ordered
44. A friend function can be used to (B) no key ordered
(A) avoid arguments between classes. (C) foreign key ordered
(B) allow access to classes whose (D) there is no key and no order
source code is unavailable.
(C) allow one class to access an 49. Let R ={A, B, C, D, E, F} be a relation
unrelated class. schema with the following dependencies
C → F, E → A, EC → D, A → B
(D) None of the above
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A) CD (B) EC
45. Which of the following is the correct
(C) AE (D) AC
value returned to the operating system
upon the successful completion of a
program ? 50. Match the following :
(A) 0 List – I List – II
(B) 1 a. DDL i. LOCK TABLE
(C) –1 b. DML ii. COMMIT
(D) Program do not return a value. c. TCL iii. Natural Difference
d. BINARY iv. REVOKE
Operation
46. Manager’s salary details are hidden
Codes :
from the employee. This is called as
a b c d
(A) Conceptual level data hiding
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) Physical level data hiding
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) External level data hiding (C) iii ii i iv
(D) Local level data hiding (D) iv i ii iii
J-87-14 7 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 8 J-87-14
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
J 87 1 4
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
J-87-14
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü דÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö
®ÖÆüà ÆüÖêÝÖÖ …
6. †®¤ü¸ü פüµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ìü¿ÖÖë ÛúÖê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú ¯ÖœÌëü …
7. Ûú““ÖÖ ÛúÖ´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ûêú †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéšü ¯Ö¸ü Ûú¸ëü …
8. µÖפü †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü ×®ÖµÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûêú †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸üÖê»Ö
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ÃÖÛêú, †Ó×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ü ³ÖÖÂÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, µÖÖ ÛúÖê‡Ô
†®µÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æïü, •ÖîÃÖê ×Ûú †Ó×ÛúŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê ÝÖµÖê
ˆ¢Ö¸ü ÛúÖê ×´Ö™üÖ®ÖÖ µÖÖ ÃÖ±êú¤ü õÖÖÆüß ÃÖê ²Ö¤ü»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê
†µÖÖêÝµÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
9. †Ö¯ÖÛúÖê ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆüÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ü ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ‹¾ÖÓ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú
×®Ö¸üßõÖÛú ´ÖÆüÖê¤üµÖ ÛúÖê »ÖÖî™üÖ®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛú Æîü †Öî¸ü ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ Ûêú ²ÖÖ¤ü
ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ®Ö »ÖêÛú¸ü •ÖÖµÖë … ÆüÖ»ÖÖÓ×Ûú †Ö¯Ö
¯Ö¸üßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ ¯Ö¸ü ´Öæ»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ ŸÖ£ÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú Ûúß ›ãü¯»ÖßÛêú™ü
¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛúŸÖê Æïü …
10. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/ÛúÖ»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ü ¯Öê®Ö ÛúÖ Æüß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Ûú¸ëü …
11. ×ÛúÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛúÖ¸ü ÛúÖ ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛú (Ûîú»ÖÛãú»Öê™ü¸ü) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™êü²Ö»Ö †Öפü ÛúÖ
¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æîü …
12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸üÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ÛúÖê‡Ô ®ÖÛúÖ¸üÖŸ´ÖÛú †ÓÛú ®ÖÆüà Æïü …
1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
1. Beam-penetration and shadow-mask 4. Consider a window bounded by the
are the two basic techniques for lines : x = 0; y= 0; x = 5 and y = 3.
producing color displays with a CRT. The line segment joining (–1, 0) and
Which of the following is not true ? (4, 5), if clipped against this window
I. The beam-penetration is used will connect the points
with random scan monitors. (A) (0, 1) and (2, 3)
II. Shadow-mask is used in raster- (B) (0, 1) and (3, 3)
scan systems. (C) (0, 1) and (4, 3)
III. Beam-penetration method is (D) (0, 1) and (3, 2)
better than shadow-mask 5. Which of the following color models
method. are defined with three primary colors ?
IV. Shadow-mask method is better (A) RGB and HSV color models
than beam-penetration method. (B) CMY and HSV color models
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) HSV and HLS color models
(C) III only (D) IV only (D) RGB and CMY color models
6. In a digital transmission, the receiver
2. Line caps are used for adjusting the clock is 0.1 percent faster than the
shape of the line ends to give them a sender clock. How many extra bits
better appearance. Various kinds of per second does the receiver receive
line caps used are if the data rate is 1 Mbps ?
(A) Butt cap and sharp cap (A) 10 bps (B) 100 bps
(B) Butt cap and round cap (C) 1000 bps (D) 10000 bps
(C) Butt cap, sharp cap and round cap
7. Given U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
(D) Butt cap, round cap and
A = {(3, 0.7), (5, 1), (6, 0.8)}
projecting square cap ~
then A will be : (where ~ → complement)
3. Given below are certain output (A) {(4, 0.7), (2, 1), (1, 0.8)}
primitives and their associated (B) {(4, 0.3), (5, 0), (6, 0.2) }
attributes. Match each primitive with (C) {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 0.3), (4, 1),
its corresponding attributes : (6, 0.2), (7, 1)}
List – I List – II (D) {(3, 0.3), (6.0.2)}
a. Line i. Type, Size, Color 8. Consider a fuzzy set old as defined
b. Fill Area ii. Color, Size, Font below
c. Text iii. Style, Color, Pattern Old = {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2), (40, 0.4),
d. Marker iv. Type, Width, Color (50, 0.6), (60, 0.8), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Codes : Then the alpha-cut for alpha = 0.4 for
the set old will be
a b c d
(A) {(40, 0.4)}
(A) i ii iii iv (B) {50, 60, 70, 80}
(B) ii i iii iv (C) {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2)}
(C) iv iii ii i (D) {(20, 0), (30, 0), (40, 1),
(D) iii i iv ii (50, 1), (60, 1), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Paper-III 2 J-87-14
9. Perceptron learning, Delta learning 13. Match the following with respect to
and LMS learning are learning I/O classes in object oriented
methods which falls under the programming :
category of List – I List – II
(A) Error correction learning – a. fopen() i. returns end of file
learning with a teacher
(B) Reinforcement learning – b. fclose() ii. return for any
learning with a critic problem report
(C) Hebbian learning c. ferror() iii. returns 0
(D) Competitive learning – learning d. feof() iv. returns a file pointer
without a teacher Codes :
a b c d
10. Code blocks allow many algorithms (A) iv i ii iii
to be implemented with the following (B) iii i iv ii
parameters : (C) ii iii iv i
(A) clarity, elegance, performance
(D) iv iii i ii
(B) clarity, elegance, efficiency
(C) elegance, performance, execution 14. Which one of the following describes
(D) execution, clarity, performance the syntax of prolog program ?
11. Match the following with respect to I. Rules and facts are terminated
the jump statements : by full stop (.)
List – I List – II II. Rules and facts are terminated
a. return i. The conditional test by semicolon (;)
and increment III. Variables names must start
portions with upper case alphabets.
b. goto ii. A value associated
with it IV. Variables names must start
c. break iii. Requires a label for with lower case alphabets.
operation Codes :
d. continue iv. An exit from only (A) I, II (B) III, IV
the innermost loop (C) I, III (D) II, IV
Codes :
a b c d 15. Let L be any language. Define even
(A) ii iii iv i (W) as the strings obtained by
(B) iii iv i ii extracting from W the letters in the
(C) iv iii ii i even-numbered positions and
(D) iv iii i ii even(L) = {even (W) | W ∈ L}. We
12. The control string in C++ consists of define another language Chop (L) by
three important classifications of removing the two leftmost symbols
characters of every string in L given by
(A) Escape sequence characters, Chop(L) = {W | ν W ∈ L, with | ν | = 2}.
Format specifiers and White- If L is regular language then
space characters (A) even(L) is regular and Chop(L)
(B) Special characters, White-space is not regular.
characters and Non-white space
(B) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are
characters
(C) Format specifiers, White-space regular.
characters and Non-white space (C) even(L) is not regular and
characters Chop(L) is regular.
(D) Special characters, White-space (D) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are
characters and Format specifiers not regular.
J-87-14 3 Paper-III
16. Software testing is 19. Match the following :
(A) the process of establishing that List – I List – II
errors are not present. a. Correctness i. The extent to
which a software
(B) the process of establishing tolerates the
confidence that a program does unexpected
what it is supposed to do. problems
b. Accuracy ii. The extent to
(C) the process of executing a
which a software
program to show that it is meets its
working as per specifications. specifications
(D) the process of executing a c. Robustness iii. The extent to
which a software
program with the intent of
has specified
finding errors. functions
d. Completeness iv. Meeting
specifications
17. Assume that a program will
with precision
experience 200 failures in infinite Codes :
time. It has now experienced 100 a b c d
failures. The initial failure intensity (A) ii iv i iii
was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the (B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
current failure intensity will be
(D) iv ii i iii
(A) 5 failures/CPU hr
(B) 10 failures/CPU hr. 20. Which one of the following is not a
definition of error ?
(C) 20 failures/CPU hr. (A) It refers to the discrepancy
(D) 40 failures/CPU hr. between a computed, observed
or measured value and the true,
18. Consider a project with the following specified or theoretically
correct value.
functional units :
(B) It refers to the actual output of
Number of user inputs = 50 a software and the correct
Number of user outputs = 40 output.
(C) It refers to a condition that
Number of user enquiries = 35 causes a system to fail.
Number of user files = 06 (D) It refers to human action that
Number of external interfaces = 04 results in software containing a
defect or fault.
Assuming all complexity adjustment
factors and weighing factors as 21. Which one of the following is not a
average, the function points for the key process area in CMM level 5 ?
project will be (A) Defect prevention
(B) Process change management
(A) 135 (B) 722 (C) Software product engineering
(C) 675 (D) 672 (D) Technology change management

Paper-III 4 J-87-14
22. Consider the following relational 25. Consider the schema
schemas for a library database : R = {S, T, U, V}
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, and the dependencies
Publisher, Year, Price) S → T, T → U, U → V and V → S
Collection(Title, Author, Catalog_no)
with the following functional If R = (R1 and R2) be a
dependencies : decomposition such that R1 ∩ R2 = φ
I. Title, Author → Catalog_no then the decomposition is
II. Catalog_no → Title, Author, (A) not in 2NF
Publisher, Year
III. Publisher, Title, Year → Price (B) in 2NF but not in 3NF
Assume (Author, Title) is the key for (C) in 3NF but not in 2NF
both schemas. Which one of the (D) in both 2NF and 3NF
following is true ?
(A) Both Book and Collection are 26. Which one of the following is not a
in BCNF. Client-Server application ?
(B) Both Book and Collection are (A) Internet chat (B) Web browser
in 3NF.
(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection (C) E-mail (D) Ping
in 3NF.
(D) Both Book and Collection are 27. Which of the following concurrency
in 2NF. protocol ensures both conflict
serializability and freedom from
23. Specialization Lattice stands for
deadlock :
(A) An entity type can participate
as a subclass in only one I. 2-phase locking
specialization. II. Time phase ordering
(B) An entity type can participate (A) Both I & II
as a subclass in more than one (B) II only
specialization. (C) I only
(C) An entity type that can (D) Neither I nor II
participate in one specialization.
(D) An entity type that can
participate in one generalization. 28. Match the following :
List – I List – II
24. Match the following : a. Expert i. Pragmatics
List – I List – II systems
a. Timeout ordering i. Wait for graph
protocol b. Planning ii. Resolution
b. Deadlock ii. Roll back c. Prolog iii. Means-end
prevention analysis
c. Deadlock iii. Wait-die scheme d. Natural iv. Explanation
detection language facility
d. Deadlock iv. Thomas Write processing
recovery Rule Codes :
Codes : a b c d
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii ii iv i (B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii i iv iii (C) i ii iii iv
(D) iii i iv iii (D) iv iii ii i
J-87-14 5 Paper-III
29. STRIPS addresses the problem of
efficiently representing and
implementation of a planner. It is not
related to which one of the following ?
(A) SHAKEY
(B) SRI
(C) NLP
(D) None of these
30. Slots and facets are used in
(A) Semantic Networks
(B) Frames
(C) Rules
(D) All of these
31. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N)
Where function g is a measure of the
cost of getting from the start node to
the current node N and h is an
estimate of additional cost of getting
from the current node N to the goal
node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in
which one of the following
algorithms ?
(A) A* algorithm
(B) AO* algorithm
(C) Greedy best first search
algorithm
(D) Iterative A* algorithm
32. ________predicate calculus allows
quantified variables to refer to
objects in the domain of discourse
and not to predicates or functions.
(A) Zero-order (B) First-order
(C) Second-order (D) High-order
33. ________ is used in game trees to
reduce the number of branches of the
search tree to be traversed without
affecting the solution.
(A) Best first search
(B) Goal stack planning
(C) Alpha-beta pruning procedure
(D) Min-max search
Paper-III
34. Consider a uniprocessor system
where new processes arrive at an
average of five processes per minute
and each process needs an average of
6 seconds of service time. What will
be the CPU utilization ?
(A) 80 % (B) 50 %
(C) 60 % (D) 30 %
35. Consider a program that consists of 8
pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4
page frames in the physical memory
for the pages. The page reference
string is :
12325634637315363424
3451
The number of page faults in LRU
and optimal page replacement
algorithms are respectively (without
including initial page faults to fill
available page frames with pages) :
(A) 9 and 6 (B) 10 and 7
(C) 9 and 7 (D) 10 and 6
36. Which of the following statements is
not true about disk-arm scheduling
algorithms ?
(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first)
algorithm increases performance
of FCFS.
(B) The number of requests for
disk service are not influenced
by file allocation method.
(C) Caching the directories and
index blocks in main memory
can also help in reducing disk
arm movements.
(D) SCAN and C-SCAN
algorithms are less likely to
have a starvation problem.
6 J-87-14
37. _________ maintains the list of free 42. The output of a sequential circuit
disk blocks in the Unix file system. depends on
(A) I-node (A) present input only
(B) Boot block (B) past input only
(C) Super block (C) both present and past input
(D) File allocation table
(D) past output only
38. A part of Windows 2000 operating
system that is not portable is 43. A byte addressable computer has a
(A) Device Management memory capacity of 2m Kbytes and
(B) Virtual Memory Management can perform 2n operations. An
(C) Processor Management instruction involving 3 operands and
(D) User Interface one operator needs a maximum of
(A) 3m bits
39. Match the following with reference
to Unix shell scripts : (B) m + n bits
List – I List – II (C) 3m + n bits
a. $? i. File name of the (D) 3m + n + 30 bits
current script
b. $# ii. List of arguments 44. Which of the following flip-flops is
c. $0 iii. The number of free from race condition ?
arguments (A) T flip-flop
d. $* iv. Exit status of last (B) SR flip-flop
command
(C) Master-slave JK flip-flop
Codes :
a b c d (D) None of the above
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) ii iii i iv 45. One of the main features that
(C) iv iii i ii distinguish microprocessor from
(D) i iii i iv micro-computers is
(A) words are usually larger in
40. The advantage of _______ is that it microprocessors.
can reference memory without (B) words are shorter in
paying the price of having a full microprocessors.
memory address in the instruction. (C) microprocessor does not
(A) Direct addressing contain I/O devices.
(B) Indexed addressing
(D) None of the above.
(C) Register addressing
(D) Register Indirect addressing
46. The output generated by the LINUX
41. The reverse polish notation command :
equivalent to the infix expression $ seq 1 2 10
((A + B) * C + D)/(E + F + G) will be
(A) A B + C * D + EF + G + / (A) 1 2 10
(B) A B + C D * + E F + G + / (B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) A B + C * D + E F G + +/ (C) 1 3 5 7 9
(D) A B + C * D + E + F G + / (D) 1 5 10
J-87-14 7 Paper-III
47. All the classes necessary for 51. The pure object oriented
windows programming are available programming language with
in the module : extensive metadata available and
(A) win.txt (B) win.main modifiable at run time is
(C) win.std (D) MFC
(A) Small talk (B) C++
(C) Java (D) Eiffel
48. Windows 32 API supports
(A) 16-bit Windows
(B) 32-bit Windows 52. Match the following interfaces of
(C) 64-bit Windows Java. Servlet package :

(D) All of the above List – I List – II

a. Servlet Config i. Enables
49. Superficially the term “object- Servlets to
oriented”, means that, we organize log events
software as a b. Servlet Context ii. Read data
(A) collection of continuous objects from a client
that incorporates both data
c. Servlet Request iii. Write data to
structure and behaviour.
a client
(B) collection of discrete objects
that incorporates both discrete d. Servlet iv. To get
structure and behaviour. Response initialization
parameters
(C) collection of discrete objects
that incorporates both data Codes :
structure and behaviour. a b c d
(D) collection of objects that
(A) iii iv ii i
incorporates both discrete data
structure and behaviour. (B) iii ii iv i
(C) ii iii iv i
50. The “part-whole”, or “a-part-of”, (D) iv i ii iii
relationship in which objects
representing the components of
something associated with an object 53. The syntax of capturing events
representing the entire assembly is method for document object is
called as
(A) CaptureEvents()
(A) Association
(B) CaptureEvents(Orgs eventType)
(B) Aggregation
(C) CaptureEvents(eventType)
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Generalisation (D) CaptureEvents(eventVal)
Paper-III 8 J-87-14
54. Linking to another place in the same 58. Which of the following special cases
or another webpage require two A does not require reformulation of the
(Anchor) tags, the first with the problem in order to obtain a solution ?
________ attribute and the second (A) Alternate optimality
with the _________ attribute. (B) Infeasibility
(A) NAME & LINK (C) Unboundedness
(B) LINK & HREF (D) All of the above
(C) HREF & NAME
(D) TARGET & VALUE 59. The given maximization assignment
problem can be converted into a
minimization problem by
55. Given an image of size 1024 × 1024
pixels in which intensity of each (A) subtracting each entry in a
pixel is an 8-bit quality. It requires column from the maximum
_______ of storage space if the value in that column.
image is not compressed. (B) subtracting each entry in the
(A) one Terabyte table from the maximum value
(B) one Megabyte in that table.
(C) 8 Megabytes (C) adding each entry in a column
from the maximum value in
(D) 8 Terabytes
that column.
(D) adding maximum value of the
56. Match the following cryptographic table to each entry in the table.
algorithms with their design issues :
List – I List – II 60. The initial basic feasible solution of
a. DES i. Message Digest the following transportion problem :
b. AES ii. Public Key Destination
c. RSA iii. 56-bit key D1 D2 D3 Supply
d. SHA-1 iv. 128-bit key
O1 2 7 4 5
Codes :
a b c d Origins O2 3 3 1 8
(A) ii i iv iii O3 5 4 7 7
(B) iii i iv ii O4 1 6 2 14
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i ii iii Demand 7 9 18
is given as
57. Consider a code with five valid code 5
words of length ten : 8
0000000000, 0000011111, 7
1111100000, 1110000011, 2 2 10
1111111111
then the minimum cost is
Hamming distance of the code is
(A) 5 (B) 10 (A) 76 (B) 78
(C) 8 (D) 9 (C) 80 (D) 82

J-87-14 9 Paper-III
61. Given the following equalities : 65. Given the following statements :
E1 : nK+∈ + nK lg n = θ(nK+∈) for all S1 : The subgraph-isomorphism
fixed K and ∈, K > 0 and ∈ > 0. problem takes two graphs G1
E2 : n32n + 6n23n = O(n32n) and G2 and asks whether G1 is
Which of the following is true ? a subgraph of G2.
(A) E1 is correct and E2 is correct. S2 : The set-partition problem takes
(B) E1 is correct and E2 is not as input a set S of numbers and
correct. asks whether the numbers can
(C) E1 is not correct and E2 is be partitioned into two sets A
–
correct. and A = S – A such that
(D) E1 is not correct and E2 is not ∑x ∑x
correct. = –
x∈A x∈A
Which of the following is true ?
62. Consider the fractional knapsack
instance n = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10, (A) S1 is NP problem and S2 is P
10, 12, 18), (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4, problem.
6, 9) and M = 15. The maximum (B) S1 is NP problem and S2 is NP
profit is given by problem.
(Assume p and w denotes profit and
(C) S1 is P problem and S2 is P
weight of objects respectively)
(A) 40 (B) 38 problem.
(C) 32 (D) 30 (D) S1 is P problem and S2 is NP
problem.
63. The solution of the recurrence
 n
relation of T(n) = 3Tfloor 4 + n is 66. Suppose that the splits at every level
  
of quicksort are in the proportion
(A) O(n2) (B) O(nlg n) (1 – α) to α, where 0 < α < ½ is a
(C) O(n) (D) O(l g n) constant. The minimum depth of a
leaf in the recursion tree is
64. If h is chosen from a universal approximately given by
collection of hash functions and is lgn
used to hash n keys into a table of (A) –
lg(1 – α)
size m, where n < m, the expected
number of collisions involving a – lg (1 – α)
particular key K is (B)
lgn
(A) less than 1
(C) – lgn
(B) less than lg n lgα
(C) greater than 1
lgα
(D) greater than lg n (D) – lgn
Paper-III 10 J-87-14
67. Ten signals, each requiring 3000 Hz, 73. Given the following two grammars :
are multiplexed on to a single G1 : S → AB | aaB
channel using FDM. How much
minimum bandwidth is required for A → a | Aa
the multiplexed channel ? Assume B→b
that the guard bands are 300 Hz G2 : S → a S b S | b S a S | λ
wide. Which statement is correct ?
(A) 30,000 (A) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is
(B) 32,700
unambiguous.
(C) 33,000
(D) None of the above (B) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is
ambiguous.
68. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 (C) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is
bps terminals and ‘n’ 300 bps
terminals connected to it. If the unambiguous.
outgoing line is 9600 bps, what is the (D) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is
value of n ? ambiguous.
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 28 74. Match the following :
69. Which of the following is used in the List – I List – II
options field of IPv4 ? a. Chomsky i. S → b S S | a S | c
(A) Strict source routing Normal form
(B) Loose source routing b. Greibach ii. S → a S b | ab
(C) time stamp Normal form
(D) All of the above c. S-grammar iii. S → AS | a
A → SA | b
70. Which layers of the OSI reference
d. LL grammar iv. S → a B S B
model are host-to-host layers ?
(A) Transport, Session, Presentation, B→b
Application Codes :
a b c d
(B) Network, Transport, Session, (A) iv iii i ii
Presentation (B) iv iii ii i
(C) Data-link, Network, Transport, (C) iii iv i ii
Session (D) iii iv ii i
(D) Physical, Data-link, Network,
Transport 75. Given the following two languages :
71. A network on the Internet has a L1 = {anbn | n > 1} ∪ {a}
subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What L2 = {w C wR | w ∈ {a, b}*}
is the maximum number of hosts it Which statement is correct ?
can handle ? (A) Both L1 and L2 are not
(A) 1024 (B) 2048
(C) 4096 (D) 8192 deterministic.
(B) L1 is not deterministic and L2 is
72. Four bits are used for packed
deterministic.
sequence numbering in a sliding
window protocol used in a computer (C) L1 is deterministic and L2 is not
network. What is the maximum deterministic.
window size ? (D) Both L1 and L2 are
(A) 4 (B) 8 deterministic.
(C) 15 (D) 16
J-87-14 11 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 12 J-87-14
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name)
D8 7 1 5 PAPER - II
Time : 1¼ hours] COMPUTER SCIENCE
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
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or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
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Example : where (3) is the correct response.
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D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER - II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory. Choose the most appropriate option.

1. How many committees of five people can be chosen from 20 men and 12 women such that
each committee contains atleast three women ?
(1) 75240 (2) 52492 (3) 41800 (4) 9900

2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false ?

(a) A connected multigraph has an Euler Circuit if and only if each of its vertices has even
degree.
(b) A connected multigraph has an Euler Path but not an Euler Circuit if and only if it has
exactly two vertices of odd degree.
(c) A complete graph (Kn) has a Hamilton Circuit whenever n /3.
(d) A cycle over six vertices (C6) is not a bipartite graph but a complete graph over
3 vertices is bipartite.
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) only (4) (d) only

3. Which of the following is/are not true ?

(a) The set of negative integers is countable.
(b) The set of integers that are multiples of 7 is countable.
(c) The set of even integers is countable.
(d) The set of real numbers between 0 and ½ is countable.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) (3) (b) only (4) (d) only

4. Consider the graph given below :

The two distinct sets of vertices, which make the graph bipartite are :
(1) (v1, v4, v6); (v2, v3, v5, v7, v8) (2) (v1, v7, v8); (v2, v3, v5, v6)
(3) (v1, v4, v6, v7); (v2, v3, v5, v8) (4) (v1, v4, v6, v7, v8); (v2, v3, v5)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 2 Paper-II

5. A tree with n vertices is called graceful, if its vertices can be labelled with integers 1, 2,....n
such that the absolute value of the difference of the labels of adjacent vertices are all different.
Which of the following trees are graceful ?
(a)

(b)

(c)

Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
6. Which of the following arguments are not valid ?
(a) “ If Gora gets the job and works hard, then he will be promoted. If Gora gets promotion,
then he will be happy. He will not be happy, therefore, either he will not get the job or
he will not work hard”.
(b) “Either Puneet is not guilty or Pankaj is telling the truth. Pankaj is not telling the truth,
therefore, Puneet is not guilty”.
(c) If n is a real number such that n>1, then n2>1. Suppose that n2>1, then n>1.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
7. Let P(m, n) be the statement “m divides n” where the Universe of discourse for both the
variables is the set of positive integers. Determine the truth values of the following
propositions.
(a) $m "n P(m, n) (b) "n P(1, n) (c) "m "n P(m, n)
Codes :
(1) (a) - True; (b) - True; (c) - False (2) (a) - True; (b) - False; (c) - False
(3) (a) - False; (b) - False; (c) - False (4) (a) - True; (b) - True; (c) - True
8. Match the following terms :
List - I List - II
(a) Vacuous proof (i) A proof that the implication p ® q is true based on the fact that
p is false.
(b) Trivial proof (ii) A proof that the implication p ® q is true based on the fact that
q is true.
(c) Direct proof (iii) A proof that the implication p ® q is true that proceeds by
showing that q must be true when p is true.
(d) Indirect proof (iv) A proof that the implication p ® q is true that proceeds by
showing that p must be false when q is false.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 3 Paper-II

9. Consider the compound propositions given below as :
(a) p Ú : (p Ù q) (b) (p Ù : q) Ú : (p Ù q)
(c) p Ù (q Ú r)
Which of the above propositions are tautologies ?
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

10. Which of the following property/ies a Group G must hold, in order to be an Abelian group ?
(a) The distributive property
(b) The commutative property
(c) The symmetric property
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) only (4) (b) only

11. Consider the following program :

#include<stdio.h>
main( )
{
int i, inp;
float x, term=1, sum=0;
scanf(“%d %f ”, & inp, &x);
for(i=1; i<=inp; i++)
{
term = term * x/i;
sum = sum + term ;
}
printf(“Result = %f\n”, sum);
}
The program computes the sum of which of the following series ?
(1) x 1 x2/2 1 x3/3 1 x4/4 1... (2) x 1 x2/2! 1 x3/3! 1 x4/4! 1...
(3) 1 1 x2/2 1 x3/3 1 x4/4 1... (4) 1 1 x2/2! 1 x3/3! 1 x4/4! 1...

12. Consider the following two statements :

(a) A publicly derived class is a subtype of its base class.
(b) Inheritance provides for code reuse.
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) Neither of the statements (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct.

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 4 Paper-II

13. Consider a “CUSTOMERS” database table having a column “CITY” filled with all the names
of Indian cities (in capital letters). The SQL statement that finds all cities that have “GAR”
somewhere in its name, is :
(1) Select * from customers where
city = ‘%GAR%’;
(2) Select * from customers where
city = ‘$GAR$’;
(3) Select * from customers where
city like ‘%GAR%’;
(4) Select * from customers where
city as ‘%GAR’;

14. Match the following database terms to their functions :

List - I List - II
(a) Normalization (i) Enforces match of primary key to foreign key
(b) Data Dictionary (ii) Reduces data redundancy in a database
(c) Referential Integrity (iii) Defines view(s) of the database for particular user(s)
(d) External Schema (iv) Contains metadata describing database structure
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

15. In general, in a recursive and non-recursive implementation of a problem (program) :

(1) Both time and space complexities are better in recursive than in non-recursive program.
(2) Both time and space complexities are better in non-recursive than in recursive program.
(3) Time complexity is better in recursive version but space complexity is better in
non-recursive version of the program.
(4) Space complexity is better in recursive version but time complexity is better in
non-recursive version of the program.

