SAMPLE QUESTIONS – THIRD CLASS, PARTS A1 & A2

(NOTE: these questions are intended as representations of the style

of questions that may appear on examinations, they are not
intended as study material and, as such, may not be in line with any
current examination syllabus)

1.In a right angle triangle, the sine of an acute angle is equal to:

A. adjacent side / hypotenuse

B. adjacent side / opposite side

C. adjacent side / opposite side

D. opposite side / hypotenuse

E. hypotenuse / opposite side

Answer: D

2. If a right-angle triangle has an angle of 28O 37′ and the

hypotenuse is 120 mm, the length of the opposite side is:

A. 105.34 mm
B. 57.48 mm

C. 136.70 mm

D. 250.5 mm

E. 221 mm

Answer: B

3. In the equation 0.004 + D = 0.0042, the value of D is:

A. 1.05

B. 1.68 x 10-5

C. 0.0002

D. 0.0082

E. -0.0082

Answer: C
4. As the cosine decreases, the:

A. value of the angle decreases

B. value of the angle increases

C. value of the hypotenuse decreases

D. A and C above

E. none of the above

Answer: B

5. Any two angles whose sum is 90° are:

A. complementary angles

B. right angles

C. tangent to each other

D. obtuse angles
E. reflex angles

Answer: A

6. One is the trigonometric value of:

A. sine of 90°

B. cosine of 0°

C. tangent of 45°

D. A, B and C above

E. A and C above

Answer: D

7. A automobile travels at 60 miles per hour. Expressed in metres per

second, this would be equivalent to:

A. 0.0268 m/s
B. 26.81 m/s

C. 1609 m/s

D. 348 m/s

E. 34.8 m/s

Answer: B

8. The force that is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to

the resultant force is called:

A. the component

B. the element

C. the equilibrant

D. the impedance

E. the displacement

Answer: C
9. A scalar quantity is one which has only magnitude and can be fully
described by:

A. giving direction

B. a number with the necessary unit

C. using a force term

D. length, width and height

E. volume and density

Answer: B

10. A body can be put into equilibrium by applying an additional

force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the:

A. scalar

B. vector

C. equilibrant
D. resultant

E. component

Answer: D

11. A displacement of 9 m north of point A, and another of 6 m west

of point A can be added to give a resultant displacement from point
A of:

A. 15 m N of W

B. 3 m N of W

C. 10 m N of W

D. 12.5 m N of W

E. 10.8 m N of W

Answer: E

12. The moment of a force about a point is:

A. the component that will cause equilibrium

B. the force x resultant

C. the force x equilibrant

D. a twisting or turning effect

E. equal to velocity/gravity

Answer: D

13. When the co-efficient of friction increases and the force between
two surfaces remains constant, the friction force will:

A. remain constant

B. decrease

C. increase

D. move the weight easier

E. decrease exponentially

Answer: C

14. A body having a gravitational force of 2000 N, is pulled along a

horizontal surface at constant speed by a rope that makes an angle
of 20° above the horizontal. If the pull on the rope is 150 N, the
coefficient of sliding friction is:

A. 0.0257

B. 0.0275

C. 0.0705

D. 0.0723

E. 0.075

Answer: D

15. Energy can be:

A. created
B. transformed to different forms

C. destroyed

D. A and C

E. all of the above

Answer: B

16. Velocity ratio is:

A. ideal efficiency

B. actual mechanical advantage

C. actual efficiency

D. ideal mechanical advantage

E. final speed divided by initial speed

Answer: D
17. A 1 N weight has a kinetic energy of 1 J when its speed is:

A. 0.45 m/s

B. 1 m/s

C. 1.4 m/s

D. 4.4 m/s

E. 44 m/s

Answer: D

18. The working stress of a material that has an ultimate strength of

490 MPa and a safety factor of 7 would be:

A. 70 MPa

B. 3430 MPa

C. 7000 kPa

D. 34 300 kPa
E. 490 kPa

Answer: A

19. According to Hooke’s Law, the stress in an elastic body is directly

proportional to the strain if:

A. the yield point of the material is exceeded

B. the elastic limit of the material is not exceeded

C. the elastic limit of the material is exceeded

D. the load is applied vertically

E. the factor of safety is not exceeded

Answer: B

20. The factor of safety is always expressed:

A. in kPa D. in Joules
B. in Newton metres

C. as a product

E. as a ratio

Answer: E

21. When calculating the ultimate stress of a material, we should:

A. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

B. multiply the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

C. divide the maximum load by the new cross-sectional area

D. divide the breaking load by the new cross-sectional area

E. divide the maximum load by the original cross-sectional area

Answer: E

22. Safe working stress is determined by:

A. interpolation

B. extrapolation

C. dividing the ultimate strength by the factor of safety

D. multiplying the ultimate strength by the strain

E. the average value of breaking stress determined by testing

Answer: C

23. A 6 m long cantilever beam carries a concentrated load of 45 kN

at its free end. What is the shear force at the wall?

