PAEDIATRICS MID-POSTING EXAMS (BATCH A)

1. Infective endocarditis
a. Commonly associated with ASD F
b. Commonly associated with structural defect with low tubulent flow T
c. Splenomegaly is uncommon F
d. Commoner in less than 5yrs than in adults T
e. Microscopic hematuria is a common lab findings T
2. Concerning VSD
a. Left to right shunt increases the risk of cerebral abscess F
b. Pan systolic murmur which is loudest at the mitral area F
c. The systolic murmur increases with pulmonary HTN T
d. Risk of Iron deficiency anaemia F
3. Concerning the catarrhal phase of pertussis
a. Frequently prolonged episode of cough F
b. Paroxysmal whoop F
c. Blotted eye F
d. Stringy sputum F
e. Inspiratory whoop F
4. Concerning bronchopneumonia
a. Staph aureus T
b. Strept pneumo T
c. Adenovirus T
d. Rhinovirus T
e. GBS in toddlers F
5. Varicella infection
a. Is an RNA virus F
b. Incubation period is 11-21days T
c. May occur in newborn babies T
6. Tetanus spasm is stimulated by
a. Noise T
b. Touch T
c. Constant intensity of light F
d. Change of posture T
e. Draught of air T
7. The vaccine for protection of acute epiglottitis
a. Pneumococcal
b. Hib
c. DTap
 d. Influenza
e. Measles
8. These are gram negative cocci
a. Bordettela pertusis F
b. H. influenza F
c. S. aureus F
d. Neisseria meningitis T
e. E.coli F
9. Iron deficiency anaemia
a. Brittleness of the nail
b. Growth retardation
c. Hepatosplenomegaly
d. Poor concentration
e. Severe anaemia
10. The following are typical of Erb’s palsy
a. Always a defect as a result of T1 and T2 F
b. Inability to feel sensation on the affected limb F
c. Due to inadequate obstetric delivery T
d. Usually as a result of breech delivery F
e. In this patient the forearm is proned and fingers are flexed F
11. Generalized muscle ache is most severe is what stage of polio
a. Incubation period as a result of rapid dividing viral cells
b. Abortive stage
c. Non-paralytic
d. Paralytic
e. In apparent
12. Features of congenital rubella syndrome
a. Blindness T
b. Deafness T
c. Patent ductus arteriosus T
d. Ventricular septal defect F
e. Hydrocephalus F
13. Which of the following are typical causative agents of bronchopneumonia
a. GBS in toddlers F
b. Adenovirus T
c. Rhinovirus T
d. Strept pneumonia T
e. Staph aureus T
14. Clavicular fracture in newborn in evident in
a. 3days
b. 5days
c. 7days
d. 10days
e. 14days
15. A patient was said to have sudden loss of consciousness lasting about 10-20secs. This
was said to have affected his performance at school. The patient had
a. Grand mal
b. Petit mal
c. Infantile spasm
d. Breath holding spells
e. Simple partial seizures
16. Child of 2years, 11kg, PCV is 12%
a. IV fluid are given
b. Serum E,U,Cr is needed
c. Give frusemide to decrease work load
d. Give dextrose…..
e. ..
17. Acute lysis syndrome
a. Hyperkalaemia T
b. Hypouricaemia F
c. Metabolic alkalosis F
d. Hypocalcemia T
18. Right to left shunt
a. ASD F
b. PDA F
c. Partial anomalous PVD F
d. Ebsten anomaly F
e. TOF T
f.
19. Exanthema of measles
a. Fleeting of small papules, macules and vesicles F
b. Presence of papules, macules and large vesicles simultaneously F
c. Presence of dusty-red maculopapular rash T
d. Conglomeration of papules, macules and vesicles F
20. Infectivity period of varicella
a. 1 week before appearance of exanthema to 1 week after
 b. 24hrs before appearance of exanthema and crusting of the last lesion
c. From appearance to one day after
d. From appearance of the 1st lesion to the appearance of the last lesion
e. From appearance of the 1st lesion of the disappearance of the last lesion
21. A 2year old child was brought to the emergency, on acct of passage of watery stool
and vomiting of 2days, he was restless, irritable and skin retract about 1sec after
pinching
a. He has some dehydration T
b. Ringers lactate should be given at 20ml/kg immediately F
c. Assessment of electrolyte and creatinine should be done T
d. ORS is the treatment of choice T
e. Zinc is given to protect further occurrence for 2-3months T
22. A 3year old child was brought to emergency by her grandmother on account of
failure to gain weight. He was pale, had spoon shaped nails with bilateral pitting
edema. Weight is 7.5kg, height is 80cm.
a. Scurvy F
b. Iron deficiency T
c. Vitamin D def. F
d. Kwashiorkor T
e. Stunting T
23. Parvovirus is more indicated in the following
a. Acute splenic sequestration
b. Functional asplenia
c. Aplastic crises
d. Recurrent hemolytic crises
e. Vasooclusive crises
24. About burkit lymphoma
a. Commoner in people near sea level T
b. It shows high propensity for the mandible than the maxilla F
c. This is associated with loosening of tooth T
d. There is loss of dental lamina dura on physical examination F
e. It is poorly treated with cyclophosphamide F
25. Features not typical of bronchiolitis
a. Cough
b. Temp of 40C
c. Coryza
d. Wheezing
e. Crepitation
26. Tracheotomy is required in
a. Diphtheria T
b. Acute epiglottitis T
c. Inhalated foreign body T
d. Ludwig angina T
e. Inhalational pneumonitis F
27. Unilateral absence of moro reflex is found in the following
a. Severe birth asphyxia F
b. Clavicle fracture T
c. Erb’s palsy T
d. Humerus fracture T
e. Shoulder dislocation T
28. Which of the following is most implicated in bronchiolitis
a. H.inflenza
b. Strept pneuma
c. Rotal virus
d. RSV
e. Rhinovirus
29. A 10month old child presents with fever, cough and labored breathing. On
examination there was subcostal and intercostals recession and wheezing. The likely
disease is
a. Bronchial asthma F
b. Inspiratory volume is a little less than expiratory volume F
c. Hyper-inflated lung fields on radiograph T
d. Dull percussion note F
e. Vocal fremitus is reduced T
30. This is more associated with lobar pneumonia than bronchopneumonia
a. Occurs in adolescent T
b. Bronchial breath sound T
c. Chest painT
d. More virulent organism T
31. Causes of heart failure in neonatal periods are
a. Severe birth asphyxia F
b. Bronchopneumonia T
c. Small VSD F
d. TGA T
32. Clinical features of PDA are
a. Small pulse F
 b. Wide pressure T
c. Small pressure F
d. L-R shunt T
33. Which is the correct sequence
a. Congestion, red hepatization, gray hepatization, and resolution,,,.,
b. ,,.
34. Abortive poliomyelitis symptoms present with
a. Stiffness of the neck F
b. Back muscle ache F
c. Abdominal pain T
d. Sore throat T
e. Spinal rigidity F
35. Congenital rubella syndrome present with
a. Cataract T
b. Deafness T
c. PDA T
d. Microcephaly T
e. Mental retardation T
36. First stage of vitamin A defiency
a. Bitot spot
b. Corneal xerosis
c. Nyctalopia
d. Conjunctival xerosis
e. Corneal ulceration
37. Risk factors for necrotizing enterocolitis
a. Hypertonic milk/drugs T
b. Too rapid increase in volume of feed T
c. Polycythaemia T
d. Birth asphyxia T
e. Infection T