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 5 Paper-II

16. A three dimensional array in ‘C’ is declared as int A[x][y][z]. Here, the address of an item at
the location A[p][q][r] can be computed as follows (where w is the word length of an
integer) :
(1) &A[0][0][0]1w(y*z*q1z*p1r)
(2) &A[0][0][0]1w(y*z*p1z*q1r)
(3) &A[0][0][0]1w(x*y*p1z*q1r)
(4) &A[0][0][0]1w(x*y*q1z*p1r)

17. In C++, which system - provided function is called when no handler is provided to deal with
an exception ?
(1) terminate ( ) (2) unexpected ( ) (3) abort ( ) (4) kill ( )

18. Which of the following provides the best description of an entity type ?
(1) A specific concrete object with a defined set of processes (e.g. Jatin with diabetes)
(2) A value given to a particular attribute (e.g. height - 230 cm)
(3) A thing that we wish to collect data about zero or more, possibly real world examples
of it may exist
(4) A template for a group of things with the same set of characteristics that may exist in
the real world

19. Data which improves the performance and accessibility of the database are called :
(1) Indexes (2) User Data
(3) Application Metadata (4) Data Dictionary

20. A relation R = {A, B, C, D, E, F,G} is given with following set of functional dependencies :
F = {AD ® E, BE ® F, B ® C, AF ® G}
Which of the following is a candidate key ?
(1) A (2) AB (3) ABC (4) ABD

21. Which of the following services is not provided by wireless access point in 802.11 WLAN ?
(1) Association (2) Disassociation (3) Error correction (4) Integration

22. Which of the following fields in IPv 4 datagram is not related to fragmentation ?
(1) Type of service (2) Fragment offset (3) Flags (4) Identification

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 6 Paper-II

23. Four channels are multiplexed using TDM. If each channel sends 100 bytes/second and we
multiplex 1 byte per channel, then the bit rate for the link is __________.
(1) 400 bps (2) 800 bps (3) 1600 bps (4) 3200 bps

24. In a typical mobile phone system with hexagonal cells, it is forbidden to reuse a frequency
band in adjacent cells. If 840 frequencies are available, how many can be used in a given
cell ?
(1) 280 (2) 210 (3) 140 (4) 120

25. Using p53, q513, d57 and e53 in the RSA algorithm, what is the value of ciphertext for a
plain text 5 ?
(1) 13 (2) 21 (3) 26 (4) 33

26. A virtual memory has a page size of 1K words. There are eight pages and four blocks. The
associative memory page table contains the following entries :

Page Block
0 3
2 1
5 2
7 0
Which of the following list of virtual addresses (in decimal) will not cause any page fault if
referenced by the CPU ?
(1) 1024, 3072, 4096, 6144 (2) 1234, 4012, 5000, 6200
(3) 1020, 3012, 6120, 8100 (4) 2021, 4050, 5112, 7100

27. Suppose that the number of instructions executed between page fault is directly proportional
to the number of page frames allocated to a program. If the available memory is doubled, the
mean interval between page faults is also doubled. Further, consider that a normal instruction
takes one microsecond, but if a page fault occurs, it takes 2001 microseconds. If a program
takes 60 sec to run, during which time it gets 15,000 page faults, how long would it take to
run if twice as much memory were available ?
(1) 60 sec (2) 30 sec (3) 45 sec (4) 10 sec

28. Consider a disk with 16384 bytes per track having a rotation time of 16 msec and average
seek time of 40 msec. What is the time in msec to read a block of 1024 bytes from this
disk ?
(1) 57 msec (2) 49 msec (3) 48 msec (4) 17 msec

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 7 Paper-II

29. A system has four processes and five allocatable resources. The current allocation and
maximum needs are as follows :
Allocated Maximum Available
Process A 10211 11213 00x11
Process B 20110 22210
Process C 11010 21310
Process D 11110 11221
The smallest value of x for which the above system in safe state is __________.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 0

30. In Unix, the login prompt can be changed by changing the contents of the file __________.
(1) contrab (2) init (3) gettydefs (4) inittab

31. A data cube C, has n dimensions, and each dimension has exactly p distinct values in the
base cuboid. Assume that there are no concept hierarchies associated with the dimensions.
What is the maximum number of cells possible in the data cube, C ?
(1) pn (2) p (3) (2n21) p11 (4) (p11)n

32. Suppose that from given statistics, it is known that meningitis causes stiff neck 50% of the
1
time, that the proportion of persons having meningitis is , and that the proportion of
50000
1
people having stiff neck is . Then the percentage of people who had meningitis and
20
complain about stiff neck is :
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.02% (3) 0.04% (4) 0.05%

33. __________ system is market oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge workers
including Managers, Executives and Analysts.
(1) OLTP (2) OLAP (3) Data System (4) Market System

34. __________ allows selection of the relevant information necessary for the data warehouse.
(1) The Top - Down View (2) Data Warehouse View
(3) Datasource View (4) Business Query View

35. The hash function used in double hashing is of the form :

(1) h (k, i)5(h1(k)1h2(k)1i) mod m (2) h (k, i)5(h1(k)1h2(k)2i) mod m
(3) h (k, i)5(h1(k)1i h2(k)) mod m (4) h (k, i)5(h1(k)2i h2(k)) mod m

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 8 Paper-II

36. In the following graph, discovery time stamps and finishing time stamps of Depth First Search
(DFS) are shown as x/y, where x is discovery time stamp and y is finishing time stamp.

It shows which of the following depth first forest ?

(1) {a, b, e} {c, d, f, g, h} (2) {a, b, e} {c, d, h} {f, g}
(3) {a, b, e} {f, g} {c, d} {h} (4) {a, b, c, d} {e, f, g} {h}

37. The number of disk pages access in B - tree search, where h is height, n is the number of keys,
and t is the minimum degree, is :
(1) u (logn h*t) (2) u (logt n*h) (3) u (logh n) (4) u (logt n)

38. The inorder traversal of the following tree is :

(1) 2 3 4 6 7 13 15 17 18 18 20
(2) 20 18 18 17 15 13 7 6 4 3 2
(3) 15 13 20 4 7 17 18 2 3 6 18
(4) 2 4 3 13 7 6 15 17 20 18 18

39. An ideal sort is an in-place-sort whose additional space requirement is __________.

(1) O (log2 n) (2) O (nlog2 n) (3) O (1) (4) O (n)

40. Which of the following is not a congestion policy at network layer ?

(1) Flow Control Policy
(2) Packet Discard Policy
(3) Packet Lifetime Management Policy
(4) Routing Algorithm

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 9 Paper-II

41. Loop unrolling is a code optimization technique :
(1) that avoids tests at every iteration of the loop.
(2) that improves performance by decreasing the number of instructions in a basic block.
(3) that exchanges inner loops with outer loops.
(4) that reorders operations to allow multiple computations to happen in parallel.

42. What will be the hexadecimal value in the register ax (32-bit) after executing the following
instructions ?
mov al, 15
mov ah, 15
xor al, al
mov cl, 3
shr ax, cl
Codes :
(1) 0F00 h (2) 0F0F h (3) 01E0 h (4) FFFF h

43. Which of the following statements is false ?

(1) Top-down parsers are LL parsers where first L stands for left - to - right scan and
second L stands for a leftmost derivation.
(2) (000)* is a regular expression that matches only strings containing an odd number of
zeroes, including the empty string.
(3) Bottom-up parsers are in the LR family, where L stands for left - to - right scan and R
stands for rightmost derivation.
(4) The class of context - free languages is closed under reversal. That is, if L is any
context - free language, then the language LR5{wR: weL} is context - free.

44. System calls are usually invoked by using :

(1) A privileged instruction (2) An indirect jump
(3) A software interrupt (4) Polling

45. The __________ transfers the executable image of a C++ program from hard disk to main
memory.
(1) Compiler (2) Linker (3) Debugger (4) Loader

46. In software testing, how the error, fault and failure are related to each other ?
(1) Error leads to failure but fault is not related to error and failure.
(2) Fault leads to failure but error is not related to fault and failure.
(3) Error leads to fault and fault leads to failure.
(4) Fault leads to error and error leads to failure.

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 10 Paper-II

47. Which of the following is not a software process model ?
(1) Prototyping (2) Iterative (3) Timeboxing (4) Glassboxing

48. How many solutions are there for the equation x1y1z1u529 subject to the constraints
that x/1, y/2, z/3 and u/0 ?
(1) 4960 (2) 2600 (3) 23751 (4) 8855

49. A unix file system has 1-KB blocks and 4-byte disk addresses. What is the maximum file size
if i-nodes contain 10 direct entries and one single, double and triple indirect entry each ?
(1) 32 GB (2) 64 GB (3) 16 GB (4) 1 GB

50. __________ uses electronic means to transfer funds directly from one account to another
rather than by cheque or cash.
(1) M-Banking (2) E-Banking (3) O-Banking (4) C-Banking

-o0o-

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 11 Paper-II

 Space For Rough Work

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-II! 12 Paper-II

Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name) PAPER - III Roll No.
D8 7 1 5 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND
Time : 2½ hours] APPLICATIONS
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or
using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III!
OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER - III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.

1. The three outputs x1x2x3 from the 833 priority encoder are used to provide a vector address
of the form 101x1x2x300. What is the second highest priority vector address in hexadecimal
if the vector addresses are starting from the one with the highest priority ?
(1) BC (2) A4 (3) BD (4) AC

2. What will be the output at PORT1 if the following program is executed ?

MVI B, 82H
MOV A, B
MOV C, A
MVI D, 37H
OUT PORT1
HLT
(1) 37H (2) 82H (3) B9H (4) 00H

3. Which of the following 8085 microprocessor hardware interrupt has the lowest priority ?
(1) RST 6.5 (2) RST 7.5 (3) TRAP (4) INTR

4. A dynamic RAM has refresh cycle of 32 times per msec. Each refresh operation requires
100 nsec and a memory cycle requires 250 nsec. What percentage of memory’s total operating
time is required for refreshes ?
(1) 0.64 (2) 0.96 (3) 2.00 (4) 0.32

5. A DMA controller transfers 32-bit words to memory using cycle Stealing. The words are
assembled from a device that transmits characters at a rate of 4800 characters per second.
The CPU is fetching and executing instructions at an average rate of one million instructions
per second. By how much will the CPU be slowed down because of the DMA transfer ?
(1) 0.06% (2) 0.12% (3) 1.2% (4) 2.5%

6. A CPU handles interrupt by executing interrupt service subroutine __________.

(1) by checking interrupt register after execution of each instruction
(2) by checking interrupt register at the end of the fetch cycle
(3) whenever an interrupt is registered
(4) by checking interrupt register at regular time interval

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 2 Paper-III

7. Given the following set of prolog clauses :
father(X, Y) :
parent(X, Y),
male(X),
parent(Sally, Bob),
parent(Jim, Bob),
parent(Alice, Jane),
parent(Thomas, Jane),
male(Bob),
male(Jim),
female(Salley),
female(Alice).
How many atoms are matched to the variable ‘X’ before the query
father(X, Jane) reports a Result ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

8. Forward chaining systems are __________ where as backward chaining systems are
__________.
(1) Data driven, Data driven (2) Goal driven, Data driven
(3) Data driven, Goal driven (4) Goal driven, Goal driven

9. Match the following w.r.t. programming languages :

List - I List - II
(a) JAVA (i) Dynamically object oriented
(b) Python (ii) Statically Non-object oriented
(c) Prolog (iii) Statically object oriented
(d) ADA (iv) Dynamically non-object oriented
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

10. The combination of an IP address and a port number is known as ___________.

(1) network number (2) socket address
(3) subnet mask number (4) MAC address

11. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 15,000 frames per minute
with each frame carrying an average of 8,000 bits. What is the throughput of this network ?
(1) 2 Mbps (2) 60 Mbps (3) 120 Mbps (4) 10 Mbps

12. Consider a subnet with 720 routers. If a three-level hierarchy is choosen with eight clusters,
each containing 9 regions of 10 routers, then total number of entries in the routing table is
__________.
(1) 25 (2) 27 (3) 53 (4) 72

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 3 Paper-III

13. In a classful addressing, the IP addresses with 0 (zero) as network number :
(1) refers to the current network
(2) refers to broadcast on the local network
(3) refers to broadcast on a distant network
(4) refers to loopback testing

14. In electronic mail, which of the following protocols allows the transfer of multimedia
messages ?
(1) IMAP (2) SMTP (3) POP 3 (4) MIME

15. A device is sending out data at the rate of 2000 bps. How long does it take to send a file of
1,00,000 characters ?
(1) 50 (2) 200 (3) 400 (4) 800

16. In Activity - Selection problem, each activity i has a start time si and a finish time fi where
si £ fi . Activities i and j are compatible if :
(1) si ³ fj (2) sj ³ fi (3) si ³ fj or sj ³ fi (4) si ³ fj and sj ³ fi

17. Given two sequences X and Y :

X 5 a, b, c, b, d, a, b

Y 5 b, d, c, a, b, a .
The longest common subsequence of X and Y is :
(1) b, c, a (2) c, a, b (3) b, c, a, a (4) b, c, b, a

18. If there are n integers to sort, each integer has d digits and each digit is in the set {1, 2, ..., k},
radix sort can sort the numbers in :
(1) O(d n k) (2) O(d nk) (3) O((d1n)k) (4) O(d(n1k))

19. The solution of the recurrence relation

 u(1) if n ≤ 80

T(n) ≤   n   7n 
 T  s  1 T  10 1 6  1 O(n) if n > 80

is :
(1) O(lg n) (2) O(n)
(3) O(n lg n) (4) None of the above

20. Floyd-Warshall algorithm utilizes __________ to solve the all-pairs shortest paths problem
on a directed graph in __________ time.
(1) Greedy algorithm, u(V3) (2) Greedy algorithm, u(V2 lgn)
(3) Dynamic programming, u(V ) 3 (4) Dynamic programming, u(V2 lgn)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 4 Paper-III

  3 3 1 1
21. Let n54 and (a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , a 4 )5(do, if, int, while). Let p(1 : 4) 5  , , ,  and
8 8 8 8

 2 3 1 1 1
q(1 : 4) 5  , , , ,  where p(i) and q(i) denotes the probability with which we search ai
 8 8 8 8 8
and the identifier x being searched satisfy ai < x < ai11 respectively. The optimal search tree
is given by :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

22. The family of context sensitive languages is __________ under union and __________ under
reversal.
(1) closed, not closed (2) not closed, not closed
(3) closed, closed (4) not closed, closed

23. Match the following :

List - I List - II
n n
(a) {a b |n > 0} is a deterministic (i) but not recursive language
context free language
(b) The complement of {an bn an|n > 0} (ii) but not context free language
is a context free language
(c) {an bn an} is context sensitive language (iii) but can not be accepted by a deterministic
pushdown automation
(d) L is a recursive language (iv) but not regular
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

24. The language of all non-null strings of a’s can be defined by a context free grammar as
follow :
S ® a S|S a| a
The word a3 can be generated by __________ different trees.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 5 Paper-III

25. Which one of the following non-functional quality attributes is not highly affected by the
architecture of the software ?
(1) Performance (2) Reliability
(3) Usability (4) Portability

26. The context free grammar given by

S ® XYX
X ® aX|bX|l
Y ® bbb
generates the language which is defined by regular expression :
(1) (a1b)*bbb (2) abbb(a1b)*
(3) (a1b)*(bbb)(a1b)* (4) (a1b)(bbb)(a1b)*

27. There are exactly __________ different finite automata with three states x, y and z over the
alphabet {a, b} where x is always the start state.
(1) 64 (2) 256 (3) 1024 (4) 5832

28. Given the following two languages :

L15{an b an|n > 0}
L25{an b an bn11|n > 0}
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) L1 is context free language and L2 is not context free language
(2) L1 is not context free language and L2 is context free language
(3) Both L1 and L2 are context free languages
(4) Both L1 and L2 are not context free languages

29. Which of the following is used to make an Abstract class ?

(1) Making atleast one member function as pure virtual function
(2) Making atleast one member function as virtual function
(3) Declaring as Abstract class using virtual keyword
(4) Declaring as Abstract class using static keyword

30. Match the following with reference to object oriented modelling :

List - I List - II
(a) Polymorphism (i) Picking both operator and attributes with operations
appropriate to model an object
(b) Inheritance (ii) Hiding implementation details of methods from users of
objects
(c) Encapsulation (iii) Using similar operations to do similar things
(d) Abstraction (iv) Create new classes from existing class
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 6 Paper-III

31. In CRC based design, a CRC Team consists of :
(a) one or two users representatives
(b) several programmers
(c) project co-ordinators
(d) one or two system analysts
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

32. The end points of a given line are (0, 0) and (6, 18). Compute each value of y as x steps from
0 to 3, by using equation of straight line :
(1) For x50, y50; x51, y53; x52, y56; x53, y59
(2) For x50, y51; x51, y53; x52, y54; x53, y59
(3) For x50, y52; x51, y53; x52, y56; x53, y59
(4) For x50, y50; x51, y53; x52, y54; x53, y56

33. Which of the following graphic primitives are considered as the basic building blocks of
computer graphics ?
(a) Points (b) Lines (c) Polylines (d) Polygons
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

34. Javascript and Java has similar name because __________ is/are true.
(a) Javascripts syntax is loosely based on Java’s syntax
(b) Javascript is stripped down version of Java
(c) Java and Javascript are originated from Island of Java
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a) and (c)

35. Which of the following statements are true with reference to the way of describing XML
data ?
(a) XML uses DTD to describe the data
(b) XML uses XSL to describe the data
(c) XML uses a description node to describe the data
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a) and (c)

36. Which of the following is/are correct with reference to Abstract class and interface ?
(a) A class can inherit only one Abstract class but may inherit several interfaces.
(b) An Abstract class can provide complete and default code but an interface has no code.
Codes :
(1) (a) is true (2) (b) is true
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true (4) Neither (a) nor (b) is true

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 7 Paper-III

37. Match the following with respect to various memory management algorithms :
List - I List - II
(a) Demand paging (i) degree of multiprogramming
(b) Segmentation (ii) working set
(c) Dynamic partitions (iii) supports user view of memory
(d) Fixed partitions (iv) compaction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

38. Function of memory management unit is :

(1) Address translation (2) Memory allocation
(3) Cache management (4) All of the above

39. Consider a system with twelve magnetic tape drives and three processes P1, P2 and P3. Process
P1 requires maximum ten tape drives, process P2 may need as many as four tape drives and
P3 may need upto nine tape drives. Suppose that at time t1, process P1 is holding five tape
drives, process P2 is holding two tape drives and process P3 is holding three tape drives. At
time t1, system is in :
(1) safe state (2) unsafe state (3) deadlocked state (4) starvation state

40. In Unix operating system, special files are used to :

(1) buffer data received in its input from where a process reads
(2) provide a mechanism to map physical device to file names
(3) store list of file names plus pointers associated with i-nodes
(4) store information entered by a user application program or utility program

41. Match the following in Unix file system :

List - I List - II
(a) Boot block (i) Information about file system
(b) Super block (ii) Information about file
(c) Inode table (iii) Storage space
(d) Data block (iv) Code for making OS ready
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 8 Paper-III

42. In an operating system, indivisibility of operation means :
(1) Operation is interruptable
(2) Race - condition may occur
(3) Processor can not be pre-empted
(4) All of the above

43. A horn clause is __________.

(1) A clause in which no variables occur in the expression
(2) A clause that has at least one negative literal
(3) A disjunction of a number of literals
(4) A clause that has at most one positive literal

44. In Propositional Logic, given P and P ® Q, we can infer __________.

(1) ~ Q (2) Q (3) P ∧ Q (4) :P∧Q

45. Reasoning strategies used in expert systems include __________.

(1) Forward chaining, backward chaining and problem reduction
(2) Forward chaining, backward chaining and boundary mutation
(3) Forward chaining, backward chaining and back propagation
(4) Backward chaining, problem reduction and boundary mutation

46. Language model used in LISP is __________.

(1) Functional programming (2) Logic programming
(3) Object oriented programming (4) All of the above

47. In constraint satisfaction problem, constraints can be stated as __________.

(1) Arithmatic equations and inequalities that bind the values of variables
(2) Arithmatic equations and inequalities that doesn’t bind any restriction over variables
(3) Arithmatic equations that impose restrictions over variables
(4) Arithmatic equations that discard constraints over the given variables

48. As compared to rental and leasing methods to acquire computer systems for a Management
Information System (MIS), purchase method has following advantage :
(1) It has high level of flexibility
(2) It doesn’t require cash up-front
(3) It is a business investment
(4) Little risk of obsolescence

49. Consider the conditional entropy and mutual information for the binary symmetric channel.

The input source has alphabet X5{0, 1} and associated probabilities { }

1 1
, . The channel
2 2

12 p p 
matrix is  p 1 2 p  where p is the transition probability. Then the conditional entropy

is given by :
(1) 1 (2) 2plog(p)2(12p)log(12p)
(3) 11plog(p)1(12p)log(12p) (4) 0

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 9 Paper-III

50. Which of the following is not a lossy compression technique ?
(1) JPEG (2) MPEG (3) FFT (4) Arithmetic coding

51. Blind image deconvolution is ____________.

(1) Combination of blur identification and image restoration
(2) Combination of segmentation and classification
(3) Combination of blur and non-blur image
(4) None of the above

52. A basic feasible solution of a linear programming problem is said to be __________ if at least
one of the basic variable is zero.
(1) degenerate (2) non-degenerate (3) infeasible (4) unbounded

53. Consider the following conditions :

(a) The solution must be feasible, i.e. it must satisfy all the supply and demand constraints.
(b) The number of positive allocations must be equal to m1n21, where m is the number
of rows and n is the number of columns.
(c) All the positive allocations must be in independent positions.
The initial solution of a transportation problem is said to be non-degenerate basic feasible
solution if it satisfies :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

54. Consider the following transportation problem :

Stores
I II III IV Supply
A 4 6 8 13 50
Factories

B 13 11 10 8 70
C 14 4 10 13 30
D 9 11 13 8 50
Demand 25 35 105 20

The transportation cost in the initial basic feasible solution of the above transportation problem
using Vogel’s Approximation method is :
(1) 1450 (2) 1465 (3) 1480 (4) 1520

55. The character set used in Windows 2000 operating system is __________.
(1) 8 bit ASCII (2) Extended ASCII
(3) 16 bit UNICODE (4) 12 bit UNICODE

56. In Unix, the command to enable execution permission for file “mylife” by all is ____________.
(1) Chmod ugo1X myfile (2) Chmod a1X myfile
(3) Chmod 1X myfile (4) All of the above

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 10 Paper-III

57. What will be the output of the following Unix command ?
$rm chap0\[1 - 3\]
(1) Remove file chap0[1 - 3] (2) Remove file chap01, chap02, chap03
(3) Remove file chap\[1 - 3\] (4) None of the above

58. Which of the following statements regarding the features of the object-oriented approach to
databases are true ?
(a) The ability to develop more realistic models of the real world.
(b) The ability to represent the world in a non-geometric way.
(c) The ability to develop databases using natural language approaches.
(d) The need to split objects into their component parts.
(e) The ability to develop database models based on location rather than state and behaviour.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (d) and (e) (4) (c), (d) and (e)

59. Consider the following database table :

Create table test(
one integer,
two integer,
primary key(one),
unique(two),
check(one>51 and <510),
check(two>51 and <55)
);
How many data records/tuples atmost can this table contain ?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 50

60. Suppose ORACLE relation R(A, B) currently has tuples {(1, 2), (1, 3), (3, 4)} and relation
S(B, C) currently has {(2, 5), (4, 6), (7, 8)}. Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and
SQ2 :
SQ1 : Select *
From R Full Join S
On R.B5S.B;
SQ2 : Select *
From R Inner Join S
On R.B5S.B;
The numbers of tuples in the result of the SQL query SQ1 and the SQL query SQ2 are given
by :
(1) 2 and 6 respectively (2) 6 and 2 respectively
(3) 2 and 4 respectively (4) 4 and 2 respectively

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 11 Paper-III

61. Consider the following three SQL queries (Assume the data in the people table) :
(a) Select Name from people where Age>21;
(b) Select Name from people where Height>180;
(c) Select Name from people where (Age>21) or (Height>180);
If the SQL queries (a) and (b) above, return 10 rows and 7 rows in the result set respectively,
then what is one possible number of rows returned by the SQL query (c) ?
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 21

62. The distributed system is a collection of (P) and communication is achieved in distributed
system by (Q) , where (P) and (Q) are :
(1) Loosely coupled hardware on tightly coupled software and disk sharing, respectively.
(2) Tightly coupled hardware on loosely coupled software and shared memory, respectively.
(3) Tightly coupled software on loosely coupled hardware and message passing,
respectively.
(4) Loosely coupled software on tightly coupled hardware and file sharing, respectively.

63. Consider the following three tables R, S and T. In this question, all the join operations are
natural joins (®). (p) is the projection operation of a relation :
R S T
A B B C A C
1 2 6 2 7 1
3 2 2 4 1 2
5 6 8 1 9 3
7 8 8 3 5 4
9 8 2 5 3 5
Possible answer tables for this question are also given as below :
A B C
1 2 4
1 2 5
3 2 4
A B C A B C
3 2 5
5 6 2 1 2 2 1 6 2
7 8 1 3 2 5 3 2 5 A B C
7 8 3 5 6 4 5 2 4 3 2 5
9 8 1 7 8 1 7 8 1 7 8 1
9 8 3 9 8 3 9 8 3 9 8 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
What is the resulting table of pA,B(R®T) ® pB,C(S®T) ?
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 12 Paper-III

64. Consider the two class classification task that consists of the following points :
Class C1 : [21, 21], [21, 1], [1, 21]
Class C2 : [1, 1]
The decision boundary between the two classes C1 and C2 using single perceptron is given
by :
(1) x 12x 220.550 (2) 2x 11x 220.550
(3) 0.5(x 11x 2)21.550 (4) x 11x 220.550

65. Consider a standard additive model consisting of rules of the form of

If x is Ai AND y is Bi THEN z is Ci.
Given crisp inputs x5x0, y5y0, the output of the model is :

(1)
z5 ∑ mAi (x0 ) mBi (y0 ) mCi (z)
i

z 5 ∑ mAi (x0 ) mBi (y0 )

(2)
i

 
(3) z 5 centroid  ∑ mAi (x0 ) mBi (y0 ) mCi (z) 
 i 
 

 
(4) z 5 centroid  ∑ mAi (x0 ) mBi (y0 ) 
 i 
 

66. A bell-shaped membership function is specified by three parameters (a, b, c) as follows :

1 1
b 2b
x2 c b
x 2 c 2b x2 c x2 c
(1) 1 1  
(2) 1 1  
(3) 11 
 a 
 (4) 12 
 a 

 a   a 

67. Which of the following is/are the principle components of a memory-tube display ?
(a) Flooding gun (b) Collector
(c) Phosphorus grains (d) Ground
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) only (3) (d) only (4) All the above

68. Which of the following steps is/are not required for analog to digital conversion ?
(a) Sensing (b) Conversion (c) Amplification
(d) Conditioning (e) Quantization
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (e) (4) None of the above

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 13 Paper-III

69. Which raster locations would be chosen by Bresenham’s algorithm when scan converting a
line from (1, 1) to (8, 5) ?

(1) x y (2) x y (3) x y (4) x y

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 2 3 2 3 2
4 3 4 3 4 3 4 3
5 4 5 4 5 3 5 5
6 4 6 5 6 4 6 4
7 5 7 6 7 4 7 5
8 6 8 7 8 5 8 5

70. Consider a unit square centred at origin. The coordinates of the square are translated by a
1
factor  , 1  and rotated by an angle of 908. What shall be the coordinates of the new
2 
square ?

 21   21   23   23 
(1)  , 0,  , 1 ,  , 1 ,  , 0
 2   2   2   2 

 21   1   3   3 
(2)  , 0  ,  , 1 ,  , 1 ,  , 0 
 2  2  2  2 

 21   1   23   23 
(3)  , 0,  , 0,  , 1 ,  , 0
 2  2   2   2 

 21   1   23   23 
(4)  , 0  ,  , 1 ,  , 1 ,  , 0
 2  2   2   2 

71. Which of the following is/are the components of a CRT ?

(a) Electron Gun
(b) Control Electrode
(c) Focusing Electrode
(d) Phosphor Coated Screen
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 14 Paper-III

72. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Pareto analysis is a statistical method used for analyzing causes, and is one of the
primary tools for quality management.
(2) Reliability of a software specifies the probability of failure-free operation of that software
for a given time duration.
(3) The reliability of a system can also be specified as the Mean Time To Failure (MTTF).
(4) In white-box testing, the test cases are decided from the specifications or the
requirements.

73. Consider a language A defined over the alphabet S5{0, 1} as A 5 0  {  n/2 

}
1n : n > 5 0 .

The expression  n/2  means the floor of n/2, or what you get by rounding n/2 down to the
nearest integer.
Which of the following is not an example of a string in A ?
(1) 011 (2) 0111 (3) 0011 (4) 001111

74. Which one of the following statements, related to the requirements phase in Software
Engineering, is incorrect ?
(1) “Requirement validation” is one of the activities in the requirements phase.
(2) “Prototyping” is one of the methods for requirement analysis.
(3) “Modelling-oriented approach” is one of the methods for specifying the functional
specifications.
(4) “Function points” is one of the most commonly used size metric for requirements.

75. __________ tag is an extension to HTML that can enclose any number of Javascript statements.
(1) <SCRIPT> (2) <BODY> (3) <HEAD> (4) <TITLE>

-o0o-

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 15 Paper-III

 Space For Rough Work

D-8715 !D-8715-PAPER-III! 16 Paper-III

Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name)
J 8 7 1 5 PAPER - II
Time : 1¼ hours] COMPUTER SCIENCE
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
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or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
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Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
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J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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 COMPUTER SCIENCE
PAPER - II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory. Choose the most appropriate option.

1. How many strings of 5 digits have the property that the sum of their digits is 7 ?
(1) 66 (2) 330 (3) 495 (4) 99

2. Consider an experiment of tossing two fair dice, one black and one red. What is the probability
that the number on the black die divides the number on red die ?

