Union Christian College

College of Nursing and Health Related Services

Level IV

Comprehensive Examination

Name: ________________________________ Date: ___________________

Section/Group: _____________ Score:

______________

Instruction: Write the letter of your choice on the space before the number. NO ERASURES AND
SUPERIMPOSITIONS.

Topic: TFN

1. To accurately assess for jaundice in a patient with dark skin pigmentation, the nurse
should examine which body areas?
a. Nail Beds c. Hard palate of the mouth
b. Skin on back of the hand d. Soles of the feet
2. Which of the following measures is most appropriate for a nurse to take to prevent injury
in a patient who is confused?
a. Apply a soft restraint on the patient's wrist
b. Change the patient's environment
c. Administer Lorazepam as ordered.
d. Keep the bed in the lowest position.
3. A nurse is assigned to all of the following patients. Which should the nurse assess first?
a. The patient requesting medication for chest pain
b. The patient who has an IV medication due in 30 minutes
c. The patient who has a temperature of 101°F
d. The patient who is scheduled to go to surgery within the hour.
4. When caring for a patient in restraints, on what area of the bed should the restraints be
anchored?
a. The side rails c. The footboard
b. The mattress hook d. The bed frame
5. You have received an IVF of PNSS 1L x 12hours at 800cc level during the endorsement.
Compute how many drops per minute should the IVF be administered.
a. 21gtts/min c. 10gtts/min
b. 15gtts/min d. 30gtts/min
6. Using the above order, compute how many cc per hour you should infuse.
a. 73cc/hour c. 78cc/hour
b. 83cc/hour d. 88cc/hour
7. How many ml should you be able to endorse to the incoming shift?
a. 230cc c. 136cc
b. 197cc d. consumed
8. Which of the following interventions can be delegated by the nurse to unlicensed assistive
personnel?
a. Assessing contractions in a client in labor
b. Evaluating the effects of antipsychotics in a client with schizophrenia
c. Teaching a diabetic client on foot care
d. Obtaining a specimen for a routine urine analysis
9. Which area is appropriate for the nurse to auscultate to detect the patency of the aorta?
a. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
b. Third intercostal space, right sternal border
c. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
d. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
10.Which of the following procedures requires obtaining an informed consent?
a. KUB c. Colonoscopy
b. EEG d. Abdominal ultrasound
11.Which of the following nursing theorists developed a conceptual model based on the belief
that all persons strive to achieve individual treatment?
a. Martha Rogers c. Ida Jean Orlando
b. Dorothea Orem d. Sister Callista Roy
 12.Mrs. Agua-Bendita had fever of 39.5°C 2 days ago, but yesterday, he had a normal
temperature of 36.5°C. Today, his temperature surged to 40°C. What type of fever is
Agua-Bendita having?
a. Relapsing c. Intermittent
b. Remittent d. Constant
13.Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR of PARALLAX?
a. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a high reading.
b. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a low reading.
c. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading.
d. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is
accurate.
14.Which of the following factors will the nurse pay particular attention to when assigning a
health care provider to a client from the Middle East?
a. Age c. Height and Weight
b. Civil Status d. Gender
15.A client received 200ml of tube feedings. The nurse can administer the next feeding if
there is:
a. A gastric residual of 150ml c. A gastric residual of 120ml
b. A gastric residual of 80ml d. A gastric residual of 200ml
16.Bolus tube feedings are best given at which of the following time?
a. At midday in between periods of rest
b. In the late afternoon and at dawn
c. Before the client watches his favorite primetime evening show
d. Before the client takes a nap in the afternoon
17.Which of the following is an appropriate diet for a client with dysphagia?
a. Mashed potato and orange juice c. Broiled porkchops and
b. Grapefruit and vegetable soup vegetables
d. Chicken and Creamed soup
18.A client has an indwelling catheter that drains an average of 40ml/hour. He also has a
nasogastric tube in place and a chest tube attached to a 3-way bottle system. Which of
the following actions is a nursing priority?
a. Assessing the patency of the chest tubes
b. Checking the placement of the nasogastric tube
c. Recording the amount of urine output.
d. Monitoring the client's intake and output
19.A nurse is reviewing the infection chain. Which of the following is the exact order of the
infection chain?
1. Susceptible Host 4. Etiologic Agent
2. Portal of entry 5. Reservoir
3. Portal of Exit 6. Mode of Transmission

a. 6,2,3,4,5,1 c. 4,5,3,6,2,1
b. 5,4,2,3,6,1 d. 6,5,3,4,2,1
20.Drugs are eliminated from the human body primarily through the kidneys and liver. The
major route of elimination of the following drugs is the kidneys except:
a. Aspirin c. Narcotics
b. Cephalosporin d. Tetracycline

