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Nutrition in Plants
Answer: All organisms take food and utilize it to get energy for the growth and
maintenance of their bodies.
Q2: Why do plants use the nitrogen present in soil? How is this nitrogen
replenished in the soil?
Answer: Plants cannot absorb nitrogen in gas form; they need it in soluble form.
Therefore, they use the nitrogen present in soil to prepare proteins.
Answer: Nutrition is the process in which an organism consumes food, which is then
utilized by the body.
Answer:
Organisms derive nutrition from the body of other living organisms (host) are
parasites.E.g. Cuscata (amar bel)
Organisms which organisms derive nutrition from dead and decaying organisms
are called saprotrophs.E.g. Mushrooms.
Answer: Insect-eating plants are known as insectivorous plants. Example: pitcher plant.
Answer : Stomata
Answer: Autotrophs (Note: Here Green plants are mentioned. Non Plants (both green +
non-green) together are autotrophs and hetrotrophs.)
Answer: The process of preparing food with the help of water, carbon dioxide, sunlight
and chlorophyll in plants is called photosynthesis.
CBSE Class 7 Science - CH1 Nutrition In Plants - Questions and Answers (#cbsenotes)
NUTRITION IN PLANTS
Class 7 Science
Answer: Nutrients are chemical substances present in our food that provide energy and
other materials required by the body to live and grow.
① Carbohydrates
② Proteins
③ Fats
④ Minerals
⑤ Vitamins
Answer:
① Autotrophic
② Heterotrophic
Answer: Organisms which can prepare their own food from raw materials (like mineral
and water) are called autotrophs. e.g. green plants.
Answer:
① Herbivores: Plant eaters e.g. cow, buffalo, goat etc.
② Carnivores: Meat eaters e.g. lion, tiger etc.
③ Omnivores: eat both plants and animals e.g. human, bear etc.
Q6: Name the process by which autotrophs prepare their own food.
Answer: Photosynthesis
Pitcher Plant
Q8: Name the scientist who experimentally demonstrated that plants produce
oxygen and purify air.
Answer: It is the process by which green plants prepare their own food is called
photosynthesis. The chlorophyll containing leaves in the presence of sunlight converts
carbon dioxide and water into glucouse (carbohydrate sugar) and produces oxygen.
Later this glucouse is converted into starch and gets stored in plants.
Sunlight
Water + Carbon dioxide -----------------> Starch + Oxygen
Cholorophyll
Q10: What are the four things essential for photosynthesis.
Answer:
① Chlorophyll
② Sunlight
③ Carbon Dioxide
④ Water
Answer: These are tiny pores present on the surface of leaves. Through stomata
exchange of gases i.e. Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen take place. Loss of water also take
place through stomata (called transpiration).
Q14: Name the cells that control the opening and closing of stomata?
Answer: In desert plants to minimize water loss, leaves are reduced to spines. Most of
the photosynthesis is carried by the green stem.
Answer: Some plants have green or white or other colour parts in the same leaf. Such
leaves are called variegated leaves. Examples are: croton, money plant and coleus.
Q17: Which is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms organisms?
Answer:
① Parasitic plants
② Saprophytic plants
③ Insectivorous (Carnivorous) plants
④ Symbiotic plants
Q19: Does Cuscuta (Amrbel) have chlorophyll? How does it prepare its food?
Answer: No it does not have chlorophyll. It is a parasitic plant which absorbs food from
readymade plants.
Answer: Haustoria
Answer: Plants that live in association with other plants and share shelter and food are called symbiotic
plants. Lichens show symbiotic relationship i.e. association of green alga and fungi. Green alga prepare
food by photosynthesis while the fungi provide mineral and water.
Lichens
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CBSE Class 7 - Science - Ch1 - Nutrition in Plants (MCQs)
Nutrition in Plants
(MCQs)
Q2: The tiny pores present in the leaves of the plants for exchange of gases are
called _____
(a) Stomata
(b) Tracheae
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Spiracles
(a) Symbiosis
(b) Parasites
(c) Insectivorous
(d) none of these
Q4: Which part of the plant gets carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis?
(a) autotroph
(b) parasite
(c) saprotroph
(d) host
(a) cuscuta
(b) china rose
(c) pitcher plant
(d) rose
Answer:
1: (b) autotrophs
2: (a) Stomata
3: (a) Symbiosis
4: (b) stomata
5: (c) blue-black colour
6: (b) parasite
7: (c) pitcher plant
8: (d) All of these
9: (c) Saprophytes are green.
10: (a) To prepare food
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.......
MCQs
Q1: Which of the following is not an end product of photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Water
(d) Glucose
Q2: Which of the following organisms gets its food from dead and decaying
matter?
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Amoeba
(d) Insectivorous plants
Q5: The associations of organism where they live together and share shelter and
nutrients is known as ___________.
(a) Saprophyte
(b) Autotroph
(c) Symbiosis
(d) Parasite
(a) Temperature
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Light
(d) None of these
(a) Lichens
(b) Venus Fly trap
(c) Euglena
(d) Amoeba
(a) nutrition
(b) Respiration
(c) Both nutrition and respiration
(d) transpiration
Answers:
1: (b) Carbon dioxide
2: (b) Fungi
3: (b) Green plants
4: (b) Chlorophyll
5: (c) Symbiosis
6: (c) Either a or b
7: (b) Chlorophyll
8: (b) Mushroom
9: (b) Venus Fly trap
10:(b) Respiration [Hint: Nutrition gives us food. Respiration breaks down food into
energy]
..............................................................................................................................................
(c) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid and digestive juices which act on food.
(d) The inner wall of the small intestine has many finger-like outgrowths called villi.
Q3: Tick (√) mark the correct answer in each of the following:
Answer:
Q4: Match the items of Column I with those given in Column II:
Answer:
Carbohydrates - Sugar
Proteins - Amino acids
Fats - Fatty acids and glycerol
Q5: What are villi? What is their location and function?Answer:
Answer:
The inner walls of the small intestine have thousands of finger-like outgrowths.These
are called villi
The villi increase the surface area for absorption of the digested food. Each villus has a
network of thin and small blood vessels close to its surface. The surface of the villi
absorbs the digested food materials. The absorbed food is then transported to various
organs via blood vessels.
Here is a nice and funny video posted by makemegenius.com about digestive system.
Q6: Where is the bile produced? Which component of the food does it digest?
Answer:
Liver secretes bile juice that is stored in a sac called the gall bladder. The bile plays an
important role in the digestion of fats.
Q7: Name the type of carbohydrate that can be digested by ruminants but not by
humans. Give the reason also.
Answer:
Cellulose, a type of carbohydrate present in grass and it can be digested by ruminants
but not by humans. Ruminants have a large sac-like structure between the small
intestine and large intestine called caecum. The cellulose of the food is digested here by
the action of certain bacteria which are not present in humans.
Q10: Write one similarity and one difference between the nutrition in amoeba and
human beings.
Answer:
1. Similarity: The basic process of digestion of food and release of energy is
the same in amoeba as well as in human beings. In amoeba, Digestive juices are
secreted into the food vacuole. They act on the food and break it down into
simpler substances. Gradually the digested food is absorbed. Similarly, in human
beings various digestive juices (mouth, stomach, intestine etc.) act on food and
break it down to simpler substances.
2. Difference: The digestion process in amoeba is simple while in human
beings it s a complex process. The process of ingestion and egestion are also
quite different. Amoeba engulf its food by surrounding the food particle with its
pseudopodia. The undigested food which is largely carbon dioxide gas is
expelled outside by the vacuole. While in human beings, the food (which is
complex substance) is taken inside the mouth and undergoes a complex process
of digestion and absorption. Finally the undigested food it expelled in the form of
faeces.
Q11: Match the items of Column I with suitable items in Column II
Answer:
(a) Salivary gland - (iii) Saliva secretion
(b) Stomach - (iv) Acid release
(c) Liver - (i) Bile juice secretion
(d) Rectum - (vii) Release of faeces
(e) Small intestine - (v) Digestion is completed
(f) Large intestine - (vi) Absorption of water, (ii) Storage of undigested food
Answer:
Human Digestive System
.....................................................................................................................................................
MCQs
(a) incisors
(b) canines
(c) premolars
(d) molars
(a) liver
(b) pancreas
(c) gall bladder
(d) stomach
Q3: The inner walls of the small intestine have millions of small finger like
projections called
(a) villi
(b) trachae
(c) appendix
(d) oesophagus
Q4: Which of the following is a ruminant?
(a) buffalo
(b) camel
(c) goat
(d) all of these
(a) digestion
(b) absorption
(c) assimilation
(d) excretion
(a) Cilia
(b) Tentacles
(c) Pseudopedia
(d) Buccal Cavity
Q7: Grass is rich in ________ a special kind of carbohydrate which can only be
digested by ruminants.
(a) Glucose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Fructose
(a) water
(b) proteins
(c) cellulose
(d) roughage
Q10: Which of the following do not have teeth
(a) rats
(b) birds
(c) snakes
(d) elephants
Answers:
1: (b) canines
2: (c) gall bladder
3: (a) villi
4: (d) all of these
5: (d) excretion
6: (c) Pseudopedia
7: (b) Cellulose
8: (b) saliva
9: (a) water
10: (b) birds
..........................................................................................................................................................
.............
Answer:
(a) The fine and soft under-hair that grows close to the skin of the sheep have wool.
(b) White fleece of lamb means the colour of the fleece of lamb is white. The natural
fleece of sheep and goats is black, brown or white.
Q2: The silkworm is (a) a caterpillar, (b) a larva. Choose the correct option.
(i) a
(ii) b
(iii) both a and b
(iv) neither a nor b.
Answer:
(i) Rearing: It is raising and taking care of live stock (e.g. cows, buffaloes, goats etc.)
for commercial purposes. These animals are fed, provided shelters and are bred for
better yield like milk, meat, wool etc. For example, Sheep are reared mainly for the
wool. They are mainly reared in areas with low rainfall. Reared sheep eat grass and
leaves. They are also fed on a mixture of pulses, corn, jowar, oil cakes and minerals. In
winters they are kept indoors and fed on dry fodder, leaves and grains.
(ii) Shearing: Once a sheep develops a thick coat of hair, it is shaved off to obtain wool.
The process of cutting off the woolen fleece of sheep with a thin layer of skin is called
shearing. It is done by the machines similar to those used by barbers to remove hairs.
(iii) Sericulture: The breeding and management of silk worms for the production of silk is
known as sericulture. Different types of silk(e.g. mulberry silk, Tassar silk etc.) with
different textures are obtained from different varieties of silk moths.
Q5: Given below is a sequence of steps in the processing of wool. Which are the
missing steps? Add them.
Shearing, __________, sorting, __________, __________.
Answer: Shearing, scouring, Sorting, fiber spinning, fiber dying, rolling into Silk yarn
Q6: Make sketches of the two stages in the life history of the silk moth which are
directly related to the production of silk.
Q8: Match the words of Column I with those given in Column II:
Answer:
Column I Column II
1. Scouring (e) Cleaning sheared skin
2. Mulberry leaves (c) Food of silk worm
3. Yak (b) Wool yielding animal
4. Cocoon (a) Yields silk fibres
Q9: Given below is a crossword puzzle based on this lesson. Use hints to fill in the
blank spaces with letters that complete the words.
Down
1 : Thorough washing
2 : Animal fibre
3 : Long thread like structure
Across
1 : Keeps warm
2 : Its leaves are eaten by silkworms
3 : Hatches from egg of moth
Answer:
Q10: Where Angora goats are found in India?
Answer: Angora goats are found in hilly regions such as Jammu and Kashmir.
Q11: From which animal the wool is obtained for Pashmina Shawls. Name the region
where this animal is found.
Answer: Kashmiri Pashmina goat is found in Kashmir, Laddakh and Nepal. The under
fur of Kasmiri goat gives wool for fine Pashmina Shawls.
Answer: Shearing is generally done for commercial purposes. In addition it also helps
the sheep. If a sheep is left with shearing, the wool will grow, becomes heavy, soiled
and unhealthy for the sheep. Usually sheep are sheared once a year.