22 12 14 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
36 36 36 36

3. In how many ways can 15 indistinguishable fish be placed into 5 different ponds, so that
each pond contains atleast one fish ?
(1) 1001 (2) 3876 (3) 775 (4) 200

4. Consider the following statements :

(a) Depth - first search is used to traverse a rooted tree.
(b) Pre - order, Post-order and Inorder are used to list the vertices of an ordered rooted
tree.
(c) Huffman’s algorithm is used to find an optimal binary tree with given weights.
(d) Topological sorting provides a labelling such that the parents have larger labels than
their children.
Which of the above statements are true ?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph (G) with no loops and parallel edges. Which of the following
is true with respect to this Graph (G) ?
(a) deg (n)/n/2 for each vertex of G
(b) |E(G)|/1/2 (n21) (n22)12 edges
(c) deg (n)1deg (w)/n for every n and v not connected by an edge
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 2 Paper-II

6. Consider the following statements :
(a) Boolean expressions and logic networks correspond to labelled acyclic digraphs.
(b) Optimal boolean expressions may not correspond to simplest networks.
(c) Choosing essential blocks first in a Karnaugh map and then greedily choosing the
largest remaining blocks to cover may not give an optimal expression.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

7. Consider a full - adder with the following input values :

(a) x51, y50 and Ci(carry input)50
(b) x50, y51 and Ci51
Compute the values of S(sum) and Co (carry output) for the above input values.
(1) S51, Co50 and S50, Co51 (2) S50, Co50 and S51, Co51
(3) S51, Co51 and S50, Co50 (4) S50, Co51 and S51, Co50

8. “If my computations are correct and I pay the electric bill, then I will run out of money. If I
don’t pay the electric bill, the power will be turned off. Therefore, if I don’t run out of money
and the power is still on, then my computations are incorrect.”
Convert this argument into logical notations using the variables c, b, r, p for propositions of
computations, electric bills, out of money and the power respectively. (Where Ø means
NOT)
(1) if (cÙb)®r and Øb®Øp, then (ØrÙp)®Øc
(2) if (cÚb)®r and Øb®Øp, then (rÙp)®c
(3) if (cÙb)®r and Øp®Øb, then (ØrÚp)®Øc
(4) if (cÚb)®r and Øb®Øp, then (ØrÙp)®Øc

9. Match the following :

List - I List - II
(a) (p®q)Û(Øq®Øp) (i) Contrapositive
(b) [(pÙq)®r]Û[p®(q®r)] (ii) Exportation law
(c) (p®q)Û[(pÙØq)®o] (iii) Reductio ad absurdum
(d) (p«q)Û[(p®q)Ù(q®p)] (iv) Equivalence
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 3 Paper-II

10. Consider a proposition given as :
“ x/6, if x2/25 and its proof as :
If x/6, then x25x.x/6.6536/25
Which of the following is correct w.r.to the given proposition and its proof ?
(a) The proof shows the converse of what is to be proved.
(b) The proof starts by assuming what is to be shown.
(c) The proof is correct and there is nothing wrong.
(1) (a) only (2) (c) only (3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) only

11. What is the output of the following program ?

(Assume that the appropriate preprocessor directives are included and there is no syntax
error)
main ( )
{ char S[ ]50ABCDEFGH0;
printf (0%C0, * (& S[3]));
printf (0%s0, S14);
printf (0%u0, S);
/* Base address of S is 1000 */
}
(1) ABCDEFGH1000 (2) CDEFGH1000
(3) DDEFGHH1000 (4) DEFGH1000

12. Which of the following, in C++, is inherited in a derived class from base class ?
(1) constructor (2) destructor (3) data members (4) virtual methods

13. Given that x57.5, j521.0, n51.0, m52.0

the value of 22x1j55x>n>5m is :
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

14. Which of the following is incorrect in C++ ?

(1) When we write overloaded function we must code the function for each usage.
(2) When we write function template we code the function only once.
(3) It is difficult to debug macros
(4) Templates are more efficient than macros

15. When the inheritance is private, the private methods in base class are __________ in the
derived class (in C++).
(1) inaccessible (2) accessible (3) protected (4) public

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 4 Paper-II

16. An Assertion is a predicate expressing a condition we wish database to always satisfy. The
correct syntax for Assertion is :
(1) CREATE ASSERTION ‘ASSERTION Name’ CHECK ‘Predicate’
(2) CREATE ASSERTION ‘ASSERTION Name’
(3) CREATE ASSERTION, CHECK Predicate
(4) SELECT ASSERTION

17. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom
from deadlock ?
(a) z - phase Locking
(b) Time stamp - ordering
(1) Both (a) and (b) (2) (a) only
(3) (b) only (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

18. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a Table referenced by __________ constraint.
(a) Primary key (b) Sub key (c) Super key (d) Foreign key
(1) (a) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (d) (4) (a) and (d)

19. Database applications were built directly on top of file system to overcome the following
drawbacks of using file-systems :
(a) Data redundancy and inconsistency
(b) Difficulty in accessing Data
(c) Data isolation
(d) Integrity problems
(1) (a) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

20. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it must be associated with another entity set in
combination with some of their attribute values, is called as :
(1) Neighbour Set (2) Strong Entity Set
(3) Owner Entity Set (4) Weak Set

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 5 Paper-II

21. Consider the given graph

Its Minimum Cost Spanning Tree is __________.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

22. The inorder and preorder Traversal of binary Tree are dbeafcg and abdecfg respectively.
The post-order Traversal is __________.
(1) dbefacg (2) debfagc (3) dbefcga (4) debfgca

23. Level order Traversal of a rooted Tree can be done by starting from root and performing :
(1) Breadth First Search (2) Depth First Search
(3) Root Search (4) Deep Search

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 6 Paper-II

24. The average case occurs in the Linear Search Algorithm when :
(1) The item to be searched is in some where middle of the Array
(2) The item to be searched is not in the array
(3) The item to be searched is in the last of the array
(4) The item to be searched is either in the last or not in the array

25. To determine the efficiency of an algorithm the time factor is measured by :

(1) Counting micro seconds (2) Counting number of key operations
(3) Counting number of statements (4) Counting kilobytes of algorithm

26. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages
and terminates multimedia sessions ?
(1) Session Maintenance Protocol
(2) Real - time Streaming Protocol
(3) Real - time Transport Control Protocol
(4) Session Initiation Protocol

27. Match the following port numbers with their uses :

List - I List - II
(a) 23 (i) World wide web
(b) 25 (ii) Remote Login
(c) 80 (iii) USENET news
(d) 119 (iv) E - mail
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

28. Which of the following is not associated with the session layer ?
(1) Dialog control
(2) Token management
(3) Semantics of the information transmitted
(4) Synchronization

29. What is the size of the ‘total length’ field in IPv 4 datagram ?
(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits (3) 16 bits (4) 32 bits

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 7 Paper-II

30. Which of the following is/are restriction(s) in classless addressing ?
(1) The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2.
(2) The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block.
(3) The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block.
(4) All of the above

31. Match the following :

(a) Forward Reference Table (i) Assembler directive
(b) Mnemonic Table (ii) Uses array data structure
(c) Segment Register Table (iii) Contains machine OP code
(d) EQU (iv) Uses linked list data structure
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

32. The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called :

(1) Macro processor (2) Micro pre - processor
(3) Macro pre - processor (4) Dynamic Linker

33. If all the production rules have single non - terminal symbol on the left side, the grammar
defined is :
(1) context free grammar (2) context sensitive grammar
(3) unrestricted grammar (4) phrase grammar

34. Which one from the following is false ?

(1) LALR parser is Bottom - Up parser
(2) A parsing algorithm which performs a left to right scanning and a right most deviation
is RL (1).
(3) LR parser is Bottom - Up parser.
(4) In LL(1), the 1 indicates that there is a one - symbol look - ahead.

35. Which phase of compiler generates stream of atoms ?

(1) Syntax Analysis (2) Lexical Analysis
(3) Code Generation (4) Code Optimization

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 8 Paper-II

36. A disk drive has 100 cyclinders, numbered 0 to 99. Disk requests come to the disk driver for
cyclinders 12, 26, 24, 4, 42, 8 and 50 in that order. The driver is currently serving a request
at cyclinder 24. A seek takes 6 msec per cyclinder moved. How much seek time is needed for
shortest seek time first (SSTF) algorithm ?
(1) 0.984 sec (2) 0.396 sec (3) 0.738 sec (4) 0.42 sec

37. Let Pi and Pj be two processes, R be the set of variables read from memory, and W be the set
of variables written to memory. For the concurrent execution of two processes Pi and Pj
which of the following conditions is not true ?
(1) R(Pi) Ç W(Pj)5F (2) W(Pi) Ç R(Pj)5F
(3) R(Pi) Ç R(Pj)5F (4) W(Pi) Ç W(Pj)5F

38. A LRU page replacement is used with four page frames and eight pages. How many page
faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty ?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 8

39. What does the following command do ?

grep 2vn “abc” x
(1) It will print all of the lines in the file x that match the search string “abc”.
(2) It will print all of the lines in file x that do not match the search string “abc”.
(3) It will print the total number of lines in the file x that match the string “abc”.
(4) It will print the specific line numbers of the file x in which there is a match for string
“abc”.

40. The Unix Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table
and the user structure. Which of the following information is not the part of user
structure ?
(1) File descriptor table (2) System call state
(3) Scheduling parameters (4) Kernel stack

41. Match the following :

(a) Size-oriented metrics (i) uses number of external interfaces as one of the
measurement parameter.
(b) Function-oriented (ii) originally designed to be applied to business information
metrics systems.
(c) Extended Function (iii) derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity
Point metrics measures by considering the size of the software.
(d) Function point (iv) uses algorithm characteristics as one of the measurement
parameter.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 9 Paper-II

42. In which testing strategy requirements established during requirements analysis are validated
against developed software ?
(1) Validation testing (2) Integration testing
(3) Regression testing (4) System testing

43. Which process model is also called as classic life cycle model ?
(1) Waterfall model (2) RAD model
(3) Prototyping model (4) Incremental model

44. Cohesion is an extension of :

(1) Abstraction concept (2) Refinment concept
(3) Information hiding concept (4) Modularity

45. Which one from the following is highly associated activity of project planning ?
(1) Keep track of the project progress.
(2) Compare actual and planned progress and costs.
(3) Identify the activities, milestones and deliverables produced by a project.
(4) Both (2) and (3).

46. In the case of parallelization, Amdahl’s law states that if P is the proportion of a program
that can be made parallel and (12P) is the proportion that cannot be parallelized, then the
maximum speed-up that can be achieved by using N processors is :

1 1
1 1
(1) (2) (3) P (4) (1 2 P)
(1 2 P) 1 N.P (N 2 1)P 1 P (1 2 P) 1 P1
N N

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Parallel Virtual Machine (PVM) ?
(1) The PVM communication model provides asynchronous blocking send, asynchronous
blocking receive, and non-blocking receive function.
(2) Message buffers are allocated dynamically.
(3) The PVM communication model assumes that any task can send a message to any
other PVM task and that there is no limit to the size or number of such messages.
(4) In PVM model, the message order is not preserved.

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 10 Paper-II

48. Which of the following algorithms sort n integers, having the range 0 to (n221), in ascending
order in O(n) time ?
(1) Selection sort (2) Bubble sort (3) Radix sort (4) Insertion sort

49. Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ?
(1) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted.
(2) Weak entity set avoids the data duplication and consequent possible inconsistencies
caused by duplicating the key of the strong entity.
(3) A weak entity set has no primary keys unless attributes of the strong entity set on
which it depends are included.
(4) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with
tuples in a strong entity set.

50. Which of the following is not valid with reference to Message Passing Interface (MPI) ?
(1) MPI can run on any hardware platform.
(2) The programming model is a distributed memory model.
(3) All parallelism is implicit.
(4) MPI - Comm - Size returns the total number of MPI processes in specified
communication.

-o0o-

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 11 Paper-II

 Space For Rough Work

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-II! 12 Paper-II

Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name) PAPER - III Roll No.
J 8 7 1 5 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND
Time : 2½ hours] APPLICATIONS
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or
using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III!
OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER - III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.

1. For the 8 - bit word 00111001, the check bits stored with it would be 0111. Suppose when
the word is read from memory, the check bits are calculated to be 1101. What is the data
word that was read from memory ?
(1) 10011001 (2) 00011001 (3) 00111000 (4) 11000110

2. Consider a 32 - bit microprocessor, with a 16 - bit external data bus, driven by an 8 MHz
input clock. Assume that this microprocessor has a bus cycle whose minimum duration
equals four input clock cycles. What is the maximum data transfer rate for this
microprocessor ?
(1) 83106 bytes/sec (2) 43106 bytes/sec
(3) 163106 bytes/sec (4) 43109 bytes/sec

3. The RST 7 instruction in 8085 microprocessor is equivalent to :

(1) CALL 0010 H (2) CALL 0034 H (3) CALL 0038 H (4) CALL 003C H

4. The equivalent hexadecimal notation for octal number 2550276 is :

(1) FADED (2) AEOBE (3) ADOBE (4) ACABE

5. The CPU of a system having 1 MIPS execution rate needs 4 machine cycles on an average for
executing an instruction. The fifty percent of the cycles use memory bus. A memory read/
write employs one machine cycle. For execution of the programs, the system utilizes 90 percent
of the CPU time. For block data transfer, an IO device is attached to the system while CPU
executes the background programs continuously. What is the maximum IO data transfer
rate if programmed IO data transfer technique is used ?
(1) 500 Kbytes/sec (2) 2.2 Mbytes/sec (3) 125 Kbytes/sec (4) 250 Kbytes/sec

6. The number of flip-flops required to design a modulo - 272 counter is :

(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 27 (4) 11

7. Let E1 and E2 be two entities in E-R diagram with simple single valued attributes. R1 and R2
are two relationships between E1 and E2 where R1 is one - many and R2 is many - many.
R1 and R2 donot have any attribute of their own. How many minimum number of tables are
required to represent this situation in the Relational Model ?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 2 Paper-III

8. The STUDENT information in a university stored in the relation
STUDENT (Name, SEX, Marks, DEPT_Name)
Consider the following SQL Query SELECT DEPT_Name from STUDENT where SEX5‘M’
group by DEPT_Name having avg (Marks)>SELECT avg (Marks) from STUDENT. It Returns
the Name of the Department for which :
(1) The Average marks of Male students is more than the average marks of students in the
same Department
(2) The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of students in the
University
(3) The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of male students
in the University
(4) The average marks of students is more than the average marks of male students in the
University

9. Select the ‘False’ statement from the following statements about Normal Forms :
(1) Lossless preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible
(2) Lossless preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
(3) Any Relation with two attributes is in BCNF
(4) BCNF is stronger than 3NF

10. The Relation

Vendor Order (V_no, V_ord_no, V_name, Qty_sup, unit_price)
is in 2NF because :
(1) Non_key attribute V_name is dependent on V_no which is part of composite key
(2) Non_key attribute V_name is dependent on Qty_sup
(3) Key attribute Qty_sup is dependent on primary_key unit price
(4) Key attribute V_ord_no is dependent on primary_key unit price

11. The relation schemas R1 and R2 form a Lossless join decomposition of R if and only if :
(a) R1ÇR2 (R12R2)
(b) R1®R2
(c) R1ÇR2 (R22R1)
(d) R2®R1ÇR2
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) happens (2) (a) and (d) happens
(3) (a) and (c) happens (4) (b) and (c) happens

12. In the indexed scheme of blocks to a file, the maximum possible size of the file depends on :
(1) The number of blocks used for index and the size of index
(2) Size of Blocks and size of Address
(3) Size of index
(4) Size of Block

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 3 Paper-III

13. Give the number of principal vanishing point(s) along with their direction for the standard
perspective transformation :
(1) Only one in the direction K (2) Two in the directions I and J
(3) Three in the directions I, J and K (4) Only two in the directions J and K

14. Consider a triangle A(0,0), B(1,1) and C(5,2). The triangle has to be rotated by an angle of
458 about the point P(21, 21). What shall be the coordinates of the new triangle ?

9
(1) ( ) ( 
)
A’ 5 1, 2 2 1 , B’ 5 21, 2 2 2 1 and C’ 5  3 2 2 1,
 2

2 2 1


9
(2) ( ) ( 
)
A’ 5 1, 2 2 1 , B’ 5 2 2 2 1 , 21 and C’ 5  3 2 2 1,
 2

2 2 1


9
(3) ( ) ( 
)
A’ 5 2 1, 2 2 1 , B’ 5 21, 2 2 2 1 and C’ 5  3 2 2 1,
 2

2 2 1


9
(4) A’ 5 ( ) ( ) 
2 2 1 , 2 1 , B’ 5 21, 2 2 2 1 and C’ 5  3 2 2 1,
 2

2 2 1


15. The process of dividing an analog signal into a string of discrete outputs, each of constant
amplitude, is called :
(1) Strobing (2) Amplification (3) Conditioning (4) Quantization

16. Which of the following is not a basic primitive of the Graphics Kernel System (GKS) ?
(1) POLYLINE (2) POLYDRAW (3) FILL AREA (4) POLYMARKER

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?

(a) Mapping the co-ordinates of the points and lines that form the picture into the
appropriate co-ordinates on the device or workstation is known as viewing
transformation.
(b) The right-handed cartesian co-ordinates system in whose co-ordinates we describe the
picture is known as world co-ordinate system.
(c) The co-ordinate system that corresponds to the device or workstation where the image
is to be displayed is known as physical device co-ordinate system.
(d) Left - handed co-ordinate system in which the display area of the virtual display device
corresponds to the unit (?x?) square whose lower left-hand corner is at the origin of the
co-ordinate system, is known as normalized device co-ordinate system.
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c) only (4) (d) only

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 4 Paper-III

18. Match the following :
List - I List - II
(a) Flood Gun (i) An electron gun designed to flood the entire screen with
electrons.
(b) Collector (ii) Partly energised by flooding gun, stores the charge
generated by the writing gun.
(c) Ground (iii) Used to discharge the collector.
(d) Phosphorus grains (iv) Used in memory - tube display and similar to those used
in standard CRT.
(e) Writing Gun System (v) Used in memory - tube display and basically the same as
the electron gun used in a conventional CRT.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(4) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

19. Minimal deterministic finite automaton for the language L 5 {0 n ? n / 0 , n ≠ 4} will have :
(1) 1 final state among 5 states (2) 4 final states among 5 states
(3) 1 final state among 6 states (4) 5 final states among 6 states

20. The regular expression corresponding to the language L where

L5 { x e {0, 1}* ? x ends with 1 and does not contain substring 00 } is :

(1) (1101)* (10101) (2) (1101)* 01
(3) (1101)* (1101) (4) (10101)* 01

21. The transition function for the language L5{w?na(w) and nb(w) are both odd} is given by :
d (q0, a)5q1 ; d (q0, b)5q2
d (q1, a)5q0 ; d (q1, b)5q3
d (q2, a)5q3 ; d (q2, b)5q0
d (q3, a)5q2 ; d (q3, b)5q1
The initial and final states of the automata are :
(1) q0 and q0 respectively (2) q0 and q1 respectively
(3) q0 and q2 respectively (4) q0 and q3 respectively

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 5 Paper-III

22. The clausal form of the disjunctive normal form ¬ A ∨ ¬ B ∨ ¬ C ∨ D is :
(1) A Ù B Ù C Þ D (2) A Ú B Ú C Ú D Þ true
(3) A Ù B Ù C Ù D Þ true (4) A Ù B Ù C Ù D Þ false

23. Which of the following is false for the programming language PROLOG ?
(1) A PROLOG variable can only be assigned to a value once
(2) PROLOG is a strongly typed language
(3) The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single clause or rule
(4) The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single query

24. Which one of the following is true ?

(1) The resolvent of two Horn clauses is not a Horn clause
(2) The resolvent of two Horn clauses is a Horn clause
(3) If we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has
positive literal or non-null goal
(4) If we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has
positive literal or null goal

25. Which transmission technique guarantees that data packets will be received by the receiver
in the same order in which they were sent by the sender ?
(1) Broadcasting (2) Unicasting
(3) Packet switching (4) Circuit switching

26. Which of the following control fields in TCP header is used to specify whether the sender has
no more data to transmit ?
(1) FIN (2) RST (3) SYN (4) PSH

27. Which are the two modes of IP security ?

(1) Transport and certificate (2) Transport and tunnel
(3) Certificate and tunnel (4) Preshared and transport

28. A message “COMPUTERNETWORK” encrypted (ignore quotes) using columnar transposition

cipher with a key “LAYER”. The encrypted message is :
(1) CTTOEWMROPNRUEK (2) MROUEKCTTPNROEW
(3) OEWPNRCTTUEKMRO (4) UEKPNRMROOEWCTT

29. Suppose a digitized voice channel is made by digitizing 8 kHz bandwidth analog voice
signal. It is required to sample the signal at twice the highest frequency (two samples per
hertz). What is the bit rate required, if it is assumed that each sample requires 8 bits ?
(1) 32 kbps (2) 64 kbps (3) 128 kbps (4) 256 kbps

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 6 Paper-III

30. The maximum payload of a TCP segment is :
(1) 65,535 (2) 65,515 (3) 65,495 (4) 65,475

31. An all-pairs shortest-paths problem is efficiently solved using :

(1) Dijkstra’ algorithm (2) Bellman-Ford algorithm
(3) Kruskal algorithm (4) Floyd-Warshall algorithm

32. The travelling salesman problem can be solved in :

(1) Polynomial time using dynamic programming algorithm
(2) Polynomial time using branch-and-bound algorithm
(3) Exponential time using dynamic programming algorithm or branch-and-bound
algorithm
(4) Polynomial time using backtracking algorithm

33. Which of the following is asymptotically smaller ?

(1) lg(lg*n) (2) lg*(lgn) (3) lg(n!) (4) lg*(n!)

34. Consider a hash table of size m5100 and the hash function h(k)5floor (m(kA mod 1)) for

A5
( 5 21 ) 5 0.618033 . Compute the location to which the key k5123456 is placed in
2
hash table.
(1) 77 (2) 82 (3) 88 (4) 89

35. Let f (n) and g (n) be asymptotically non-negative functions. Which of the following is
correct ?
(1) u ( f (n)*g(n))5min (f (n), g(n)) (2) u ( f (n)*g(n))5max (f (n), g(n))
(3) u ( f (n)1g(n))5min (f (n), g(n)) (4) u ( f (n)1g(n))5max (f (n), g(n))

36. The number of nodes of height h in any n - element heap is __________.

 n   n 
(1) h (2) zh (3) ceil  h  (4) ceil  h 1 1 
z  z 

37. In Java, when we implement an interface method, it must be declared as :

(1) Private (2) Protected (3) Public (4) Friend

38. The Servlet Response interface enables a servlet to formulate a response for a client using the
method __________.
(1) void log(Exception e, String s) (2) void destroy( )
(3) int get ServerPort( ) (4) void set ContextType(String type)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 7 Paper-III

39. Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Java applets can not be written in any programming language
(2) An applet is not a small program
(3) An applet can be run on its own
(4) Applets are embedded in another applications

40. In XML we can specify the frequency of an element by using the symbols :
(1) 1*! (2) #*! (3) 1*? (4) 2*?

41. In XML, DOCTYPE declaration specifies to include a reference to __________ file.

(1) Document type Definition (2) Document type declaration
(3) Document transfer definition (4) Document type language

42. Module design is used to maximize cohesion and minimize coupling. Which of the following
is the key to implement this rule ?
(1) Inheritance (2) Polymorphism (3) Encapsulation (4) Abstraction

43. Verification :
(1) refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific
function
(2) gives answer to the question - Are we building the product right ?
(3) requires execution of software
(4) both (1) and (2)

44. Which design matric is used to measure the compactness of the program in terms of lines of
code ?
(1) Consistency (2) Conciseness (3) Efficiency (4) Accuracy

45. Requirements prioritisation and negotiation belongs to :

(1) Requirements validation (2) Requirements elicitation
(3) Feasibility study (4) Requirements reviews

46. Adaptive maintenance is a maintenance which __________.

(1) correct errors that were not discovered till testing phase.
(2) is carried out to port the existing software to a new environment.
(3) improves the system performance.
(4) both (2) and (3)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 8 Paper-III

47. A Design concept Refinement is a :
(1) Top-down approach
(2) Complementary of Abstraction concept
(3) Process of elaboration
(4) All of the above

48. A software design is highly modular if :

(1) cohesion is functional and coupling is data type.
(2) cohesion is coincidental and coupling is data type.
(3) cohesion is sequential and coupling is content type.
(4) cohesion is functional and coupling is stamp type.

49. Match the following for operating system techniques with the most appropriate advantage :
List - I List - II
(a) Spooling (i) Allows several jobs in memory to improve CPU
utilization
(b) Multiprogramming (ii) Access to shared resources among geographically
dispersed computers in a transparent way
(c) Time sharing (iii) Overlapping I/O and computations
(d) Distributed computing (iv) Allows many users to share a computer
simultaneously by switching processor frequently
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

50. Which of the following statements is not true for Multi Level Feedback Queue processor
scheduling algorithm ?
(1) Queues have different priorities
(2) Each queue may have different scheduling algorithm
(3) Processes are permanently assigned to a queue
(4) This algorithm can be configured to match a specific system under design

51. What is the most appropriate function of Memory Management Unit (MMU) ?
(1) It is an associative memory to store TLB
(2) It is a technique of supporting multiprogramming by creating dynamic partitions
(3) It is a chip to map virtual address to physical address
(4) It is an algorithm to allocate and deallocate main memory to a process

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 9 Paper-III

52. Dining Philosopher’s problem is a :
(1) Producer - consumer problem (2) Classical IPC problem
(3) Starvation problem (4) Synchronization primitive

53. In __________ allocation method for disk block allocation in a file system, insertion and
deletion of blocks in a file is easy.
(1) Index (2) Linked (3) Contiguous (4) Bit Map

54. A unix file may be of the type :

(1) Regular file (2) Directory file
(3) Device file (4) Any one of the above

55. Match the following :

List - I List - II
(a) Intelligence (i) Contextual, tacit, transfer needs learning
(b) Knowledge (ii) Scattered facts, easily transferable
(c) Information (iii) Judgemental
(d) Data (iv) Codifiable, endorsed with relevance and purpose
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

56. Match the following knowledge representation techniques with their applications :
List - I List - II
(a) Frames (i) Pictorial representation of objects, their
attributes and relationships
(b) Conceptual dependencies (ii) To describe real world stereotype events
(c) Associative networks (iii) Record like structures for grouping closely
related knowledge
(d) Scripts (iv) Structures and primitives to represent
sentences
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 10 Paper-III

57. In propositional logic P « Q is equivalent to (Where ~ denotes NOT) :
(1) : (P ∨ Q) ∧ : (Q ∨ P) (2) (: P ∨ Q) ∧ (: Q ∨ P )
(3) (P ∨ Q) ∧ (Q ∨ P) (4) : (P ∨ Q) → : (Q ∨ P)

58. Which of the following statements is true for Branch - and - Bound search ?
(1) Underestimates of remaining distance may cause deviation from optimal path.
(2) Overestimates can’t cause right path to be overlooked.
(3) Dynamic programming principle can be used to discard redundant partial paths.
(4) All of the above
59. Match the following with respect to heuristic search techniques :
List - I List - II
(a) Steepest - accent Hill Climbing (i) Keeps track of all partial paths which can be
candidate for further exploration
(b) Branch - and - bound (ii) Discover problem state(s) that satisfy a set of
constraints
(c) Constraint satisfaction (iii) Detects difference between current state and
goal state
(d) Means - end - analysis (iv) Considers all moves from current state and
selects best move
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
60. Match the following for methods of MIS development :
List - I List - II
(a) Joint Application Design (JAD) (i) Delivers functionality in rapid iteration
measured in weeks and needs frequent
communication, development, testing and
delivery
(b) Computer Aided Software Engg (ii) Reusable applications generally with one
specific function. It is closely linked with idea
of web services and service oriented
architecture.
(c) Agile development (iii) Tools to automate many tasks of SDLC
(d) Component based technology (iv) A group based tool for collecting user
requirements and creating system design.
Mostly used in analysis and design stages of
SDLC
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 11 Paper-III

61. A context free grammar for L 5 { w ? n 0 ( w ) > n 1 ( w )} is given by :
(1) S®0?0S?1SS (2) S®0S?1S?0SS?1SS?0?1
(3) S®0?0S?1SS?S1S?SS1 (4) S®0S?1S?0?1

62. Given the following two statements :

S1 : If L1 and L2 are recursively enumerable languages over S, then L1È L2 and L1Ç L2 are
also recursively enumerable.
S2 : The set of recursively enumerable languages is countable.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct
(2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct
(3) Both S1 and S2 are not correct
(4) Both S1 and S2 are correct

63. Given the following grammars :

G1 : S ® AB?aaB
A ® aA ? e
B ® bB ? e

G2 : S ® A ? B
A ® a A b ? ab
B®abB?e
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is unambiguous grammars
(2) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous grammars
(3) both G1 and G2 are ambiguous grammars
(4) both G1 and G2 are unambiguous grammars

64. Given the symbols A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H with the probabilities

1 1 1 2 3 5 5 12
, , , , , , , and respectively. The average Huffman code size in bits
30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30
per symbol is :
67 70 76 78
(1) (2) (3) (4)
30 34 30 30

65. The redundancy in images stems from :

(1) pixel decorrelation (2) pixel correlation
(3) pixel quantization (4) image size

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 12 Paper-III

66. In a binary Hamming Code the number of check digits is r then number of message digits is
equal to :

(1) 2 r 21 (2) 2 r 2r21 (3) 2 r 2r11 (4) 2 r 1r21

67. In the Hungarian method for solving assignment problem, an optimal assignment requires
that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through squares with zero opportunity
cost be equal to the number of :

(1) rows or columns (2) rows 1 columns

(3) rows 1 columns 2 1 (4) rows 1 columns 11

68. Consider the following transportation problem :

→ Warehouse
↓ W1 W2 W3 Supply
F1 16 20 12 200
Factory F2 14 8 18 160
F3 26 24 16 90
Demand 180 120 150

The initial basic feasible solution of the above transportation problem using Vogel’s
Approximation Method (VAM) is given below :

→ Warehouse
W1 W2 W3 Supply
↓ F1 16 (140) 20 12 (60) 200
Factory F2 14 (40) 8 (120) 18 160
F3 26 24 16 (90) 90
Demand 180 120 150

The solution of the above problem :

(1) is degenerate solution (2) is optimum solution

(3) needs to improve (4) is infeasible solution

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 13 Paper-III

69. Given the following statements with respect to linear programming problem :
S1 : The dual of the dual linear programming problem is again the primal problem
S2 : If either the primal or the dual problem has an unbounded objective function value,
the other problem has no feasible solution.
S3 : If either the primal or dual problem has a finite optimal solution, the other one also
possesses the same, and the optimal value of the objective functions of the two problems
are equal.
Which of the following is true ?
(1) S1 and S2 (2) S1 and S3
(3) S2 and S3 (4) S1, S2 and S3

70. Consider the two class classification task that consists of the following points :
Class C1 : [1 1.5] [1 21.5]
Class C2 : [22 2.5] [22 22.5]
The decision boundary between the two classes using single perceptron is given by :
(1) x 11x 211.550 (2) x 11x 221.550
(3) x 1 11.550 (4) x 1 21.550

71. Let A and B be two fuzzy integers defined as :

A 5 {(1, 0.3), (2, 0.6), (3, 1), (4, 0.7), (5, 0.2)}
B 5 {(10, 0.5), (11, 1), (12, 0.5)}
Using fuzzy arithmetic operation given by
mA1B(z) 5 ⊕ (mA(x)ÄmB(y))
x1 y5 z

 ⊕ ≡ max 
f (A1B) is __________ . Note :
 ⊗ ≡ min 
(1) {(11, 0.8), (13, 1), (15,1)}
(2) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 1), (14, 1), (15, 1), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}
(3) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 0.6), (14, 1), (15, 1), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}
(4) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 0.6), (14, 1), (15, 0.7), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}

72. Suppose the function y and a fuzzy integer number around 24 for x are given as
y5(x23) 212.
Around 24 5{(2, 0.3), (3, 0.6), (4, 1), (5, 0.6), (6, 0.3)} respectively. Then f (Around 24) is
given by :
(1) {(2, 0.6), (3, 0.3), (6, 1), (11, 0.3)}
(2) {(2, 0.6), (3, 1), (6, 1), (11, 0.3)}
(3) {(2, 0.6), (3, 1), (6, 0.6), (11, 0.3)}
(4) {(2, 0.6), (3, 0.3), (6, 0.6), (11, 0.3)}

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 14 Paper-III

73. Match the following for unix system calls :
List - I List - II
(a) exec (i) Creates a new process
(b) brk (ii) Invokes another program overlaying memory space with a copy
of an executable file
(c) wait (iii) To increase or decrease the size of data region
(d) fork (iv) A process synchronizes with termination of child process
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

74. WOW32 is a :
(1) Win 32 API library for creating processes and threads.
(2) Special kind of file system to the NT name space.
(3) Kernel - mode objects accessible through Win 32 API
(4) Special execution environment used to run 16 bit Windows applications on 32 - bit
machines.