Topic: CHN

1. Republic Act No. 7160 mandates the devolution of basic services from the national
Government to local government units. What is the major goal of devolution?
a. To strengthen local government units
b. To allow greater autonomy to local government units
c. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance
d. To make basic services more available to the people
2. Which of the following is the most recent government initiative to help subsidize the cost
of health services for both the employed and unemployed?
a. National Health Insurance Act c. Workers Compensation Act
b. Medicare Act d. Magna Carta for Health Workers
3. The following are listed as missions of the DOH except:
a. Ensure accessibility c. Health for all Filipinos
b. Quality of Health Care d. Quality of Life for all Filipinos
4. This law created the Philippine Institute of Traditional and Alternative Health Care.
a. RA 6675 b. RA 7719
 c. RA 8423 d. RA 6425
2. Nurse Jean found out that the father of the family where she is conducting home visit had
a history of repeated infection and the mother has 2 miscarriages and has no regular
health check-up. What category of health care problems these situations constitute?
a. Health Threat c. Foreseeable Crisis
b. Health Deficit d. Stress Point
3. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. Which is
not an article found in the PHN bag?
a. Soap in a Soap Dish
b. Thermometer
c. Apron
d. Sphygmomanometer
4. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is based in which
of the following?
a. Health and Longevity as birthrights
b. The mandate of the state is to protect the birthrights of its citizens
c. Public Health Nursing as a specialized field of nursing
d. The worth and dignity of man
5. "Public Health Services are given free of charge." Is this statement true or false?
a. The statement is true because it is the responsibility of government to provide haste
services.
b. The statement may be true or false, depending on the specific service required.
c. The statement is false because people pay indirectly for public health services.
d. The statement may be true or false, depending on the policies of the government
concerned.
6. The Expanded Program for Immunization reduces cases against immunizable diseases.
BCG is given at birth and upon school entry. What is the dose given for school entrants?
a. 0.05ml c. 0.10ml
b. 0.5ml d. 0.01ml
7. Koch's Phenomenon is a side effect of BCG Vaccine. It is characterized by?
a. Fever for a day c. Inflammation on the site after 2-
b. Glandular enlargement 4 days
d. Mild rashes
8. The third dose of Tetanus Toxoid is given at least how many months from the second dose
of TT?
a. 4 weeks c. 6 weeks
b. 2 weeks d. 10 weeks
9. DPT and OPV are given at which dose and interval?
a. 3 doses at 3 weeks interval c. 3 doses at 4 weeks interval
b. 2 doses at 8 weeks interval d. 3 doses at 6 weeks interval
10.If it is inevitable that a mother will feed her child with cow's milk, what food supplement
should you instruct her to give her child?
a. Iron c. Iodine
b. Vitamin C d. Calcium
11.The use of Herbal Plants in treating illnesses can help the community to maximize their
resources. Which of the following herbal plants cannot be used with stomachache?
a. Tsaang Gubat c. Yerba Buena
b. Akapulko d. Bayabas
12.During a home visit, nurse Jeje finds a two year old child having fever. In performing tepid
sponge bath (TSB), she may use which herbal plant to reduce fever?
a. Guava c. Lagundi
b. Ginger d. Oregano
13.As a community health nurse, you know that a parent understands your health teaching
on herbal medicine if she says:
a. "I use the leaves of tsaang gubat for my daughter's diarrhea."
b. "I see to it that my daughter drinks as much as she can of the akapulko so that she will
recover faster."
c. "I use my new aluminum pot so I will be sure of the cleanliness of the herbal
preparation."
d. "To make sure my daughter gets relieved from diarrhea, I will give her tsaang gubat and
bawang."
14.A client using DMPA needs further health teaching when she states that…
a. I will come back for my next injection after three months
b. I will report to the clinic immediately if I did not have any menstruation
c. It will take some time before I will get pregnant again in case I decided to stop DMPA
d. DMPA is very effective for me since it requires very little discipline
 15.In lecturing a group of women regarding IUD (Intra-Uterine Device), you are correct if
mentioned which of the following statements?
a. IUD does not interrupt with coitus, thus it should be very effective
b. IUD has a very high percentage of preventing pregnancy
c. IUD is injected through the cervix on the lower uterine segment
d. IUD is not recommended for women who have multiple sexual partners
16.Kwashiorkor is a condition usually seen among pre-school children. Which of the following
signs is not likely to be present in this condition?
a. Always hungry c. Loss of appetite
b. Retarded growth d. Edema
17.The goals of a Community Health Nurse are the following except:
a. Promotion c. Treatment
b. Prevention d. Rehabilitation