A. 270 kNm

B. 270 kN

C. 7.5 kN/m

D. 0.133 kN

E. 45 kN
Answer: E

24. When classifying beams, the term simple beam refers to a beam:

A. that is supporting one concentrated load

B. that supports a uniform load .

C. that is supported at two ends

D. that is supported at one end

E. that is supported at any number of points

Answer: C

25. The term _____ is used as a measure of the quantity of matter.

A. volume

B. weight

C. mass
D. relative density

E. specific gravity

Answer: C

26. A 10 m long steel pipe when heated to increase its temperature

by 85 °C, will expand approximately:

A. 1 cm

B. 0.6 m

C. 6 mm

E. 85 mm

Answer: A

27. The most common scale in use is the:

A. Fahrenheit
B. Celsius

C. Rankine

D. Kelvin

Answer: B

28. Four pieces of iron are heated in a furnace to high temperatures.

The one at the highest temperature would appear:

A. rusty

B. yellow

C. orange

D. red

E. white

Answer: E
29. The amount of heat required to completely melt 25 kg of ice
from a temperature of –10 °C is approximately:

A. 8885 kJ

B. 4125 kJ

C. 615 kJ

D. 250 kJ

E. 8908 kJ

Answer: E

30. “Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance

unaided, but it is impossible for heat to flow from a cold substance to
a hotter one without the aid of mechanical work” is:

A. the first law of thermodynamics

B. Charles’ Law

C. the mechanical equivalent of heat

D. Boyle’s Law

E. None of the above

Answer: E

31. The heat required to raise the temperature of water at a pressure

of 225 kPa from 0 °C to 124 °C is:

A. 2712.1 kJ/kg

B. 518.7 kJ/kg

C. 2191.3 kJ/kg

D. 504.7 kJ/kg

E. 520.72 kJ/kg

Answer: E

32. When heat is supplied to a liquid in sufficient quantity to change

the liquid to a vapour without changing the temperature, the heat
supplied is known as:
A. latent heat of gasification

B. latent heat of volatilization

C. latent heat of evaporation

D. sensible heat of evaporation

E. latent heat of fusion

Answer: C

33. The dryness fraction of steam at a pressure of 400 kPa and a heat
content of 2500 kJ/kg is:

A. 0.89

B. 0.91

C. 0.92

D. 0.39

E. 0.99
Answer: A

34. The temperature of saturated steam vapor at 980 kPa is:

A. 176.36 °C

B. 179.02 °C

C. 179.58 °C

D. 181.24 °C

E. 179.91 °C

Answer: B

35. Steam engines, steam turbines, gas turbines and internal

combustion engines are examples of:

A. reciprocating engines

B. heat engines
C. rotary engines

D. thermodynamic pumps

E. heat pumps

Answer: B

36. The rate at which heat flow through a slab of a material does not
depend on:

A. the temperature difference between the faces of the slab

B. the thickness of the slab

C. the area of the slab

D. the specific heat of the material

E. the thermal conductivity of the slab

Answer: D
37. Expansion of a gas is said to be adiabatic when expansion takes
place at :

A. constant temperature

B. rising temperature

C. falling temperature

D. constant volume

E. constant pressure

Answer: C

38. If 10 m3 of a gas at a pressure of 20 kPa (gauge) and a

temperature of 10 °C are compressed to 5 m3 while the temperature
is reduced to –20 °C, the final gauge pressure will be: (Consider the
atmospheric pressure to be 95 kPa)

A. 110.6 kPa

B. 205.6 kPa

C. 365 kPa
D. 460 kPa

E. 516 kPa

Answer: A

39. Use of the equation PV = a constant, means the numerical result

of pressure times volume for a compression or expansion process
will:

A. decrease as the temperature increases

B. increase as the temperature increases

C. change from positive to negative for an increasing vacuum

D. be the same at any point in the process

E. vary depending on the speed of compression or expansion

Answer: D
40. A gas occupies 8.62 m3 at 1800 kPa and 26 °C. It is heated until
the final volume is 9.0 m3 and pressure is 2500 kPa. the final
temperature will be approximately:

A. 276 °C

B. 136 °C

C. 433 °C

D. 161 °C

E. 252 °C

Answer: D

41. H2SO4 is the chemical formula for:

A. carbonic acid

B. sulfuric acid

C. nitric acid
D. hydrochloric acid

E. hydrogen sulfide

Answer: B

42. Protons have a mass number of:

A. Almost zero

B. One

C. Six

D. Twelve

E. Two

Answer: B

43. A pinch of salt is added to a glass of water. The result is:

A. an element
B. a compound

C. a solution

D. a heterogeneous substance

E. a compound

Answer: C

44. Compounds classified as salts may have the following

characteristics:

1. have a basic effect

2. have an acid effect

3. be neutral

4. change red litmus paper blue

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 4

Answer: D

45. The most common material used in making large industrial diesel
engine pistons is:

A. Carbon steel

B. Cast iron

C. Brass

D. Bronze

E. Aluminum

Answer: B
46. Malleable cast iron is produced by:

A. adding carbon to pig iron

B. reducing iron content

C. heating and cooling white cast iron at a controlled rate

D. adding graphite

E. heating and striking the hot metal with a hammer to compact the
material

Answer: C

47. Steam turbine bearings are usually made of:

1. white metal

2. brass

3. bronze

4. Aluminum
A. 1, 2

B. 1, 3

C. 1, 4

D. 2, 3

E. 3, 4

Answer: B

48. The most common thread used in North America on fasteners

such as bolts, is the:

A. Whitworth

B. Unified National

C. Unified Standard

D. American National Standards Institute

E. American Society of Mechanical Engineers

Answer: B

49. Orthographic projection means:

A. view with base lines at 45 degrees

B. views at right angles

C. view of a cutting plane

D. view with base lines at 30 degrees

E. view with base lines at 60 degrees

Answer: C

50. The classes of fastening devices are:

A. bolts and glue

B. rivets and bolts

C. permanent and removable

D. welds and bolts

E. threaded and mechanical

Answer: C

51. (Jurisdictional Question) A Third Class Engineer’s Certificate of

Competency qualifies the holder to work as a Chief Engineer for a
power plant not exceeding:

A. 3000 kW

B. 2000 kW

C. 10 000 kW

D. 5000 kW

E. 15 000 kW

Answer: D (for Alberta)

52.(Jurisdictional Question) In Alberta, Boiler and Pressure Vessel
Safety is regulated by:

A. the Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act

B. the Design, Construction and Installation of Boilers and Pressure

Vessels Regulations

C. the ASME Code

D. the Alberta Labour Act

E. the Safety Codes Act

Answer: E

53. (Jurisdictional Question) A Third Class Certificate of Competency

enables the holder to work as a shift Engineer of a power plant not
exceeding:

A. 1000 kW

B. 5000 kW

C. 10 000 kW
D. 15 000 kW

E. none of the above

Answer: C (for Alberta)

54. Safety valves shall be designed to attain full lift at a pressure

above set pressure but not exceeding:

A. 0.6%

B. 6%

C. 5%

D. 3%

E. 4%

Answer: D

55. A passage way of at least ______ metres in width and clear of all
obstructions shall be provided on both sides and the rear of the
boiler.
A. 3.0

B. 2.0

C. 0.5

D. 0.6

E. 1.0

Answer: D

56. The blow-off tank for a boiler operating at 2200 kPa must have a
design pressure of at least:

A. 1000 kPa

B. 690 kPa

C. 490 kPa

D. 500 kPa
E. 220 kPa

Answer: B

57. A hydrostatic test consists of completely filling the boiler with

water and the applying a water pressure:

A. 2 times the maximum allowable working pressure

B. 3 times the maximum allowable working pressure .

C. 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure

D. 2.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure

E. equal to the maximum allowable working pressure

Answer: C

58. Which of the following equation(s) is/are correct for complete

combustion?

1. C + O2 = CO
2. 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O

3. C + CO2 = 2CO

4. S + O2 = 2SO

A. 1, 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

Answer: C

59. The formation of carbon monoxide in the furnace is undesirable

because it is:

1. explosive

2. poisonous
3. non-combustible

4. inefficient

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

E. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

60. The advantages of oil over coal as a boiler fuel are:

1. reduced storage problems

2. harder to control

3. less handling equipment

4. less labour required

5. lower combustion efficiency

A. 1, 4, 5

B. 3, 4, 5

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 5

Answer: C

61.Complete combustion will take place only when:

1. the temperature of the fuel-air mixture will be at least equal to the

ignition temperature.