75. The unix command :

$ vi file1 file2
(1) Edits file1 and stores the contents of file1 in file2
(2) Both files i.e. file1 and file2 can be edited using ‘ex’ command to travel between the files
(3) Both files can be edited using ‘mv’ command to move between the files
(4) Edits file1 first, saves it and then edits file2

-o0o-

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 15 Paper-III

 Space For Rough Work

J-8715 !J-8715-PAPER-III! 16 Paper-III

 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
J 87 1 6
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are,
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.
J-87-16
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. How many different equivalence relations with exactly three different equivalence classes
are there on a set with five elements ?
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 25 (4) 30

2. The number of different spanning trees in complete graph, K4 and bipartite graph, K2, 2
have ______ and _______ respectively.
(1) 14, 14 (2) 16, 14
(3) 16, 4 (4) 14, 4

3. Suppose that R1 and R2 are reflexive relations on a set A.

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) R1 ∩ R2 is reflexive and R1 ∪ R2 is irreflexive.

(2) R1 ∩ R2 is irreflexive and R1 ∪ R2 is reflexive.

(3) Both R1 ∩ R2 and R1 ∪ R2 are reflexive.

(4) Both R1 ∩ R2 and R1 ∪ R2 are irreflexive.

4. There are three cards in a box. Both sides of one card are black, both sides of one card are
red, and the third card has one black side and one red side. We pick a card at random and
observe only one side.
What is the probability that the opposite side is the same colour as the one side we
observed ?
(1) 3/4 (2) 2/3
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/3

Paper-II 2 J-87-16
5. A clique in a simple undirected graph is a complete subgraph that is not contained in any
larger complete subgraph. How many cliques are there in the graph shown below ?

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

6. Which of the following logic expressions is incorrect ?

(1) 1⊕0=1

(2) 1⊕1⊕1=1

(3) 1⊕1⊕0=1

(4) 1⊕1=0

7. The IEEE-754 double-precision format to represent floating point numbers, has a length
of _____ bits.

(1) 16 (2) 32

(3) 48 (4) 64

J-87-16 3 Paper-II
8. Simplified Boolean equation for the following truth table is :

x y z F

0 0 0 0

0 0 1 1

0 1 0 0

0 1 1 1

1 0 0 1

1 0 1 0

1 1 0 1

1 1 1 0

(1) F = y–z + –yz

(2) F = x–y + –xy

(3) F = –xz + x–z

(4) F = –xz + x–z + xyz

– – –– –
9. The simplified form of a Boolean equation (AB + ABC + AC) (AC + B) is :

– –
(1) AB (2) ABC

–
(3) AB (4) ABC

10. In a positive-edge-triggered JK flip-flop, if J and K both are high then the output will be
_____ on the rising edge of the clock.

(1) No change (2) Set

(3) Reset (4) Toggle

Paper-II 4 J-87-16
11. Given i = 0, j = 1, k = –1

x = 0.5, y = 0.0

What is the output of the following expression in C language ?

x * y < i + j || k

(1) –1 (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) 2

12. The following statement in ‘C’

int (*f())[ ];

declares

(1) a function returning a pointer to an array of integers.

(2) a function returning an array of pointers to integers.

(3) array of functions returning pointers to integers.

(4) an illegal statement.

13. Which one of the following is correct, when a class grants friend status to another class ?

(1) The member functions of the class generating friendship can access the members of
the friend class.

(2) All member functions of the class granted friendship have unrestricted access to the
members of the class granting the friendship.

(3) Class friendship is reciprocal to each other.

(4) There is no such concept.

14. When a method in a subclass has the same name and type signatures as a method in the
superclass, then the method in the subclass _____ the method in the superclass.

(1) Overloads (2) Friendships

(3) Inherits (4) Overrides

J-87-16 5 Paper-II
15. What is the value returned by the function f given below when n = 100 ?

int f (int n)

{ if (n = = 0) then return n;

else

return n + f(n-2);

(1) 2550 (2) 2556

(3) 5220 (4) 5520

16. In RDBMS, the constraint that no key attribute (column) may be NULL is referred to as :

(1) Referential integrity

(2) Multi-valued dependency

(3) Entity Integrity

(4) Functional dependency

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE in the context of Relational DBMS ?

I. Views in a database system are important because they help with access control by
allowing users to see only a particular subset of the data in the database.

II. E-R diagrams are useful to logically model concepts.

III. An update anomaly is when it is not possible to store information unless some other,
unrelated information is stored as well.

IV. SQL is a procedural language.

(1) I and IV only (2) III and IV only

(3) I, II and III only (4) II, III and IV only

Paper-II 6 J-87-16
18. In a relational database model, NULL values can be used for all but which one of the
following ?
(1) To allow duplicate tuples in the table by filling the primary key column(s) with
NULL.
(2) To avoid confusion with actual legitimate data values like 0 (zero) for integer
columns and ’’ (the empty string) for string columns.
(3) To leave columns in a tuple marked as ’’unknown’’ when the actual value is
unknown.
(4) To fill a column in a tuple when that column does not really ”exist” for that
particular tuple.

19. Consider the following two commands C1 and C2 on the relation R from an SQL database :
C1 : drop table R;
C2 : delete from R;
Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
I. Both C1 and C2 delete the schema for R.
II. C2 retains relation R, but deletes all tuples in R.
III. C1 deletes not only all tuples of R, but also the schema for R.
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III

20. Consider the following database table having A, B, C and D as its four attributes and four
possible candidate keys (I, II, III and IV) for this table :
A B C D
a1 b1 c1 d1

a2 b3 c3 d1

a1 b2 c1 d2

I : {B} II : {B, C} III : {A, D} IV : {C, D}

If different symbols stand for different values in the table (e.g., d1 is definitely not equal to
d2), then which of the above could not be the candidate key for the database table ?
(1) I and III only (2) III and IV only
(3) II only (4) I only

J-87-16 7 Paper-II
21. Consider the following binary search tree :

If we remove the root node, which of the node from the left subtree will be the new root ?

(1) 11 (2) 12

(3) 13 (4) 16

22. Consider the following operations performed on a stack of size 5 :

Push (a); Pop() ; Push(b); Push(c); Pop();

Push(d); Pop();Pop(); Push (e)

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Underflow occurs

(2) Stack operations are performed smoothly

(3) Overflow occurs

(4) None of the above

23. Suppose you are given a binary tree with n nodes, such that each node has exactly either
zero or two children. The maximum height of the tree will be

n n
(1) – +
2 1 (2) 2 1

(3) (n – 1)/2 (4) (n + 1)/2

Paper-II 8 J-87-16
24. Which of the following is not an inherent application of stack ?

(1) Implementation of recursion

(2) Evaluation of a postfix expression

(3) Job scheduling

(4) Reverse a string

25. In how many ways can the string

A∩B–A∩B–A

be fully parenthesized to yield an infix expression ?

(1) 15 (2) 14

(3) 13 (4) 12

26. A multiplexer combines four 100-Kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits. What is the bit
rate ?

(1) 100 Kbps (2) 200 Kbps

(3) 400 Kbps (4) 1000 Kbps

27. In a fully-connected mesh network with 10 computers, total ______ number of cables are
required and ______ number of ports are required for each device.

(1) 40, 9 (2) 45, 10

(3) 45, 9 (4) 50, 10

28. In TCP/IP Reference model, the job of _______ layer is to permit hosts to inject packets
into any network and travel them independently to the destination.

(1) Physical (2) Transport

(3) Application (4) Host-to-network

J-87-16 9 Paper-II
29. If there are N people in the world and are using secret key encryption/decryption for
privacy purpose, then number of secret keys required will be :

(1) N (2) (N – 1)

N(N – 1) N(N + 1)
(3) 2 (4) 2

30. Optical fiber uses reflection to guide light through a channel, in which angle of incidence
is ________ the critical angle.

(1) equal to (2) less than

(3) greater than (4) less than or equal to

31. The number of strings of length 4 that are generated by the regular expression
(0|∈)1+2* (3|∈), where | is an alternation character, {+, *} are quantification characters,
and ∈ is the null string, is :

(1) 08 (2) 10

(3) 11 (4) 12

32. The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly
language program, is :

MVI A, 42H

MVI B, 05H

UGC: ADD B

DCR B

JNZ UGC

ADI 25H

HLT

(1) 82 H (2) 78 H

(3) 76 H (4) 47 H

Paper-II 10 J-87-16
33. In _______, the bodies of the two loops are merged together to form a single loop
provided that they do not make any references to each other.

(1) Loop unrolling (2) Strength reduction

(3) Loop concatenation (4) Loop jamming

34. Which of the following is not typically a benefit of dynamic linking ?

I. Reduction in overall program execution time.

II. Reduction in overall space consumption in memory.

III. Reduction in overall space consumption on disk.

IV. Reduction in the cost of software updates.

(1) I and IV (2) I only

(3) II and III (4) IV only

35. Which of the following is FALSE ?

(1) The grammar S → a Sb |bSa|SS|∈, where S is the only non-terminal symbol and ∈
is the null string, is ambiguous.

(2) SLR is powerful than LALR.

(3) An LL(1) parser is a top-down parser.

(4) YACC tool is an LALR(1) parser generator.

36. Consider the reference string

0 1 2 3 0 1 4 0 1 2 3 4

If FIFO page replacement algorithm is used, then the number of page faults with three
page frames and four page frames are _______ and ______ respectively.

(1) 10, 9 (2) 9, 9

(3) 10, 10 (4) 9, 10

J-87-16 11 Paper-II
37. Suppose there are four processes in execution with 12 instances of a Resource R in a
system.

The maximum need of each process and current allocation are given below :

Process Max. Need Current

Allocation

P1 8 3

P2 9 4

P3 5 2

P4 3 1

With reference to current allocation, is system safe ? If so, what is the safe sequence ?

(1) No (2) Yes, P1P2P3P4

(3) Yes, P4P3P1P2 (4) Yes, P2P1P3P4

38. If the Disk head is located initially at track 32, find the number of disk moves required
with FCFS scheduling criteria if the disk queue of I/O blocks requests are :

98, 37, 14, 124, 65, 67

(1) 320 (2) 322

(3) 321 (4) 319

39. In UNIX, _________ creates three subdirectories : ‘PIS’ and two subdirectories ‘progs’
and ‘data’ from just created subdirectory ‘PIS’.

(1) mkdir PIS/progs PIS/data PIS

(2) mkdir PIS progs data

(3) mkdir PIS PIS/progs PIS/data

(4) mkdir PIS/progs data

Paper-II 12 J-87-16
40. A scheduling Algorithm assigns priority proportional to the waiting time of a process.
Every process starts with priority zero (lowest priority). The scheduler reevaluates the
process priority for every ‘T’ time units and decides next process to be scheduled. If the
process have no I/O operations and all arrive at time zero, then the scheduler implements
_________ criteria.

(1) Priority scheduling

(2) Round Robin Scheduling

(3) Shortest Job First

(4) FCFS

41. If S1 is total number of modules defined in the program architecture, S3 is the number of
modules whose correct function depends on prior processing then the number of modules
not dependent on prior processing is :

S3 S3
(1) 1+S (2) 1–S
1 1

S1 S1
(3) 1+S (4) 1–S
3 3

42. The ________ model is preferred for software development when the requirements are not
clear.

(1) Rapid Application Development

(2) Rational Unified Process

(3) Evolutionary Model

(4) Waterfall Model

43. Which of the following is not included in waterfall model ?

(1) Requirement analysis (2) Risk analysis

(3) Design (4) Coding

J-87-16 13 Paper-II
44. The cyclomatic complexity of a flow graph V(G), in terms of predicate nodes is :

(1) P+1 (2) P–1

(3) P–2 (4) P+2

Where P is number of predicate nodes in flow graph V(G).

45. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems, is termed as :

(1) Accuracy (2) Reliability

(3) Correctness (4) Robustness

46. An attacker sits between customer and Banker, and captures the information from the
customer and retransmits to the banker by altering the information. This attack is called as
______.

(1) Masquerade Attack

(2) Replay Attack

(3) Passive Attack

(4) Denial of Service Attack

47. Consider the following two statements :

(A) Business intelligence and Data warehousing is used for forecasting and Data mining.

(B) Business intelligence and Data warehousing is used for analysis of large volumes of
sales data.

Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.

Paper-II 14 J-87-16
48. Pipelining improves performance by :

(1) decreasing instruction latency

(2) eliminating data hazards

(3) exploiting instruction level parallelism

(4) decreasing the cache miss rate

49. Consider the following two statements :

(A) Data scrubling is a process to upgrade the quality of data, before it is moved into
Data warehouse.

(B) Data scrubling is a process of rejecting data from data warehouse to create indexes.

Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are true.

50. Given the following statements :

(A) Strategic value of data mining is timestamping.

(B) Information collection is an expensive process in building an expert system.

Which of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(4) (A) is false, (B) is true.

____________ 
J-87-16 15 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 16 J-87-16
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
J 87 1 6
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (3) is the correct response.
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English version will be taken as final.
J-87-16
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. The Boolean function [~ (~p∧q)∧~(~p∧~q)]∨(p∧r) is equal to the Boolean function :

(1) q (2) p∧r

(3) p∨q (4) p

2. Let us assume that you construct ordered tree to represent the compound proposition
(~ (p∧q)) ↔ (~ p ∨ ~ q).

Then, the prefix expression and post-fix expression determined using this ordered tree are
given as ____ and _____ respectively.

(1) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~q~∨↔ (2) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~q, pq∧~p~q~∨↔

(3) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔ (4) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~ q, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔

3. Let A and B be sets in a finite universal set U. Given the following :

|A – B|, |A ⊕ B|, |A| + |B| and |A ∪ B|

Which of the following is in order of increasing size ?

(1) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A ∪ B|

(2) |A ⊕ B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|

(3) |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B|

(4) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|

Paper-II 2 J-87-16
4. What is the probability that a randomly selected bit string of length 10 is a palindrome ?

1 1
(1) (2)
64 32

1 1
(3) (4)
8 4

5. Given the following graphs :

a b

c d

(G1) (G2)

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) G1 contains Euler circuit and G2 does not contain Euler circuit.

(2) G1 does not contain Euler circuit and G2 contains Euler circuit.

(3) Both G1 and G2 do not contain Euler circuit.

(4) Both G1 and G2 contain Euler circuit.

6. The octal number 326.4 is equivalent to

(1) (214.2)10 and (D6.8)16 (2) (212.5)10 and (D6.8)16

(3) (214.5)10 and (D6.8)16 (4) (214.5)10 and (D6.4)16

7. Which of the following is the most efficient to perform arithmetic operations on the
numbers ?

(1) Sign-magnitude (2) 1’s complement

(3) 2’s complement (4) 9’s complement

J-87-16 3 Paper-II
8. The Karnaugh map for a Boolean function is given as
– – – –
CD CD CD CD
– – 0 0 0 0
AB
– 0 0 1 0
AB
AB 1 1 1 1
– 0 1 1 1
AB
The simplified Boolean equation for the above Karnaugh Map is
–
(1) AB + CD + AB + AD (2) AB + AC + AD + BCD
(3) AB + AD + BC + ACD (4) AB + AC + BC + BCD

9. Which of the following logic operations is performed by the following given

combinational circuit ?

(1) EXCLUSIVE-OR (2) EXCLUSIVE-NOR

(3) NAND (4) NOR

10. Match the following :

List – I List – II
a. Controlled Inverter i. a circuit that can add 3 bits
b. Full adder ii. a circuit that can add two binary numbers
c. Half adder iii. a circuit that transmits a binary word or its
1’s complement
d. Binary adder iv. a logic circuit that adds 2 bits
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii ii iv i
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii i iv ii
Paper-II 4 J-87-16
11. Given i= 0, j = 1, k = – 1

x = 0.5, y = 0.0

What is the output of given ‘C’ expression ?

x * 3 & & 3 || j | k

(1) –1 (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) 2

12. The following ‘C’ statement :

int * f[ ]( ) ;

declares :

(1) A function returning a pointer to an array of integers.

(2) Array of functions returning pointers to integers.

(3) A function returning an array of pointers to integers.

(4) An illegal statement.

13. If a function is friend of a class, which one of the following is wrong ?

(1) A function can only be declared a friend by a class itself.

(2) Friend functions are not members of a class, they are associated with it.

(3) Friend functions are members of a class.

(4) It can have access to all members of the class, even private ones.

14. In C++, polymorphism requires :

(1) Inheritance only

(2) Virtual functions only

(3) References only

(4) Inheritance, Virtual functions and references

J-87-16 5 Paper-II
15. A function template in C++ provides _____ level of generalization.

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

16. DBMS provides the facility of accessing data from a database through

(1) DDL (2) DML

(3) DBA (4) Schema

17. Relational database schema normalization is NOT for :

(1) reducing the number of joins required to satisfy a query.

(2) eliminating uncontrolled redundancy of data stored in the database.

(3) eliminating number of anomalies that could otherwise occur with inserts and deletes.

(4) ensuring that functional dependencies are enforced.

18. Consider the following statements regarding relational database model :

(a) NULL values can be used to opt a tuple out of enforcement of a foreign key.

(b) Suppose that table T has only one candidate key. If Q is in 3NF, then it is also in
BCNF.

(c) The difference between the project operator (Π) in relational algebra and the
SELECT keyword in SQL is that if the resulting table/set has more than one
occurrences of the same tuple, then Π will return only one of them, while SQL
SELECT will return all.

One can determine that :

(1) (a) and (b) are true. (2) (a) and (c) are true.

(3) (b) and (c) are true. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are true.
Paper-II 6 J-87-16
19. Consider the following Entity-Relationship (E-R) diagram and three possible relationship
sets (I, II and III) for this E-R diagram :

I: P Q S T II : P Q S T III: P Q S T
p1 q1 s1 t1 p1 q1 s1 t1 p1 q1 s1 t1

p1 q1 s1 t2 p1 q1 s2 t2 p1 q2 s1 t1

If different symbols stand for different values (e.g., t1 is definitely not equal to t2), then

which of the above could not be the relationship set for the E-R diagram ?
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II only (4) I, II and III

20. Consider a database table R with attributes A and B. Which of the following SQL queries
is illegal ?
(1) SELECT A FROM R;
(2) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R;
(3) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A;
(4) SELECT A, B, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A, B;

21. Consider an implementation of unsorted single linked list. Suppose it has its
representation with a head and a tail pointer (i.e. pointers to the first and last nodes of the
linked list). Given the representation, which of the following operation can not be
implemented in O(1) time ?
(1) Insertion at the front of the linked list.
(2) Insertion at the end of the linked list.
(3) Deletion of the front node of the linked list.
(4) Deletion of the last node of the linked list.

J-87-16 7 Paper-II
22. Consider an undirected graph G where self-loops are not allowed. The vertex set of G is
{(i, j) | 1 < i < 12, 1 < j < 12}. There is an edge between (a, b) and (c, d) if |a – c| < 1 or
| b – d | < 1. The number of edges in this graph is

(1) 726 (2) 796

(3) 506 (4) 616

23. The runtime for traversing all the nodes of a binary search tree with n nodes and printing
them in an order is

(1) O(lg n) (2) O(n lg n)

(3) O(n) (4) O(n2)

24. Consider the following statements :

S1 : A queue can be implemented using two stacks.

S2 : A stack can be implemented using two queues.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.

(2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.

(3) Both S1 and S2 are correct.

(4) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.

25. Given the following prefix expression :

*+3+3↑3+333

What is the value of the prefix expression ?

(1) 2178 (2) 2199

(3) 2205 (4) 2232

Paper-II 8 J-87-16
26. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to microwaves ?
(1) Electromagnetic waves with frequencies from 300 GHz to 400 THz.
(2) Propagation is line-of-sight.
(3) Very high-frequency waves cannot penetrate walls.
(4) Use of certain portions of the band requires permission from authorities.

27. In a fast Ethernet cabling, 100 Base-TX uses ____ cable and maximum segment size is
_____.
(1) twisted pair, 100 metres (2) twisted pair, 200 metres
(3) fibre optics, 1000 metres (4) fibre optics, 2000 metres

28. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12,000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of this
network ?
(1) 1 Mbps (2) 2 Mbps
(3) 10 Mbps (4) 12 Mbps

29. Match the following :

List – I List – II
a. Session layer i. Virtual terminal software
b. Application layer ii. Semantics of the information transmitted
c. Presentation layer iii. Flow control
d. Transport layer iv. Manage dialogue control
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) iv ii i iii

J-87-16 9 Paper-II
30. Which of the following protocols is used by email server to maintain a central repository
that can be accessed from any machine ?

(1) POP3

(2) IMAP

(3) SMTP

(4) DMSP

31. The number of strings of length 4 that are generated by the regular expression
(0+ 1+ | 2+ 3+)*, where | is an alternation character and {+, *} are quantification characters,
is :

(1) 08 (2) 09

(3) 10 (4) 12

32. The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly
language program, is

MVI A, 35H

MOV B, A

STC

CMC

RAR

XRA B

(1) 00H (2) 35H

(3) EFH (4) 2FH

Paper-II 10 J-87-16
33. In compiler optimization, operator strength reduction uses mathematical identities to
replace slow math operations with faster operations. Which of the following code
replacements is an illustration of operator strength reduction ?

(1) Replace P + P by 2 * P or Replace 3 + 4 by 7.

(2) Replace P * 32 by P < < 5

(3) Replace P * 0 by 0

(4) Replace (P < <4) – P by P * 15

34. Which of the following are the principles tasks of the linker ?

I. Resolve external references among separately compiled program units.

II. Translate assembly language to machine code.

III. Relocate code and data relative to the beginning of the program.

IV. Enforce access-control restrictions on system libraries.

(1) I and II (2) I and III

(3) II and III (4) I and IV

35. Which of the following is FALSE ?

(1) The grammar S→aS|aSbS|∈, where S is the only non-terminal symbol, and ∈ is the
null string, is ambiguous.

(2) An unambiguous grammar has same left most and right most derivation.

(3) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k.

(4) Recursive descent parser is a top-down parser.

J-87-16 11 Paper-II
36. Consider a system with seven processes A through G and six resources R through W.

Resource ownership is as follows :

process A holds R and wants T

process B holds nothing but wants T

process C holds nothing but wants S

process D holds U and wants S & T

process E holds T and wants V

process F holds W and wants S

process G holds V and wants U

Is the system deadlocked ? If yes, ______ processes are deadlocked.

(1) No (2) Yes, A, B, C

(3) Yes, D, E, G (4) Yes, A, B, F

37. Suppose that the virtual Address space has eight pages and physical memory with four
page frames. If LRU page replacement algorithm is used, _____ number of page faults
occur with the reference string.

021354637473355311172341

(1) 11 (2) 12

(3) 10 (4) 9

38. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. These resources are shared by
three processes P1, P2 and P3 which have peak demands of 2, 5 and 7 resources

respectively. For what value of ‘m’ deadlock will not occur ?

(1) 70 (2) 14

(3) 13 (4) 7

Paper-II 12 J-87-16
39. Five jobs A, B, C, D and E are waiting in Ready Queue. Their expected runtimes are 9, 6,
3, 5 and x respectively. All jobs entered in Ready queue at time zero. They must run in
_____ order to minimize average response time if 3 < x < 5.

(1) B, A, D, E, C (2) C, E, D, B, A

(3) E, D, C, B, A (4) C, B, A, E, D

40. Consider three CPU intensive processes P1, P2, P3 which require 20, 10 and 30 units of
time, arrive at times 1, 3 and 7 respectively. Suppose operating system is implementing
Shortest Remaining Time first (preemptive scheduling) algorithm, then _____ context
switches are required (suppose context switch at the beginning of Ready queue and at the
end of Ready queue are not counted).

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 5

41. Which of the following is used to determine the specificity of requirements ?

n1 n2
(1) (2)
n2 n1

(3) n1 + n2 (4) n1 – n2

Where n1 is the number of requirements for which all reviewers have identical
interpretations, n2 is number of requirements in a specification.

42. The major shortcoming of waterfall model is

(1) the difficulty in accommodating changes after requirement analysis.

(2) the difficult in accommodating changes after feasibility analysis.

(3) the system testing.

(4) the maintenance of system.

J-87-16 13 Paper-II
43. The quick design of a software that is visible to end users leads to _____.

(1) iterative model

(2) prototype model

(3) spiral model

(4) waterfall model

44. For a program of k variables, boundary value analysis yields ______ test cases.

(1) 4k – 1 (2) 4k

(3) 4k + 1 (4) 2k – 1

45. The extent to which a software performs its intended functions without failures, is termed
as

(1) Robustness

(2) Correctness

(3) Reliability

(4) Accuracy

46. An attacker sits between the sender and receiver and captures the information and
retransmits to the receiver after some time without altering the information. This attack is
called as _____.

(1) Denial of service attack

(2) Masquarade attack

(3) Simple attack

(4) Complex attack

Paper-II 14 J-87-16
47. _______ is subject oriented, integrated, time variant, nonvolatile collection of data in
support of management decisions.

(1) Data mining

(2) Web mining

(3) Data warehouse

(4) Database Management System

48. In Data mining, classification rules are extracted from _______.

(1) Data (2) Information

(3) Decision Tree (4) Database

49. Discovery of cross sales opportunities is called as _____.

(1) Association

(2) Visualization

(3) Correlation

(4) Segmentation

50. In Data mining, ______ is a method of incremental conceptual clustering.

(1) STRING

(2) COBWEB

(3) CORBA

(4) OLAD

____________

J-87-16 15 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 16 J-87-16
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
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(Name) ____________________________
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J 87 1 6
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
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Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
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to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
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J-87-16
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
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[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following is a sequential circuit ?

(1) Multiplexer (2) Decoder
(3) Counter (4) Full adder
2. 8085 microprocessor has _____ hardware interrupts.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
3. Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs
HL = HL + DE ?
(1) DAD D (2) DAD H
(3) DAD B (4) DAD SP

4. The register that stores all interrupt requests is :

(1) Interrupt mask register (2) Interrupt service register
(3) Interrupt request register (4) Status register

5. The _____ addressing mode is similar to register indirect addressing mode, except that an
offset is added to the contents of the register. The offset and register are specified in the
instruction.
(1) Base indexed (2) Base indexed plus displacement
(3) Indexed (4) Displacement
6. In _____ method, the word is written to the block in both the cache and main memory, in
parallel.
(1) Write through (2) Write back
(3) Write protected (4) Direct mapping
7. Which of the following statements concerning Object-Oriented databases is FALSE ?
(1) Objects in an object-oriented database contain not only data but also methods for
processing the data.
(2) Object-oriented databases store computational instructions in the same place as the
data.
(3) Object-oriented databases are more adapt at handling structured (analytical) data
than relational databases.
(4) Object-oriented databases store more types of data than relational databases and
access that data faster.
8. In distributed databases, location transparency allows for database users, programmers and
administrators to treat the data as if it is at one location. A SQL query with location
transparency needs to specify :
(1) Inheritances (2) Fragments
(3) Locations (4) Local formats
Paper-III 2 J-87-16
9. Consider the relations R(A, B) and S(B, C) and the following four relational algebra
queries over R and S :
I. ΠA, B (R S)
II. R ΠB(S)
III. R ∩ (ΠA(R) × ΠB(S))
IV. ΠA,R.B (R × S) where R⋅B refers to the column B in table R.
One can determine that :
(1) I, III and IV are the same query. (2) II, III and IV are the same query.
(3) I, II and IV are the same query. (4) I, II and III are the same query.
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
D1 : The decomposition of the schema R(A, B, C) into R1(A, B) and R2 (A, C) is always
lossless.
D2 : The decomposition of the schema R(A, B, C, D, E) having AD → B, C → DE,
B → AE and AE → C, into R1 (A, B, D) and R2 (A, C, D, E) is lossless.
(1) Both D1 and D2 (2) Neither D1 nor D2
(3) Only D1 (4) Only D2
11. Consider the following ORACLE relations :
R (A, B, C) = {<1, 2, 3>, <1, 2, 0>, <1, 3, 1>, <6, 2, 3>, <1, 4, 2>, <3, 1, 4> }
S (B, C, D) = {<2, 3, 7>, <1, 4, 5>, <1, 2, 3>, <2, 3, 4>, <3, 1, 4>}.
Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2 :
SQ1 : SELECT R⋅B, AVG (S⋅B)
FROM R, S
WHERE R⋅A = S⋅C AND S⋅D < 7
GROUP BY R⋅B;
SQ2 : SELECT DISTINCT S⋅B, MIN (S⋅C)
FROM S
GROUP BY S⋅B
HAVING COUNT (DISTINCT S⋅D) > 1;
If M is the number of tuples returned by SQ1 and N is the number of tuples returned by
SQ2 then
(1) M = 4, N = 2 (2) M = 5, N = 3
(3) M = 2, N = 2 (4) M = 3, N = 3
12. Semi-join strategies are techniques for query processing in distributed database system.
Which of the following is a semi-join technique ?
(1) Only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then all of the rows
are returned.
(2) All of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows
are returned.
(3) Only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the
required rows are returned.
(4) All of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows
are returned.
J-87-16 3 Paper-III
13. Consider the Breshenham’s circle generation algorithm for plotting a circle with centre (0,
0) and radius ‘r’ units in first quadrant. If the current point is (xi, yi) and decision
parameter is pi then what will be the next point (xi + 1, yi + 1) and updated decision
parameter pi + 1 for pi ≥ 0 ?
(1) xi + 1 = xi + 1 (2) xi + 1 = xi + 1
yi + 1 = yi yi + 1 = yi – 1
pi + 1 = pi + 4xi + 6 pi + 1 = pi + 4 (xi – yi) + 10

(3) xi + 1 = xi (4) xi + 1 = xi – 1
yi + 1 = yi – 1 yi + 1 = yi
pi + 1 = pi + 4 (xi – yi) + 6 pi + 1 = pi + 4xi + 10

14. A point P(5, 1) is rotated by 90° about a pivot point (2, 2). What is the coordinate of new
transformed point P′ ?
(1) (3, 5) (2) (5, 3)
(3) (2, 4) (4) (1, 5)

15. Let R be the rectangular window against which the lines are to be clipped using 2D
Sutherland-Cohen line clipping algorithm. The rectangular window has lower left-hand
corner at (– 5, 1) and upper right-hand corner at (3, 7). Consider the following three lines
for clipping with the given end point co-ordinates :
Line AB : A (– 6, 2) and B (–1, 8)
Line CD : C (– 1, 5) and D (4, 8)
Line EF : E (–2, 3) and F (1, 2)
Which of the following line(s) is/are candidate for clipping ?
(1) AB (2) CD
(3) EF (4) AB and CD

16. In perspective projection, if a line segment joining a point which lies in front of the viewer
to a point in back of the viewer is projected to a broken line of infinite extent. This is
known as _______.
(1) View confusion (2) Vanishing point
(3) Topological distortion (4) Perspective foreshortening

17. Let us consider that the original point is (x, y) and new transformed point is (x′, y′).
Further, Shx and Shy are shearing factors in x and y directions. If we perform the
y-direction shear relative to x = xref then the transformed point is given by _______.
(1) x′ = x + Shx ⋅ (y – yref) (2) x′ = x
y′ = y y′ = y ⋅ Shx

(3) x′ = x (4) x′ = Shy ⋅ y

y′ = Shy (x – xref) + y y′ = y ⋅ (x – xref)

Paper-III 4 J-87-16
18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to curve generation ?
I. Hermite curves are generated using the concepts of interpolation.
II. Bezier curves are generated using the concepts of approximation.
III. The Bezier curve lies entirely within the convex hull of its control points.
IV. The degree of Bezier curve does not depend on the number of control points.
(1) I, II and IV only (2) II and III only
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III only
19. Given the following statements :
(A) To implement Abstract Data Type, a programming language require a syntactic unit
to encapsulate type definition.
(B) To implement ADT, a programming language requires some primitive operations
that are built in the language processor.
(C) C++, Ada, Java 5.0, C#2005 provide support for parameterised ADT.
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are false.
(2) (A) and (B) are true; (C) is false.
(3) (A) is true; (B) and (C) are false.
(4) (A), (B) and (C) are true.
20. Match the following types of variables with the corresponding programming languages :
(a) Static variables (i) Local variables in Pascal
(b) Stack dynamic (ii) All variables in APL
(c) Explicit heap dynamic (iii) Fortran 77
(d) Implicit heap dynamic (iv) All objects in JAVA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
21. Which of the following is false regarding the evaluation of computer programming
languages ?
(1) Application oriented features (2) Efficiency and Readability
(3) Software development (4) Hardware maintenance cost
22. The symmetric difference of two sets S1 and S2 is defined as
S1 s S2 = {x|x ∈ S1 or x ∈ S2, but x is not in both S1 and S2}
The nor of two languages is defined as
nor (L1, L2) = {w|w ∈L
| 1 and w ∈| L2}.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) The family of regular languages is closed under symmetric difference but not closed
under nor.
(2) The family of regular languages is closed under nor but not closed under symmetric
difference.
(3) The family of regular languages are closed under both symmetric difference and nor.
(4) The family of regular languages are not closed under both symmetric difference and
nor.
J-87-16 5 Paper-III
23. The regular expression for the complement of the language L = {anbm|n ≥ 4, m ≤ 3} is :
(1) (λ + a + aa + aaa) b* + a* bbbb* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*
(2) (λ + a + aa + aaa) b* + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ab(a + b)*
(3) (λ + a + aa + aaa) + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ab(a + b)*
(4) (λ + a + aa + aaa)b* + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*

24. Consider the following two languages :

L1 = {0i1j| gcd (i, j) = 1}
L2 is any subset of 0*.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) L1 is regular and L*2 is not regular
(2) L1 is not regular and L*2 is regular
(3) Both L1 and L*2 are regular languages
(4) Both L1 and L*2 are not regular languages

25. If link transmits 4000 frames per second and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of
circuit of this TDM is ______.
(1) 64 Kbps (2) 32 MbpS
(3) 32 Kbps (4) 64 MbpS

26. Given the following statements :

(A) Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique that can be applied when the
bandwidth of a link is greater than combined bandwidth of signals to be transmitted.
(B) Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) is an analog multiplexing Technique to
combine optical signals.
(C) WDM is a Digital Multiplexing Technique.
(D) TDM is a Digital Multiplexing Technique.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true.
(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are false.
(3) (A), (B) and (D) are false; (C) is true.
(4) (A), (B) and (D) are True; (C) is false.