Answer: Wool yielding animals are found in hilly and cold regions. The Hair of these
animals (sheep, goat etc.) trap a lot of air. Air is a poor conductor of heat and keeps
these animals warm during winter.
....................................................................................................................................
(a) flax
(b) silk
(c) hemp
(d) jute
(a) cellulose
(b) protein
(c) nylon
(d) rayon
(a) cellulose
(b) protein
(c) nylon
(d) rayon
(a) Shearing
(b) Scouring
(c) Sorting
(d) Reeling
(a) Rearing
(b) Sorting
(c) Shearing
(d) Scouring
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Japan
(a) Burrs.
(b) Dust.
(c) Low quality hair.
(d) None of these
Answer:
1: (b) silk - it is an animal fibre
2: (a) cellulose
3: (b) protein
4: (d) Reeling - it is part of silk extraction.
5: (c) Shearing
6: (a) rearing of silk worms
7: (c) Rayon is a natural fibre.
8: (a) China
9: (a) Burrs
..........................................................................................................................................
Q2: State similarities and differences between the laboratory thermometer and the
clinical thermometer.
Answer:
Similarities:
1. Construction and working principle are same.
2. Both are used to measure temperature.
3. Both have a thick walled glass tube enclosing a fine uniform bore
capillary tube.
4. Mercury is used in both thermometers to measure temperature.
5. Both have Celsius and Fahrenheit markings.
Differences
Answer:
Conductors: Aluminum, Iron
Insulators: Plastic, Wood.
Answer:
(a) The hotness of an object is determined by its _temperature_.
(e) A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its
other end by the process of _conduction_.
Q5: Define temperature. What are the units used to measure temperature?
Q6: How are heat and temperature of a substance related to each other?
Answer: Heat is the total energy of the molecular motion of the substance.
Temperature is a measure of the average energy of the molecular motion in
the substance. When you heat a substance, it increases the motion of the
vibrating molecules of the substance thereby increasing the temperature of
the substance.
Answer:
(i) Land breeze blows during - (d) night
(ii) Sea breeze blows during - (c) day
(iii) Dark coloured clothes are preferred during - (b) winter
(iv) Light coloured clothes are preferred during - (a) summer
Q8: Discuss why wearing more layers of clothing during winter keeps us warmer than
wearing just one thick piece of clothing.
Answer: The air gets trapped between two layers of warm clothes.Air acts as
insulator of heat. This layer prevents our body heat to escape in the
surroundings. More layers of thin clothes will allow more air to get trapped
and as a result we will not feel cold. So wearing more layers of clothing
during winter keeps us warmer than wearing just one thick piece of clothing.
Answer:
Water in the pan gets heat through Convection. Convection occurs in
liquids and gases.
Heat is transferred by hot plate to pan by conduction. Conduction
occurs in solids.
Surroundings is also receiving heat through Radiation by warm bodies
(burner, pan, hot plate etc.). Radiation does not require any medium.
Q10: In places of hot climate it is advised that the outer walls of houses be painted
white. Explain.
Answer: In places of hot climate it is advised that the outer walls of houses
be painted white because light colour reflects most of the heat that falls on
it.Or we can say it absorbs less amount of heat. Therefore, the temperature
inside the house does not increase very much.
Q12: One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. The
temperature of the mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) more than 50°C but less than 80°C
(c) 20°C
(d) between 30°C and 50°C
Q13: An iron ball at 40°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40°C. The heat will
(a) flow from iron ball to water.
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
(c) flow from water to iron ball.
(d) increase the temperature of both.
Answer: (b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
Q14: A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end
(a) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(b) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(c) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(d) does not become cold.
Q15: Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The reason for
this could be that
(a) copper bottom makes the pan more durable.
(b) such pans appear colourful.
(c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel.
(d) copper is easier to clean than the stainless steel.
Answer: (c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel.
Q17: What are the different temperature scales used? What are the relations among
them?
Q18: Name the temperature reading which is has same value on both Celsius and
Fahrenheit scales.
Answer: -40 °C
Q19: Name the temperature scale which does not have -ve temperature readings.
Answer:
1. Mercury being liquid metal, is a good conductor of heat.
2. It has uniform rate of thermal expansion.
3. It does not wet the glass.
4. Its appearance is like shining silver, hence it can be seen easily
through glass tube.
5. It quickly measures the temperature of the object absorbing
very less amount of heat.
6. It can measure good range of temperature because it has high
boiling point (357 °C) and low melting point (-39°C).
Q22: Why do you feel warm when you rub your palms and touch your cheeks with
them?
Answer: While rubbing the hands, due to friction between them heat energy
is produced. In this case mechanical energy is converted to heat energy.
Answer: 98.6 °F
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credits:wpclipart
MCQs
Q1: When matter gets warmer, the atoms and molecules in that matter
__________________
Q2: Higher the temperature of the body _____ is the kinetic energy of the
molecules of that body?
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) none of these
Q3(NCERT): Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The
reason for this could be that
Q5(NCERT): One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. The
temperature of the mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) more than 50°C but less than 80°C
(c) 20°C
(d) between 30°C and 50°C
(a) 0° F
(b) 32° F
(c) 40° F
(d) 212° F
Q11(NCERT): A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end
(a) becomes cold by the process of conduction.
(b) becomes cold by the process of convection.
(c) becomes cold by the process of radiation.
(d) does not become cold.
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all of these
Answers:
1: (b) move faster
2: (a) higher
3: (c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel.
4: (c) joule
5: (d) between 30°C and 50°C
6: (a) do not require any medium
7: (b) 32° F
8: (b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
9: (b) 100° C
10: (d) all the above
11: (d) does not become cold.
12: (b) convection
13: (b) good reflector of heat
14: (c) Thermometer
...........................................................................................................
pH value is used
to indicate acidic, basic or
neutral nature of a
substance.
credits: wikicommons
Answer:
Q3: Name the source from which litmus solution is obtained. What is the use of
this solution?
Answer: Litmus is extracted from plant lichens. It has a mauve (purple) colour when
dissolved in distilled
water. Litmus solution is used to detect acidic or basic nature of any substance. When
added to an acidic solution, it turns red and when added to a basic solution, it turns
blue.
Q4: Is the distilled water acidic/basic/neutral? How would you verify it?
Answer: Distilled water is neutral by nature. We can verify by performing litmus paper
test. It neither turns blue litmus into red. Nor it turns red litmus into blue.
(Note: Some books or guides mention to taste it whether sour or bitter. This is a wrong
and dangerous procedure. We should only taste it once we are sure it is
eatable/drinkable. Not an appropriate answer. Discuss it with your teacher.)
Answer: The reaction between an acid and a base is known as neutralisation. Salt and
water are produced in this process with the evolution of heat.
For example, when Hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with a base Sodium hydroxide
(NaOH), it forms a salt (Sodium Chloride) and Water (H 2O).
Hydrochloric acid + Sodium hydroxide ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶➝ Sodium chloride + Water
HCl + NaOH ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶ ̶➝ NaCl + H2O
Answer:
(i) Nitric acid turn red litmus blue. ✗ (False)
(ii) Sodium hydroxide turns blue litmus red.✗ (False)
(iii) Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid neutralise each other and form salt and
water. ✓(True)
(iv) Indicator is a substance which shows different colours in acidic and basic
solutions. ✓(True)
(v) Tooth decay is caused by the presence of a base. ✗ (False)
Q7. Dorji has a few bottles of soft drink in his restaurant. But, unfortunately, these
are not labelled. He has to serve the drinks on the demand of customers. One
customer wants acidic drink, another wants basic and third one wants neutral
drink. How will Dorji decide which drink is to be served to whom?
Answer: Dorji can use indicators to test which drink is acidic or basic. He can perform
litmus paper test. By poring few drops of drink on blue litmus and red litmus paper strip.
If the blue litmus paper turns red, that drink is acidic. If red litmus paper turns blue, the
drink is basic.
Answer:
(a) Due to spicy food, our stomach releases excess of hydrochloric acid which causes
acidity or indigestion. An antacid tablet consists of a base like Milk of Magnesia
(magnesium hydroxide). It neutralises the effect of excessive acid and brings relief.
(b) The sting of an ant contains formic acid which causes irritation on the skin. Calamine
solution contains zinc carbonate which is a base. Calamine solution neutralizes the
acid effect of the ant bite when applied on the skin.
(c) The wastes of many factories contain acids. If they are allowed to flow into the water
bodies, the acids will kill fish and other organisms. The factory wastes are, therefore,
neutralised by adding basic
substances.
Q9. Three liquids are given to you. One is hydrochloric acid, another is sodium
hydroxide and third is a sugar solution. How will you identify them? You have
only turmeric indicator.
Answer: Turmeric is yellow in colour. When a base is added to it, the solution turns into
pink colour.
However turmeric remains yellow when an acid or neutral solution is added to it. We
shall perform the following steps to identify the solution is base, acid or neutral.
1. Take few drops from each solution and test it with turmeric solution. If the
solution turns into pink colour that solution is base i.e. Sodium Hydroxide. Mark
that beaker (containing solution) as BASE.
2. Take a test tube and add few drops of BASE solution and second solution.
Check if test tube becomes warm and then add turmeric solution to it. If the
colour does not change, it means the solution added is acidic (HCl). The test
tube becomes warm due to neutralization.
3. If the test tube of the above solution does not warm and it does show pink
colour when turmeric is added, the second solution is neutral.
4. Repeat step 2 and 3 for the third solution and identify if it is acid or neutral.
Q10. Blue litmus paper is dipped in a solution. It remains blue. What is the nature
of the solution? Explain.
Answer: If a blue litmus paper when dipped in a solution, remains blue, it implies the
solution is either basic or neutral.
Answer: Indicators are the special type of substances which are used to identify acids,
bases and neutral solutions by showing colour changes. We use indicator because we
cannot check nature of every substance by tasting it.
Few examples of indicators are: litmus, turmeric, China rose extract, phenolphthalein,
methyl orange etc.
Answer:
(a) Citrus fruits like lemons, oranges - Citric Acid
(b) Stings of bees and ants - Formic acid
(c) Curd - Lactic Acid
(d) Rancid butter - Butyric acid
(e) Tamarind - Tartaric acid
(f) Apples - Mallic Acid
(g) Tomato - Oxalic Acid
(h) Fats - Stearic acid
(i) Bile juice - Cholic acid
(j) Genetic Material in biological cell - Nucleic Acid (DNA and RNA)
(k) Vinegar - Acetic acid
(l) Urine - Uric Acid
Q15: What are salts? Are they acidic, basic or neutral? Give examples.
Answer: Salts are the ionic compounds generally formed by the neutralisation of an
acid with a base. They can be acidic, basic or neutral.
Examples of salts are:
(a) Acidic salts: sodium bicarbonate
(b) Basic salts: magnesium chloride
(c) Neutral Salts: Sodium chloride, potassium chloride
(d) Mixed Salts: bleaching powder, potash alum
Q16: Give chemical names of following common bases used in daily life. List their
uses as well.
(a) Caustic soda
(b) Slaked lime
(c) Milk of magnesia
(d) Quicklime
(e) Caustic potash
Answer:
a) Caustic soda : Sodium hydroxide (making soaps and detergents)
(b) Slaked lime: Calcium hydroxide (disinfectant, bleaching powder, white wash)
(c) Milk of magnesia: Magnesium hydroxide (antacid)
(d) Quicklime: Calcium oxide (making cement and paper)
(e) Caustic potash: Potassium hydroxide (making soaps, electrolysis)
....................................................................................
(MCQs)
Q1: The word acid comes from the Latin word 'acere' which means
(a) Sweet
(b) Salty
(c) Sour
(d) Neutral
Q4: Substances which are bitter in taste, feel soapy on touching are known as
(a) Acids
(b) Bases
(c) Indicators
(d) Neutral solution
Q7: The most commonly used natural indicator’ Litmus’ is extracted from
(a) Lichens
(b) Turmeric
(c) Beet Root
(d) China rose
Answers:
1: (c) Sour
2: (d) Potassium chlorate
3: (c) red
4: (b) Bases
5: (a) Indicators
6: (b) nitric acid
7: (a) Lichens
8: (b) pink
9: (c) Vinegar
10: (a) Curd
11: (b) Soap
12: (c) Sulphuric acid
...........................................................................................................