Topic: MCN

1. A 28 year old woman comes to the prenatal clinic because she thinks she might be
pregnant. She tells the nurse that her menstrual periods are irregular but, since her last
menstruation seven weeks ago, she noticed some physiological changes in her body.
Which finding should the nurse expect when assessing the woman of probable signs of
pregnancy?
a. Morning sickness d. Auscultation of Fetal Heart
b. Frequent urination Sound
c. Positive Pregnancy Test
2. Mrs. Valdez has just delivered an 8 lbs 2 oz baby girl. 30 minutes after delivery, the nurse
finds that her fundus is firm just two fingers above the umbilicus and is shifted to the right.
The nurse knows that it indicates:
a. A normal process c. An impending bleeding
b. A retained placenta d. A full bladder
3. An hour after delivery, Mrs. Valdez says she feels like she is bleeding. The nurse check's
her diaper and finds a steady trickling of blood from her vagina. You initial action should
be:
a. Call the physician immediately c. Hold her fundus and massage it
b. Check her blood pressure and pulse gently
rate d. Do no action since bleeding is
normal after delivery
4. Methylergonovine (Methergine) is prescribed for a client with post-partum hemorrhage.
Before administering the medication, a nurse contacts the physician if which of the
following conditions is documented in the client's history?
a. Hypotension c. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Hypothyroidism d. Peripheral Vascular Disease
5. When assessing the fetal heart rate, the nurse notices a drop in the baseline rate from 130
to 115 beats/minute, which is sustained for over 10 minutes. The nurse interprets this as
fetal bradycardia, most commonly the result of which of the following?
a. Fetal Arrhytmia c. Maternal Hyperthyroidism
b. Maternal Fever d. Vagal Nerve Response
6. Which of the following assessment findings would let the nurse suspect subinvolution of
the uterus?
a. A client who has an abnormal Papanicolaou Test at 6 weeks post partum
b. A client whose uterus is palpable midway between the symphysis pubis and the
umbilicus at 6 weeks post-partum.
c. A client who requires dilatation and curettage for retained placental fragments on the
4th post-partum day.
d. A client whose uterus is palpated at 2 finger breadths below the umbilicus on the 2nd
post-partum day.
7. The nurse notes that a client who is 2 hours post-partum has saturated 3 pads in the last
hour. While giving her perineal care, the nurse notes a constant trickle of lochia from the
vaginal orifice. The uterus is firmly contracted. Which of the following would the nurse do
next?
a. Apply perineal ice packs d. Observe her again for 30
b. Massage the uterus minutes
c. Notify the physician
8. Immediately following the follicular phase, the luteal phase begins. Which of the following
events occur at the end of luteal phase?
 a. Proliferation c. Menstruation
b. Fertilization d. Ovulation
9. Nurse Oreo is preparing his health teaching about menstruation for an adolescent group.
He should anticipate questions to be raised by the group, which includes the amount of
menstrual flow. He is correct if he will answer:
a. 30-80 ml c. 120-200 ml
b. 80-100 ml d. 200-300 ml
10.A woman who is unable to bear a child after being married for 3 years came to the clinic
for check-up. She said her husband underwent certain diagnostic procedures and found
nothing wrong with him so she decided to subject herself for check-up. Which of the
following procedures are related diagnostics to be done to her?
a. Rubin's Test c. Friedman Test
b. Ladin's Test d. Pregnancy Test
11.For an 8-month old infant, which toy promotes cognitive development?
a. Finger paint d. A play gym strung across the
b. Jack-in-the box crib
c. A small rubber ball
12.In assessing the developmental milestone of a 12 month-old infant, which of the following
findings would suggest delay?
a. Attempts two tower blocks c. Babinski Reflex disappears
b. Chews, bites and begins to have d. Moro Reflex appears
food preferences
13.A child has just been admitted to the facility and is displaying fear related to separation
from his parents, the room being too dark, being hut while in the hospital, and having
many different staff members come into the room. Based on the nurse's knowledge of
growth and development, the child is:
a. 7 to 12 months
b. 1 to 3 years old
c. 6 to 12 years old
d. 12 to 18 years old
14.Nurse Pampi suspects neglect in a 3 year-old boy admitted for failure to thrive. Nurse
Pampi is correct with his assessment if he sees:
a. Slapping kicking and punching c. Loud crying and screaming
others d. Pulling hair and hitting
b. Poor hygiene and weight loss
15.At a previous visit, the parents of an infant with cystic fibrosis received instruction on the
administration of Pancrelipase (Pancrease). At a follow-up visit, which finding in the infant
suggests that the parents are not administering the pancreatic enzyme as instructed?
a. Fatty stools c. Bloody stools
b. Bloody urine d. Glucose in the urine
16.In a 3 month-old infant, fluid and electrolyte imbalance can occur quickly, primarily
because an infant has:
a. A lower percentage of body water than an adult
b. A lower daily fluid replacement than an adult
c. A more rapid respiratory rate than an adult
d. Immature kidney function
17.Copying squares, tying shoelaces, jumping and climbing, and being furious whenever
conflicts occur are the typical behaviors of a?
a. 3 years old c. 4 years old
b. 6 years old d. 5 years old
18.The nurse expects to observe an infant transferring an object from one hand to another at
what age?
a. 4 months c. 9 months
b. 6 months d. 11 months
19.How should the nurse position an infant when administering an oral medication?
a. Seated on a high chair c. Held over the nurse's lap
b. Restained flat on the crib d. In a bottle feeding position
20.Intraosseous administration is often used with critically ill 3 years old and below. Which of
the following agents can't be administered by way of intraosseous infusion?
a. Sodium Bicarbonate c. Calcium Chloride
b. Dopamine d. Isoproterenol