27. A pure ALOHA Network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with 200 Kbps
bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 500 frames per second, then
the throughput of the system is ______.
(1) 0.384 (2) 0.184
(3) 0.286 (4) 0.586
Paper-III 6 J-87-16
28. Match the following :
(a) Line coding (i) A technique to change analog signal to digital
data.
(b) Block coding (ii) Provides synchronization without increasing
number of bits.
(c) Scrambling (iii) Process of converting digital data to digital
signal.
(d) Pulse code modulation (iv) Provides redundancy to ensure
synchronization and inherits error detection.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

29. Assume that we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per minute. A
page is an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line and each character requires
8 bits. Then the required bit rate of the channel is _____.
(1) 1.636 Kbps (2) 1.636 Mbps
(3) 3.272 Mbps (4) 3.272 Kbps

30. Encrypt the plain text Message “EXTRANET” using Transposition cipher technique with
the following key :
3 5 2 1 4 (Cipher text)
1 2 3 4 5 (Plain text)
Using ‘Z’ as bogus character.
(1) TAXERTZENZ (2) EXTRANETZZ
(3) EZXZTRZANZET (4) EXTZRANZETZ

31. The number of different binary trees with 6 nodes is ______.

(1) 6 (2) 42
(3) 132 (4) 256

32. Let A[1…n] be an array of n distinct numbers. If i < j and A[i] > A[j], then the pair (i, j) is
called an inversion of A. What is the expected number of inversions in any permutation on
n elements ?
(1) θ(n) (2) θ(lgn)
(3) θ(nlgn) (4) θ(n2)

33. Which one of the following array represents a binary max-heap ?

(1) [26, 13, 17, 14, 11, 9, 15] (2) [26, 15, 14, 17, 11, 9, 13]
(3) [26, 15, 17, 14, 11, 9, 13] (4) [26, 15, 13, 14, 11, 9, 17]

J-87-16 7 Paper-III
34. Match the following :
(a) Huffman codes (i) O(n2)
(b) Optimal polygon triangulation (ii) θ(n3)
(c) Activity selection problem (iii) O(nlgn)
(d) Quicksort (iv) θ(n)
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

35. Suppose that we have numbers between 1 and 1,000 in a binary search tree and want to
search for the number 364. Which of the following sequences could not be the sequence of
nodes examined ?
(1) 925, 221, 912, 245, 899, 259, 363, 364
(2) 3, 400, 388, 220, 267, 383, 382, 279, 364
(3) 926, 203, 912, 241, 913, 246, 364
(4) 3, 253, 402, 399, 331, 345, 398, 364

36. A triangulation of a polygon is a set of T chords that divide the polygon into disjoint
triangles. Every triangulation of n-vertex convex polygon has _____ chords and divides
the polygon into _____ triangles.
(1) n – 2, n – 1 (2) n – 3, n – 2
(3) n – 1, n (4) n – 2, n – 2

37. Implicit return type of a class constructor is :

(1) not of class type itself (2) class type itself
(3) a destructor of class type (4) a destructor not of class type

38. It is possible to define a class within a class termed as nested class. There are _____ types
of nested classes.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

39. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Aggregation is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.
(2) Aggregation is a strong type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.
(3) Aggregation is a weak type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.
(4) Aggregation is a weak type of association between two classes with full ownership.

40. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Every class containing abstract method must not be declared abstract.
(2) Abstract class cannot be directly initiated with ‘new’ operator.
(3) Abstract class cannot be initiated.
(4) Abstract class contains definition of implementation.
Paper-III 8 J-87-16
41. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) HTML is not screen precise formatting language.
(2) HTML does not specify a logic.
(3) DHTML is used for developing highly interactive web pages.
(4) HTML is a programming language.

42. When one object reference variable is assigned to another object reference variable then
(1) a copy of the object is created.
(2) a copy of the reference is created.
(3) a copy of the reference is not created.
(4) it is illegal to assign one object reference variable to another object reference
variable.

43. A server crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures
(MTBF) is 30 days. When this happens, it takes 12 hours to reboot it, that is, the Mean
Time to Repair (MTTR) is 12 hours. The availability of server with these reliability data
values is approximately :
(1) 96.3% (2) 97.3%
(3) 98.3% (4) 99.3%

44. Match the software maintenance activities in List – I to its meaning in List – II.
List – I List – II
I. Corrective (a) Concerned with performing activities to reduce the software
complexity thereby improving program understandability
and increasing software maintainability.
II. Adaptive (b) Concerned with fixing errors that are observed when the
software is in use.
III. Perfective (c) Concerned with the change in the software that takes place
to make the software adaptable to new environment (both
hardware and software).
IV. Preventive (d) Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to
make the software adaptable to changing user requirements.
Codes :
I II III IV
(1) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(2) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(3) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(4) (a) (d) (b) (c)

J-87-16 9 Paper-III
45. Match each application/software design concept in List – I to its definition in List – II.
List – I List – II
I. Coupling (a) Easy to visually inspect the design of the software and
understand its purpose.
II. Cohesion (b) Easy to add functionality to a software without having to
redesign it.
III. Scalable (c) Focus of a code upon a single goal.
IV. Readable (d) Reliance of a code module upon other code modules.
Codes :
I II III IV
(1) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(2) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(3) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(4) (d) (a) (c) (b)

46. Software safety is quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that
(1) affect the reliability of a software component.
(2) may cause an entire system to fail.
(3) may result from user input errors.
(4) prevent profitable marketing of the final product.

47. Which of the following sets represent five stages defined by Capability Maturity Model
(CMM) in increasing order of maturity ?
(1) Initial, Defined, Repeatable, Managed, Optimized.
(2) Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimized.
(3) Initial, Defined, Managed, Repeatable, Optimized.
(4) Initial, Repeatable, Managed, Defined, Optimized.

48. The number of function points of a proposed system is calculated as 500. Suppose that the
system is planned to be developed in Java and the LOC/FP ratio of Java is 50. Estimate
the effort (E) required to complete the project using the effort formula of basic COCOMO
given below :
E = a(KLOC)b
Assume that the values of a and b are 2.5 and 1.0 respectively.
(1) 25 person months (2) 75 person months
(3) 62.5 person months (4) 72.5 person months

49. In UNIX, processes that have finished execution but have not yet had their status collected
are known as _________.
(1) Sleeping processes (2) Stopped processes
(3) Zombie processes (4) Orphan processes

50. In Unix operating system, when a process creates a new process using the fork () system
call, which of the following state is shared between the parent process and child process ?
(1) Heap (2) Stack
(3) Shared memory segments (4) Both Heap and Stack
Paper-III 10 J-87-16
51. Which of the following information about the UNIX file system is not correct ?
(1) Super block contains the number of i-nodes, the number of disk blocks, and the start
of the list of free disk blocks.
(2) An i-node contains accounting information as well as enough information to locate
all the disk blocks that holds the file’s data.
(3) Each i-node is 256-bytes long.
(4) All the files and directories are stored in data blocks.

52. Which of the following option with reference to UNIX operating system is not correct ?
(1) INT signal is sent by the terminal driver when one types <Control-C> and it is a
request to terminate the current operation.
(2) TERM is a request to terminate execution completely. The receiving process will
clean up its state and exit.
(3) QUIT is similar to TERM, except that it defaults to producing a core dump if not
caught.
(4) KILL is a blockable signal.

53. A multicomputer with 256 CPUs is organized as 16 × 16 grid. What is the worst case
delay (in hops) that a message might have to take ?
(1) 16 (2) 15
(3) 32 (4) 30

54. Suppose that the time to do a null remote procedure call (RPC) (i.e. 0 data bytes) is
1.0 msec, with an additional 1.5 msec for every 1K of data. How long does it take to read
32 K from the file server as 32 1K RPCs ?
(1) 49 msec (2) 80 msec
(3) 48 msec (4) 100 msec

55. Let L be the language generated by regular expression 0*10* and accepted by the
deterministic finite automata M. Consider the relation RM defined by M. As all states are
reachable from the start state, RM has _____ equivalence classes.
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

56. Let L = {0n1n|n ≥ 0} be a context free language.

Which of the following is correct ?
– is context free and Lk is not context free for any k ≥ 1.
(1) L
– is not context free and Lk is context free for any k ≥ 1.
(2) L
– and Lk is for any k ≥ 1 are context free.
(3) Both L
– and Lk is for any k ≥ 1 are not context free.
(4) Both L
J-87-16 11 Paper-III
57. Given a Turing Machine
M = ({q0, q1, q2, q3}, {a, b}, {a, b, B}, δ, B, {q3})
Where δ is a transition function defined as
δ(q0, a) = (q1, a, R)
δ(q1, b) = (q2, b, R)
δ(q2, a) = (q2, a, R)
δ(q2, b) = (q3, b, R)
The language L(M) accepted by the Turing Machine is given as :
(1) aa*b (2) abab
(3) aba*b (4) aba*

58. Consider a discrete memoryless channel and assume that H(x) is the amount of
information per symbol at the input of the channel; H(y) is the amount of information per
symbol at the output of the channel; H(x|y) is the amount of uncertainty remaining on x
knowing y; and I (x; y) is the information transmission.
Which of the following does not define the channel capacity of a discrete memoryless
channel ?
(1) max I (x; y) (2) max [H(y) – H(y|x)]
p(x) p(x)
(3) max [H(x) – H(x|y)] (4) max H(x|y)
p(x) p(x)

59. Consider a source with symbols A, B, C, D with probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/8
respectively. What is the average number of bits per symbol for the Huffman code
generated from above information ?
(1) 2 bits per symbol (2) 1.75 bits per symbol
(3) 1.50 bits per symbol (4) 1.25 bits per symbol

60. Which of the following is used for the boundary representation of an image object ?
(1) Quad Tree (2) Projections
(3) Run length coding (4) Chain codes

61. The region of feasible solution of a linear programming problem has a _____ property in
geometry, provided the feasible solution of the problem exists.
(1) concavity (2) convexity
(3) quadratic (4) polyhedron

62. Consider the following statements :

(a) Revised simplex method requires lesser computations than the simplex method.
(b) Revised simplex method automatically generates the inverse of the current basis
matrix.
(c) Less number of entries are needed in each table of revised simplex method than
usual simplex method.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Paper-III 12 J-87-16
63. The following transportation problem :
A B C Supply
I 50 30 220 1
II 90 45 170 3
III 250 200 50 4
Demand 4 2 2

has a solution
A B C
I 1
II 3 0
III 2 2
The above solution of a given transportation problem is
(1) infeasible solution (2) optimum solution
(3) non-optimum solution (4) unbounded solution

64. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as :

y1 y2
x ⎡ 0.7 0.5 ⎤
R = x1 ⎢ ⎥
2 ⎣ 0.8 0.4 ⎦
z1 z2 z3
y ⎡ 0.9 0.6 0.2 ⎤
and S = y1 ⎢ ⎥
2 ⎣ 0.1 0.7 0.5 ⎦
Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe x to elements of
universe z using max-min composition is given by
z1 z2 z3 z1 z2 z3
x ⎡ .5 .7 .5 ⎤ x ⎡ .5 .7 .5 ⎤
(1) T = x1 ⎢ ⎥ (2) T = x1 ⎢ ⎥
2 ⎣ .8 .8 .8 ⎦ 2 ⎣ .9 .6 .5 ⎦
z1 z2 z3 z1 z2 z3
x ⎡ 0.7 0.6 0.5 ⎤ x ⎡ 0.7 0.6 0.5 ⎤
(3) T = x1 ⎢ ⎥ (4) T = x1 ⎢ ⎥
2 ⎣ 0.8 0.6 0.4 ⎦ 2 ⎣ 0.8 0.8 0.8 ⎦

65. Compute the value of adding the following two fuzzy integers :
A = {(0.3, 1), (0.6, 2), (1, 3), (0.7, 4), (0.2, 5)}
B = {(0.5, 11), (1, 12), (0.5, 13)}
Where fuzzy addition is defined as
μA+B (z) = max (min (μA(x), μB(x)))
x+y=z
Then, f (A + B) is equal to
(1) {(0.5, 12), (0.6, 13), (1, 14), (0.7, 15), (0.7, 16), (1, 17), (1, 18)}
(2) {(0.5, 12), (0.6, 13), (1, 14), (1, 15), (1, 16), (1, 17), (1, 18)}
(3) {(0.3, 12), (0.5, 13), (0.5, 14), (1, 15), (0.7, 16), (0.5, 17), (0.2, 18)}
(4) {(0.3, 12), (0.5, 13), (0.6, 14), (1, 15), (0.7, 16), (0.5, 17), (0.2, 18)}
J-87-16 13 Paper-III
66. A perceptron has input weights W1 = – 3.9 and W2 = 1.1 with threshold value T = 0.3.
What output does it give for the input x1 = 1.3 and x2 = 2.2 ?
(1) – 2.65 (2) – 2.30
(3) 0 (4) 1

67. What is the function of following UNIX command ?

WC – l <a > b &
(1) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing
the result to b, as a foreground process.
(2) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing
the result to b, but does it in the background.
(3) It counts the errors during the execution of a process, a, and puts the result in
process b.
(4) It copies the ‘l’ numbers of lines of program from file, a, and stores in file b.

68. Which of the following statement is not correct with reference to cron daemon in UNIX
O.S. ?
(1) The cron daemon is the standard tool for running commands on a pre-determined
schedule.
(2) It starts when the system boots and runs as long as the system is up.
(3) Cron reads configuration files that contain list of command lines and the times at
which they invoked.
(4) Crontab for individual users are not stored.

69. In Unix, files can be protected by assigning each one a 9-bit mode called rights bits. Now,
consider the following two statements:
I. A mode of 641 (octal) means that the owner can read and write the file, other
members of the owner’s group can read it, and users can execute only.
II. A mode of 100 (octal) allows the owner to execute the file, but prohibits all other
access.
Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?
(1) Only I is correct. (2) Only II is correct.
(3) Both I and II are correct. (4) Both I and II are incorrect.

70. Consider the statement,

“Either – 2 ≤ x ≤ – 1 or 1 ≤ x ≤2”.
The negation of this statement is
(1) x < – 2 or 2 < x or – 1 < x < 1 (2) x < – 2 or 2 < x
(3) – 1 < x < 1 (4) x ≤ – 2 or 2 < x or – 1 < x < 1

71. Which of the following is characteristic of an MIS ?

(1) Provides guidance in identifying problems, finding and evaluating alternative
solutions, and selecting or comparing alternatives.
(2) Draws on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data.
(3) High volume, data capture focus.
(4) Has as its goal the efficiency of data movement and processing and interfacing
different TPS.
Paper-III 14 J-87-16
72. How does randomized hill-climbing choose the next move each time ?
(1) It generates a random move from the moveset, and accepts this move.
(2) It generates a random move from the whole state space, and accepts this move.
(3) It generates a random move from the moveset, and accepts this move only if this
move improves the evaluation function.
(4) It generates a random move from the whole state space, and accepts this move only
if this move improves the evaluation function.

73. Consider the following game tree in which root is a maximizing node and children are
visited left to right. What nodes will be pruned by the alpha-beta pruning ?
A

B C

D E F G H I
3 12 8 2 15 6
(1) I (2) HI
(3) CHI (4) GHI

74. Consider a 3-puzzle where, like in the usual 8-puzzle game, a tile can only move to an
1 2
adjacent empty space. Given the initial state , which of the following state cannot
3
be reached ?
3 1 3
(1) (2)
2 2 1

1 3 2
(3) (4)
2 1 3

75. A software program that infers and manipulates existing knowledge in order to generate
new knowledge is known as :
(1) Data dictionary (2) Reference mechanism
(3) Inference engine (4) Control strategy

_______________
J-87-16 15 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 16 J-87-16
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
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J 87 1 6
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
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where (3) is the correct response.
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J-87-16
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Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. A ripple counter is a (n) :

(1) Synchronous Counter (2) Asynchronous counter

(3) Parallel counter (4) None of the above

2. 8085 microprocessor has ____ bit ALU.

(1) 32 (2) 16

(3) 8 (4) 4

3. The register that stores the bits required to mask the interrupts is ______.

(1) Status register (2) Interrupt service register

(3) Interrupt mask register (4) Interrupt request register

4. Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs

HL = HL + HL ?

(1) DAD D (2) DAD H

(3) DAD B (4) DAD SP

5. In ______ addressing mode, the operands are stored in the memory. The address of the
corresponding memory location is given in a register which is specified in the instruction.

(1) Register direct (2) Register indirect

(3) Base indexed (4) Displacement

Paper-III 2 J-87-16
6. The output of the following combinational circuit

is :
(1) X.Y (2) X+Y

(3) X⊕Y (4) X⊕Y

7. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding some advantages that an object-
oriented DBMS (OODBMS) offers over a relational database ?
I. An OODBMS avoids the “impedance mismatch” problem.

II. An OODBMS avoids the “phantom” problem.

III. An OODBMS provides higher performance concurrency control than most
relational databases.
IV. An OODBMS provides faster access to individual data objects once they have been
read from disk.
(1) II and III only (2) I and IV only
(3) I, II, and III only (4) I, III and IV only

8. The Global conceptual Schema in a distributed database contains information about global
relations. The condition that all the data of the global relation must be mapped into the
fragments, that is, it must not happen that a data item which belongs to a global relation
does not belong to any fragment, is called :
(1) Disjointness condition
(2) Completeness condition
(3) Reconstruction condition
(4) Aggregation condition

J-87-16 3 Paper-III
9. Suppose database table T1(P, R) currently has tuples {(10, 5), (15, 8), (25, 6)} and table
T2 (A, C) currently has {(10, 6), (25, 3), (10, 5)}. Consider the following three relational
algebra queries RA1, RA2 and RA3 :
RA1 : T1 T1.P = T2.A T2 where is natural join symbol

RA2 : T1 T1.P = T2.A T2 where is left outer join symbol

RA3 : T1 T1.P = T2.A and T1.R = T2.C T2

The number of tuples in the resulting table of RA1, RA2 and RA3 are given by :
(1) 2, 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 3, 2 respectively
(3) 3, 3, 1 respectively (4) 3, 4, 1 respectively

10. Consider the table R with attributes A, B and C. The functional dependencies that hold on
R are : A → B, C → AB. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
I. The decomposition of R into R1(C, A) and R2(A, B) is lossless.
II. The decomposition of R into R1(A, B) and R2(B, C) is lossy.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II

11. Consider the following ORACLE relations :

One (x, y) = {<2, 5>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>}
Two (x, y) = {<2, 55>, <1, 1>, <4, 4>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>, <9, 9>, <1, 6>}
Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2 :
SQ1 : SELECT * FROM One)
EXCEPT
(SELECT * FROM Two);
SQ2 : SELECT * FROM One)
EXCEPT ALL
(SELECT * FROM Two);
For each of the SQL queries, what is the cardinality (number of rows) of the result
obtained when applied to the instances above ?
(1) 2 and 1 respectively (2) 1 and 2 respectively
(3) 2 and 2 respectively (4) 1 and 1 respectively
Paper-III 4 J-87-16
12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched in the context of database design ?
List – I List – II
(Database term) (Definition)
I. Specialization A. Result of taking the union of two or more disjoint
(lower-level) entity sets to produce a higher-level
entity set.
II. Generalization B. Express the number of entities to which another
entity can be associated via a relationship set.
III. Aggregation C. Result of taking a subset of a higher-level entity set
to form a lower-level entity set.
IV. Mapping D. An abstraction in which relationship sets (along with
cardinalities their associated entity sets) are treated as higher-level
entity sets, and can participate in relationships.
Codes :
I II III IV
(1) D A B C
(2) D C B A
(3) C D A B
(4) C A D B

13. Consider a raster grid having XY-axes in positive X-direction and positive upward
Y-direction with Xmax = 10, Xmin = –5, Ymax = 11, and Ymin = 6. What is the address of
memory pixel with location (5, 4) in raster grid assuming base address 1 (one) ?
(1) 150 (2) 151
(3) 160 (4) 161

14. Consider a N-bit plane frame buffer with W-bit wide lookup table with W > N. How many
intensity levels are available at a time ?
(1) 2N (2) 2W

(3) 2N+W (4) 2N–1

J-87-16 5 Paper-III
15. Consider the Breshenham’s line generation algorithm for a line with gradient greater than
one, current point (xi, yi) and decision parameter, di. The next point to be plotted
(xi+1, yi+1) and updated decision parameter, di+1, for di < 0 are given as _______.

(1) xi+1 = xi+1

yi+1 = yi

di+1 = di + 2 dy

(2) xi+1 = xi

yi+1 = yi + 1

di+1 = di + 2 dx

(3) xi+1 = xi

yi+1 = yi + 1

di+1 = di + 2 (dx – dy)

(4) xi+1 = xi + 1

yi+1 = yi + 1

di+1 = di + 2 (dy – dx)

16. A point P(2, 5) is rotated about a pivot point (1, 2) by 60°. What is the new transformed
point P' ?
(1) (1, 4) (2) (–1, 4)
(3) (1, – 4) (4) (– 4, 1)

17. In perspective projection (from 3D to 2D), objects behind the centre of projection are
projected upside down and backward onto the view-plane. This is known as _____.
(1) Topological distortion
(2) Vanishing point
(3) View confusion
(4) Perspective foreshortening

Paper-III 6 J-87-16
18. The Liang-Barsky line clipping algorithm uses the parametric equation of a line from
(x1, y1) to (x2, y2) along with its infinite extension which is given as :

x = x1 + ∆x.u

y = y1 + ∆y.u

Where ∆x = x2 – x1, ∆y = y2 – y1, and u is the parameter with 0 < u < 1. A line AB with
end points A(–1, 7) and B(11, 1) is to be clipped against a rectangular window with
xmin = 1, xmax = 9, ymin = 2, and ymax = 8. The lower and upper bound values of the
parameter u for the clipped line using Liang-Barsky algorithm is given as :
2 1 5
(1) (0, ) (2) 6 , 6
3  
1
(3) (0, ) (4) (0, 1)
3

19. Match the following with reference to Functional programming history :

a. Lambda calculus i. Church, 1932
b. Lambda calculus as ii. Wordsworth, 1970
programming
language
c. Lazy evaluation iii. Haskel, 1990
d. Type classes iv. Mecarthy, 1960
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i iii ii
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) ii i iv iii

20. Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to :

(1) Multiple variables having the same location
(2) Multiple variables having the same identifier
(3) Multiple variables having the same value
(4) Multiple use of same variable

J-87-16 7 Paper-III
21. Assume that the program ‘P’ is implementing parameter passing with ‘call by reference’.
What will be printed by following print statements in P ?
Program P( )
{
x = 10;
y = 3;
funb (y, x, x)
print x;
print y;
}
funb (x, y, z)
{
y = y + 4;
z = x + y + z;
}
(1) 10, 7 (2) 31, 3
(3) 10, 3 (4) 31, 7

22. The regular grammar for the language L = {anbm | n + m is even} is given by
(1) S → S1 | S2
S1 → a S1 | A1
A1 → b A1 | λ
S2 → aaS2 | A2
A2 → b A2 | λ
(2) S → S1 | S2
S1 → a S1 | a A1
S2 → aa S2 | A2
A1 → bA1 | λ
A2 → bA2 | λ
(3) S → S1 | S2
S1 → aaa S1 | aA1
S2 → aaS2 | A2
A1 → bA1 | λ
A2 → bA2 | λ
(4) S → S1 | S2
S1 → aa S1 | A1
S2 → aaS2 | aA2
A1 → bbA1 | λ
A2 → bbA2 | b

Paper-III 8 J-87-16
23. Let Σ = {a, b} and language L = {aa, bb}. Then, the complement of L is
(1) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
(2) {a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
(3) {w ∈ { a, b}* | |w| > 3} ∪ {a, b, ab, ba}
(4) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w ∈ {a, b}* | |w| > 3}

24. Consider the following identities for regular expressions :

(a) (r + s)* = (s + r)*
(b) (r*)* = r*
(c) (r* s*)* = (r + s)*
Which of the above identities are true ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

25. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is 32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source to
destination and each packet p contains 8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending packet
P is _____.
(1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec
(3) 4 sec (4) 1 sec

26. Consider the following statements :

A. High speed Ethernet works on optic fiber.
B. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating PPP
frames inside Ethernet frames.
C. High speed Ethernet does not work on optic fiber.
D. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating
Ethernet frames inside PPP frames.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) A and B are true; C and D are false.
(2) A and B are false; C and D are true.
(3) A, B, C and D are true.
(4) A, B, C and D are false.
J-87-16 9 Paper-III
27. In CRC checksum method, assume that given frame for transmission is 1101011011 and
the generator polynomial is G(x) = x4 + x + 1.
After implementing CRC encoder, the encoded word sent from sender side is _____.
(1) 11010110111110
(2) 11101101011011
(3) 110101111100111
(4) 110101111001111

28. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bits frames using a shared channel with 200
kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 1000 frames per second,
then the throughput of the system is _______.
(1) 0.268 (2) 0.468
(3) 0.368 (4) 0.568

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000.
Then analog signal has _____ signal elements and carry _____ data elements in each
signal.
(1) 256, 8 bits
(2) 128, 4 bits
(3) 256, 4 bits
(4) 128, 8 bits

30. The plain text message BAHI encrypted with RSA algorithm using e = 3, d = 7 and n = 33
and the characters of the message are encoded using the values 00 to 25 for letters A to Z.
Suppose character by character encryption was implemented. Then, the Cipher Text
message is _____.
(1) ABHI
(2) HAQC
(3) IHBA
(4) BHQC

Paper-III 10 J-87-16
31. Consider the problem of a chain <A1, A2, A3, A4> of four matrices. Suppose that the
dimensions of the matrices A1, A2, A3 and A4 are 30 × 35, 35 × 15, 15 × 5 and 5 × 10
respectively. The minimum number of scalar multiplications needed to compute the
product A1A2A3A4 is ____.

(1) 14875 (2) 21000

(3) 9375 (4) 11875

32. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000, and the hash function h(K) = floor
(m(KA mod 1)) for A = ( 5 – 1)/2. The key 123456 is mapped to location ______.

(1) 46 (2) 41

(3) 43 (4) 48

33. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {ν1, ν2, …. νn} such that the
weight of the edge (νi, νj) is 4 | i – j|. The weight of minimum cost spanning tree of G is :

(1) 4n2 (2) n

(3) 4n – 4 (4) 2n – 2

34. A priority queue is implemented as a max-heap. Initially, it has five elements. The level-
order traversal of the heap is as follows :

20, 18, 15, 13, 12

Two new elements ‘10’ and ‘17’ are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order
traversal of the heap after the insertion of the element is :

(1) 20, 18, 17, 15, 13, 12, 10

(2) 20, 18, 17, 12, 13, 10, 15

(3) 20, 18, 17, 10, 12, 13, 15

(4) 20, 18, 17, 13, 12, 10, 15

J-87-16 11 Paper-III
35. If there are n integers to sort, each integer has d digits, and each digit is in the set
{1, 2, …, k}, radix sort can sort the numbers in :

(1) O (k (n + d)) (2) O (d (n + k))

(3) O ((n + k) l g d) (4) O ((n + d) l g k)

36. Match the following :

a. Prim’s algorithm i. O(V2E)

b. Bellman-Ford algorithm ii. O(VE lgV)

c. Floyd-Warshall algorithm iii. O(E lgV)

d. Johnson’s algorithm iv. O(V3)

Where V is the set of nodes and E is the set of edges in the graph.