...................................
Answer: A physical property can be measured and observed without changing the
composition or identity of a substance. E.g. Odour, colour, volume, state (gas, liquid, or
solid), density, melting point, and boiling point are physical properties of a substance.
E.g. Burning of wood is a chemical change. It gives off heat and gases and leaving a
residue of ashes. In this process, the wood is changed to several new substances.
Answer:
Q6: State whether the following statements are true or false. In case a statement
is false, write the corrected statement in your notebook.
Answer:
(c) Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted easily. (True/False)
(a) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the
formation of _Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3)_.
(b) The chemical name of baking soda is _Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3)_.
(c) Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented are _painting or
greasing__ and _galvanizing with Chromium or Zinc_.
(d) Changes in which only _physical__ properties of a substance change are called
physical changes.
(e) Changes in which new substances are formed are called _chemical_ changes.
Q8: When baking soda is mixed with lemon juice, bubbles are formed with the
evolution of a gas. What type of change is it? Explain.
Answer:
When baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) is mixed with lemon juice (citric acid), a
chemical change occurs. In this recation, new substances like Carbon di-oxide is
formed and heat is evolved. This change is irreversible.
Q8: When a candle burns, both physical and chemical changes take place.
Identify these changes. Give another example of a familiar process in which both
the chemical and physical changes take place.
Answer:
Physical Changes in Burning Candle: On heating, candle wax melts is a physical
change. Since it again turns into solid wax on cooling. The change is reversible.
Chemical Changes in Burning Candle: The wax near to flame burns and gives new
substances like Carbon Dioxide, Carbon soot, water vapours, heat and light.
Cooking of food, hard-boiling of egg are examples where both physical and chemical
changes occurs. In both cases the physical appearance of the substances change and
new substances are formed.
Q9: How would you show that setting of curd is a chemical change?
Answer: Setting of curd is a chemical change since a new substance is formed which
differs in taste from the original substance i.e. milk. Also the change is irreversible (you
cannot convert curd into milk). The composition of curd (lactic acid) is different from milk
(fats and proteins).
Q10: Explain why burning of wood and cutting it into small pieces are considered
as two different types of changes.Answer: Burning of wood is a chemical change
because wood on burning reduces to new substances like ash(carbon), carbon dioxide
gas, water vapours, heat and light. The change is irreversible.
While cutting of wood in smaller pieces is a physical change because the original
composition of wood does not change. No new substances are formed.
1. Take a cupful of water in a beaker and add a few drops of dilute sulphuric
acid.
2. Heat the water. When it starts boiling add copper sulphate powder slowly
while stirring continuously.
3. Continue adding copper sulphate powder till no more powder can be
dissolved.
4. Filter the solution. Allow it to cool.
5. Do not disturb the solution when it is cooling.
6. You can see you see the crystals of copper sulphate after few hours.
(Watch the you tube video showing preparation of copper sulphate crystals.)
Q13: Explain why rusting of iron objects is faster in coastal areas than in deserts.
Answer: For rusting, the presence of both oxygen and water (or water vapour) is
essential.
Iron (Fe) + Oxygen (O2, from the air) + water (H2O) → rust (iron oxide Fe2O3)
In coastal areas the content of moisture in air is high (highly humid) as compared to
desert regions (low humid), rusting becomes faster.
Q14: The gas we use in the kitchen is called liquified petroleum gas (LPG). In the
cylinder it exist as a liquid. When it comes out from the cylinder it becomes a gas
(Change – A) then it burns (Change – B). The following statements pertain to
these changes. Choose the correct one.
(i) Process – A is a chemical change.
(ii) Process – B is a chemical change.
(iii) Both processes A and B are chemical changes.
(iv) None of these processes is a chemical change.
Answer: (ii) Process – B is a chemical change.
Explanation:
(i) Process – A is a physical change. The LPG in cylinder is in liquid form because of
high pressure. When it comes from cylinder, it turns into gas. It is a physical change.
(ii) Process – B is a chemical change. Burning of gas is a chemical change.
Q15: Anaerobic bacteria digest animal waste and produce biogas (Change – A).
The biogas is then burnt as fuel (Change – B). The following statements pertain to
these changes. Choose the correct one.
(i) Process – A is a chemical change.
(ii) Process – B is a chemical change.
(iii) Both processes A and B are chemical changes.
(iv) None of these processes is a chemical change.
Answer:
.......................................................................................................
MCQs
Is burning a match stick
physical change or chemical?
(a) shape
(b) color
(c) density
(d) flammability
Q4: Which of the following MIGHT NOT tell a chemical change has taken place?
Q9: The process of obtaining Salt by the evaporation of sea water is known as
____________.
(a) Crystallisation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Galvanisation
(d) Amalgamation
Q10: When carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water, it turns lime water
into ________
(a) milky
(b) blue
(c) silver
(d) golden
Answers:
1: (b) Heating of Iron
2: (c) Cooking a vegetable
3: (d) flammability
4: (d) Converting liquid into gas.
5: (c) chemical change
6: (a) It corrodes with air
7: (c) a chemical change
8: (d) chemical property
9: (a) Crystallisation
10:(a) milky
...........................................................................................................
............
Weather Applet on
your smartphone.
Can you identify weather icons?
NCERT Solution, Q & A, MCQ
Answer: Following are the important elements that determine weather of a place:
Temperature
Air pressure
Humidity
Rainfall
Wind Speed
Answer: Higher temperatures cause air near the equator to expand and rise, that
produces high winds and ocean currents. Similarly, pressure difference between warm
and cold air causes air to flow from high pressure region to low pressure region. It leads
to production of high winds.
Q3(NCERT): When are the maximum and minimum temperature likely to occur
during the day?
Answer:The maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in the afternoon while
the minimum temperature occurs generally in the early morning.
Answer: The day-to-day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the
temperature, humidity, rainfall, windspeed, etc., is called the weather at that place.
Answer:
(i) The average weather taken over a long time is called _climate of the place__.
(ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year,
the climate of that place will be _hot___ and _dry___ .
(iii) The two regions of the earth with extreme climatic conditions are _tropical__
and_polar region_____.
(iv) The weather reports are prepared by the _Meteorological _ department of the
government.
(vii) The temperature, humidity, rainfall and other factors are called _elements_ of the
weather.
Q7: Name a few countries where tropical rain forests are present.
Answer: The Meteorological department collects data on temperature, wind, etc., and
prepares various kinds of weather reports.
It also makes the weather prediction.
It provides services to aviation sector like fog information.
It issues various national and zonal alerts like cyclone, tsunami information etc.
It studies and identifies seismic activities and provides earthquake reports.
It helps farmers and agriculture sector by providing monsoon and rainfall reports.
The department also use Satellite data to map patterns of heating and cooling of
various regions of the earth.
Answer:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir: _extreme cold in winters, moderately hot and wet climate
for a part of the year_
Answer: The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years, is called the
climate of the place.
Answer: Climate plays an important role on living organisms. It brings about certain
changes in the shape, structure and function of animal body so that it can live and
survive in those climatic conditions. These features and habits that help animals to
adapt to their surroundings are a result of the process of evolution.
Answer:
(i) Diets heavy on fruits : tropical rainforests
(ii) White fur : polar region
(iii) Need to migrate : polar region
(iv) Loud voice : tropical rainforests
(v) Sticky pads on feet : tropical rainforests
(vi) Layer of fat under skin: polar region
Emperor Penguins
(credits:wpclipart)
(vii) Wide and large paws : polar region
(viii) Bright colours : tropical rainforests
(ix) Strong tails : tropical rainforests
(x) Long and large beak : tropical rainforests
Answer: The climatic conditions in rainforests are highly suitable for supporting an
enormous number and variety of animals. It is due to the following reasons:
1. Climate is hot and gets plenty of rainfall. Because of continuous warmth
and rain, this region supports wide variety of plants and animals.
2. The region being near to equator, receives more solar energy available. It
contributes to higher productivity in terms of food and population.
3. Tropical rainforest remained less disturbed for millions of years, thus
giving longer time to evolution. It resulted in wide variety of species.
Q18: List at least three the animals living in tropical regions.
Answer: Monkeys, apes, gorillas, lions, tigers, elephants, leopards, lizards, snakes,
birds and insects.
Answer: Tropical rainforests are found in Western Ghats (Kerela, Karnataka, Nilgiri Hills,
Maharashtra etc.) and Assam in India,
[Note: Western Ghats are roughly parallel to the west coast region of India]
Q20(NCERT): Explain, with examples, why we find animals of certain kind living in
particular climatic conditions.
Answer: Animals are adapted to the conditions in which they live. These adaptations are
the outcomes of long process of evolution. It would be difficult for them to survive if they
are moved to region having different climate conditions than from their habitat.
e.g.
1. A polar bear has thick layer of fat under their skin which acts heat
insulator. It protects the bear from extreme cold climate of polar region. The polar
bear cannot survive if it is moved to hot and dry desert region.
2. Monkeys have long tails for grasping branches adapted to live in tropical
rain forests. It cannot survive in polar regions.
Q21(NCERT): How do elephant living in the tropical rainforest adapt itself.
Answer: An elephant has adapted to rainforest climatic conditions in the following ways:
1. It long trunk which acts as nose has a strong sense of smell.
2. It also uses its trunk to pick up food.
3. Its tusks are modified teeth which can tear the bark of trees for food.
4. Large ears of the elephant help it to hear even very soft sounds.
5. Large ears also help the elephant to keep cool in the hot and humid
climate of the
rainforest.
Q22(MCQ): A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its
prey. It is likely to be found in:
Q23(MCQ): Which features adapt polar bears to live in extremely cold climate?
(a) A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell.
(b) Thin skin, large eyes, a white fur.
(c) A long tail, strong claws, white large paws.
(d) White body, paws for swimming, gills for respiration.
Answer: (a) A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell.
(a) Humidity
(b) Temperature
(c) Soil
(d) Rain
(In progress...)
...........................................................................................................
....................
(MCQs)
Q2: A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its prey. It
is likely to be found in:
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) oceans
(d) tropical rainforests
Q4: The special features and habits that help an animal survive in its environment
are known as _______
(a) evolutions
(b) adaptations
(c) polymorphisms
(d) hibernation
Q5: In Western Ghats Of India, the Long tailed macaque is also known as _______
a) Indian Parrot
(b) Beard Ape
(c) Monkey
(d) Lemurs
Q6: Long Inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during winters is known
as:
(a) aestivation
(b) migration
(c) evolution
(d) hibernation
Answer:
1: (c) Soil
2: (d) tropical rainforests
3: (a) thick fur
4: (b) adaptations
5: (b) Beard Ape
6: (d) hibernation
7: (d) all of these
8: (c) Assam
9: (a) humidity
10: (c) white fur
...........................................................................................................
....................................................
(a) highest day temperature and lowest night temperature of the day.
(b) highest day temperature and highest night temperature of the month.
(c) temperature recorded at 12 noon and at mid night (00.00 hrs).
(d) average highest temperature of day and average lowest temperature of night.
Q2: Paheli went to a wildlife sanctuary where she saw dense vegetation of trees,
shrubs, herbs and also a variety of animals like monkeys, birds, elephants,
snakes, frogs, etc. The most likely location of this sanctuary is in the –
Q3: Out of the given definitions, which is the most appropriate definition of
climate?
Identify the conditions from the above list that are responsible for the presence of large
number of plants and animals in tropical rain forests.
Answers:
1: (a) highest day temperature and lowest night temperature of the day.
2: (b) tropical region
3: (b) Average weather pattern of many years.
4: (c) Hot and dry
5: (b) They cannot swim [Note: Penguins are flightless birds]
6: (d) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
7: (c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
8: (a) polar region
9: (c) Long grasping tail
...........................................................................................................
.