2. there is sufficient oxygen present for combustion.

3. the oxygen is in intimate contact with the fuel.

4. there is an excess of fuel present for combustion.

A. 1, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

E. 1 and 4 only

Answer: D

62. The swing check valve:

A. offers high resistance to flow

B. offers little resistance to flow

C. has a dashpot in its design to cushion the action of the disc

D. causes the flow though the check valve to change direction

E. none of the above

Answer: B

63. In order to prevent leakage at low pressure steam flange

connections:

A. rubber gaskets should be used

B. faces should be concave so the gasket will adhere to the flange

C. plastic gaskets should be used

D. silicone gaskets should be used

E. none of the above

Answer: E

64. Steam separators:

1. cause the steam to suddenly change its direction

2. impart a whirling motion to the steam .

3. use baffles to cause the steam flow to change direction

4. are not required on steam turbine lines

5. are sometimes called steam purifiers

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 4, 5

D. 1, 2, 3, 5

E. 1, 4, 5

Answer: D

65. As the temperature of carbon conductors rises, the electrical

resistance generally:
A. Increases linearly

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. Increases hyperpolically

E. Increases parabolically

Answer: B

66. The resistance of a conductor does not depend on its:

A. mass

B. length

C. cross-sectional area

D. resistivity

E. temperature
Answer: A

67. The total currents away from a point equal:

A. the algebraic sum of all currents

B. sum of currents into the point

C. sum of currents in all directions

D. zero

E. the circuit rating

Answer: B

68. The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to:

A. the sine of the phase angle

B. the square root of the sum of inductance squared plus the

capacitance squared .

C. the cosine of the phase angle

D. the tangent of the phase angle

E. the co-tangent of the displacement angle between real power and

apparent power

Answer: C

69. An alternator is rated at 9375 KVA at 0.8 power factor. The actual
power delivered will be:

A. 11 718.75 kW

B. 8999 kW

C. 7500 kW

D. 10 000 kW

E. 9375 kW

Answer: C

70. A copper conductor (coefficient of resistance = 0.0039) has a

resistance of 4.78 ohms at 60 °C. At 20 °C the resistance would be:
A. 4.176 ohms

B. 502.09 ohms

C. 334.73 ohms

D. 382.40 ohms

E. 1.19 ohms

Answer: A

71. The frequency of a wave having a period of 3 milliseconds is:

A. 6000 Hz

B. 33.33 mHz

C. 333.33 Hz

D. 600 Hz

E. 3000 Hz
Answer: C

72. What type of electrical supply is used by electrostatic

precipitators?

A. square wave AC

B. D.C.

C. 60 Hertz AC

D. 25 Hertz AC

E. 5 MegaHertz AC

Answer: B

73. The main opposition to current flow in a motor is:

A. internal resistance of the armature

B. external resistance of the armature

C. field resistance

D. counter emf

E. winding resistance

Answer: D

74. For DC generators, the nearer to zero the percentage voltage

regulation is then:

A. the poorer the voltage regulation

B. the greater the voltage regulation

C. the higher the operating temperature possible

D. the better the voltage regulation

E. the smaller the difference between no-load and full-load voltage

Answer: D
75.Which of the following methods is not a means used to start a 3
phase induction motor?

A. Star-delta starting

B. Line impedance starting

C. Auto-transformer starting

D. Armature reaction starting

E. C and D

Answer: D

76. Transformers are cooled by:

1. spraying water over the coils

2. placing the core in an oil filled tank

3. forced cooling by fans

4. using pyrene as a coolant

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 1, 3

E. 2, 3

Answer: E

77. The universal series motor:

A. is a slow speed motor

B. operates on high frequencies

C. requires higher voltages than other motors

D. will operate on DC or AC up to about 60 Hertz.

E. is most economical in large horsepower capacities

Answer: D

78. A centrifugal switch used with an AC motor:

A. prevents an AC motor from over-speeding should the load drop

off.