Codes :
a b c d

(1) i iii iv ii

(2) i iii ii iv

(3) iii i iv ii

(4) iii i ii iv

37. Constructors have _____ return type.

(1) void (2) char

(3) int (4) no

38. Method over-riding can be prevented by using final as a modifier at ______.

(1) the start of the class.

(2) the start of method declaration.

(3) the start of derived class.

(4) the start of the method declaration in the derived class.

Paper-III 12 J-87-16
39. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(1) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.
(2) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.
(3) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.
(4) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with strong
ownership.

40. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?

(1) Every class containing abstract method must be declared abstract.
(2) Abstract class can directly be initiated with ‘new’ operator.
(3) Abstract class can be initiated.
(4) Abstract class does not contain any definition of implementation.

41. Which of the following tag in HTML is used to surround information, such as signature of
the person who created the page ?
(1) <body> </body> (2) <address> </address>
(3) <strong> </strong> (4) <em> </em>

42. Java uses threads to enable the entire environment to be ______.

(1) Symmetric (2) Asymmetric
(3) Synchronous (4) Asynchronous

43. An Operating System (OS) crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time
Between Failures (MTBF) = 30 days. When this happens, it takes 10 minutes to recover
the OS, that is, the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 10 minutes. The availability of the
OS with these reliability figures is approximately :
(1) 96.97% (2) 97.97%
(3) 99.009% (4) 99.97%

J-87-16 13 Paper-III
44. Match each software lifecycle model in List – I to its description in List – II :
List – I List – II
I. Code-and-Fix a. Assess risks at each step; do most critical
action first.
II. Evolutionary prototyping b. Build an initial small requirement
specifications, code it, then “evolve” the
specifications and code as needed.
III. Spiral c. Build initial requirement specification for
several releases, then design-and-code in
sequence
IV. Staged Delivery d. Standard phases (requirements, design,
code, test) in order
V. Waterfall e. Write some code, debug it, repeat
(i.e. ad-hoc)
Codes :
I II III IV V
(1) e b a c d
(2) e c a b d
(3) d a b c e
(4) c e a b d

45. Match each software term in List – I to its description in List – II :

List – I List – II
I. Wizards a. Forms that provide structure for a
document
II. Templates b. A series of commands grouped into a
single command
III. Macro c. A single program that incorporates most
commonly used tools
IV. Integrated Software d. Step-by-step guides in application software
V. Software Suite e. Bundled group of software programs
Codes :
I II III IV V
(1) d a b c e
(2) b a d c e
(3) d e b a c
(4) e c b a d
Paper-III 14 J-87-16
46. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software Engineering is
(1) ISO 9000 : 2004 (2) ISO 9001 : 2000
(3) ISO 9002 : 2001 (4) ISO 9003 : 2004

47. Which of the following are external qualities of a software product ?

(1) Maintainability, reusability, portability, efficiency, correctness.
(2) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.
(3) Portability, interoperability, maintainability, reusability.
(4) Robustness, efficiency, reliability, maintainability, reusability.

48. Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about version and release ?
I. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non-
functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
II. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way
from other system instances.
III. A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the
development team.
IV. A release is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non-
functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
(1) I and III (2) II and IV
(3) I and IV (4) II and III

49. The Unix Operating System Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes,
the process table and the user structure. Now, consider the following two statements :
I. The process table is resident all the time and contain information needed for all
processes, even those that are not currently in memory.
II. The user structure is swapped or paged out when its associated process is not in
memory, in order not to waste memory on information that is not needed.
Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?
(1) Only (I) is correct. (2) Only (II) is correct.
(3) Both (I) and (II) are correct. (4) Both (I) and (II) are wrong.

J-87-16 15 Paper-III
50. Consider a system which have ‘n’ number of processes and ‘m’ number of resource types.
The time complexity of the safety algorithm, which checks whether a system is in safe
state or not, is of the order of :

(1) O(mn) (2) O(m2n2)

(3) O(m2n) (4) O(mn2)

51. An operating system supports a paged virtual memory, using a central processor with a
cycle time of one microsecond. It costs an additional one microsecond to access a page
other than the current one. Pages have 1000 words, and the paging device is a drum that
rotates at 3000 revolutions per minute and transfers one million words per second.
Further, one percent of all instructions executed accessed a page other than the current
page. The instruction that accessed another page, 80% accessed a page already in memory
and when a new page was required, the replaced page was modified 50% of the time.
What is the effective access time on this system, assuming that the system is running only
one process and the processor is idle during drum transfers ?

(1) 30 microseconds

(2) 34 microseconds

(3) 60 microseconds

(4) 68 microseconds

52. Consider the following page reference string :

1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 6

Which of the following options, gives the correct number of page faults related to LRU,
FIFO, and optimal page replacement algorithms respectively, assuming 05 page frames
and all frames are initially empty ?

(1) 10, 14, 8 (2) 8, 10, 7

(3) 7, 10, 8 (4) 7, 10, 7

Paper-III 16 J-87-16
53. Consider a file currently consisting of 50 blocks. Assume that the file control block and
the index block is already in memory. If a block is added at the end (and the block
information to be added is stored in memory), then how many disk I/O operations are
required for indexed (single-level) allocation strategy ?
(1) 1 (2) 101
(3) 27 (4) 0

54. An experimental file server is up 75% of the time and down for 25% of the time due to
bugs. How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an availability of
at least 99% ?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 16

55. Given the following two languages :

L1 = {uwwRν | u, v, w ∈ {a, b}+}

L2 = {uwwRν | u, ν, w ∈ {a, b}+, |u| > |ν|}

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) L1 is regular language and L2 is not regular language.

(2) L1 is not regular language and L2 is regular language.

(3) Both L1 and L2 are regular languages.

(4) Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages.

56. Given a Turing Machine

M = ({q0, q1}, {0, 1}, {0, 1, B}, δ, B, {q1})

Where δ is a transition function defined as

δ(q0, 0) = (q0, 0, R)

δ(q0, B) = (q1, B, R)

The language L(M) accepted by Turing machine is given as :

(1) 0* 1* (2) 00*
(3) 10* (4) 1*0*

J-87-16 17 Paper-III
57. Let G = (V, T, S, P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of
the form A → ν, with |ν| = k > 1. The derivation tree for any string W ∈ L (G) has a
height such that
(|W| – 1)
(1) h< (2) logk |W| < h
k–1
(|W| – 1) (|W| – 1)
(3) logk|W| < h < (4) logk|W| < h <
k–1 k–1

58. Which of the following is not used in standard JPEG image compression ?
(1) Huffman coding (2) Runlength encoding
(3) Zig-zag scan (4) K-L Transform

59. Which of the following is a source coding technique ?

(1) Huffman coding (2) Arithmetic coding
(3) Run-length coding (4) DPCM

60. If the histogram of an image is clustered towards origin on X-axis of a histogram plot then
it indicates that the image is ______.
(1) Dark (2) Good contrast
(3) Bright (4) Very low contrast

61. Consider the following linear programming problem :

Max. z = 0.50 x2 – 0.10x1

Subject to the constraints

2x1 + 5x2 < 80

x1 + x2 < 20

and x1, x2 > 0

The total maximum profit (z) for the above problem is :

(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 12

Paper-III 18 J-87-16
62. Consider the following statements :
(a) If primal (dual) problem has a finite optimal solution, then its dual (primal) problem
has a finite optimal solution.
(b) If primal (dual) problem has an unbounded optimum solution, then its dual (primal)
has no feasible solution at all.
(c) Both primal and dual problems may be infeasible.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

63. Consider the following statements :

(a) Assignment problem can be used to minimize the cost.
(b) Assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem.
(c) Assignment problem requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

64. What are the following sequence of steps taken in designing a fuzzy logic machine ?
(1) Fuzzification → Rule evaluation → Defuzzification
(2) Fuzzification → Defuzzification → Rule evaluation
(3) Rule evaluation → Fuzzification → Defuzzification
(4) Rule evaluation → Defuzzification → Fuzzification

65. Which of the following 2 input Boolean logic functions is linearly inseparable ?
(a) AND (b) OR
(c) NOR (d) XOR
(e) NOT XOR
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (d) and (e)

J-87-16 19 Paper-III
66. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as
y1 y2
x1  0.7 0.5 
R=  
x2  0.8 0.4 

z1 z2 z3
y1  0.9 0.6 0.2 
and S =  
y2  0.1 0.7 0.5 
Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe of X to elements of
universe of Z using max-product composition is given by

z1 z2 z3

x1  0.68 0.89 0.39 

(1) T =  
x2  0.76 0.72 0.32 

z1 z2 z3

x1  0.68 0.89 0.39 

(2) T =  
x2  0.72 0.76 0.32 

z1 z2 z3

x1  0.63 0.42 0.25 

(3) T =  
x2  0.72 0.48 0.20 

z1 z2 z3

x1  0.05 0.35 0.14 

(4) T =  
x2  0.04 0.28 0.16 

Paper-III 20 J-87-16
67. Consider the following operations to be performed in Unix :

“The pipe sorts all files in the current directory modified in the month of “June” by order
of size and prints them to the terminal screen. The sort option skips ten fields then sorts
the lines in numeric order.”

Which of the following Unix command will perform above set of operations ?

(1) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10n

(2) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10r

(3) ls – l | grep – v “June” | sort + 10n

(4) ls – l | grep – n “June” | sort + 10x

68. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a Windows Multiple Document
Interface (MDI) ?

(1) Each document in an MDI application is displayed in a separate child window

within the client area of the application’s main window.

(2) An MDI application has three kinds of windows namely a frame window, an MDI
client window and number of child windows.

(3) An MDI application can support more than one kind of document.

(4) An MDI application displays output in the client area of the frame window.

69. Which of the following statement(s) is/are True regarding ‘nice’ command of UNIX ?

I. It is used to set or change the priority of a process.

II. A process’s nice value can be set at the time of creation.

III. ‘nice’ takes a command line as an argument.

(1) I, II only (2) II, III only

(3) I, II, III (4) I, III only

J-87-16 21 Paper-III
70. Let ν(x) mean x is a vegetarian, m(y) for y is meat, and e(x, y) for x eats y. Based on these,
consider the following sentences :
I. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (∀y e(x, y) ⇒ ¬m(y))
II. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (¬(∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)))
III. ∀x (∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)) ⇔ ¬ν(x)
One can determine that
(1) Only I and II are equivalent sentences
(2) Only II and III are equivalent sentences.
(3) Only I and III are equivalent sentence .
(4) I, II, and III are equivalent sentences.

71. Match each Artificial Intelligence term in List-I that best describes a given situation in
List – II :
List – I List – II
I. Semantic Network a. Knowledge about what to do as opposed to
how to do it.
II. Frame b. A premise of a rule that is not concluded
by any rule.
III. Declarative knowledge c. A method of knowledge representation that
uses a graph.
IV. Primitive d. A data structure representing stereotypical
knowledge.
Codes :
I II III IV
(1) d a b c
(2) d c a b
(3) d c b a
(4) c d a b

72. In Artificial Intelligence , a semantic network

(1) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent
concepts and arcs represent relations between concepts.
(2) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent
relations between concepts and arcs represent concepts.
(3) represents an entity as a set of slots and associated rules.
(4) is a subset of first-order logic.

Paper-III 22 J-87-16
73. Criticism free idea generation is a factor of _____.
(1) Decision Support System

(2) Group Decision Support System

(3) Enterprise Resource Support System

(4) Artificial Intelligence

74. Consider the following logical inferences :

I1 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.

The school was open.

Inference : It was not Sunday.

I2 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.

It was not Sunday.

Inference : The school was open.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Both I1 and I2 are correct inferences.

(2) I1 is correct but I2 is not a correct inference.

(3) I1 is not correct but I2 is a correct inference.

(4) Both I1 and I2 are not correct inferences.

75. Which formal system provides the semantic foundation for Prolog ?

(1) Predicate calculus

(2) Lambda calculus

(3) Hoare logic

(4) Propositional logic

_______________

J-87-16 23 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 24 J-87-16
 PAPER-II
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
J 8
A 70 8 7 1 7
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
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the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
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of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
(iv) The test booklet no. and OMR sheet no. should be same.
In case of discrepancy in the number, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the invigilator for
replacement of the Test Booklet / OMR Sheet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
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any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
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at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
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however, allowed to carry original question booklet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
JA-087-17 1 P.T.O.
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.

1. Consider a sequence F00 defined as :

F00(0) = 1, F00(1) = 1

10 ∗ F00(n – 1) + 100
F00(n) = for n ≥ 2
F00(n – 2)

Then what shall be the set of values of the sequence F00 ?

(1) (1, 110, 1200) (2) (1, 110, 600, 1200)

(3) (1, 2, 55, 110, 600, 1200) (4) (1, 55, 110, 600, 1200)

2. Match the following :

List – I List – II

a. Absurd i. Clearly impossible being contrary to

some evident truth.

b. Ambiguous ii. Capable of more than one

interpretation or meaning.

c. Axiom iii. An assertion that is accepted and used

without a proof.

d. Conjecture iv. An opinion preferably based on some

experience or wisdom.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) ii i iii iv
Paper-II 2 JA-087-17
3. The functions mapping R into R are defined as :

1
f(x) = x3 – 4x, g(x) = and h(x) = x4.
x2 + 1

Then find the value of the following composite functions :

hog(x) and hogof(x)
(1) (x2 + 1)4 and [(x3 – 4x)2 + 1]4
(2) (x2 + 1)4 and [(x3 – 4x)2 + 1]–4
(3) (x2 + 1)–4 and [(x2 – 4x)2 + 1]4
(4) (x2 + 1)–4 and [(x3 – 4x)2 + 1]–4

4. How many multiples of 6 are there between the following pairs of numbers ?
0 and 100 and –6 and 34
(1) 16 and 6 (2) 17 and 6
(3) 17 and 7 (4) 16 and 7

5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph G with no loops or parallel edges and with |V(G)| = n ≥ 3.
Then which of the following is true ?
n
(1) deg(v) ≥ for each vertex v.
2

(2) |E(G)| ≥ 12 (n – 1) (n – 2) + 2
(3) deg (v) + deg(w) ≥ n whenever v and w are not connected by an edge.
(4) All of the above

6. In propositional logic if (P → Q) ∧ (R → S) and (P ∨ R) are two premises such that

(P → Q) ∧ (R → S)
P∨R
Y

Y is the premise :
(1) P∨R (2) P∨S
(3) Q∨R (4) Q∨S

JA-087-17 3 Paper-II
7. ECL is the fastest of all logic families. High speed in ECL is possible because transistors
are used in difference amplifier configuration, in which they are never driven into ____.
(1) Race condition (2) Saturation
(3) Delay (4) High impedance

8. A binary 3-bit down counter uses J-K flip-flops, FFi with inputs Ji, Ki and outputs Qi,
i = 0, 1, 2 respectively. The minimized expression for the input from following, is

I. J0 = K0 = 0

II. J0 = K0 = 1

III. J1 = K1 = Q0

–
IV. J1 = K1 = Q0

V. J2 = K2 = Q1 Q0

– –
VI. J2 = K2 = Q1 Q0

(1) I, III, V (2) I, IV, VI

(3) II, III, V (4) II, IV, VI

9. Convert the octal number 0.4051 into its equivalent decimal number.
(1) 0.5100098 (2) 0.2096
(3) 0.52 (4) 0.4192

10. The hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 2357 is :

(1) 2EE (2) 2FF
(3) 4EF (4) 4FE

11. Which of the following cannot be passed to a function in C++ ?

(1) Constant (2) Structure
(3) Array (4) Header file
Paper-II 4 JA-087-17
12. Which one of the following is correct for overloaded functions in C++ ?
(1) Compiler sets up a separate function for every definition of function.

(2) Compiler does not set up a separate function for every definition of function.

(3) Overloaded functions cannot handle different types of objects.

(4) Overloaded functions cannot have same number of arguments.

13. Which of the following storage classes have global visibility in C/C++ ?

(1) Auto (2) Extern

(3) Static (4) Register

14. Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C/C++ ?

(1) Bitwise right shift assignment

(2) Address of

(3) Indirection

(4) Structure reference

15. If X is a binary number which is power of 2, then the value of

X & (X – 1) is :

(1) 11….11 (2) 00…..00

(3) 100…..0 (4) 000……1

16. An attribute A of datatype varchar (20) has value ‘Ram’ and the attribute B of datatype
char (20) has value ‘Sita’ in oracle. The attribute A has _______ memory spaces and B
has _______ memory spaces.

(1) 20, 20 (2) 3, 20

(3) 3, 4 (4) 20, 4

JA-087-17 5 Paper-II
17. Integrity constraints ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not
result into loss of data consistency. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true w.r.t.
the examples of integrity constraints ?

(A) An instructor Id. No. cannot be null, provided Intructor Id No. being primary key.

(B) No two citizens have same Adhar-Id.

(C) Budget of a company must be zero.

(1) (A), (B) and (C) are true.

(2) (A) false, (B) and (C) are true.

(3) (A) and (B) are true; (C) false.

(4) (A), (B) and (C) are false.

18. Let M and N be two entities in an E-R diagram with simple single value attributes. R1 and

R2 are two relationship between M and N, where as

R1 is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many.

The minimum number of tables required to represent M, N, R1 and R2 in the relational

model are _______.

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 3

19. Consider a schema R(MNPQ) and functional dependencies M → N, P → Q. Then the

decomposition of R into R1(MN) and R2(PQ) is ________.

(1) Dependency preserving but not lossless join

(2) Dependency preserving and lossless join

(3) Lossless join but not dependency preserving

(4) Neither dependency preserving nor lossless join.

Paper-II 6 JA-087-17
20. The order of a leaf node in a B+ tree is the maximum number of children it can have.
Suppose that block size is 1 kilobytes, the child pointer takes 7 bytes long and search field
value takes 14 bytes long. The order of the leaf node is ________.
(1) 16 (2) 63
(3) 64 (4) 65

21. Which of the following is true for computation time in insertion, deletion and finding
maximum and minimum element in a sorted array ?
(1) Insertion – 0(1), Deletion – 0(1), Maximum – 0(1), Minimum – 0(l)
(2) Insertion – 0(1), Deletion – 0(1), Maximum – 0(n), Minimum – 0(n)
(3) Insertion – 0(n), Deletion – 0(n), Maximum – 0(1), Minimum – 0(1)
(4) Insertion – 0(n), Deletion – 0(n), Maximum – 0(n), Minimum – 0(n)

22. The seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G are pushed onto a stack in reverse order, i.e.,
starting from G. The stack is popped five times and each element is inserted into a queue.
Two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back onto the stack. Now, one
element is popped from the stack. The popped item is ________.
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) G

23. Which of the following is a valid heap ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

JA-087-17 7 Paper-II
24. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into
a table of size m, where n ≤ m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular
key x is less than _______.
(1) 1 (2) 1/n
(3) 1/m (4) n/m

25. Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) Optimal binary search tree construction can be performed efficiently using dynamic
programming.

(B) Breadth-first search cannot be used to find connected components of a graph.

(C) Given the prefix and postfix walks of a binary tree, the tree cannot be re-constructed
uniquely.

(D) Depth-first-search can be used to find the connected components of a graph.

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

26. Match the following Layers and Protocols for a user browsing with SSL :

a. Application of layer i. TCP

b. Transport layer ii. IP

c. Network layer iii. PPP

d. Datalink layer iv. HTTP

Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iii i iv ii
Paper-II 8 JA-087-17
27. The maximum size of the data that the application layer can pass on to the TCP layer
below is __________.
(1) 216 bytes (2) 216 bytes + TCP header length

(3) 216 bytes – TCP header length (4) 215 bytes

28. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to _____.
(1) File server (2) DNS server
(3) DHCP server (4) Default gateway

29. Distance vector routing algorithm is a dynamic routing algorithm. The routing tables in
distance vector routing algorithm are updated _____.
(1) automatically
(2) by server
(3) by exchanging information with neighbour nodes
(4) with back up database

30. In link state routing algorithm after construction of link state packets, new routes are
computed using :
(1) DES algorithm (2) Dijkstra’s algorithm
(3) RSA algorithm (4) Packets

31. Which of the following strings would match the regular expression : p+ [3 – 5]∗ [xyz] ?

I. p443y II. p6y

III. 3xyz IV. p35z

V. p353535x VI. ppp5

(1) I, III and VI only (2) IV, V and VI only
(3) II, IV and V only (4) I, IV and V only

JA-087-17 9 Paper-II
32. Consider the following assembly language instructions :

mov al, 15

mov ah, 15

xor al, al

mov cl, 3

shr ax, cl

add al, 90H

adc ah, 0

What is the value in ax register after execution of above instructions ?

(1) 0270H (2) 0170H
(3) 01E0H (4) 0370H

33. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction :

I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by

pushdown automata.

II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite-state

machine.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II

34. The contents of Register (BL) and Register (AL) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and
3AH respectively. The contents of AL, the status of carry flag (CF) and sign flag (SF)
after executing ‘SUB AL, BL’ assembly language instruction, are
(1) AL = 0FH; CF = 1; SF = 1
(2) AL = F0H; CF = 0; SF = 0
(3) AL = F1H; CF = 1; SF = 1
(4) AL = 1FH; CF = 1; SF = 1

Paper-II 10 JA-087-17
35. Which of the following statement(s) regarding a linker software is/are true ?

I. A function of a linker is to combine several object modules into a single load

module.

II A function of a linker is to replace absolute references in an object module by

symbolic references to locations in other modules.

(1) Only I

(2) Only II

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

36. There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for synchronizing a variable.

Initial value of semaphore is one. Assume that negative value of semaphore tells us how
many processes are waiting in queue. Processes access the semaphore in following
order :

(a) P2 needs to access

(b) P1 needs to access

(c) P3 needs to access

(d) P2 exits critical section

(e) P1 exits critical section

The final value of semaphore will be :

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) –1

(4) –2

JA-087-17 11 Paper-II
37. In a paging system, it takes 30 ns to search translation Look-a-side Buffer (TLB) and 90
ns to access the main memory. If the TLB hit ratio is 70%, the effective memory access
time is :
(1) 48ns (2) 147ns
(3) 120ns (4) 84ns

38. Match the following w.r.t. Input/Output management :

List – I List – II
a. Device controller i. Extracts information from the
controller register and store it in
data buffer
b. Device driver ii. I/O scheduling
c. Interrupt handler iii. Performs data transfer
d. Kernel I/O subsystem iv. Processing of I/O request

Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) i iii iv ii

39. Which of the following scheduling algorithms may cause starvation ?

a. First-come-first-served

b. Round Robin

c. Priority

d. Shortest process next

e. Shortest remaining time first

(1) a, c and e (2) c, d and e
(3) b, d and e (4) b, c and d
Paper-II 12 JA-087-17
40. Distributed operating systems consist of :
(1) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware.
(2) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware.
(3) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware.
(4) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware.

41. Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with :

(1) how computer systems work.
(2) theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems.
(3) all aspects of software production
(4) all aspects of computer-based systems development, including hardware, software
and process engineering.

42. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by
McCall’s software quality factors ?
(1) Ability to undergo change
(2) Adaptiability to new environments
(3) Operational characteristics
(4) Production costs and scheduling

43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to software architecture ?

S1 : Coupling is a measure of how well the things grouped together in a module

belong together logically.

S2 : Cohesion is a measure of the degree of interaction between software modules.

S3 : If coupling is low and cohesion is high then it is easier to change one module
without affecting others.
(1) Only S1 and S2 (2) Only S3
(3) All of S1, S2 and S3 (4) Only S1

JA-087-17 13 Paper-II
44. The prototyping model of software development is :
(1) a reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined.
(2) a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
(3) the best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
(4) a risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

45. A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time is :
(1) Adapter (2) Decorator
(3) Delegation (4) Proxy

46. Match the following :

List – I List – II
a. Affiliate Marketing i. Vendors ask partners to place logos on
partner’s site. If customers click, come
to vendors and buy.
b. Viral Marketing ii. Spread your brand on the net by word-
of-mouth. Receivers will send your
information to their friends.
c. Group Purchasing iii. Aggregating the demands of small
buyers to get a large volume. Then
negotiate a price.
d. Bartering Online iv. Exchanging surplus products and
services with the process administered
completely online by an intermediary.
Company receives “points” for its
contribution.

Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) i iii ii iv
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) ii iii i iv
Paper-II 14 JA-087-17
47. ________ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analyzing large databases to
find useful patterns.
(1) Datamining (2) Data warehousing
(3) DBMS (4) Data mirroring

48. Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. applications of mobile computing ?

(A) Travelling of salesman

(B) Location awareness services

(1) (A) true; (B) false.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) false; (B) true.

49. In 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum allocation
required for W-CDMA is _______.
(1) 2 MHz (2) 20 KHz
(3) 5 KHz (4) 5 MHz

50. Which of the following statements is/are true w.r.t. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) ?

(A) ERP automates and integrates majority of business processes.

(B) ERP provides access to information in a Real Time Environment.

(C) ERP is inexpensive to implement.

(1) (A), (B) and (C) are false.
(2) (A) and (B) false; (C) true.
(3) (A) and (B) true; (C) false.
(4) (A) true ; (B) and (C) are false.
____________

JA-087-17 15 Paper-II
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-II 16 JA-087-17
 PAPER-III
COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
J A 087
Time : 2 1/2 hours]
1 7
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
(iv) The test booklet no. and OMR sheet no. should be same.
In case of discrepancy in the number, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the invigilator for
replacement of the test booklet / OMR Sheet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are,
however, allowed to carry original question booklet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
JA-087-17 1 P.T.O.
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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 COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following is an interrupt according to temporal relationship with system

clock ?
(1) Maskable interrupt (2) Periodic interrupt
(3) Division by zero (4) Synchronous interrupt

2. Which of the following is incorrect for virtual memory ?

(1) Large programs can be written
(2) More I/O is required
(3) More addressable memory available
(4) Faster and easy swapping of process

3. The general configuration of the microprogrammed control unit is given below :

What are blocks B and C in the diagram respectively ?

(1) Block address register and cache memory
(2) Control address register and control memory
(3) Branch register and cache memory
(4) Control address register and random access memory
4. Match the following :
Addressing Mode Location of operand
a. Implied i. Registers which are in CPU
b. Immediate ii. Register specifies the address of the operand.
c. Register iii. Specified in the register
d. Register Indirect iv. Specified implicitly in the definition of instruction
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iv i iii ii
(3) iv ii i iii
(4) iv iii ii i
Paper-III 2 JA-087-17
5. In 8085 microprocessor, the digit 5 indicates that the microprocessor needs
(1) –5 volts, +5 volts supply (2) +5 volts supply only
(3) –5 volts supply only (4) 5 MHz clock

6. In 8085, which of the following performs : load register pair immediate operation ?
(1) LDAX rp (2) LHLD addr
(3) LXI rp, data (4) INX rp

7. Consider following schedules involving two transactions :

S1 : r1(X); r1(Y); r2(X); r2(Y); w2(Y); w1(X)
S2 : r1(X); r2(X); r2(Y); w2(Y); r1(Y); w1(X)
Which of the following statement is true ?
(1) Both S1 and S2 are conflict serializable.
(2) S1 is conflict serializable and S2 is not conflict serializable.
(3) S1 is not conflict serializable and S2 is conflict serializable.
(4) Both S1 and S2 are not conflict serializable.

8. Which one is correct w.r.t. RDBMS ?

(1) primary key ⊆ super key ⊆ candidate key
(2) primary key ⊆ candidate key ⊆ super key
(3) super key ⊆ candidate key ⊆ primary key
(4) super key ⊆ primary key ⊆ candidate key

9. Let pk(R) denotes primary key of relation R. A many-to-one relationship that exists
between two relations R1 and R2 can be expressed as follows :
(1) pk(R2) → pk(R1) (2) pk(R1) → pk(R2)
(3) pk(R2) → R1 ∩ R2 (4) pk(R1) → R1 ∩ R2

10. For a database relation R(A, B, C, D) where the domains of A, B, C and D include only
atomic values, only the following functional dependencies and those that can be inferred
from them are :
A→C
B→D
The relation R is in _______.
(1) First normal form but not in second normal form.
(2) Both in first normal form as well as in second normal form.
(3) Second normal form but not in third normal form.
(4) Both in second normal form as well as in third normal form.