CBSE Class 7 - Science - CH8 - Winds, Storms and Cyclones
Winds, Storms and Cyclones
Q1: Fill the missing word in the blank spaces in the following statements:
Answer:
(a) moving
(b) uneven
(c) warm, cooler
Q2: What happens to the pressure of the wind if its speed is increased?
Anemometer
Answer: When the speed of the wind is increases, it reduces the pressure of nearby
region.
Answer: Anemometer.
Q4: Suggest two methods to find out wind direction at a given place.
Q6: State two experiences that made you think that air exerts pressure
(other than those given in the text).
Answer: Fresh air can enter into the house through windows but the warm air and
smoke would not go out. Smoke from kitchen and warm air being lighter rise up. If there
is no outlet like ventilators, warm air will heat up the room and could cause suffocation
and discomfort.
Q8: Explain why holes are made in hanging banners and hoardings.
Answer: Air exerts pressure in all directions. If banners and hoardings do not have
holes, pressure exerted by wind may tear them off or make them fall. Holes let the air
pass through and reduce the air pressure on banners and hoardings.
Q9: Describe an experiment to show pressure reduces when air moves with high
speed.
Answer: High speed winds reduce the air pressure above the roof. While the air
pressure below roof is high which pushes the roof upwards. That's why roofs of the huts
are blown off during high speed winds.
Q11: Name the scientist who discovered first time that when air moves with
speed, its pressure drops.
Answer: Daniel Bernoulli. His Bernoulli's principle laid the foundation of aeronautics.
Q12: How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your
village/town?
Q13: What planning is required in advance to deal with the situation created by a
cyclone?
Answer: Self-help is the best help. Therefore it is better to plan in advance and be ready
with defence against any approaching cyclone.
Planning required in advance to deal with cyclone-hit situation:
1. Keep an emergency kit at home.
2. Store enough food in water proof bags.
3. Store safe drinking water as contaminated water can cause diseases.
4. Keep phone numbers of emergency services like police, hospital, friends
and relatives ready.
5. Make necessary arrangements to shift the essential household goods,
domestic animals and vehicles, etc. to safer places.
Answer: (iii) Amritsar is least likely to be affected by a cyclone because the city does
not lie near to any coastal area.
Q15: Which of the statements given below is correct?
(i) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean.
(ii) In summer the winds flow from the land towards the ocean.
(iii) A cyclone is formed by a very high-pressure system with very high-speed winds
revolving around it.
(iv) The coastline of India is not vulnerable to cyclones.
Answer: Correct statement is - (i) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean.
Answer: A cyclone is a huge and powerful storm. A cyclone consists of a low pressure area with high
pressure all around. High speed winds go around the centre violently and are accompanied by heavy
rains.
Tornado
credits:wikicommons
Q17: What is a tornado?
Answer: A tornado is a violent, twisted funnel of high speed wind. It is formed when a
funnel like column of cold air sinks down from a story cloud. Warm air rises up which
whirls up causing high speed circulating winds.
(In progress...)
...........................................................................................................
.................................
(MCQs)
Weather Symbols (Can you guess?)
image credits: openclipart
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of these
Q2: What is the name given to the wind blowing from sea to land?
(a) Thunderstorm
(b) Land breeze
(c) Sea breeze
(d) cyclone
(a) manometer
(b) anemometer
(c) ammeter
(d) speedometer
Q6: The word has been derived from Arabic word 'Mausam' which means season.
The word is ________.
(a) Baarish
(b) Monsoon
(c) El Nino
(d) Typhoon
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) can decrease or increase
Q9: Equator is a region of _______ pressure while poles are regions of ______
pressure.
Answers:
1: (b) decreases
2: (c) Sea breeze
3: (c) The warm air is heavier than cold air.
4: (a) Coriolis Effect
5: (b) anemometer
6: (b) Monsoon
7: (b) decreases
8: (c) Take shelter under isolated tree.
9: (a) high, low
10: (c) calm and cloudless.
...........................................................................................................
.......
(a) A-Horizon
(b) B-Horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) Bedrock
Column I Column II
(i). A home for living organisms (a). Large particles
Column I Column II
(ii). Upper layer of the soil (b). All kinds of soil
(iii). Sandy soil (c). Dark in colour
(iv). Middle layer of the soil (d). Small particles and packed tight
(v). Clayey soil (e). Lesser amount of humus
Answer:
Column I Column II
(i). A home for living organisms (b). All kinds of soil
(ii). Upper layer of the soil (c). Dark in colour
(iii). Sandy soil (a). Large particles
(iv). Middle layer of the soil (e). Lesser amount of humus
(v). Clayey soil (d). Small particles and packed tight
Answer: Soil is formed by weathering of rocks. Weathering is the break down of rocks
by the action of air, wind and water. Soil formation is a slow process. It occurs all the
time. Soil formation is a two step process:
1. Weathering of rocks takes place. Rock is broken down into small particles.
2. These small particles mix with humus (organic matter) and form soil.
Q8: Define Soil.
Answer: Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth's crust. It is capable of supporting life. It
is composed of various types of minerals (nitrates, phosphates, potassium etc.) and
particles (gravels, sand, humus etc.). It is essential for the existence of plants and
animals.
Answer: Clayey soil has an important characteristic that it can retain water and
moisture. Therefore it is suitable for growing cereals like wheat, and gram. Clayey soils
rich in humus and water gives ideal conditions for paddy to grow.
Answer: Humus is the organic matter present in the soil formed by decomposition of
dead plant and animal remains. It is an important element of the topsoil that determines
the soil fertility.
Q11: List the differences between clayey soil and sandy soil
Answer:
Clayey Soil Sandy Soil
1. Ratio of fine particles is higher 1. Ratio of large particles is higher
2. Soil retains water and becomes sticky and 2. Loose particles, air permeate through the soil.
Clayey Soil Sandy Soil
wet.
3. Suitable for crops like paddy, whet and 3. Suitable for vegetables, peanuts and cotton
gram cultivation.
4. Difficult to plough when wet. 4. dries up easily. Cannot retain water.
. .
Q13: Sketch the cross section of soil and label the various layers
Answer: A soil profile is a arrangement of the successive layers of the soil that would
appear when we have vertical section view:
A-Horizon: Also called topsoil. Upper most layer of soil. The colour of this layer is the
darkest, since it is rich in humus and minerals. It is soft, porous and hold more water
than the other layers. Plants get most of the nutrients and water from this layer. It is also
a home of many living organisms like rodents, snakes, moles, worms etc.
B-Horizon: Second most layer from the top. Lighter in colour. May contain little humus.
Rich in minerals and serves as water reservoir.
C-Horizon: Consists of small pieces of original rock broken due to weathering. Hard
and compact than the above two soils.
Q14: Razia conducted an experiment in the field related to the rate of percolation.
She observed that it took 40 min for 200 mL of water to percolate through the soil
sample. Calculate the rate of percolation.
Answer: Water absorption rate of the soil is defined as the capacity of the soil to take in
water from the surface or surrounding areas.
Answer: The colour of this layer is dark, since it is rich in humus and minerals.
Q17: What is soil erosion? What are the causes of soil erosion?
Answer: The removal of topsoil from a region by water and wind is called soil erosion. It
is a natural process and may spoil the environment. It may cause flash floods and it can
turn lush green forest into a desert. Following are the causes of soil erosion:
Deforestation
Over-grazing
Frequent flooding of rivers
Forest Fires
Poor farming methods
Answer: The contamination of soil due to excess use of chemicals and harmful waste
products like fertilizers, insecticides, industry waste is called soil pollution.
Following are the causes of soil pollution:
Excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Dumping of waste material.
Acid Rain
Leakage of Radiohazard material.
Polythene and plastic pollute soil and kill organisms that live in soil.
Q19: Explain how soil pollution and soil erosion could be prevented.
Answer:
Use of gabion to control erosion
Prevention of Soil Erosion
1. Afforestation: large scale planting in place of cut down forests.
2. Avoiding over-grazing of grass lands.
3. Use of step-farming in hill regions.
4. Constructing embankment or gabions at river banks.
Prevention of Soil Pollution:
1. Avoid excess use of chemical fertilizers. Use manures instead.
2. Industrial waste should be treated before release.
3. Do not throw polythene and plastic bags.
4. Avoid use of polythene and plastic or they should not get mixed in soil.
Q3: Lentils (masoor) and other pulses are grown in which of the following soil
type?
(a) Sandy Soil
(b) Clayey Soil
(c) Loamy Soil
(d) None of these
Q4: Toys, pots, and statues are made up of which soil type?
(a) Sandy Soil
(b) Clayey Soil
(c) Loamy Soil
(d) None of these
....................................................................................................
Answer:
S.No. Breathing Respiration
Respiration is more complex and it includes
It involves intake of oxygen and
1 breathing as well as oxidation of food in cells to
release of Carbon dioxide.
release energy.
It is a physical process i.e. exchange It is a bio-chemical process in which food is
2
of gases. broken along with release of energy.
S.No. Breathing Respiration
It involves breathing organs e.g.
3 It occurs at cellular level
lungs in mammals.
Q2(NCERT): Why does an athlete breathe faster and deeper than usual after
finishing the race?
Answer: Our body needs energy for all activities. While doing heavy exercises like
running, there is larger demand of energy to perform those activities. Hence more
oxygen is required to meet extra demand of energy. Therefore an athlete breathe faster
and deeper than usual after finishing the race.
Also during running, due to lack of oxygen, some muscles may respire anaerobically
and form lactic acid. Extra oxygen is also required to burn this lactic acid into carbon
dioxide.
Q3: Rearrange the following parts of the Respiratory system in order. Trachea,
nose, alveoli, bronchi, nasal cavity, bronchiole.
Answer:
Nose → Nasal Cavity → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchiole → Alveoli
Q5(NCERT): List the similarities and differences between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration.
Answer:
S.No. Aerobic Anaerobic
Anaerobic respiration takes place in the absence
1 It uses oxygen in the process.
of oxygen.
In this process, glucouse is completely
In this process, glucouse is broken into ethyl
2 broken down into CO2, Water along
alcohol, CO2 and energy.
with release of energy.
It usually occurs in lower organisms like yeast
It occurs in all organisms like
3 (fungi) and bacteria. It can occur muscles of
mammals.
higher organisms during heavy activities.
4 Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide Glucose → Ethyl alcohol + Carbon dioxide +
S.No. Aerobic Anaerobic
+ Water + Energy Energy
Answer: Yeast is a type of fungi which respires anaerobically and produce alcohol.
Therefore, they are used to make wine and beer.
Answer: When we inhale dust-laden air, dirt particles are captured within the nostrils.
Sometimes they get past the nostril hair in the nasal cavity and irritate the lining of the
cavity. As a result we sneeze. Sneezing expels these foreign particles from the inhaled
air and a dustfree, clean air enters our body.
Q8(NCERT): Take three test-tubes. Fill ¾th of each with water. Label them A, B
and C. Keep a snail in test-tube A, a water plant in test-tube B and in C, keep snail
and plant both. Which test-tube would have the highest concentration of CO 2?
Answer:
Test tube A will have highest concentration of CO2. The experiment shows the
relationship between plants and animals. During breathing snail inhales dissolved
oxygen from water and releases carbon dioxide(CO2). Water-plant along with respiration
performs another important function called photosynthesis. During photosynthesis,
water-plant, absorbs CO2, prepares food and releases oxygen. Therefore, Tube B and C
has less amount of CO2concentration as compared to test tube A.