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PAEDIATRICS END OF POSTING EXAMS(BATCH A)

38. a 3wk old jaundiced infant has a total bilirubin of 164umol(40umol/l conjugated), AST
level 140u/l and ALT activity of 502u/l. differential include
a. breast milk jaundice T
 b. neonatal hepatitis T
c. hypothyroidism T
d. galactosemia F
e. phenylketonuria F
39. concerning childhood obesity
a. most common cause of malnutrition in developing countries F
b. BMI is usually calculated with ratio of body fluid and energy F
c. Associated with type II DM T
d. Usually seen in cushings syndrome T
40. Which of the following has female preponderance
a. VSD T
b. ASD T
c. TOF F
d. AVSD T
e. PDA T
41. Which of the following is a risk factor for infective endocardittis
a. ASD T
b. VSD T
c. TOF T
d. AVSD T
e. PDA T
42. Radiological findings of NEC
a. Portal vein gas T
b. Air under diaphragm T
c. Pneumonic changes F
d. Pneumotosis intestinalis T
e. Ascites F
43. Features of idiophatic respiratory distress syndrome
a. Respiratory rate <40cpm F
b. Central cyanosis T
c. Expanded lung fields with fluid in horizontal fissures F
d. Low PO2 T
e. Metabolic alkalosis T
44. Concerning sickle cell disease
a. There is congenital asplenia F
b. Sequestration crises will lead to fuctional asplenia F
c. Shock is as a result of sequestration crises T
d. There is abdominal pain T
 e. Emergency splenectomy is needed F
45. Causes of apnea in the newborn are
a. Preterm T
b. Hypoxia T
c. Hypoglycemia T
d. Idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome T
46. Autonomic dysfunction in tetanus are
a. Tachycardia T
b. Arryhythmia T
c. Excessive sweating T
d. Generalized spasm F
e. SIADH F
47. Concerning EBT
a. It is used for congenital hyperbilirubinaemia
b. Umbilical artery is used
c. Double volume EBT is used to acute to correct anaemia
48. Following are used in the treatment of acute bronchiolitis
a. Steam inhalation T
b. Amoxicillin
c. Nebulized salbutamol T
d. Intranasal oxygen T
e. Ribavirin T
49. Which of the following predisposes to bronchiolitis

a. Young children at child care facilities T

b. Exposure to cigarette smoke T
c. Low socioeconomic status of living T
d. Primary school attendance F
e. Reduction in the duration of breastfeeding T