JA-087-17 3 Paper-III
11. Consider the following relation :
Works (emp_name, company_name, salary)
Here, emp_name is primary key.
Consider the following SQL query
Select emp_name
From works T
where salary > (select avg (salary)
from works S
where T.company _ name =
S.company _ name)
The above query is for following :
(1) Find the highest paid employee who earns more than the average salary of all
employees of his company.
(2) Find the highest paid employee who earns more than the average salary of all the employees
of all the companies.
(3) Find all employees who earn more than the average salary of all employees of all the
companies.
(4) Find all employees who earn more than the average salary of all employees of their company.
12. If following sequence of keys are inserted in a B+ tree with K(=3) pointers :
8, 5, 1, 7, 3, 12, 9, 6
Which of the following shall be correct B+ tree ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Paper-III 4 JA-087-17
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) Persistence is the term used to describe the duration of phosphorescence.
(2) The control electrode is used to turn the electron beam on and off.
(3) The electron gun creates a source of electrons which are focussed into a narrow
beam directed at the face of CRT.
(4) All of the above
14. A segment is any object described by GKS commands and data that start with CREATE
SEGMENT and Terminates with CLOSE SEGMENT command. What functions can be
performed on these segments ?
(1) Translation and Rotation
(2) Panning and Zooming
(3) Scaling and Shearing
(4) Translation, Rotation, Panning and Zooming
15. Match the following :
a. Glass i. Contains liquid crystal and serves as a bonding
surface for a conductive coating.
b. Conductive coating ii. Acts as a conductor so that a voltage can be
applied across the liquid crystal.
c. Liquid crystal iii. A substance which will polarize light when a
voltage is applied to it.
d. Polarized film iv. A transparent sheet that polarizes light.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) i iii ii iv
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iv ii i iii
16. Below are the few steps given for scan-converting a circle using Bresenham’s Algorithm.
Which of the given steps is not correct ?
(1) Compute d = 3 – 2r (where r is radius)
(2) Stop if x > y
(3) If d < 0, then d = 4x + 6 and x = x + 1
(4) If d ≥ 0, then d = 4 ∗ (x – y) + 10, x = x + 1 and y = y + 1
17. Which of the following is/are side effects of scan conversion ?
a. Aliasing
b. Unequal intensity of diagonal lines
c. Overstriking in photographic applications
d. Local or Global aliasing
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b, c and d
18. Consider a line AB with A = (0, 0) and B = (8, 4). Apply a simple DDA algorithm and
compute the first four plots on this line.
(1) [(0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 2)] (2) [(0, 0), (1, 1.5), (2, 2), (3, 3)]
(3) [(0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 2.5), (3, 3)] (4) [(0, 0), (1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2)]
JA-087-17 5 Paper-III
19. Which of the following are not regular ?
(A) Strings of even number of a’s.
(B) Strings of a’s, whose length is a prime number.
(C) Set of all palindromes made up of a’s and b’s.
(D) Strings of a’s whose length is a perfect square.
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only

20. Consider the languages L1 = φ and L2 = {1}. Which one of the following represents
* * *
L1 ∪ L2 L1 ?
(1) {∈} (2) {∈, 1}
(3) φ (4) 1*
21. Given the following statements :
(A) A class of languages that is closed under union and complementation has to be
closed under intersection.
(B) A class of languages that is closed under union and intersection has to be closed
under complementation.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false. (2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, (B) is true.
22. Let G = (V, T, S, P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of
the form A → v, with |v| = K > 1. The derivation tree for any W ∈ L(G) has a height h
such that
⎛|W| – 1⎞
(1) logK|W| ≤ h ≤ logK⎜ K – 1 ⎟ (2) logK|W| ≤ h ≤ logK(K|W|)
⎝ ⎠
⎛|W| – 1⎞
(3) logK|W| ≤ h ≤ K logK|W| (4) logK|W| ≤ h ≤ ⎜ K – 1 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
23. Given the following two languages :
L1 = {an bn | n ≥ 0, n ≠ 100}
L2 = {w ∈ {a, b, c}*| na(w) = nb(w) = nc(w)}
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both L1 and L2 are not context free language
(2) Both L1 and L2 are context free language.
(3) L1 is context free language, L2 is not context free language.
(4) L1 is not context free language, L2 is context free language.
24. A recursive function h, is defined as follows :
h(m) = k, if m = 0
= 1, if m = 1
= 2 h(m – 1) + 4h(m – 2), if m ≥ 2
If the value of h(4) is 88 then the value of k is :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) –1
Paper-III 6 JA-087-17
25. Suppose there are n stations in a slotted LAN. Each station attempts to transmit with a
probability P in each time slot. The probability that only one station transmits in a given
slot is _______.
(1) nP(1 – P)n – 1 (2) nP
(3) P(1 – P) n – 1 (4) nP(1 – P)n – 1
26. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to station B using sliding window
protocol. The round trip delay between A and B is 40 milliseconds and the bottleneck
bandwidth on the path between A and B is 64 kbps. The optimal window size of A is
________.
(1) 20 (2) 10
(3) 30 (4) 40
27. Let G(x) be generator polynomial used for CRC checking. The condition that should be
satisfied by G(x) to correct odd numbered error bits, will be :
(1) (1 + x) is factor of G(x) (2) (1 – x) is factor of G(x)
2
(3) (1 + x ) is factor of G(x) (4) x is factor of G(x)
28. In a packet switching network, if the message size is 48 bytes and each packet contains a
header of 3 bytes. If 24 packets are required to transmit the message, the packet size is
________.
(1) 2 bytes (2) 1 byte
(3) 4 bytes (4) 5 bytes
29. In RSA public key cryptosystem suppose n = p ∗ q where p and q are primes. (e, n) and
(d, n) are public and private keys respectively. Let M be an integer such that o < M < n
and φ(n) = (p – 1) (q – 1).
Which of the following equations represent RSA public key cryptosystem ?
I. C ≡ Me (mod n) II. ed ≡ 1(mod n)
M ≡ (C) (mod n)
d

III. ed ≡ 1(mod φ(n)) IV. C ≡ Me(mod φ(n))

M ≡ Cd(mod φ(n))
Codes :
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) I and IV
30. A node X on a 10 Mbps network is regulated by a token bucket. The token bucket is filled
at a rate of 2 Mbps. Token bucket is initially filled with 16 megabits. The maximum
duration taken by X to transmit at full rate of 10 Mbps is _________ secs.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
31. The asymptotic upper bound solution of the recurrence relation given by
⎛n⎞ n
T(n) = 2T⎜2⎟ + lg n is :
⎝ ⎠
(1) O(n )2 (2) O(n lg n)
(3) O(n lg lg n) (4) O(lg lg n)
32. Any decision tree that sorts n elements has height ________.
(1) Ω(lg n) (2) Ω(n)
(3) Ω(n lg n) (4) Ω(n2)
JA-087-17 7 Paper-III
33. Red-black trees are one of many search tree schemes that are “balanced” in order to
guarantee that basic dynamic-set operations take ________ time in the worst case.
(1) O(1) (2) O(lg n)
(3) O(n) (4) O(n lg n)
34. The minimum number of scalar multiplication required, for parenthesization of a matrix-
chain product whose sequence of dimensions for four matrices is <5, 10, 3, 12, 5> is
(1) 630 (2) 580
(3) 480 (4) 405
35. Dijkstra’s algorithm is based on
(1) Divide and conquer paradigm (2) Dynamic programming
(3) Greedy Approach (4) Backtracking paradigm
36. Match the following with respect to algorithm paradigms :
List – I List – II
a. Merge sort i. Dynamic programming
b. Huffman coding ii. Greedy approach
c. Optimal polygon triangulation iii. Divide and conquer
d. Subset sum problem iv. Back tracking
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) iii ii i iv
37. Abstraction and encapsulation are fundamental principles that underlie the object oriented
approach to software development. What can you say about the following two statements ?
I. Abstraction allows us to focus on what something does without considering the
complexities of how it works.
II. Encapsulation allows us to consider complex ideas while ignoring irrelevant detail
that would confuse us.
(1) Neither I nor II is correct.
(2) Both I and II are correct.
(3) Only II is correct.
(4) Only I is correct.
38. Given the array of integers ‘array’ shown below :
13 7 27 2 18 33 9 11 22 8
What is the output of the following JAVA statements ?
int [ ] p = new int [10];
int [ ] q = new int [10];
for (int k = 0; k < 10; k ++)
p[k] = array [k];
q = p;
p[4] = 20;
System.out.println(array [4] + “:” + q[4]);
(1) 20 : 20 (2) 18 : 18
(3) 18 : 20 (4) 20 : 18
Paper-III 8 JA-087-17
39. Consider the following JAVA program :
public class First {
public static int CBSE (int x) {
if (x < 100) x = CBSE (x + 10);
return (x – 1);
}
public static void main (String[] args){
System.out.print(First.CBSE(60));
}
}
What does this program print ?
(1) 59 (2) 95
(3) 69 (4) 99
40. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to an abstract class in JAVA is/are TRUE ?
I. An abstract class is one that is not used to create objects.
II. An abstract class is designed only to act as a base class to be inherited by other
classes.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Neither I nor II (4) Both I and II
41. Which of the following HTML code will affect the vertical alignment of the table content ?
(1) <td style = “vertical-align : middle”> Text Here </td>
(2) <td valign = “centre”> Text Here </td>
(3) <td style = “text-align : center”> Text Here </td>
(4) <td align = “middle”> Text Here </td>
42. What can you say about the following statements ?
I. XML tags are case-insensitive.
II. In JavaScript, identifier names are case-sensitive.
III. Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) cannot be used with XML.
IV. All well-formed XML documents must contain a document type definition.
(1) only I and II are false. (2) only III and IV are false.
(3) only I and III are false. (4) only II and IV are false.
43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE with regard to software testing ?
I. Regression testing technique ensures that the software product runs correctly after
the changes during maintenance.
II. Equivalence partitioning is a white-box testing technique that divides the input
domain of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived.
(1) only I (2) only II
(3) both I and II (4) neither I nor II

44. Which of the following are facts about a top-down software testing approach ?
I. Top-down testing typically requires the tester to build method stubs.
II. Top-down testing typically requires the tester to build test drivers.
(1) only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II
JA-087-17 9 Paper-III
45. Match the terms related to Software Configuration Management (SCM) in List – I with
the descriptions in List – II.
List – I List – II
I. Version A. An instance of a system that is distributed to
customers.
II. Release B. An instance of a system which is functionally identical
to other instances, but designed for different
hardware/software configurations.
III. Variant C. An instance of a system that differs, in some way,
from other instances.
Codes :
I II III
(1) B C A
(2) C A B
(3) C B A
(4) B A C
46. A software project was estimated at 352 Function Points (FP). A four person team will be
assigned to this project consisting of an architect, two programmers, and a tester. The
salary of the architect is ` 80,000 per month, the programmer ` 60,000 per month and the
tester ` 50,000 per month. The average productivity for the team is 8 FP per person
month. Which of the following represents the projected cost of the project ?
(1) ` 28,16,000 (2) ` 20,90,000
(3) ` 26,95,000 (4) ` 27,50,000
47. Complete each of the following sentences in List – I on the left hand side by filling in the
word or phrase from the List – II on the right hand side that best completes the sentence :
List – I List – II
I. Determining whether you have A. Software testing
built the right system is called
________
II. Determining whether you have B. Software verification
built the system right is called
________
III. ________ is the process of C. Software debugging
demonstrating the existence of
defects or providing confidence
that they do not appear to be
present.
IV. _______ is the process of D. Software validation
discovering the cause of a defect
and fixing it.
Codes :
I II III IV
(1) B D A C
(2) B D C A
(3) D B C A
(4) D B A C
Paper-III 10 JA-087-17
48. A software company needs to develop a project that is estimated as 1000 function points
and is planning to use JAVA as the programming language whose approximate lines of
code per function point is accepted as 50. Considering a = 1.4 as multiplicative factor,
b = 1.0 as exponention factor for the basic COCOMO effort equation and c = 3.0 as
multiplicative factor, d = 0.33 as exponention factor for the basic COCOMO duration
equation, approximately how long does the project take to complete ?
(1) 11.2 months (2) 12.2 months
(3) 13.2 months (4) 10.2 months

49. A memory management system has 64 pages with 512 bytes page size. Physical memory
consists of 32 page frames. Number of bits required in logical and physical address are
respectively :
(1) 14 and 15 (2) 14 and 29
(3) 15 and 14 (4) 16 and 32

50. Consider a disk queue with I/O requests on the following cylinders in their arriving order :
6, 10, 12, 54, 97, 73, 128, 15, 44, 110, 34, 45
The disk head is assumed to be at cylinder 23 and moving in the direction of decreasing
number of cylinders. Total number of cylinders in the disk is 150. The disk head
movement using SCAN-scheduling algorithm is :
(1) 172 (2) 173
(3) 227 (4) 228

51. Match the following for Unix file system :

List – I List – II
a. Boot block i. Information about file system, free block list, free
inode list etc.
b. Super block ii. Contains operating system files as well as program
and data files created by users.
c. Inode block iii. Contains boot program and partition table.
d. Data block iv. Contains a table for every file in the file system.
Attributes of files are stored here.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iv iii i ii

52. Some of the criteria for calculation of priority of a process are :

a. Processor utilization by an individual process.
b. Weight assigned to a user or group of users.
c. Processor utilization by a user or group of processes
In fair share scheduler, priority is calculated based on :
(1) only (a) and (b) (2) only (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) only (b) and (c)
JA-087-17 11 Paper-III
53. One of the disadvantages of user level threads compared to Kernel level threads is
(1) If a user level thread of a process executes a system call, all threads in that process
are blocked.
(2) Scheduling is application dependent.
(3) Thread switching doesn’t require kernel mode privileges.
(4) The library procedures invoked for thread management in user level threads are
local procedures.
54. Which statement is not correct about “init” process in Unix ?
(1) It is generally the parent of the login shell.
(2) It has PID 1.
(3) It is the first process in the system.
(4) Init forks and execs a ‘getty’ process at every port connected to a terminal.
55. Consider following two rules R1 and R2 in logical reasoning in Artificial Intelligence (AI) :
R1 : From α ⊃ β
and α
is known as Modus Tollens (MT)
Inter β
R2 : From α ⊃ β
and β
is known as Modus Ponens (MP)
Inter α
(1) Only R1 is correct. (2) Only R2 is correct.
(3) Both R1 and R2 are correct. (4) Neither R1 nor R2 is correct.
56. Consider the following AO graph :

Which is the best node to expand next by AO* algorithm ?

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) B and C
57. In Artificial Intelligence (AI), what is present in the planning graph ?
(1) Sequence of levels (2) Literals
(3) Variables (4) Heuristic estimates
58. What is the best method to go for the game playing problem ?
(1) Optimal Search (2) Random Search
(3) Heuristic Search (4) Stratified Search
59. Which of the following statements is true ?
(1) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,…, Sn if and only if S1 ∧ S2 ∧........ ∧
Sn → S is satisfiable.
(2) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,…, Sn if and only if S1 ∧ S2 ∧........ ∧
Sn → S is valid.
(3) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,…, Sn if and only if S1 ∧ S2 ∧........ ∧
Sn ∧ S is consistent.
(4) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,…, Sn if and only if S1 ∧ S2 ∧........ ∧
Sn ∧ S is inconsistent.

Paper-III 12 JA-087-17
60. The first order logic (FOL) statement ((R ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ Q)) is equivalent to which of the
following ?
(1) ((R ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ Q) ∧ (R ∨ P))
(2) ((R ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ Q) ∧ (R ∨ P))
(3) ((R ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ Q) ∧ (R ∨ P))
(4) ((R ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ Q) ∧ ( R ∨ P))
61. Given the following two statements :
A. L = {w|na(w) = nb(w)} is deterministic context free language, but not linear.
B. L = {an bn} ∪ {an b2n} is linear, but not deterministic context free language.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false. (2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, (B) is true.
62. Which of the following pairs have different expressive power ?
(1) Single-tape-turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.
(2) Multi-tape turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.
(3) Deterministic push down automata and non-deterministic pushdown automata.
(4) Deterministic finite automata and Non-deterministic finite automata
63. Which of the following statements is false ?
(1) Every context-sensitive language is recursive.
(2) The set of all languages that are not recursively enumerable is countable.
(3) The family of recursively enumerable languages is closed under union.
(4) The families of recursively enumerable and recursive languages are closed under reversal.
64. Let C be a binary linear code with minimum distance 2t + 1 then it can correct upto _____
bits of error.
(1) t + 1 (2) t
t
(3) t – 2 (4) 2
65. A t-error correcting q-nary linear code must satisfy :
t
⎛n⎞
M Σ ⎝i ⎠ (q – 1)i ≤ X
i=0
Where M is the number of code words and X is
(1) qn (2) qt
(3) q–n (4) q–t
66. Names of some of the Operating Systems are given below :
(a) MS-DOS (b) XENIX (c) OS/2
In the above list, following operating systems didn’t provide multiuser facility.
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
67. From the given data below :
abbaabbaab
which one of the following is not a word in the dictionary created by LZ-coding (the
initial words are a, b) ?
(1) a b (2) b b
(3) b a (4) b a a b
JA-087-17 13 Paper-III
68. With respect to a loop in the transportation table, which one of the following is not correct ?
(1) Every loop has an odd no. of cells and atleast 5.
(2) Closed loops may or may not be square in shape.
(3) All the cells in the loop that have a plus or minus sign, except the starting cell, must
be occupied cells.
(4) Every loop has an even no. of cells and atleast four.
69. At which of the following stage(s), the degeneracy do not occur in transportation problem ?
(m, n represents number of sources and destinations respectively)
(a) While the values of dual variables ui and vj cannot be computed.
(b) While obtaining an initial solution, we may have less than m + n – 1 allocations.
(c) At any stage while moving towards optimal solution, when two or more occupied
cells with the same minimum allocation become unoccupied simultaneously.
(d) At a stage when the no. of +ve allocation is exactly m + n – 1.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
70. Consider the following LPP :
Min. Z = x1 + x2 + x3
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 ≤ 5
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 = 7
8x1 + 9x3 ≥ 2,
x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0
The standard form of this LPP shall be :
(1) Min. Z = x1 + x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 – x5 = 2;
x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 ≥ 0
(2) Min. Z = x1 + x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5 – 1(x6) – 1(x7)
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 + x6 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 – x5 + x7 = 2;
x1 to x7 ≥ 0
(3) Min. Z = x1 + x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5 + 0x6
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 – x5 + x6 = 2;
x1 to x6 ≥ 0
(4) Min. Z = x1 + x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5 + 0x6 + 0x7
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 + x6 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 – x5 + x7 = 2;
x1 to x7 ≥ 0
Paper-III 14 JA-087-17
71. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as :
y1 y2 z1 z2 z3
x1⎡ 0.6 0.4 ⎤ y1⎡ 0.8 0.5 0.1 ⎤
R= ⎢ ⎥ and S = ⎢ ⎥
x2⎣ 0.7 0.3 ⎦ y2⎣ 0.0 0.6 0.4 ⎦
Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe x to the elements of
universe z using max-min composition is given by :
z1 z2 z3 z1 z2 z3
x1⎡ 0.4 0.6 0.4 ⎤ x1⎡ 0.4 0.6 0.4 ⎤
(1) T = ⎢ ⎥ (2) T = ⎢ ⎥
x2⎣ 0.7 0.7 0.7 ⎦ x2⎣ 0.8 0.5 0.4 ⎦
z1 z2 z3 z1 z2 z3
x1⎡ 0.6 0.5 0.4 ⎤ x1⎡ 0.6 0.5 0.5 ⎤
(3) T = ⎢ ⎥ (4) T = ⎢ ⎥
x2⎣ 0.7 0.5 0.3 ⎦ x2⎣ 0.7 0.7 0.7 ⎦

72. A neuron with 3 inputs has the weight vector [0.2 –0.1 0.1]T and a bias θ = 0. If the input
vector is X = [0.2 0.4 0.2]T then the total input to the neuron is :
(1) 0.20 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.02 (4) –1.0
73. Which of the following neural networks uses supervised learning ?
(A) Multilayer perceptron
(B) Self organizing feature map
(C) Hopfield network
(1) (A) only (2) (B) only
(3) (A) and (B) only (4) (A) and (C) only
74. Unix command to change the case of first three lines of file “shortlist” from lower to
upper
(1) $ tr ‘[a – z]’ ‘[A – Z]’ shortlist ¦ head-3
(2) $ head-3 shortlist ¦ tr ‘[a – z]’ ‘[A – Z]’
(3) $ tr head -3 shortlist ‘[A – Z]’ ‘[a – z]’
(4) $ tr shortlist head -3 ‘[a – z]’ ‘[A – Z]’
75. Match the following vi commands in Unix :
List – I List – II
a. : w i. saves the file and quits editing mode
b. : x ii. escapes unix shell
c. : q iii. saves file and remains in editing mode
d. : sh iv. quits editing mode and no changes are saved to the file
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii i iv ii
___________
JA-087-17 15 Paper-III
 Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 16 JA-087-17
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name)
PAPER - II Roll No.
N0 8 7 1 7 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND
Time : 1¼ hours] APPLICATIONS
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or
using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÙ¢ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
1. ß‚ ¬ÎDU ∑§ ™§¬⁄U ÁŸÿà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •¬ŸÊ ⁄UÙ‹U Ÿê’⁄U Á‹Áπ∞–
2. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¢ ¬øÊ‚ ’„ÈÁfl∑§À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥–
3. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬˝Ê⁄êU÷ „ÙŸ ¬⁄U, ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •Ê¬∑§Ù Œ ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ¬„‹U ¬UÊ°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U
•Ê¬∑§Ù ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©‚∑§Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¡Ê°ø ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ
¡Êÿ¢ª, Á¡‚∑§Ë ¡Ê°ø •Ê¬∑§Ù •fl‡ÿ ∑§⁄UŸË „Ò —
(i) ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U ‹ªË ∑§Êª¡ ∑§Ë ‚Ë‹ ∑§Ê
»§Ê«∏ ‹¢U– πÈ‹Ë „È߸ ÿÊ Á’ŸÊ S≈UË∑§⁄U-‚Ë‹U ∑§Ë ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê SflË∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ ∑§⁄¢U–
(ii) ∑§fl⁄U ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ ¬ÎDU ÃÕÊ ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑§Ë
‚¢ÅÿÊ ∑§Ù •ë¿UË Ã⁄U„ øÒ∑§ ∑§⁄U ‹¢U Á∑§ ÿ ¬Í⁄U „Ò¢U– ŒÙ·¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê
Á¡Ÿ◊¢ ¬ÎDU/¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§◊ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ •Ê ªÿ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ‚ËÁ⁄Uÿ‹U ◊¢ Ÿ „Ù¢
•ÕʸØ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë òÊÈÁ≈U¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê SflË∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ ∑§⁄¢U ÃÕÊ
©‚Ë ‚◊ÿ ©‚ ‹Uı≈UÊ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ŒÍ‚⁄UË ‚„Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‹
‹¢– U ß‚∑§ Á‹∞ •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑§ ’ÊŒ Ÿ ÃÙ
•Ê¬∑§Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê flʬ‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄U Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑§Ù •ÁÃÁ⁄UQ§
‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
(iii) ß‚ ¡Ê°ø ∑§ ’ÊŒ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê Ÿ¥’⁄U OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¢U
•Uı⁄U OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ∑§Ê Ÿ¥’⁄U ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄U Œ¢–
4. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬ (1), (2), (3) ÃÕÊ (4) ÁŒÿ ªÿ „Ò¢–
•Ê¬∑§Ù ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ù ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄U∑§⁄U ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò ¡Ò‚Ê Á∑§ ŸËø
ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ — ¡’Á∑§ (3) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U „Ò–
5. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ OMRU ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „Ë
•¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ OMRU ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ flÎûÊ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ Á∑§‚Ë
•ãÿ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ÁøqÊ¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥, ÃÙ ©‚∑§Ê ◊ÍÀUÿÊ¢∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¢ „٪ʖ
6. •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÙ¢ ∑§Ù äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬…∏¢U–
7. ∑§ìÊÊ ∑§Ê◊ (Rough Work) ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ÁãÃ◊ ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ∑§⁄¢U–
8. ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŸÿà SÕÊŸ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊, ⁄UÊ‹ Ÿê’⁄U,
»§ÊŸ Ÿê’⁄U ÿÊ ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ∞‚Ê Áøq Á¡‚‚ •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ „Ê ‚∑§, •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ
„Ò¥ •ÕflÊ •÷Œ˝ ÷Ê·Ê ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥, ÿÊ ∑§Ê߸ •ãÿ •ŸÈÁøà ‚ÊœŸ ∑§Ê
¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥, ¡Ò‚ Á∑§ •¥Á∑§Ã Á∑§ÿ ªÿ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê Á◊≈UÊŸÊ ÿÊ ‚»§Œ SÿÊ„Ë ‚
’Œ‹ŸÊ ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ Á‹ÿ •ÿÊÇÿ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã Á∑§ÿ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
9. •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ §¬⁄U ◊Í‹ OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ◊„ÙŒÿ ∑§Ù ‹Uı≈UÊŸÊ
•Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò •ı⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U
Ÿ ‹∑§⁄U ¡Êÿ¢– „Ê‹Ê¥Á∑§ •Ê¬ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ¬⁄U ◊Í‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ÃÕÊ OMR
¬òÊ∑§ ∑§Ë «ÈUå‹Ë∑§≈U ¬˝Áà •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
10. ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’Ê‹U åflÊßZ≈U ¬Ÿ ∑§Ê „Ë ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¢U–
11. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑§ (∑Ò§‹∑ȧ‹≈U⁄U) UÿÊ ‹Êª ≈U’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑§Ê
¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
12. ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ∑§Ê⁄UÊà◊∑§ •¥∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER - II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions
are compulsory.

1. If the time is now 4 O’clock, what will be the time after 101 hours from now ?
(1) 9 O’clock (2) 8 O’clock (3) 5 O’clock (4) 4 O’clock

2. Let m=(313)4 and n=(322)4. Find the base 4 expansion of m+n.

(1) (635) 4 (2) (32312) 4 (3) (21323) 4 (4) (1301) 4

1 1 0
0 1 0 0 0
1 0
3. Let A =   and B =  0 1 1 0  Find the boolean product A ⊙ B of the two matrices.
1 1 0  
   1 0 1 1 
0 0 1

1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0
0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0
(1)   (2)   (3)   (4)  
1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1
       
1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1

4. How many distinguishable permutations of the letters in the word BANANA are there ?
(1) 720 (2) 120 (3) 60 (4) 360

5. Consider the graph given below :

Use Kruskal’s algorithm to find a minimal spanning tree for the graph. The List of the edges
of the tree in the order in which they are choosen is ?
(1) AD, AE, AG, GC, GB, BF (2) GC, GB, BF, GA, AD, AE
(3) GC, AD, GB, GA, BF, AE (4) AD, AG, GC, AE, GB, BF

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 2 Paper-II

6. The Boolean function with the Karnaugh map

AB
CD 00 01 11 10
00 0 1 1 0
01 0 1 1 1
11 1 1 1 1
10 0 1 1 0
is :
(1) (A+C).D+B (2) (A+B).C+D
(3) (A+D).C+B (4) (A+C).B+D

7. The Octal equivalent of the binary number 1011101011 is :

(1) 7353 (2) 1353 (3) 5651 (4) 5657

8. Let P and Q be two propositions, ¬ (P ↔ Q) is equivalent to :

(1) P↔¬Q (2) ¬P↔Q (3) ¬P↔¬Q (4) Q→P

9. Negation of the proposition › x H(x) is :

(1) › x ¬ H(x) (2) ∀ x ¬ H(x) (3) ∀ x H(x) (4) ¬ x H(x)

10. The output of the following combinational circuit is F.

The value of F is :

(1) P1+P፱2 P3 (2) P1+P፱2 P፱3 (3) P1+P2 P፱3 (4) P፱1+P2 P3

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 3 Paper-II

11. ‘ptrdata’ is a pointer to a data type. The expression *ptrdata++ is evaluated as (in C++) :
(1) *(ptrdata++) (2) (*ptrdata)++
(3) *(ptrdata)++ (4) Depends on compiler

12. The associativity of which of the following operators is Left to Right, in C++ ?
(1) Unary Operator (2) Logical not
(3) Array element access (4) addressof

13. A member function can always access the data in __________ , (in C++).
(1) the class of which it is member (2) the object of which it is a member
(3) the public part of its class (4) the private part of its class

14. Which of the following is not correct for virtual function in C++ ?
(1) Must be declared in public section of class.
(2) Virtual function can be static.
(3) Virtual function should be accessed using pointers.
(4) Virtual function is defined in base class.

15. Which of the following is not correct (in C++) ?

(1) Class templates and function templates are instantiated in the same way.
(2) Class templates differ from function templates in the way they are initiated.
(3) Class template is initiated by defining an object using the template argument.
(4) Class templates are generally used for storage classes.

16. Which of the following is/are true with reference to ‘view’ in DBMS ?
(a) A ‘view’ is a special stored procedure executed when certain event occurs.
(b) A ‘view’ is a virtual table, which occurs after executing a pre-compiled query.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is true (2) Only (b) is true
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true (4) Neither (a) nor (b) are true

17. In SQL, __________ is an Aggregate function.

(1) SELECT (2) CREATE (3) AVG (4) MODIFY

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 4 Paper-II

18. Match the following with respect to RDBMS :
(a) Entity integrity (i) enforces some specific business rule that do not fall
into entity or domain
(b) Domain integrity (ii) Rows can’t be deleted which are used by other
records
(c) Referential integrity (iii) enforces valid entries for a column
(d) Userdefined integrity (iv) No duplicate rows in a table
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

19. In RDBMS, different classes of relations are created using __________ technique to prevent
modification anomalies.
(1) Functional Dependencies (2) Data integrity
(3) Referential integrity (4) Normal Forms

20. __________ SQL command changes one or more fields in a record.

(1) LOOK-UP (2) INSERT (3) MODIFY (4) CHANGE

21. Consider an array representation of an n element binary heap where the elements are stored
from index 1 to index n of the array. For the element stored at index i of the array (i<=n),
the index of the parent is :
(1) floor ((i+1)/2) (2) ceiling ((i+1)/2)
(3) floor (i/2) (4) ceiling (i/2)

22. The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order :
10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

23. Let G be an undirected connected graph with distinct edge weight. Let Emax be the edge
with maximum weight and Emin the edge with minimum weight. Which of the following
statements is false ?
(1) Every minimum spanning tree of G must contain Emin.
(2) If Emax is in minimum spanning tree, then its removal must disconnect G.
(3) No minimum spanning tree contains Emax.
(4) G has a unique minimum spanning tree.

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 5 Paper-II

24. A list of n strings, each of length n, is sorted into lexicographic order using merge - sort
algorithm. The worst case running time of this computation is :
(1) O(n log n) (2) O(n2 log n) (3) O(n2 + log n) (4) O(n3)

25. Postorder traversal of a given binary search tree T produces following sequence of keys :
3, 5, 7, 9, 4, 17, 16, 20, 18, 15, 14
Which one of the following sequences of keys can be the result of an in-order traversal of
the tree T ?
(1) 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 14, 20, 18, 17, 16, 15
(2) 20, 18, 17, 16, 15, 14, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9
(3) 20, 18, 17, 16, 15, 14, 9, 7, 5, 4, 3
(4) 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 20

26. Which of the following devices takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to
the destination node based on MAC address ?
(1) Hub (2) Modem (3) Switch (4) Gateway

27. __________ do not take their decisions on measurements or estimates of the current traffic
and topology.
(1) Static algorithms (2) Adaptive algorithms
(3) Non - adaptive algorithms (4) Recursive algorithms

28. The number of bits used for addressing in Gigabit Ethernet is __________.
(1) 32 bits (2) 48 bits (3) 64 bits (4) 128 bits

29. Which of the following layer of OSI Reference model is also called end-to-end layer ?
(1) Network layer (2) Datalink layer (3) Session layer (4) Transport layer

30. The IP address __________ is used by hosts when they are being booted.
(1) 0.0.0.0 (2) 1.0.0.0 (3) 1.1.1.1 (4) 255.255.255.255

31. Consider the following program fragment in assembly language :

mov ax, 0h
mov cx, 0A h
doloop :
dec ax
loop doloop
What is the value of ax and cx registers after the completion of the doloop ?
(1) ax=FFF5 h and cx=0 h (2) ax=FFF6 h and cx=0 h
(3) ax=FFF7 h and cx=0A h (4) ax=FFF5 h and cx=0A h

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 6 Paper-II

32. Consider the following assembly program fragment :

stc
mov al, 11010110b

mov cl, 2

rcl al, 3

rol al, 4

shr al, cl

mul cl

The contents of the destination register ax (in hexadecimal) and the status of Carry Flag (CF)
after the execution of above instructions, are :

(1) ax=003CH; CF=0 (2) ax=001EH; CF=0

(3) ax=007BH; CF=1 (4) ax=00B7H; CF=1

33. Which of the following regular expressions, each describing a language of binary numbers
(MSB to LSB) that represents non-negative decimal values, does not include even values ?