(b) During heavy exercise, we get cramps in the legs due to the accumulation of(i)
carbon dioxide
(ii) lactic acid
(iii) alcohol
(iv) water
(c) Normal range of breathing rate per minute in an average adult person at rest
is:(i) 9–12
(ii) 15–18
(iii) 21–24
(iv) 30–33
Answer: Breathing involves intake of oxygen-rich air and out-take of CO 2-rich air. The
two steps involved are:
1. Inhalation
2. Exhalation
Column I Column II
a. Yeast (i) Earthworm
b. Diaphragm (ii) Gills.
c. Skin (iii) Alcohol
d. Leaves (iv) Chest cavity
e. Fish (v) Stomata
f. Frog (vi) Lungs and skin
g. insects (vii) Tracheae
Answer:
Column I Column II
a. Yeast (iii) Alcohol
b. Diaphragm (iv) Chest cavity
c. Skin (i) Earthworm
d. Leaves (v) Stomata
e. Fish (ii) Gills
f. Frog (vi) Lungs and skin
g. insects (vii) Tracheae
Answer:
(i) During heavy exercise the breathing rate of a person slows down. (False ✗)
Explanation: During heavy exercise, more oxygen is required to meet extra demand of
energy. Therefore breathing rate increases.
(ii) Plants carry out photosynthesis only during the day and respiration only at night.
(False ✗)
Explanation: Photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. Respiration is a
continuous process and occurs all the time (day and night).
(iii) Frogs breathe through their skins as well as their lungs. (True ✓)
(v) The size of the chest cavity increases during inhalation. (True ✓)
Answer:
(i) Trachea
(ii) Ribs
(iii) Diaphragm
(iv) Stomata
(v) Spiracles
(vi) Lungs
(vii) Nostrils
(viii)Yeast
(ix) Ant
Q14(NCERT): The mountaineers carry oxygen with them because:
(a) At an altitude of more than 5 km there is no air.
(b) The amount of air available to a person is less than that available on the ground.
(c) The temperature of air is higher than that on the ground.
(d) The pressure of air is higher than that on the ground.
Answer: (b) The amount of air available to a person is less than that available on the
ground.
(b) The person gets oxygen though an instrument called ventilator which act as artificial
lungs.
(c) The person is kept on artificial respiration temporarily. When a person regains his
health and starts breathing naturally, artificial respiration is no longer required.
Following video shows respiration process and also how ventilator is used for artificial
respiration. The video is meant for nursing students but quite helpful.
Answer: Frogs. Inside water, they breathe through their skin. When on land, they
breathe through lungs.
Q17: How does plant respire?
Answer: Fish respire through their gills. Dissolved air in the water is taken in by the gills
and is supplied to blood capillaries where exchange of gases takes place.
Q19: What are the functions of ribs and diaphragm during breathing? Describe
their functioning.
During inhalation, ribs move up and outwards and diaphragm moves down. This
movement increases space in our chest cavity and air rushes into the lungs. The lungs
get filled with air.
During exhalation, ribs move down and inwards, while diaphragm moves up to its
former position. This reduces the size of the chest cavity and air is pushed out of the
lungs
Answer: Smoking contains harmful gases and substances which damages our lungs.
These harmful substances can also cause lung cancer. We must avoid it.
Answer: Insects have several small openings called spiracles on the lateral sides of
their bodies. These spiracles lead to air tubes called trachea. Exchange of gases takes
place through spiracles into trachea.
Answer: Mitochondria
Following you tube video shows breathing in various animals
Answer: Thin and moist skin helps frog in breathing. Because of thin skin, gases can
diffuse (or exchange through) easily. Moist surface also helps gases to dissolve and
diffuse into and out of skin cells.
...........................................................................................................
........
MCQs
(a) microbes
(b) anaerobes
(c) aerobes
(d) none of these
Q3: Plants breathe through tiny pores in the leaves called ________.
(a) lungs
(b) gills
(c) moist skin
(d) tracheae
Q6: Insects have several openings on lateral sides of their bodies which lead to
air tubes. These openings are called
(a) tracheae
(b) spiracles
(c) lungs
(d) gills
Q7: When we breathe out, exhaled air turns lime water into _______ due to
presence of ________.
Q8: Which of the following animal can breathe through skin as well through
lungs?
(a) fish
(b) mammal
(c) cockroach
(d) frog
(a) alveoli
(b) trachea
(c) bronchi
(d) larynx
Answers:
1: (a) physical, chemical
2: (b) anaerobes
3: (d) stomata
4: (c) moist skin
5: (b) volume increases pressure decreases
6: (b) spiracles
7: (c) milky, carbon dioxide
8: (d) frog
9: (a) alveoli
10: (c) Pharynx
......................................................................................
i. The blood from the heart is transported to all parts of the body by the
___________________.
iv. The rhythmic expansion and contraction of the heart is called _________________.
vii. Kidneys eliminate the waste materials in the liquid form called _______________.
viii. Water reaches great heights in the trees because of suction pull caused by
_____________.
Answer:
i. arteries
ii. red blood cells (RBCs)
iii. capillaries
iv. heartbeat
v. urea
vi. salt
vii. urine
viii. transpiration.
Q2: What do you mean by circulatory system?
Answer: The organ system which consists of heart, blood vessels and blood together
constitute the circulatory system.
Q3(NCERT): Match structures given in Column I with functions given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Stomata (a) Absorption of water
(ii) Xylem (b) Transpiration
(iii) Root hairs (c) Transport of food
(iv) Phloem (d) Transport of water
(e) Synthesis of carbohydrates
Answer:
Column I Column II
(i) Stomata (b) Transpiration, (e) Synthesis of carbohydrates
(ii) Xylem (d) Transport of water
(iii) Root hairs (a) Absorption of water
(iv) Phloem (c) Transport of food
(i) Xylem
(ii) Phloem
(iii) Stomata
(iv) Root hair
(b) Water absorption through roots can be increased by keeping the plants
(i) in the shade
(ii) in dim light
(iii) under the fan
(iv) covered with a polythene bag
Answer: If water is lost more quickly than it is absorbed by the root hairs, it will result in
loss of water in plants. The leaves, flower and stem of the plant droop. It is known as
wilting.
Answer: Higher plants have well defined transport system called vascular system. It
consists of pipe-like vessels called xylem and phloem.
Xylem tissues join together and form long tubes. They transport water and minerals
from roots to all parts of the plant.
Phloem tissues also join together and form long tube which carry food from leaves to
various parts of the plant body.
Q10: Name the various transport systems present in human beings and
mammals.
Answer:
1. Circulatory System
2. Excretory System
Q11(NCERT): What are stomata? Give two functions of stomata.
Answer: Stomata are the tiny pores that present on the surface of leaves. The functions
of stomata are:
1. The water evaporates through the stomata by the the process of
transpiration.
2. Exchange of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen) also take place through
stomata. These gases are used in photosynthesis and respiration process in the
plants.
Q12(NCERT): Does transpiration serve any useful function in the plants? Explain.
Answer:
1. Transpiration of water from leaves creates a suction pull, due to which
water rises up high in tall trees.
2. Transpiration also cools the plant.
Q13: What does blood transport in human body?
or
Q(NCERT): Why is blood needed by all the parts of a body?
Answer: Blood is a special type of fluid that flows in blood vessels. It transports the
following:
1. digested food from small intestine to other parts of the human body.
2. oxygen from lungs to heart and then to other body cells.
3. carbon dioxide from body cells to lungs via heart.
4. nitrogenous waste from body cells to kidneys for excretion from the body.
Q14(NCERT): What are the components of blood?
Answer: The presence of red pigment called haemoglobin in red blood cells makes the
blood look red.
Q17: Name the device used by medical practitioners to listen heart beat of the
patients.
Answer: Stethoscope
Q18: What are the different types of blood vessels found in our circulatory
system?
Answer: sphygmomanometer.
Pumping of Heart
credits:wpclipart
Answer:
1. Heart is triangular shaped organ. It is made up of cardiac muscles and is
located between the lungs inside chest cavity.
2. It beats 60 to 80 times per minute throughout life. It pumps blood to all
parts of the body.
3. The heart has four chambers. The top chambers are called auricles (or
atria) and the lower two chambers are called ventricles.
4. The left chambers are completely separated from right side by a partition
called septum. The chambers contain valves which allow the flow of blood in one
direction only.
5. The right auricle receives carbon-dioxide rich blood from various parts of
the body. The right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs. Inside lungs, carbon-
dioxide is exchanged with oxygen. (see steps 1-6 in figure below)
6. The left auricle receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.The left ventricle pumps this
blood to the rest of the body.
Answer: Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all parts of the body. The
blood flow is is rapid and at a high pressure, that's why arteries have thick elastic walls.
Answer: Except pulmonary artery, all arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. Pulmonary artery
carries carbon dioxide rich blood from heart to lungs.
Answer: It is the pulmonary vein which carry oxygen-rich blood from lungs to heart. All
other veins carry carbon dioxide rich blood.
Q24: What is a pulse?
Answer: The throbbing movement due to blood flowing in arteries is called pulse.
Answer: Haematology
Answer: Aorta
Answer: In vein. Vein are superficial and are easily locatable. Second medicine needs to
be transported to all parts of the body. Through veins, medicine reaches heart and then
pumped to all over the body.
Q28: What is heart beat? Name the instrument used to provide information about
heart beats.
Answer: One complete contraction and relaxation of heart makes one heart beat.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to check rhythm of heart beats.
Answer: The network of blood capillaries form a junction between arteries and veins. At
these junctions, the exchange of gases, food materials and metabolic wastes take
place.
(In progress...)
...........................................................................................................
...................
Q1: Name the pigment which gives red colour to the blood in mammals.
(a) Globulin
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Plasma
(d) Platelets
(a) RBCs
(b) Plasma
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) WBCs
(a) atria
(b) ventricles
(c) pulmunory vein
(d) vena cava
(a) circulation
(b) transportation
(c) dialysis
(d) diffusion
(a) Veins
(b) Phloem
(c) Xylem
(d) Root Hairs
(a) food
(b) water
(c) minerals
(d) carbon dioxide
Answers:
1: (b) Haemoglobin
2: (b) Plasma
3: (d) WBCs
4: (a) atria
5: (c) dialysis
6: (c) William Harvey
7: (d) urea
8: (c) Xylem
9: (a) food
10: (b) 70-80 times per minute
...........................................................................................................
......
CBSE Class 7 - Science - Reproduction in Plants
Reproduction in Plants
Answer:
(a) Production of new individuals from the vegetative part of parent is called_vegetative
propagation_.
(b) A flower may have either male or female reproductive parts. Such a flower is
called_unisexual flower_.
(c) The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or of another
flower of the same kind is known as _pollination__.
(e) Seed dispersal takes place by means of _wind__, __water_ and _animals_.
Answer: Plants that have flowers can reproduce sexually. A flower has male
reproductive part called stamen and the female part is called pistil. A flower may be
unisexual (containing one reproductive part only) or bisexual (containing both
reproductive parts). Stamen has anther which produces male gametes called pollen
grains. Pistil carries an ovary which produces female gamete called ovum. When mail
gamete cells fuse together with female gamete cells, they form a zygote and this
process is called fertilization. Later zygote transforms into a seed. Later seeds are
dispersed to soil and under favourable conditions germinate into a new plant.
Q4: Explain the main differences between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Answer:
Structure of Flower
Answer: Stamen
Answer: Psitil
Answer: The process of transference of pollen grains from anthers to stigma is called
pollination.
Answer:
SELF POLLINATION CROSS POLLINATION
1. Pollens are transferred to stigma of same 1. Pollens are transferred to stigma of different
flower. flower.
2. Do not require pollinating agents. 2. Requires Pollinating agents.
3. e.g. legumes,peanuts,sunflower 2. Most flowers like rose, china rose.
Answer: A fruit is a mature ovary whereas ovule develops into a seed, which contains the developing
embryo. A fruit can have one or many seeds inside it. e.g. A mango has one seed while a watermelon has
many seeds.
Structure of Fruit
credits:wpclipart
Q10: Describe the various ways by which seeds are dispersed.
Answer: Same kind of plants grow at different places because seeds are dispersed to
different places. Following are listed some agents of dispersal of seeds:
1. Wind: For example seeds of cotton have hairs surrounding it which is
carried by wind. Similarly seeds of maple has wings attached to it.
2. Water: Coconut seeds which has thick fibre helps it float in water.
3. Animals: Seeds like xanthium have spines which help them to stick to fur
or skin of the animals. Some seeds eaten by birds and animals along with fruit
pass out unharmed in waste. They germinate where they fall.