B. changes from starting conditions to running conditions.

C. changes the power supply to larger fuses should the load increase.

D. shuts down the motor should a malfunction occur.

E. switches between phase current and line current.

Answer: B

79. Magnetic fields do not interact with:

A. stationary electric charges

B. moving electric charges

C. stationary permanent magnets

D. moving permanent magnets

E. A and C

Answer: A

80. Multimeters are sometimes protected by:

A. extra strong cases

B. circuit overload protection

C. high resistance leads

D. a variable auto-transformer

E. high impedance leads

Answer: B

81. Ohmmeters are for:

A. continuity measurements

B. measuring electrical potential

C. direct resistance measurement

D. use when a voltmeter is not available

E. A and C above

Answer: E

82. The photocell, when used in flame failure detection:

A. will increase cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected

B. will decrease cell resistance when the boiler flame is detected

C. will remain unchanged

D. will cut off the fuel supply when the flame is detected

E. will generate a current when the boiler flame is detected

Answer: B

83. A example of an image tube whose function is the generation

and display of a light image from an electrical input signal is:

1. cathode ray oscilloscope

2. picture tube

3. oscilloscope anode-ray

4. pentode-ray

A. 1, 3

B. 1, 2

C. 3, 4

D. 2, 3

E. 2, 4

Answer:B
84. Properly planned maintenance:

A. eliminates plant outages

B. increases operating costs of equipment

C. reduces unplanned outages of equipment

D. eliminates the need of government inspections

E. reduces plant profits

Answer: C

85. A Third Class Chief Engineer should be familiar with the following
maintenance management areas:

1. preventative maintenance

2. management information system

3. work order system

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 4

Answer: B

86. In Alberta, good housekeeping in a power plant is the

responbility of the Chief Engineer as implied by the:

1. Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act

2. Safety Codes Act

3. Workers Compensation Act

4. ASME Code

A. 1, 2
B. 3, 4

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 4

E. 1, 3

Answer: C

87. Foundations for machinery are required to:

A. transfer vibration from the prime-mover to surrounding space

B. compensate for misalignment between prime mover and driven

machine

C. transfer vibration from prime mover to driven machine

D. absorb vibration from both prime mover and driven machine

E. keep the equipment above floor level in the event of flooding

Answer: D

88. Limp diaphragms for sensing elements are sometimes made

from:

A. brass

B. copper

C. rubber

D. steel

E. aluminum

Answer: C

89. Before making adjustments or altering the fuel-air ratio of a

combustion control system, the power engineer should:

A. measure the fuel flow

B. analyze the flue gas

C. increase the air flow

D. decrease the firing rate

E. decrease air flow

Answer: B

90. In an orifice meter, the vena contracta is the point where the:

A. velocity is the lowest

B. fluid has the smallest cross sectional area

C. pressure begins to decrease

D. pressure begins to decrease

E. maximum turbulence occurs

Answer: B

91. The devices which are used to change pneumatic signals to

computer signals are known as:
A. digital to analog converters

B. differential converters

C. EEPROM converters

D. trending converters

E. analog to digital converters

Answer: E

92. The rotameter is capable of measuring flow using a constant

pressure differential and a variable:

A. volume

B. area

C. flow

D. pressure
E. speed

Answer: B

93. Power for operating mechanical cleaning tools used in removing

scale or slag from firetube boilers shall be generated:

A. by an alternator of less than 12 volts

B. by a generator of less than 12 volts

C. inside the boiler casing being cleaned

D. outside of the boiler being cleaned

E. by any method other than electrical

Answer: D

94. Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to

combat a Class C fire?

1. carbon dioxide
2. foam

3. dry chemical

4. water

A. 1, 2

B. 3, 4

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 4

E. 1, 3

Answer: E

95. The factors that determine the severity of electrical shock are:

1. time of current flow through the body

2. the path taken

3. the quality of the voltage

4. the quantity of the current

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: C

96. Plant safety committees should be made up of people from:

A. management only

B. municipal firemen and management

C. municipal firemen, management, supervisors and operators

D. management, supervisors, and operators

E. management and safety experts

Answer: D

97. The purpose of the recovery of the L.P.G. and gasoline process,
used in a natural gas treatment plant is to:

1. remove gasoline constituents

2. purify propane and butane

3. remove liquefiable hydrocarbons

4. fractionate the hydrocarbons

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 4

D. 2, 4
E. 1, 3

Answer: E

98. A surge tower used in hydro electric generation stations is for:

A. low periods of operation

B. stability of operation

C. prevention of damage from a low head condition

D. prevention of turbine over-speed

E. reserve capacity

Answer: B

99. Natural gas treatment plants remove which of the following from
the gas?

1. hydrocarbon condensate
2. sulfurous compounds

3. non-combustible gases

4. water vapour

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 4

E. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: E

100. Which of the following is not part of a total energy system?

A. absorption chiller

B. waste heat boiler

C. steam turbine

D. generator

E. heat pump

Answer: C