(1) 0*1+0* 1* (2) 0 *1 * 0+ 1 * (3) 0 *1 * 0* 1 + (4) 0+1*0* 1*

Where {+, *} are quantification characters.

34. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?

(a) The grammar S → SS ? a is ambiguous. (Where S is the start symbol)

(b) The grammar S → 0S1 ? 01S ? e is ambiguous. (The special symbol e represents the
empty string) (Where S is the start symbol)

(c) The grammar (Where S is the start symbol)

S → T/U

T → x S y ? xy ? e

U → yT

generates a language consisting of the string yxxyy.

(1) Only (a) and (b) are TRUE. (2) Only (a) and (c) are TRUE.

(3) Only (b) and (c) are TRUE. (4) All of (a), (b) and (c) are TRUE.

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 7 Paper-II

35. Match the description of several parts of a classic optimizing compiler in List - I, with the
names of those parts in List - II :
List - I List - II
(a) A part of a compiler that is responsible for recognizing (i) Optimizer
syntax.
(b) A part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of (ii) Semantic Analysis
characters and produces as output a stream of words
along with their associated syntactic categories.
(c) A part of a compiler that understand the meanings of (iii) Parser
variable names and other symbols and checks that they
are used in ways consistent with their definitions.
(d) An IR-to-IR transformer that tries to improve the IR (iv) Scanner
program in some way (Intermediate Representation).
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

36. In Distributed system, the capacity of a system to adapt the increased service load is called
__________ .
(1) Tolerance (2) Scalability (3) Capability (4) Loading

37. In __________ disk scheduling algorithm, the disk head moves from one end to other end of
the disk, serving the requests along the way. When the head reaches the other end, it
immediately returns to the beginning of the disk without serving any requests on the return
trip.
(1) LOOK (2) SCAN (3) C - LOOK (4) C - SCAN

38. Suppose there are six files F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6 with corresponding sizes 150 KB, 225 KB,
75 KB, 60 KB, 275 KB and 65 KB respectively. The files are to be stored on a sequential device
in such a way that optimizes access time. In what order should the files be stored ?
(1) F5, F2, F1, F3, F6, F4 (2) F4, F6, F3, F1, F2, F5
(3) F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6 (4) F6, F5, F4, F3, F2, F1

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 8 Paper-II

39. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short - term
schedular ?

(1) Dispatcher (2) Interrupt (3) Schedular (4) Threading

40. Two atomic operations permissible on Semaphores are __________ and __________.

(1) wait, stop (2) wait, hold (3) hold, signal (4) wait, signal

41. Software does not wear-out in the traditional sense of the term, but software does tend to
deteriorate as it evolves, because :

(1) Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments.

(2) Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often.

(3) Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions.

(4) Software spare parts become harder to order.

42. Software re-engineering is concerned with :

(1) Re-constructing the original source code from the existing machine (low - level) code
program and modifying it to make it more user - friendly.

(2) Scrapping the source code of a software and re-writing it entirely from scratch.

(3) Re-organising and modifying existing software systems to make them more
maintainable.

(4) Translating source code of an existing software to a new machine (low - level) language.

43. Which of the following is not a key issue stressed by an agile philosophy of software
engineering ?

(1) The importance of self-organizing teams as well as communication and collaboration

between team members and customers.

(2) Recognition that change represents opportunity.

(3) Emphasis on rapid delivery of software that satisfies the customer.

(4) Having a separate testing phase after a build phase.

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 9 Paper-II

44. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized ?

(a) Integration Testing

(b) System Testing

(c) Unit Testing

(d) Validation Testing

Code :

(1) (c), (a), (b), (d)

(2) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)

(4) (b), (d), (a), (c)

45. Which of the following testing techniques ensures that the software product runs correctly
after the changes during maintenance ?

(1) Path Testing (2) Integration Testing

(3) Unit Testing (4) Regression Testing

46. Which of the following Super Computers is the fastest Super Computer ?

(1) Sun-way TaihuLight (2) Titan

(3) Piz Daint (4) Sequoia

47. Which of the following statements about ERP system is true ?

(1) Most ERP software implementations fully achieve seamless integration.

(2) ERP software packages are themselves combinations of seperate applications for
manufacturing, materials, resource planning, general ledger, human resources,
procurement and order entry.

(3) Integration of ERP systems can be achieved in only one way.

(4) An ERP package implemented uniformly throughout an enterprise is likely to contain

very flexible connections to allow charges and software variations.

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 10 Paper-II

48. Which of the following is not a Clustering method ?
(1) K - Mean method (2) Self Organizing feature map method
(3) K - nearest neighbor method (4) Agglomerative method

49. Which of the given wireless technologies used in IoT, consumes the least amount of power ?
(1) Zigbee (2) Bluetooth (3) Wi-Fi (4) GSM/CDMA

50. Which speed up could be achieved according to Amdahl’s Law for infinite number of processes
if 5% of a program is sequential and the remaining part is ideally parallel ?
(1) Infinite (2) 5 (3) 20 (4) 50

-o0o-

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 11 Paper-II

 Space For Rough Work

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-II! 12 Paper-II

Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name)
PAPER - III Roll No.
N0 8 7 1 7 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND
Time : 2½ hours] APPLICATIONS
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
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6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
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space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or
using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to
disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III!
OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
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ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ — ¡’Á∑§ (3) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U „Ò–
5. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ OMRU ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „Ë
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7. ∑§ìÊÊ ∑§Ê◊ (Rough Work) ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ÁãÃ◊ ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ∑§⁄¢U–
8. ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŸÿà SÕÊŸ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊, ⁄UÊ‹ Ÿê’⁄U,
»§ÊŸ Ÿê’⁄U ÿÊ ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ∞‚Ê Áøq Á¡‚‚ •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ „Ê ‚∑§, •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ
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’Œ‹ŸÊ ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ Á‹ÿ •ÿÊÇÿ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã Á∑§ÿ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
9. •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ §¬⁄U ◊Í‹ OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ◊„ÙŒÿ ∑§Ù ‹Uı≈UÊŸÊ
•Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò •ı⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U
Ÿ ‹∑§⁄U ¡Êÿ¢– „Ê‹Ê¥Á∑§ •Ê¬ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ¬⁄U ◊Í‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ÃÕÊ OMR
¬òÊ∑§ ∑§Ë «ÈUå‹Ë∑§≈U ¬˝Áà •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
10. ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’Ê‹U åflÊßZ≈U ¬Ÿ ∑§Ê „Ë ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¢U–
11. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑§ (∑Ò§‹∑ȧ‹≈U⁄U) UÿÊ ‹Êª ≈U’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑§Ê
¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
12. ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ Ÿ∑§Ê⁄UÊà◊∑§ •¥∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
1 P.T.O.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER - III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.

1. In 8085 microprocessor which of the following flag(s) is (are) affected by an arithmetic

operation ?

(1) AC flag Only (2) CY flag Only (3) Z flag Only (4) AC, CY, Z flags

2. In 8085 microprocessor the address bus is of __________ bits.

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32

3. In the architecture of 8085 microprocessor match the following :

(a) Processing unit (i) Interrupt

(b) Instruction unit (ii) General purpose Register

(c) Storage and Interface unit (iii) ALU

(iv) Timing and Control

Code :

(a) (b) (c)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv)

4. Which of the following addressing mode is best suited to access elements of an array of
contiguous memory locations ?

(1) Indexed addressing mode (2) Base Register addressing mode

(3) Relative address mode (4) Displacement mode

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 2 Paper-III

5. Which of the following is correct statement ?
(1) In memory - mapped I/O, the CPU can manipulate I/O data residing in interface
registers that are not used to manipulate memory words.
(2) The isolated I/O method isolates memory and I/O addresses so that memory address
range is not affected by interface address assignment.
(3) In asynchronous serial transfer of data the two units share a common clock.
(4) In synchronous serial transmission of data the two units have different clocks.

6. A micro-instruction format has micro-ops field which is divided into three subfields
F1, F2, F3 each having seven distinct micro-operations, condition field CD for four status
bits, branch field BR having four options used in conjunction with address field ADF. The
address space is of 128 memory locations. The size of micro-instruction is :
(1) 17 bits (2) 20 bits (3) 24 bits (4) 32 bits

7. Consider the following four schedules due to three transactions (indicated by the subscript)
using read and write on a data item X, denoted by r(X) and w(X) respectively. Which one of
them is conflict serializable ?
S1 : r1(X); r2(X); w1(X); r3(X); w2(X)
S2 : r2(X); r1(X); w2(X); r3(X); w1(X)
S3 : r3(X); r2(X); r1(X); w2(X); w1(X)
S4 : r2(X); w2(X); r3(X); r1(X); w1(X)
(1) S1 (2) S2 (3) S3 (4) S4

8. Suppose a database schedule S involves transactions T 1, T 2, .............,T n. Consider the

precedence graph of S with vertices representing the transactions and edges representing
the conflicts. If S is serializable, which one of the following orderings of the vertices of the
precedence graph is guaranteed to yield a serial schedule ?
(1) Topological order (2) Depth - first order
(3) Breadth - first order (4) Ascending order of transaction indices

9. If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation is
in __________ .
(1) First normal form (2) Second normal form
(3) Third normal form (4) Fourth normal form

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 3 Paper-III

10. Consider a relation R (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H), where each attribute is atomic, and following
functional dependencies exist.
CH → G
A → BC
B → CFH
E→A
F → EG
The relation R is __________ .
(1) in 1NF but not in 2NF (2) in 2NF but not in 3NF
(3) in 3NF but not in BCNF (4) in BCNF

11. Given two relations R1(A, B) and R2(C, D), the result of following query
Select distinct A, B
from R1, R2
is guaranteed to be same as R1 provided one of the following condition is satisfied.
(1) R1 has no duplicates and R2 is empty.
(2) R1 has no duplicates and R2 is non - empty.
(3) Both R1 and R2 have no duplicates.
(4) R2 has no duplicates and R1 is non - empty.

12. Consider a schema R(A, B, C, D) and following functional dependencies.

A→B
B→C
C→D
D→B
Then decomposition of R into R1(A, B), R2(B, C) and R3(B, D) is __________ .
(1) Dependency preserving and lossless join.
(2) Lossless join but not dependency preserving.
(3) Dependency preserving but not lossless join.
(4) Not dependency preserving and not lossless join.

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 4 Paper-III

13. Which of the following is not a component of Memory tube display ?
(1) Flooding gun (2) Collector (3) Ground (4) Liquid Crystal

14. Which of the following is not true in case of Oblique Projections ?

(1) Parallel projection rays are not perpendicular to the viewing plane.
(2) Parallel lines in space appear parallel on the final projected image.
(3) Used exclusively for pictorial purposes rather than formal working drawings.
(4) Projectors are always perpendicular to the plane of projection.

15. With respect to CRT, the horizontal retrace is defined as :

(1) The path an electron beam takes when returning to the left side of the CRT.
(2) The path an electron beam takes when returning to the right side of the CRT.
(3) The technique of turning the electron beam off while retracing.
(4) The technique of turning the electron beam on/off while retracing.

16. Find the equation of the circle x2+y2=1 in terms of x'y' coordinates, assuming that the xy
coordinate system results from a scaling of 3 units in the x' direction and 4 units in the
y' direction.

2 2
 x'   y' 
(1) 3(x')2+4(y')2=1 (2)   +  =1
3 4

1 1
(3) (3x')2+(4y')2=1 (4) ( x')2 + ( y')2 = 1
3 4

17. Find the normalization transformation that maps a window whose lower left corner is at
(1, 1) and upper right corner is at (3, 5) onto a viewport that is the entire normalized device
screen.

1 −1  1 1 1 −1  1 1 
2 0 2 0 0 0
2  2 2 2  2 2 
       
(1) 0 1 −1  (2)  0 −1 1 (3) 0 1 1  (4) 0 1 −1 
 4 4   4 4  4 4   4 4 
0 0 1  1 1 1  1 0 0  1 0 0 
   

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 5 Paper-III

18. The three aspects of Quantization, programmers generally concerned with are :

(1) Coding error, Sampling rate and Amplification

(2) Sampling rate, Coding error and Conditioning

(3) Sampling rate, Aperture time and Coding error

(4) Aperture time, Coding error and Strobing

19. The logic of pumping lemma is an example of __________ .

(1) iteration

(2) recursion

(3) the divide and conquer principle

(4) the pigeon - hole principle

20. Heap allocation is required for languages that :

(1) use dynamic scope rules (2) support dynamic data structures

(3) support recursion (4) support recursion and dynamic data structures

21. Pumping lemma for regular language is generally used for proving :

(1) whether two given regular expressions are equivalent

(2) a given grammar is ambiguous

(3) a given grammar is regular

(4) a given grammar is not regular

22. Which of the following problems is undecidable ?

(1) To determine if two finite automata are equivalent

(2) Membership problem for context free grammar

(3) Finiteness problem for finite automata

(4) Ambiguity problem for context free grammar

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 6 Paper-III

23. Finite state machine can recognize language generated by __________.

(1) Only context free grammar (2) Only context sensitive grammar

(3) Only regular grammar (4) any unambiguous grammar

24. The language L = {ai b ci ? i / 0} over the alphabet {a, b, c} is :

(1) a regular language.

(2) not a deterministic context free language but a context free language.

(3) recursive and is a deterministic context free language.

(4) not recursive.

25. Suppose we want to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per second. Assume
that a page consists of an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line. What is the
required bit rate of the channel ?

(1) 192 kbps (2) 512 kbps

(3) 1.248 Mbps (4) 1.536 Mbps

26. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation means changing both :

(1) Frequency and phase of the carrier.

(2) Frequency and Amplitude of the carrier.

(3) Amplitude and phase of the carrier.

(4) Amplitude and Wavelength of the carrier.

27. If a file consisting of 50,000 characters takes 40 seconds to send, then the data rate is
__________.

(1) 1 kbps (2) 1.25 kbps

(3) 2 kbps (4) 10 kbps

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 7 Paper-III

28. Match the following :
List - I List - II
(a) Data link layer (i) Encryption
(b) Network layer (ii) Connection control
(c) Transport layer (iii) Routing
(d) Presentation layer (iv) Framing
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

29. The address of a class B host is to be split into subnets with a 6 - bit subnet number. What is
the maximum number of subnets and maximum number of hosts in each subnet ?
(1) 62 subnets and 1022 hosts (2) 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
(3) 62 subnets and 254 hosts (4) 64 subnets and 256 hosts

30. Which of the following statements are true ?

(a) The fragmentation fields in the base header section of IPv4 have moved to the
fragmentation extension header in IPv6.
(b) The authentication extension header is new in IPv6.
(c) The record route option is not implemented in IPv6.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) Only (2) (b) and (c) Only
(3) (a) and (c) Only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

31. Consider a full binary tree with n internal nodes, internal path length i, and external path
length e. The internal path length of a full binary tree is the sum, taken over all nodes of the
tree, of the depth of each node. Similarly, the external path length is the sum, taken over all
leaves of the tree, of the depth of each leaf.
Which of the following is correct for the full binary tree?
(1) e=i+n (2) e=i+2n (3) e=2i+n (4) e=2n+i

N-08717 !N-08717-PAPER-III! 8 Paper-III

 n
32. subsequences,
You are given a sequence of n elements to sort. The input sequence consists of
k
each containing k elements. The elements in a given subsequence are all smaller than the
elements in the succeeding subsequence and larger than the elements in the preceding
subsequence. Thus, all that is needed to sort the whole sequence of length n is to sort the
n
k elements in each of the subsequences.
k
The lower bound on the number of comparisons needed to solve this variant of the
sorting problem is :

n n n
(1) Ω (n) (2) Ω  (3) Ω (n lg k) (4) Ω  lg 
k k k

33. Consider the recurrence relation :

n
T (n) = 8T   + Cn, if n > 1
2
=b, if n=1
Where b and c are constants.
The order of the algorithm corrosponding to above recurrence relation is :
(1) n (2) n2 (3) n lg n (4) n3

34. Consider the following two sequences :

X = <B, C, D, C, A, B, C>
and Y = <C, A, D, B, C, B>
The length of longest common subsequence of X and Y is :
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

35. A text is made up of the characters a, b, c, d, e each occurring with the probability 0.11, 0.40,
0.16, 0.09 and 0.24 respectively. The optimal Huffman coding technique will have the average
length of :
(1) 2.40 (2) 2.16 (3) 2.26 (4) 2.15

36. An undirected graph G (V, E) contains n (n > 2) nodes named v1, v2,...,vn. Two nodes vi and
vj are connected if and only if 0 < ? i − j? ≤ 2. Each edge (vi, vj) is assigned a weight i+j.
The cost of the minimum spanning tree of such a graph with 10 nodes is :
(1) 88 (2) 91 (3) 49 (4) 21

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37. An XML document that adheres to syntax rules specified by XML 1.0 specification in that it
must satisfy both physical and logical structured, is called :
(1) Well - formed (2) Reasonable (3) Valid (4) Sophisticated

38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding Java Servelets ?
(a) A Java Servelet is a server-side component that runs on the web server and extends the
capabilities of a server.
(b) A Servelet can use the user interface classes like AWT or Swing.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is TRUE. (2) Only (b) is TRUE.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are TRUE. (4) Neither (a) nor (b) is TRUE.

39. Consider the following HTML table definition :

<table border=1>
<tr>
<td colspan=2> Text A </td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td> Text B </td>
<td> Text C </td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan=2> Text D </td>
<td> Text E </td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td> Text F </td>
</tr>
</table>
The above HTML code would render on screen as :

Text A Text A Text B

Text B Text C Text C
(1) (2)
Text D Text E
Text E Text D
Text F Text F

Text A Text A
Text B Text C Text B Text C
(3) (4)
Text E Text D Text E
Text D
Text F Text F

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40. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?
(a) In HTML, character entities are used to incorporate external content into a web page,
such as images.
(b) Once a web server returns a cookie to a browser, the cookie will be included in all
future requests from the browser to the same server.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is TRUE. (2) Only (b) is TRUE.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are TRUE. (4) Neither (a) nor (b) is TRUE.

41. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding JAVA ?

(a) Constants that cannot be changed are declared using the ‘static’ keyword.
(b) A class can only inherit one class but can implement multiple interfaces.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is TRUE. (2) Only (b) is TRUE.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are TRUE. (4) Neither (a) nor (b) is TRUE.

42. What is the output of the following JAVA program ?

Class Test
{
public static void main (String [ ] args)
{
Test obj = new Test ( );
obj.start ( );
}
void start ( )
{
String stra=”do”;
String strb = method (stra);
System.out.print(“:” + stra + strb);
}
String method (String stra)
{
stra=stra+”good”;
System.out.print (stra);
return “good”;
}
}
(1) dogood : dogoodgood (2) dogood : gooddogood
(3) dogood : dodogood (4) dogood : dogood

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43. Statistical software quality assurance in software engineering involves __________ .
(1) using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software.
(2) surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality.
(3) tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the vital few causes, and moving
to correct them.
(4) tracing each defect to its underlying causes, and using the Pareto principle to correct
each problem found.

44. Which of the following statements is/are FALSE with respect to software testing ?
S1 : White-box tests are based on specifications; better at telling whether program meets
specification, better at finding errors of ommission.
S2 : Black-box tests are based on code; better for finding crashes, out of bounds errors, file
not closed errors.
S3 : Alpha testing is conducted at the developer’s site by a team of highly skilled testers for
software that is developed as a product to be used by many customers.
(1) Only S1 and S2 are FALSE. (2) Only S1 and S3 are FALSE.
(3) Only S2 and S3 are FALSE. (4) All of S1, S2, and S3 are FALSE.

45. A signal processor software is expected to operate for 91.25 days after repair, and the mean
software repair time is expected to be 5 minutes. Then, the availability of the software is :
(1) 96.9862% (2) 97.9862% (3) 98.9962% (4) 99.9962%

46. Consider the method mcq ( ) :

int mcq (boolean a, boolean b, boolean c, boolean d)
{
int ans=1;
if (a) {ans = 2;}
else if (b) {ans = 3;}
else if (c) {
if (d) {ans=4;}
}
return ans ;
}
If
M1 = Number of tests to exhaustively test mcq ( );
M2 = Minimum number of tests to achieve full statement coverage for mcq ( ); and
M3 = Minimum number of tests to achieve full branch coverage for mcq ( );
then (M1, M2, M3) = __________.
(1) (16, 3, 5) (2) (8, 5, 3) (3) (8, 3, 5) (4) (16, 4, 4)

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47. A simple stand - alone software utility is to be developed in ’C’ programming by a team of
software experts for a computer running Linux and the overall size of this software is estimated
to be 20,000 lines of code. Considering (a, b) = (2.4, 1.05) as multiplicative and exponention
factor for the basic COCOMO effort estimation equation and (c, d)=(2.5, 0.38) as
multiplicative and exponention factor for the basic COCOMO development time estimation
equation, approximately how long does the software project take to complete ?
(1) 10.52 months (2) 11.52 months (3) 12.52 months (4) 14.52 months

48. In Software Configuration Management (SCM), which of the following is a use-case supported
by standard version control systems ?
(a) Managing several versions or releases of a software
(b) Filing bug reports and tracking their progress
(c) Allowing team members to work in parallel
(d) Identifying when and where a regression occurred
Code :
(1) Only (a), (c), and (d) (2) Only (a), (b), and (c)
(3) Only (a), (b), and (d) (4) Only (b), (c), and (d)

49. Consider the following four processes with the arrival time and length of CPU burst given in
milliseconds :
Process Arrival Time Burst Time
P1 0 8
P2 1 4
P3 2 9
P4 3 5
The average waiting time for preemptive SJF scheduling algorithm is __________ .
(1) 6.5 ms (2) 7.5 ms (3) 6.75 ms (4) 7.75 ms

50. Consider a virtual page reference string 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0, 1, 7, 0, 1

Suppose a demand paged virtual memory system running on a computer system such that
the main memory has 3 page frames. Then __________ page replacement algorithm has
minimum number of page faults.
(1) FIFO (2) LIFO (3) LRU (4) Optimal

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51. User level threads are threads that are visible to the programmer and are unknown to the
kernel. The operating system kernel supports and manages kernel level threads. Three
different types of models relate user and kernel level threads.
Which of the following statements is/are true ?
(a) (i) The Many - to - one model maps many user threads to one kernel thread
(ii) The one - to - one model maps one user thread to one kernel thread
(iii) The many - to - many model maps many user threads to smaller or equal kernel
threads
(b) (i) Many - to - one model maps many kernel threads to one user thread
(ii) One - to - one model maps one kernel thread to one user thread
(iii) Many - to - many model maps many kernel threads to smaller or equal user threads
Code :
(1) (a) is true; (b) is false (2) (a) is false; (b) is true
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true (4) Both (a) and (b) are false

52. Consider a system with five processes P0 through P4 and three resource types A, B and C.
Resource type A has seven instances, resource type B has two instances and resource type C
has six instances suppose at time T0 we have the following allocation.
Process Allocation Request Available
A B C A B C A B C
P0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
P1 2 0 0 2 0 2
P2 3 0 3 0 0 0
P3 2 1 1 1 0 0
P4 0 2 2 0 0 2
If we implement Deadlock detection algorithm we claim that system is __________.
(1) Semaphore (2) Deadlock state
(3) Circular wait (4) Not in deadlock state

53. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124,
65, 67. Suppose SSTF disk scheduling algorithm implemented to meet the requests then the
total number of head movements are __________ if the disk head is initially at 53.
(1) 224 (2) 248 (3) 236 (4) 240

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54. The Bounded buffer problem is also known as __________.
(1) Producer - consumer problem (2) Reader - writer problem
(3) Dining Philosophers problem (4) Both (2) and (3)

55. In Artificial Intelligence (AI), which agent deals with happy and unhappy state ?
(1) Simple reflex agent (2) Model based agent
(3) Learning agent (4) Utility based agent

56. If b is the branching factor and m is the maximum depth of the search tree, what is the space
complexity of greedy search ?
(1) O (b+m) (2) O (bm) (3) O(b m) (4) O(mb )

57. Let P, Q, R and S be Propositions. Assume that the equivalences P ⇔ (Q ∨ ¬ Q) and Q ⇔ R

hold. Then the truth value of the formula (P ∧ Q) ⇒ ((P ∧ R) ∨ S) is always :
(1) True (2) False
(3) Same as truth table of Q (4) Same as truth table of S

58. “If X, then Y unless Z” is represented by which of the following formulae in propositional
logic ?
(1) (X ∧ Y) → ¬ Z (2) (X ∧ ¬ Z) → Y (3) X → (Y ∧ ¬ Z) (4) Y → (X ∧ ¬ Z)

59. Consider the following two well-formed formulas in prepositional logic.

F1 : P ⇒ ¬ P
F2 : (P ⇒ ¬ P) ∨ (¬ P ⇒ P)
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) F1 is Satisfiable, F2 is valid (2) F1 is unsatisfiable, F2 is Satisfiable
(3) F1 is unsatisfiable, F2 is valid (4) F1 and F2 both are Satisfiable

60. Standard planning algorithms assume environment to be __________.

(1) Both deterministic and fully observable
(2) Neither deterministic nor fully observable
(3) Deterministic but not fully observable
(4) Not deterministic but fully observable

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61. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Every recursive language is recursively enumerable.
(2) L = {0n 1n 0n ? n=1, 2 , 3, ....} is recursively enumerable.
(3) Recursive languages are closed under intersection.
(4) Recursive languages are not closed under intersection.

62. Context free grammar is not closed under :

(1) Concatenation (2) Complementation
(3) Kleene Star (4) Union

63. Consider the following languages :

L1 = {am bn ? m ≠ n}
L2 = {am bn ? m = 2n+1}
L3 = {am bn ? m ≠ 2n}
Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(1) Only L1 and L2 are context free languages
(2) Only L1 and L3 are context free languages
(3) Only L2 and L3 are context free languages
(4) L1, L2 and L3 are context free languages

64. A 4×4 DFT matrix is given by :

1 1 1 1 
 1 x −1 y 
1  
2  1 − 1 1 −1 
 
 1 − j −1 j 

(j 2=−1)
Where values of x and y are _____, _____ respectively.
(1) 1, −1 (2) −1, 1 (3) −j, j (4) j, −j

65. Entropy of a discrete random variable with possible values {x1, x2, ..., xn} and probability
density function P(X) is :
n
H( Χ ) = − ∑ P(xi ) log b P(xi )
i=1

The value of b gives the units of entropy. The unit for b=10 is :
(1) bits (2) bann (3) nats (4) deca

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66. For any binary (n, h) linear code with minimum distance (2t+1) or greater
 α 
i ()
n − h  log 2  ∑ n  where α is :
 i = 0 
(1) 2t+1 (2) t+1 (3) t−1 (4) t

67. Which of the following is a valid reason for causing degeneracy in a transportation
problem ? Here m is no. of rows and n is no. of columns in transportation table.
(1) When the number of allocations is m+n−1.
(2) When two or more occupied cells become unoccupied simultaneously.
(3) When the number of allocations is less than m+n−1.
(4) When a loop cannot be drawn without using unoccupied cells, except the starting cell
of the loop.

68. Consider the following LPP :

Max Z=15x1+10x 2
Subject to the constraints
4x1+6x2 ≤ 360
3x1+0x2 ≤ 180
0x1+5x2 ≤ 200
x1, x2 / 0
The solution of the LPP using Graphical solution technique is :
(1) x1=60, x2=0 and Z=900 (2) x1=60, x2=20 and Z=1100
(3) x1=60, x2=30 and Z=1200 (4) x1=50, x2=40 and Z=1150

69. Consider the following LPP :

Min Z=2x1+x2+3x3
Subject to :
x1−2x2+x3 / 4
2x1+x2+x3 £ 8
x1−x3 / 0
x1, x2, x3 / 0
The solution of this LPP using Dual Simplex Method is :
(1) x1=0, x2=0, x3=3 and Z=9 (2) x1=0, x2=6, x3=0 and Z=6
(3) x1=4, x2=0, x3=0 and Z=8 (4) x1=2, x2=0, x3=2 and Z=10

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70. Consider a Takagi - Sugeno - Kang (TSK) Model consisting of rules of the form :

If x1 is Ai1 and ... and xr is Air

THEN y =fi(x1, x2, ..., xr) = bi0+bi1 x1+...+birxr

assume, αi is the matching degree of rule i, then the total output of the model is given by :

L
(1) y= ∑ α i f i ( x1 , x2 ,..., xr )
i= 1

L
∑ α i f i ( x1 , x2 ,..., xr )
(2) y= i= 1
L
∑ αi
i= 1

L
∑ f i ( x1 , x2 ,..., xr )
(3) y= i= 1
L
∑ αi
i= 1

(4) y = m ax[α i f i (x1 , x2 ..., xr )]

i

71. Consider a single perceptron with sign activation function. The perceptron is represented by
weight vector [0.4 −0.3 0.1]t and a bias θ=0. If the input vector to the perceptron is
X=[0.2 0.6 0.5] then the output of the perceptron is :

(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) −0.05 (4) −1

72. The Sigmoid activation function f(t) is defined as :

1
(1) exp (t) + exp (−t) (2) t exp(−t)

1 1
(3) 1 + exp (t) (4) 1 + exp (−t)

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73. Consider the following statements :
(a) UNIX provides three types of permissions
* Read
* Write
* Execute
(b) UNIX provides three sets of permissions
* permission for owner
* permission for group
* permission for others
Which of the above statement/s is/are true ?
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

74. Which of the following routing technique / techniques is / are used in distributed systems ?
(a) Fixed Routing
(b) Virtual Routing
(c) Dynamic Routing
Code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (c) only (4) All (a), (b), (c)

75. Match the following WINDOWS system calls and UNIX system calls with reference to process
control and File manipulation.
Windows UNIX
(a) Create - process ( ) (i) Open ( )
(b) WaitForSingleObject ( ) (ii) Close ( )
(c) CreateFile ( ) (iii) Fork ( )
(d) CloseHandle ( ) (iv) Wait ( )
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

-oOo-

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 Space For Rough Work

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