Topic: MS

1. A patient's blood gases reflect diabetic acidosis. The nurse should expect:
a. Decreased PO2 b. Increased PCO2
 c. Decreased HCO3 d. Increased pH
2. Mr. Roque's arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.20, a PaCO2 of 65 mmHg, a
PaO2 of 45 mmHg, and an HCO3 of 28 mEq/L. After analyzing the results, the nurse
determines that the patient is experiencing:
a. Respiratory Acidosis c. Respiratory Alkalosis
b. Metabolic Acidosis d. Metabolic Alkalosis
3. A client with chronic renal failure is placed on a low protein diet. The nurse explains that a
low protein diet is best for those with renal disease because:
a. Protein breaks down into waste products that increase the workload of the kidneys.
b. Protein increases the amount of sodium and potassium to be regulated by the kidneys.
c. Protein decreases the amount of serum albumin and promotes edema formation.
d. Protein decreases serum calcium and phosphorous levels.
4. Glomerulonephritis is a n example of which of the following types of renal disease?
a. Post Renal Disease c. Pre Renal Disease
b. Intra Renal Disease d. Extra Renal Disease
5. The definitive diagnosis of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy is made by:
a. Biopsy c. Serum Phosphates Elevation
b. Trans-urethral Ultrasonography d. Digital Rectal Exam
6. Which statement about urinary incontinence is not true?
a. It's a normal result of aging
b. It may be associated with certain medications
c. It may be transient or permanent
d. It may result from conditions such as prostate cancer
7. One year after receiving treatment for epididymitis, a client returns to the physician
saying that he thinks the epididymitis has returned. The physician examines him and
makes a preliminary diagnosis of testicular cancer. Which clinical manifestation helps
differentiate testicular cancer from epididymitis?
a. There is no urine present in the c. Feeling of heaviness in the scrotum
bladder d. Scrotal swelling
b. Scrotal pain
8. Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client for KUB (Kidney,
Ureter, and Bladder) radiograph test?
a. Client must be NPO before the examination
b. Administer bowel preparation 8 hours before the examination
c. Medicate the client with Lasix 20 mg IV 30 minutes before the procedure
d. No special orders are necessary for this examination