4. Bursting of fruit: Fruits of Balsa, and pea burst on drying and spread the
seeds in surroundings.
Q11: Tick (✓) the correct answer
Answer:
(a) The reproductive part of a plant is the
(i) leaf
(ii) stem
(iii) root
(iv) flower ✓
(b) The process of fusion of the male and the female gametes is called
(i) fertilisation ✓
(ii) pollination
(iii) reproduction
(iv) seed formation
...........................................................................................................
............
CBSE Class 7 Science CH12 Reproduction In Plants (MCQs)
REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
MCQs
Structure of Flower
(a) Budding
(b) Pollination
(c) Spores
(d) Fragmentation
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Budding
(c) Spores
(a) Stamen
(b) Pistil
(c) Stem
(d) Root
Q4: The small bulb-like projection coming out of yeast is known as ________.
(a) Fragment
(b) Spore
(c) Bud
(d) Seed
(a) Stamen
(b) Pistil
(c) Stem
(d) Root
Q6: Fusion of gametes form a fertilized egg which is also known as _________.
(a) seed
(b) embryo
(c) ovary
(d) zygote
Q7: Which one of the following is NOT a method of vegetative propagation?
(a) Cutting
(b) Grafting
(c) Fragmentation
Q8: Which of the following does not NOT have bisexual flower?
(a) mustard
(b) papaya
(c) rose
(d) petunia
Q9: Which plant bears spiny seeds with hooks to be dispersed by animals?
(a) Sunflower
(b) Castor
(c) Xanthium
(d) Balsam
Q10: Which one of the following plant gives rise to new plant by roots?
(b) ginger
(c) rose
(d) orchids
Answers:
1: (b) Pollination
2: (b) Budding
3: (a) Stamen
4: (c) Bud
5: (a) Stamen
6: (d) zygote
7: (c) Fragmentation
8: (b) papaya
9: (c) Xanthium
...........................................................................................................
...............................
Q3(MCQ): If the an object moving along a straight line, keeps changing its speed
then,
(a) The motion is said to be a uniform motion
(b) The motion is said to be a non uniform motion
(c) The object is said to be stationary
(d) The motion is said to be a fast motion
Q5(MCQ/NCERT): A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 15 minutes and then
with a speed of 60 km/h for the next 15 minutes. The total distance covered by the
car is:
(a) 100 km
(b) 25 km
(c) 15 km
(d) 10 km
Answer: (b) 25 km
Distance = Speed × Time
15 minutes = 15/60 = 0.25 hours
Distance Covered in first 15 min or 0.25 hours (D 1) = 40 × 0.25 =10.00 km
Distance Covered in next 15 min or 0.25 hours (D 2) = 60 × 0.25 =15.00 km
Total Distance Covered = D1 + D2 = 10 + 15 = 25 km
(a) 72 m/s
(b) 7.2 m/s
(c) 200 m/s
(d) 20 m/s
Answer: (c).
Answer:
(i) Oscillatory
(ii) Straight Line
(iii) Circular
(iv) Oscillatory
(v) Oscillatory
(vi) Straight Line
Answer:
(i) True (✓)
(ii) False (✗) Different objects have different speeds.
(iii) True (✓)
(iv) False (✗) The time period of a given pendulum is fixed.
(v) False (✗) The speed of train is usually expressed in km/hr or miles/hr.
(vi) True (✓)
(vii) True (✓)
(viii) False (✗)
Q12(NCERT): The distance between two stations is 240 km. A train takes 4 hours
to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train.
Q13(NCERT): The odometer of a car reads 57321.0 km when the clock shows the
time 08:30 AM. What is the distance moved by the car, if at 08:50 AM, the
odometer reading has changed to 57336.0 km? Calculate the speed of the car in
km/min during this time. Express the speed in km/h also.
Q14(NCERT): Salma takes 15 minutes from her house to reach her school on a
bicycle. If the bicycle has a speed of 2 m/s, calculate the distance between her
house and the school.
Q15(NCERT): Show the shape of the distance-time graph for the motion in the
following cases:
(i) A car moving with a constant speed.
(ii) A car parked on a side road.
Answer:
(i) A car moving with a constant speed.
When a car moves with a constant speed, it will cover equal distance in equal intervals
of time. In a distance-time graph it is a straight line inclined to time-axis.
Answer: 1 cm = 100 m
Distance covered by blue car = 2.0 cm = 2.0 × 100 = 200 m
Time taken to cover 200m = 10s
Speed of Car = Distance ÷ Time = 200 / 10 = 20m/s
Speed of Car (in km/hr) = 20 × 3600s/1000m = 72 km/hr
Q17(NCERT): Figure below shows the distance-time graph for the motion of two
vehicles A and B. Which one of them is moving faster?
Answer: The steeper the line, greater the speed. Vehicle A moves faster than B.
Q18: Rohan covers a distance of 10 km by running with uniform speed of 4.5
km/hr. Sohan runs 1.2 km in 15 minutes. Who runs faster?
(b) The time measured by quartz clocks is much more accurate than that by the
clocks available earlier.
Quartz crystals emit vibrations are fixed frequency. These vibrations (pulses) are
counted and are used to measure time. It can measure time up to milliseconds and has
high accuracy i.e. a normal quartz wristwatch may lose or gain less than a fraction of a
second in a day. While the mechanical clocks used earlier were based on weights and
spring which rotate the gears. The lowest time interval these mechanical clocks is up to
minute. Hence accuracy of quartz clocks is more accurate than the clocks of earlier
times.
(f) Average speed is same as actual speed in case of a body having uniform
motion.
Uniform motion means the object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Average speed means total distance covered in total time.
Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = (20m + 20m) ÷ (5s + 5s) = 40m ÷ 10s =
4m/s
Thus Average speed is same as actual speed in case of a body having uniform motion.
...........................................................................................................
......
MCQs
Q1: Which of the following instrument measures time with the most accuracy?
(a) km/min
(b) m/min
(c) km/h
(d) m/s
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 3.6 m/s
(c) 100 m/s
(d) 36 m/s
Q5: If the an object moving along a straight line, keeps changing its speed then,
Q6: The motion that repeats itself after regular intervals of time can be ___ (Find
the incorrect option).
(a) Gong
(b) Fork
(c) Rod
(d) Bob
(a) Distance
(b) Displacement
(c) Velocity
(d) Force
Q10: The meter that is used to measure the distance moved by the vehicle is
known as _____
(a) Speedometer
(b) Odometer
(c) Chronometer
(d) Ammeter
Answers:
1: (c) quartz clock
2: (d) m/s
3: (d) More distance in shorter time
4: (a) 10 m/s
5: (b) The motion is said to be a non uniform motion
6: (c) Rectilinear Motion
7: (d) Bob
8: (b) Speed = Distance ÷ Time
9: (a) Distance
Q1: Draw in your notebook the symbols to represent the following components of
electrical circuits: connecting wires, switch in the ‘OFF’ position, bulb, cell,
switch in the ‘ON’ position, and battery.
Answer:
Q2: Draw the circuit diagram to represent the circuit shown in Fig. below.
Q3: Fig.below shows four cells fixed on a board. Draw lines to indicate how you
will connect their terminals with wires to make a battery of four cells.
Answer: To obtain maximum voltage, cells are connected in series i.e. negative(-) end of
one cell is connected to positive (+) end of another cell and so on.
Q4: The bulb in the circuit shown in Fig.14.23 does not glow. Can you identify the
problem? Make necessary changes in the circuit to make the bulb glow.
Answer: In the circuit, cells are not connected properly i.e. (+ve) terminal is connected
to +ve terminal of another cell. To make the connection closed, the negative terminal of
first cell be connected to positive terminal of second cell, as shown below.
Q5: Name any two effects of electric current.
Answer:
Heating Effect of current: When an electric current passes through a wire, the
wire gets heated. This is known as the heating effect of current. It is used in many
applications like electric heater, electric ion, light bulb etc.
Magnetic Effect of current: When an electric current flows through a wire, it
produces magnetic effect around it. This effect is called magnetic effect of current. If the
current carrying wire is wrapped around a piece of iron, the iron piece acts as an
electromagnet. Magnetic Effect of electric current has many applications like power lift,
electric bell, electric fan etc.
Q6: When the current is switched on through a wire, a compass needle kept
nearby gets deflected from its north-south position. Explain.
Answer: The current carrying wire produces magnetic effect around it. It causes
deflection of magnetic needle. When the current is switched off, there is no magnetic
field produced by the wire, magnetic needle does not deflect from its north-south
position.
Q7: Will the compass needle show deflection when the switch in the circuit
shown by Fig. (below) is closed?
Answer: No the compass needle will not show deflection even though the switch is
closed, because there is no source of electric current. An electric cell or battery needs to
be connected here. In the absence of electric current, there is no magnetic field
produced by the wires. Hence there is no deflection.
(c) When current is switched ‘on’ in a room heater, it becomes hot due to heating
effect of electric current.
(d) The safety device based on the heating effect of electric current is called a fuse.
(a) To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the
negative terminal of the other cell. (F)✗
(b) When the electric current through the fuse exceeds a certain limit, the fuse wire
melts and breaks.(T)✓
Q10: Do you think an electromagnet can be used for separating plastic bags from
a garbage heap? Explain
Answer: An electromagnet acts like an ordinary magnet and it can attract iron pieces
only. Plastic does not have any magnetic property. Electromagnet cannot be used to
separate plastic bags from garbage heap.
Answer: Fuses are devices that safeguard our electrical appliances, wiring. They are
made up of special material which melt quickly and break when large electric currents
are passed through them.
If the electrician does not use proper fuse wire, instead he uses any ordinary electric
wire as fuse, it increases the risk of overheating of wires due to flow of excessive
current. It may lead to short circuit in electric equipments and these appliances may
catch fire. It is advised to use standard fuse wire or MCBs carrying ISI mark.
Q12: Zubeda made an electric circuit using a cell holder shown in Fig., a switch
and a bulb. When she put the switch in the ‘ON’ position, the bulb did not glow.
Help Zubeda in identifying the possible defects in the circuit.
Answer: Following can be the possible reasons:
1. The bulb may be fused due to broken element.
2. Cells are not connected properly i.e. +ve terminal of first cell should connect to -ve
terminal of the second one.
3. There may be loose connections. e.g. wire is not connected properly to switch or to
the bulb.
4. The switch is not functioning well.
5. The cells are dried up. The power of the cell i.e. chemical inside the cell which
produces electric current has been exhausted.
(i) Would any of the bulb glow when the switch is in the ‘OFF’ position?
(ii) What will be the order in which the bulbs A, B and C will glow when the switch
is moved to the ‘ON’ position?
Answer:
(i) None of the bulb will glow when the witch is in the OFF position, since the electric
circuit is not closed.
(ii) When the switch is moved to 'ON' position, circuit is complete and electric current will
flow immediately. All of the bulbs will glow instantly.
Q14: Why CFL is considered better than filament based electric bulb?
Answer: MCBs or Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs) are electric safety devices being
used in place of fuses. These are kind of switches which turns off (breaks electric
circuit) automatically when excessive current flows due to short circuit.
Q16: Name the scientist who discovered magnetic effect of the current.
Answer: Hans Christian Oersted was the first person who noticed the deflection of
compass needle every time, when the current was passed through the wire.
Q17: What are the reasons for excessive current flowing through a circuit?
Answer:
Short circuit: Due to faulty insulation or overheating, live wire comes in contact
with neutral wire.
Overloading: Many electric devices are connected beyond the capacity of electric
circuit.
Answer: Nichrome.
Answer: Tungsten.
Q21: What are the factors of conducting wire on which amount of heat produced
depends?
Answer: Ammeter.
Answer: An electric cell stores some chemicals and their chemical energy gets
converted to electrical energy.
Q25(MCQ): The unit to measure electric resistance is:
(a) Joule
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere
(d) Volt
(a) Resistor
(b) Battery
(c) Switch
(d) Ammeter
Answer: Many times the appliances like TV, air-conditioners or computers are switched
off using remote sets instead of mechanical switches. Instruments like mobiles can be
kept with plug connected even after complete charging. In these cases, appliances use
the power and there is a waste of electric energy. That is known as vampire power or
standby power.
................................................................................................
(a) Resistor
(b) Battery
(c) Switch
(d) Ammeter
(a) insulator
(b) electric bell
(c) resistor
(d) bar magnet
(a) switch
(b) connecting wires
(c) voltmeter
(d) ammeter
(a) fuse
(b) connecting wires
(c) resistors
(d) battery
Q6: Which of the following does not use magnetic effect of electric current?
(a) Newton
(b) Joule
(c) Oersted
(d) Ohm
Q8: The strength of the magnetic field due to a solenoid can be increased by
Q9: Which of the following is the best option while considering the safety of
household electric appliances?
Q10: Compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) are considered better than ordinary
electric bulbs because?
Answers:
1: (b) Ohm
2: (c) Switch
3: (d) bar magnet
4: (b) connecting wires
5: (a) fuse
6: (b) electric bulb
7: (c) Oersted
8: (b) increasing the number of turns in the solenoid
9: (c) We should use ISI marked MCBs
10: (c) both (a) and (b)
...........................................................................................................
.............
Answers:
1 a) virtual image
b) convex mirror
c) plane
d) real
e) concave lens
Question 4: Find out the letters of English alphabet or any other language known
to you in which the image formed in a plane mirror appears exactly like the letter
itself. Discuss your findings.
Q6: When you see yourself in the mirror, what type of image is formed?
Q9: We can see objects when the lighted reflected from the objects falls upon our
eyes. Why can't walls act as mirror even the light is reflected through walls and
reach our eyes?
Answer: In case of mirror, the reflected rays of light are parallel and reach our eyes.
That's why we can see objects through mirror or any shining surface. Walls surface are
rought and reflection of light is diffused. Due to which walls do not act as mirror.
Q10: Name the three important characteristics of the image formed by a plane
mirror.
Answer: A lateral inversion is reversal of image formed by a mirror, the left side of the
object is seen on the right side in the image, and right side of the object appears to be
on the left side in the image.
Q12: Real images form on the side of a mirror where the object is, and virtual
images form on the opposite side. Is the statement true or false?
Answer: True
Q13: My image is erect and is of the same size. What type of mirror I am looking
at?
Answer: Light is a form of energy, which produces the sensation of vision. It has
following characteristics:
Q16: Which type of spherical mirror is used as reflectors at sharp turns or blind
corners in big shopping malls or as rear-view mirrors in cars?
Answer: Concave mirror is called a converging mirror because parallel rays of light fall
on the mirror bends towards (converge at) a point called focus.
Answer: Convex mirror is called a diverging mirror because parallel rays of light fall on
it bend away (diverge) after reflection.
Q19: Identify a spherical lens which is thicker at the Center and thinner at edges.
Q20: Identify a spherical lens which is thinner at the Center and thicker at edges.
Answer: Concave lens
...........................................................................................................
....
Do you know a longer lasting rainbow? Read below to find the answer.
Q4: Which one of the following does NOT use concave mirror?
Q5: Which of the following is NOT the other name of convex mirror?
Q6: Which lens always gives an image which is upright, virtual and smaller than
the object?
Q7: When a Newton disc is rotated at good speed, the colours of the disc would
blend and gives
Q8: If angle of incidence of ray of light on a plane mirror is 30°, then angle of
reflection is _____.
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Answers:
1: (b) Light travels in straight line.
2: (b) travels in straight lines
3: (a) virtual images
4: (d) rear view mirror in cars
5: (c) converging mirror
6: (a) concave lens
7: (b) white colour
8: (a) 30°
9: (c) plane mirror
10: (b) Red, Green, Blue
.........................................................
Save Water
credits:openclipart
NCERT Solutions, Q & A
Answer: We celebrate water day every year to attract the attention of everybody
towards the
importance of conserving water.
Q3: How much much amount of water is recommended by UN for daily use by a
person?
Answer: The amount of water recommended by the United Nations for drinking,
washing, cooking and maintaining proper hygiene is a minimum of 50 litres per person
per day. This amount is about
two and a half buckets of water per person per day.
Q4: How much water in percentage is fit for human for consumption?
Answer: 0.006%
Answer:
(a) The freshwater stored in the ground is much more than that present in the rivers and
lakes of the world. (True ✓)
(b) Water shortage is a problem faced only by people living in rural areas. (False ✗)
Explanation: Water shortage problem is faced by both people living in rural and in urban
areas.
(c) Water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields. (False ✗)
Explanation: Rivers, Canals, Wells, Tubewells are main sources for irrigation.
Answer:
Answer: When we you dig a hole in the ground, we find moist soil at certain depth.
Soon, on further digging we reach a depth at which all space between the soil particles
and cracks in the rocks are filled with water. The upper limit of this depth is called the
water table.
Answer: At places the groundwater is stored between layers of hard rock below the
water table. This is known as an aquifer. Water in the aquifers can be usually pumped
out with the help of tube wells or hand pumps.
Answer: The rainwater and water from other sources such as rivers and ponds seeps
through the soil and fills the empty spaces and cracks deep below the ground. The
process of seeping of water into the ground is called infiltration. By this process of
infiltration, groundwater gets recharged.
Q12(NCERT): There are ten tubewells in a lane of fifty houses. What could be the
long term impact on the water table?
OR
Q: Can we keep on drawing water from under the ground? How will it affect the
water table?
Answer: Infiltration.
Q14: Why does the earth appear blue when seen from the space?
Answer: Three fourth of the earth surface is covered with water (in the form of seas and
oceans). The water absorbs all colours of the sunlight except blue. This blue light is
radiated back thus giving blue appearance.
Q15(NCERT): You have been asked to maintain a garden. How will you minimise
the use of water?
Q16(NCERT): Explain the factors responsible for the depletion of water table.
Answer: Factors responsible for the depletion of water table:
1. Increase in population
2. Increase in agricultural activities
3. Rapid Urbanization
4. Deforestation
5. Mismanagement of water resources.
6. Insufficient rainfall
Answer:
(a) People obtain groundwater through _wells__ and _tubewells__.
(b) Three forms of water are _solid__, _liquid__ and _gas/vapour__.
(c) The water bearing layer of the earth is _water table__.
(d) The process of water seepage into the ground is called _infiltration_.
Q18(NCERT): Which one of the following is not responsible for water shortage?
Q20(NCERT). Make a sketch showing groundwater and water table. Label it.
Answer:
Water Table
(image credits:openclipart)
Q21: See the water cycle in the figure below. Name the number labels as shown.
Answer:
➀ ground water
Agarsen ki Baoli at Delhi
it was constructed in 14th century
credits:wikipedia
➁ evaporation
➂ condensation
➃ clouds
➄ transpiration
➅ Infiltration
➆ precipitation
Answer: Baoli or Bawri is a structure which was used traditionally in India to store
rainwater and recharge groundwater. Now-a-days it is voiced to revive this practice as a
part of rain water harvesting.
.................................................................................
(a) aquifer
(b) pond
(c) water table
(d) surface water
Q4: Which of the following is the reason for depletion of water table?
(a) Planting more trees
(b) Heavy Rainfall
(c) Industrialization
(d) Rainwater harvesting
(a) 10%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 71%
Q7: The process of seeping of water into the ground is called _________
(a) evaporation
(b) infiltration
(c) transpiration
(d) none of these
Q8: Which one of the following is not responsible for water shortage?
(a) hydrosphere
(b) ionosphere
(c) atmosphere
(d) water park
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) none of these
Answer:
1: (b) underground water
2: (d) cutting trees to check water loss due to transpiration
3: (a) aquifer
4: (c) Industrialization
5: (b) Bawris
6: (d) 71%
7: (b) infiltration
8: (c) Heavy rainfall
9: (a) hydrosphere
10: (c) gas
........................................................
Q1: Explain how animals dwelling in the forest help it grow and regenerate.
Answer: Various types of animals (herbivores, carnivores, omnivores) live in forests and
contribute to food chain. Following animal activities show how animals help forest grow
and regenerate.
1. Animals help in dispersal of seeds and pollination of flowers.
2. Animals excreta and their dead bodies when mixed win soil act as manure
for the plants.
3. Micro organisms convert dead plants and leaves into humus which is rich
in nutrients. Humus in soil provide necessary minerals for plant growth.
Q2: Explain how forests prevent floods.
Answer: Forest acts as a natural absorber of rainwater and allows it to seep. When
rainwater falls on leaves of trees and plants, it does not fall directly on the ground. It
drips slowly on the forest ground and does not stagnate. Thus trees prevent flooding.
Water is able to seep through soil and recharge water table.
Q3: What are decomposers? Name any two of them. What do they do in the
forest?
Answer: Micro-organisms feed mainly on dead remains of plants and animals and
convert them into nutrient rich humus. These micro-organisms are called decomposers.
Bacteria and fungi are examples of decomposers.
Decomposers recycle and convert the dead matter into humus which mixes with forest
soil and provide necessary nutrients to plants. Thus decomposers help in maintaining
the necessary nutrient balance in the soil.
Q4: Explain the role of forest in maintaining the balance between oxygen and
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Answer: Forests play an important role in maintaining the balance between oxygen and
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Forests are called lungs. Animals during respiration
take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide. Plants take in carbon dioxide and release
oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. The plants help to provide oxygen for
animal respiration.
Q5: Explain why there is no waste in a forest.
Answer: Forests serve as green lungs and water purifying systems in nature. They are excellent, perfect
and natural recycling factories. All animals, whether herbivores or carnivores, depend ultimately on
plants for food. Herbivores eat plants and their products. Carnivores eat herbivores. Dead remains of
animals and plants are decomposed by micro-organisms into humus. Forests maintain a network of food
chains called food web and hence nothing goes waste in a forest.
Food Web
credits:wikipedia
Answer:
1. Fruits and Vegetables
2. Timber and wood
3. Turpentine, latex (used in manufacturing rubber)
4. Spices, resin, gum
5. Medicines (Tulsi, Neem, aloe vera etc.)
(d) The decaying leaves and animal droppings in a forest enrich the soil.
(f) Tall trees which look like roof over other plants in the forest is called canopy.
Q8: Why should we worry about the conditions and issues related to forests far
from us?
1. If there are no forests, there would be more floods and more soil erosion.
2. No forests means less oxygen in air and it will lead to global warming.
3. Forests are the dwelling of many animals. Deforestation will will endanger
our life and environment.
4. In the absence of trees and plants, the animals will not get food and
shelter.
5. Forests provide us large number of useful products including wood, fruits
and medicines. These products would not be available in the absence of trees
and plants.
Q9: Explain why there is a need of variety of animals and plants in a forest.
Answer: Variety of animals and plants living in forests build a rich biodiversity. This
biodiversity make forests more productive, stable and resilient. All animals (herbivores
and carnivores) depend on plants or their products directly or indirectly. If there is no
grass, all herbivores would die. If there are no carnivores, all herbivores would eat up all
the plants and there is shortage of food. If there are no decomposers, the dead remains
of plants and animals would pollute the environment. Due to such biodiversity a balance
in nature is maintained.
Q10: In Fig., the artist has forgotten to put the labels and directions on the
arrows. Mark the directions on the arrows and label the diagram using the
following labels:
clouds, rain, atmosphere, carbon dioxide, oxygen, plants, animals, soil, roots, water
table.
Answer:
Answer: (ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another.
................................................................................................................
MCQs
Q1: The covering of large trees that serve as a roof to shelter an area or other
plants in forests is called ___________.
(a) Canopy
(b) Crown
(c) Carnival
(d) none of these
(a) Consumers
(b) Producers
(c) Decomposers
(d) Herbivores
(a) Producers
(b) Herbivores
(c) Decomposers
(d) Carnivores
(a) Elephant
(b) Lion
(c) Fungi
(d) Tulsi
(a) Mango
(b) Rose
(c) Tulsi
(d) Timber
Q7: The branched part of a tree above the stem is called as ________.