9. A client with unresolved edema will most likely develop:

a. Proteinemia c. Tissue Ischemia
b. Contractures d. Thrombus formation
10.The nurse is caring for an 87-year old client with urinary retention. Which finding should
be reported immediately?
a. Fecal impaction c. Stress incontinence
b. Infrequent voiding d. Burning sensation upon urination
11.Irreversible changes in the distal joints of the fingers caused by osteoarthritis are known
as:
a. Bouchard's nodes c. Heberden's nodes
b. Occipital nodes d. Goodel's nodes
12.Which client would be at greater risk for fat emboli following a fracture?
a. A 52 year-old with fractured fibula c. A 21 year-old with a fractured femur
b. A 20 year-old female with wrist d. An 8 year-old with a fractured arm
fracture
13.Mr. Arturo has been taking glucocorticoids to control rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse
monitors the client for which adverse effect of this pharmacological therapy?
a. Elevated Serum Potassium c. Increased Serum Glucose
b. Decreased Serum Sodium d. Increased White Blood Cells
14.The nurse is caring for a client with long leg cast. During discharge teaching about the
appropriate exercises for the affected extremity, the nurse should recommend?
a. Isometric exercise c. Aerobic exercise
b. Range of Motion exercise d. Isotonic exercise
15.The nurse is caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which nursing diagnosis should
receive priority in the plan of care?
a. Risk for injury c. Alteration in comfort
b. Self-care deficit d. Alteration in mobility
16.A client with spinal cord injury at the C-6 level complains of a pounding headache and his
blood pressure is 180/120. The nurse should:
 a. Place the client in a supine position c. Assist client to use relaxation
b. Administer antispasmodic techniques
medication as ordered d. Check the urinary catheter for
kinking
17.The teenager with fiberglass cast asks the nurse if it will be okay to allow his friends to
autograph his cast. Which response would be best?
a. "It will be alright for your friends to autograph the cast."
b. "Because the cast is made of plaster, autographing can weaken the cast."
c. "If they don't use chalk to autograph, it is okay."
d. "Autographing or writing on the cast in any form can harm you."

18.The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement 2 hours post-op. Which
information requires notification of the doctor?
a. Bleeding on the dressing is 2 cm in diameter
b. The client has a temperature of 6°F
c. The urinary output has been 60 ml during the last 2 hours
d. The client's hematocrit is 26%
19.A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which of the
following symptoms requires the nurse's immediate attention?
a. Lethargy c. Ataxia
b. Agitation d. Hearing Loss
20.The health care provider has ordered daily high doses of aspirin for a client with
rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse instructs the client to discontinue the medication and
contact medical help if which of the following occurs?
a. Infection of the gums c. Numbness in the lower extremities
b. Diarrhea for more than 1 day d. Ringing in the ears.

Topic: Psyche

1. Which of the following statements if made by a woman who delivers a child with cleft
palate indicates a typical response of clients to such situations?
a. "This is heaven's curse!"
b. "What will other people say?"
c. "Are you sure you brought me my baby?"
d. "Things like this really happen. It's nobody's fault."