(a) Crown
(b) Canopy
(c) Understorey
(d) Shrubs
(a) Dead and decaying matter enrich the soil of the forest.
(b) Interconnected network of food chain forms a food web.
(c) Animals excreta pollute forest soil.
(d) Forests are green lungs.
(a) human
(b) earth worm
(c) jelly fish
(d) all of these are animals
Answers:
1: (a) Canopy
2: (b) Photosynthesis
3: (b) Producers
4: (d) Carnivores
5: (c) Fungi
6: (c) Tulsi
7: (a) Crown
8: (c) Animals excreta pollute forest soil.
9: (c) Herbs
10: (d) all of these are animals
..............................................................................
Class 7/8/10 - Forests Our Life Line or Natural Resources - Importance of Forest
Resources (#cbsenotes)(#eduvictors)
NATURAL RESOURCES - IMPORTANCE OF FOREST RESOURCES
1. Ecological Balance
2. Renewable Natural Resources
3. Eco-system
4. Economic Development
5. Environment Quality
6. Safeguard against Pollution
7. Soil Conservation
8. Wind and Soil Erosion
9. Check the Extension Balance
10. Maintains Ecological Balance
11. Attracts Rainfall
12. Control Floods
13. Connects to our Cultural and Civilization
14. Supply of Raw Material
1. Ecological Balance:
Forests and wildlife are essential to maintain ecological balance of an area.
3. Eco-system:
Forests are the homes for various species - a complete self sustaining ecosystem; their
species content varieties in different parts of the world.
4. Economic Development:
Forest contributes to the economic development of the country because they provide
goods and services to the people and industry.
5. Environment Quality:
The forest enhances the quality of environment by influencing the life supporting
system.
7. Soil Conservation:
Forest save the hill-slopes from landslides.
8. Wind Erosion:
In deserts, trees reduce wind erosion by checking wind velocity.
9. Check the Extension Balance:
The forest checks strong gales and keeps the soil intact beneath the roots of trees and
thus checks extension of desert.
....................................................................................
Answer:
(f) Septic tanks, chemical toilets, composting pits are the examples of low-cost sewage
disposal systems.
Answer: Sewage is a liquid waste. It consists of waste water from houses, offices,
factories, hospitals etc. It has a complex mixture containing suspended solids, organic
and inorganic impurities, nutrients, saprotrophic and disease-causing bacteria and other
microbes.
If the untreated sewage is discharged into rivers and seas, it will pollute the water
resources. It will also harm the aquatic life and spread many diseases like cholera,
typhoid, polio, meningitis, malaria, dengue etc.
Q3: Why should oils and fats be not released in the drain? Explain.
Answer: Cooking oil and fats should not be thrown down the drain. They can harden
and block the pipes. In an open drain, the fats clog the soil pores reducing its
effectiveness in filtering water.
Oil and fats should be thrown in the dustbin.
Q4: Fill up the mind map to show different uses of clean water.
Answer:
Answer:
Q7: Describe the steps involved in getting clarified water from wastewater.
Answer: Treatment of wastewater involves physical, chemical, and biological processes,
which remove physical, chemical and biological matter that contaminates the
wastewater.
2. Grit and Sand Removal: Water then goes through Grit and Sand removal tank,
where sand, grit and pebbles settle down.
3. 1st Clarifier Tank: Water is then allowed to settle in a tank where solids like faeces
(called sludge) settle at the bottom and are removed with a scraper. A skimmer
removes the floatable solids
like oil and grease. Water so cleared is called clarified water. Sludge is used to produce
biogas.
4. Aerator: Clarified water is then passed through an aerator tank where the air is
pumped into the water. It helps aerobic bacteria to grow which decompose organic
matter like human waste.
5. 2nd Clarifier Tank: After several hours, the suspended microbes settle at the bottom
of the tank
as activated sludge. The water is then removed from the top. The dried activated sludge
is used as manure.
6. Chlorination: Water is removed from the top and is stored in a tank. The treated water has a low
level of organic material and suspended matter. It is discharged into a sea, a river or into the ground.
Sometimes it is disinfected through chemicals like Chlorine and ozone and then distributed to towns.
Bird View of Water Treatment Plant
(source:wikipedia)
image credits: Bird View of Water Treatment Plant"
von: Martina Nolte, Lizenz: Creative Commons BY-SA-3.0 de
Q8: What is sludge? Explain how it is treated.
Answer: Sludge is a human waste (like faeces) in waste water left during sewage
treatment. Since it is an organic waste, it is used to produce biogas and manure.
After the aerator tank, microbes and human waste settle down and form activated
sludge. The activated sludge is about 97% water. The water is removed by sand drying
beds or machines. Dried sludge is used as manure, returning organic matter and
nutrients to the soil.
Answer: Human excreta is home for many pathogens and disease-causing microbes. If
left untreated, it will cause a threat to public health. Many water-borne diseases like
cholera, diarrhea, typhoid,
polio, meningitis, hepatitis and dysentery are caused due to faecal-route. It may cause
water pollution and soil pollution. Both the surface water and groundwater get polluted.
Q10: Name two chemicals used to disinfect water.
Answer: Chemicals like chlorine and ozone are commonly used to disinfect water.
Answer: Wastewater is passed through bar screens. Large objects like rags, sticks,
cans, plastic packets, napkins are removed.
Answer: Poor sanitation and contaminated drinking water is the cause of a large
number of diseases.
Poor sanitation leads to:
growth of harmful microbes, flies and mosquitoes. Hence spread of many
diseases like cholera, typhoid, polio, meningitis, hepatitis and dysentery.
pollution of soil and water.
Answer:
Answer: The skimmer removes the floatable solids like oil and grease.
Answer: Sludge is decomposed by the action of anaerobic bacteria. During this process
biogas is produced which is used as fuel or can be used to produce electricity.
Q21: Why it is suggested to grow eucalyptus trees all along sewage ponds?
Answer: Eucalyptus trees absorb all surplus wastewater rapidly and release pure water
vapour into the atmosphere.
Answer: Cooking oil and fats harden and block the pipes. In an open drain the fats clog
the soil pores
reducing its effectiveness in filtering water. Wastes like used tealeaves, solid food
remains, soft toys, cotton, sanitary towels etc. choke the drains. They do not allow free
flow of oxygen. This hampers the degradation process.
..............................................................................
Q1: The light materials which float during waste water treatment is
(a) sludge
(b) scum
(c) sewerage
(d) biogas
(a) sludge
(b) biogas
(c) both biogas and sludge
(d) none of these
(a) gastroenteritis
(b) malaria
(c) flu
(d) none of these
(a) clarifier
(b) aeration tank
(c) vertical bars
(d) all of these
(a) Solid wastes such as tea leaves and soft toys should be thrown in dustbin.
(b) Chemicals like paints and medicines should not be thrown in sink.
(c) Cooking oil should be thrown down in the wash basin.
(d) Polythene bags should not be thrown in the drains.
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 79%
(d) 97%
Q7: Which of the following trees should be grown nearby sewage ponds?
Q8: Which of the following is an example of low cost onsite sewage disposal
system?
Q9: Sewage is a _______ waste which causes which causes water and soil
pollution.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) all of these
Answers:
1: (b) scum
2: (c) both biogas and sludge
3: (a) gastroenteritis
4: (d) all of these
5: (c) Cooking oil should be thrown down in the wash basin.
6: (d) 97%
7: (a) Eucalyptus trees
8: (d) all of these
9: (b) liquid
10: (b) anaerobic bacteria
.......................................................................................
(a) Bread
(b) Pulses
(c) Fish
(d) Green Vegetables
Q5: Weight-lifters are generally required to make more muscles and body mass.
For this purpose, they need to take a diet which is rich in
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
(d) Proteins
Q8: Which one of the following pairs of life processes occurs both in plants and
animals?
(a) Reproduction and food making
(b) Reproduction and germination
(c) Growth and reproduction
(d) Growth and food making
Q9: In which of the following phases is the moon not visible at all?
(a) Pliers
(b) Bottle opener
(c) Scissors
(d) Tweezers
Q13: Mira and Divya are young girls. Mira likes to eat samosas, cutlets and
bread. Divya, on the other hand, takes an iron deficient diet. Which of the
following disorders are Mira and Divya likely to suffer from, respectively?
(a) Femur
(b) Humerus
(c) Spinal Cord
(d) Calf bone
Q15: A farmer wanted to separate the grains from the chaff. This can be achieved
by the process called
(a) Threshing
(b) Winnowing
(c) Harvesting
(d) Handpicking
Answers:
................................................................................................
To view the website you need a browser supports HTML5 and WebGL. Chrome
supports these. I think you need to install plugins in Firefox and IE9+. You need a
broadband connection to view the site. No doubt it has been the award winning site.
You may watch the introduction video.
Attributions: BioDigitalHuman
..................................................................................................................
Q3: By taking the pulse rate of the human body, a doctor determines
a. heartbeat
b. functioning of heart valves
c. condition of lever
d. functioning of lungs
Q10. The smallest thing that can cause disease in the human body is
a. flea
b. bacteria
c. protozoa
d. virus
Answers: 1-b 2-a 3-a 4-c 5-d 6-a 7-a 8-d 9-b 10-d
11-c 12-a 13-c 14-a 15-b
(a) Yak
(b) Camel
(c) Goat
(d) Woolly dog
(a) tongue
(b) tentacle
(c) pseudopodium
(d) radula
Q5: A solution turns red litmus paper blue. If a drop of phenolphthalein is added
to it.
(a) alcohol
(b) lactic acid
(c) water
(d) carbon dioxide
Answers:
1: (b) Stomata
3: (c) pseudopodium
..................................................................
CBSE Class 7 - Science Quiz (2016)
SCIENCE QUIZ
Q1: The vessels which carry carbon dioxide rich blood from all parts of the body
back to the heart are called
(a) Veins
(b) Arteries
(c) Capillaries
(d) Valves
Q2: There are some chemicals secreted by an insect to attract attention of other
members of species. These are called
(a) vitamins
(b) hormones
(c) fibronin
(d) pheromones
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane
Q4: What do we call the network of several food chains connecting each other?
Q5: Nagma was playing basketball with her team mates. Just after the game her
pulse rate will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains same
(d) none of these
Q6: While manufacturing heaters, electric irons etc. nichrome is used as element
(or filament) because it offers
Q8: Sakshi visited her friend who was on dialysis in the hospital. Which organ of
Sakshi's friend was not working well?
(a) Heart
(b) Brain
(c) Eyes
(d) Kidney
Q9: Anil used a fuse as a safety device in the electrical circuit to prevent from
short circuit. It melts at about 200° C. Which alloy is used to make it?
(a) Pyrometer
(b) Seismograph
(c) Barometer
(d) Ammeter
Q12: The image of an object formed using the convex side of a steel spoon is
___________
Q13: On a very hot day, a girl has two choices for her dress, one lemon colour
dress and another dark brown colour dress. She wore lemon colour dress to
prevent _____ of heat.
(a) radiation
(b) absorption
(c) reflection
(d) refraction
Q14: A storm has drk funnel shaped cloud reached the ground from the sky and
sucked dust, debris and all other things on its way. Such a storm is called
(a) Thunderstorm
(b) Tornado
(c) Cyclone
(d) Tsunami
Q15: To keep a very low temperature, dry ice is used. It is solid _________
(a) hydrogen
(b) water
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) air
(a) EGGMARK
(b) ISI
(c) FICCI
(d) KSK
(a) Paper
(b) Thermocol
(c) Matchstick
(d) Plywood
Answers:
1: (a) Veins
2: (d) pheromones
3: (a) Methane
4: (a) Food Web
5: (a) increase
6: (a) high resistance
7: (b) chemical change
8: (d) Kidney
9: (a) Zinc and Tin
10: (a) convex mirror
11: (c) Barometer
12: (a) erect and smaller
13: (b) absorption
14: (b) Tornado
15: (c) carbon dioxide
16: (b) ISI
17: (a) Arteries except pulmonary artery
18: (c) Heavy Rainfall
19: (b) Thermocol
20: (c) creating flood conditions
...........................................................................................................