2. Which of the following interventions is the nursing priority when providing care for a client
with catatonic schizophrenia?
a. Assist the client with bathing
b. Stay with the client at all times to show reassurance
c. Interact with the client at regular intervals
d. Assist the client when feeding
3. Which of the following laboratory test findings supports a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa?
a. Calcium Serum Level of 9.5 mg/dl c. Blood Sugar Level of 160 mg/dl
b. Potassium Serum Level of 6.3 mEq/L d. Potassium Serum Level of 2.6 mEq/L
4. One of the most effective ways to limit the occurrence of mental illness in the community
would be the nurse to teach:
a. A variety of coping strategies
b. Correct methods of child discipline
c. People to report the strange behavior of others
d. Genetic issue to people with family members who are mentally ill
5. Unhealthy personal boundaries are a product of dysfunctional families and a lack of
positive role models. Unhealthy boundaries may also be a result of:
a. A structured limit setting c. Abuse and neglect
b. Supportive environment d. Direction and attention
6. Handshaking is the preferred form of touch or contact used with clients in a psychiatric
setting. The rationale behind this limited touch practice is:
a. Some clients misconstrue hugs as an invitation to sexual advances
b. Handshaking keeps the gesture on a professional level
c. Refusal to touch a client denotes lack of concern
 d. Inappropriate touch often results in charges of assault and battery.
7. Assertive behavior involves which of the following elements?
a. Saying what is on your mind at the expense of others
b. Expressing on air of superiority
c. Avoiding unpleasant situations and circumstances
d. Standing up for your rights while respecting other
8. During the mental status examination, a client may be asked to explain such proverbs as
"Don't cry over spilled milk". The purpose is to evaluate the client's ability to think?
a. Rationally c. Abstractly
b. Concretely d. Tangentially
9. A generally accepted concept of personality development is:
a. By two years of age, the basic personality is rather firmly set
b. The personality is capable of change and modification throughout life
c. The capacity of personality change decreases rapidly after adolescence
d. By the end of the first 6 years, the personality has reached its adult parameters
10.In the process of development, the individual strives to maintain, protect, and enhance the
integrity of the self. This is normally accomplished through the use of:
a. Affective behaviors c. Withdrawal patterns
b. Ritualistic behaviors d. Defense mechanism
11.The nurse is caring for a client with mania understands that the client's behavior is a way
of avoiding feelings of despair. The expression of behavior opposite to those being
experienced is an example of what defense mechanism?
a. Conversion c. Sublimation
b. Splitting d. Reaction formation
12.A client is admitted for treatment of long-standing substance abuse. During the intake
assessment, the client states, "I don't know what everyone is so upset about. I don't have
a problem because I can quit anytime I want to". The client's statement is an example of?
a. Displacement c. Rationalization
b. Denial d. Reaction formation
13.Abrupt withdrawal from barbiturate use could cause a person to experience:
a. Ataxia c. Diarrhea
b. Urticaria d. Seizures
14.To actively reverse the overdose sedative effects of benzodiazepines, the nurse should
anticipate an order to administer:
a. Lithium c. Romazicon
b. Methadone d. Chlorpromazine
15.Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to
reverse dystonic reaction?
a. Prochlorperazine c. Haloperidol
b. Dipenhydramine d. Midazolam
16.The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
a. Has a more predictable onset of c. Produces fewer drug interactions
action d. Has a longer duration of action
b. Produces fewer anticholinergic
effects
17.Which of the following conditions assessed by the nurse would contraindicate the use of
Benztropine (Cogentin)?
a. Neuromalignant Syndrome d. Parkinson's Disease, Atypical
b. Acute Extrapyramidal Syndrome Tremors
c. Glaucoma, Prostatic Hypertrophy
18.A client in the psychiatric unit is in an uncontrolled rage and is threatening other clients
and staff. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
a. Call security for assistance and prepare to sedate the client
b. Tell the client to calm down and ask him if he would like to play cards
c. Tell the client that if he continues his behavior he will be punished
d. Leave the client alone until he calms down
19.Situational crises are usually resolved in a time period of:
a. 1 to 2 days c. 1 to 2 months
b. 2 to 3 weeks d. 2 to 6 months
20.The most critical factor for the nurse to determine during crisis intervention would be the
client's?
a. Available situational support c. Developmental theory
b. Eagerness to reshuffle the d. Underlying unconscious conflict
personality
Prepared By:

Level IV Clinical Instructors

Noted by:

Mrs. Cristeta Bagtang

Level Head Coordinator (Level I & IV)

Mrs. Rose Merlyn Jubilo

Dean (CNHRS)