50. The following diseases have no intermediate host

a. Malaria F
b. Yellow fever F
c. Rubella T
d. Rubeola T
e. Varicella T

51. The following statements are true

a. Stunting is reduced weight for age F
b. Wasting is reduced height for age F
c. Malnutrition led to decrease in height before weight loss F
d. OFC is preserved in mild to moderate malnutrition T
e. MAC changes are not significant in ages 1-5 F

52. The following are feature found in a preterm

a. Abundance of lanugo hair T
b. Prominent labia minora in the female T
c. Presence of hyperpigmented scrotal male F
d. Transparent skin T
e. Long fingernails F

53. The following antibacterial drugs are bacteriostatic

a. Ciprofloxacin F
b. Gentamycin T
c. Amoxicillin F
d. Ceftriaxone F
e. Sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim F

54. The following features predispose to G6PD deficiency except

a. Favabeans F
b. Naphthalene F
c. Amoxicillin T
d. Quinine F
e. Co-trimazole F

55. Findings in chronic renal failure due to glomerulonephritis

a. Increase serum creatinine T
b. Fluid challenge at 20ml/kg of normal saline
c. Increase serum PH F
d. Metabolic alkalosis F
e. Increase serum phosphate T

56. Complications of chemotherapy

a. Polycythemia F
b. Hyperkalemia T
c. Hypouricaemia F
d. Thrombocytopaenia T
e. Leucocytosis F

57. About malignancy in the tropics

a. Are common cause of morbidity and mortality than infectious disease F
b. Leukaemia are commoner than solid tumours F
c. Prevelance is difficult to ascertain due to poor record F
d. Exposure to irradiation F
e. Tumour suppressor gene deviation is implicated T

58. Causes of bilateral parotid swelling

a. Mumps T
b. AIDs T
c. Tuberculosis T
d. Endomyocardial fibrosis T

59. Treatment options in acute bronchiolitis include

a. Steam inhalation T
b. Nebulized salbutamol T
c. Amoxicillin F
d. Intranasal oxygen T
e. Ribavirin T

60. 7th months old child

a. Sit without support T
b. Imitate F
c. Pincer grasp T
d. Say one word F
e. Wave bye bye F
61. Induction of emesis is indicated in the following situation
a. Caustic soda poisoning F
b. Kerosene poisoning F
c. Paracetamol poisoning T
d. Aspirin poisoining T
e. Iron poisoning T
62. The following are live attenuated vaccine
a. BCG T
b. Diphtheria toxoid F
c. Polio T
 d. Measles T
e. Hepatitis B F
63. About acute rheumatic fever
a. Synonymous to rheumatic heart diseaseF
b. Previous history of rheumatic fever is needed for diagnosis T
c. Latent period of 2-6months in isolated cases of chorea T
d. Strept pharyngitis 1-5weeks( or 3wks) before onset of symptions T
e. Previous history of strept. Pharyngitis is absent in about 30% of cases T
64. Chronic renal failure secondary to AGN leads the reduction in the following
a. PH T
b. HCO3 T
c. Ca T
d. Cr F
e. K F
65. Massive proteinuria in nephritic syndrome
a. Hypertention F
b. Edema T
c. Cardiac failure T
d. Increased risk of thrombosis T
e. Increased risk of infection T
66. Drugs to take home
a. Spironolactone
b. Digoxin
c. Frusemide
d. Propanolol
67. Possible complications of TOF
a. Congestive cardiac failure T
b. Cerebrovascular accident T
c. Eissemenger syndrome F
d. Sepsis T
e. Hypothyroidism F
68. Sickle cell disease manifestation of the kidney include all except
a. Hypersthenuria T
b. Papillary necrosis F
c. Microscopic hematuria F
d. Nocturnal enuresis F
e. Nephrotic syndrome F
69. The causes of systemic HTN in childhood are the following except
 a. Obesity F
b. Pronged use of steroid F
c. Coarctation of aorta F
d. Acute GN F
e. Tetralogy of fallot F
70. Intusussception
a. <6months is common T
b. Visible peristalsis T
c. Common in undernourished F
d. Red currant jelly stool T
e. Increased bowel sounds T
71. A 10year old boy with seizure which last for 5-10seconds, progressive poor school
performance, which of these can be given.
a. Ettusisumide T
b. Carbamazipine F
c. Sodium valproate T
d. Phenytion F
e. Phenobarbitone F

PAEDIATRIC MID-POSTING EXAMS (BACTH B)

1. Which of the following can be given orally

a. Sabin T
b. Rotavirus T
c. Hib F
d. Pneumococcus F
e. Measles F
2. Systemic heart failure can occur in the following
a. VSD T
b. ASD T
c. PDA T
d. TOF T
3. Moderate asphyxia
a. 6
b. 4-5
c. 0-3
d. 7
4. The constant feature in down syndrome
 a. Simon crease
b. Hypotonia
c. Clinadactyl
d. Protruded abdomen
5. Tetanus
a. Caused by gram negative organism F
b. Metronidazole is one of the treatment T
c. Varying intensity of light, noise and touch stimulate spasm T
6. Pertusis
a. It is a pyogenic disease F
b. Paroxysmal stage can be prevented by using erythromycin T
c. It is vaccine preventable T
7. The following will cause prolonged jaundice in the new born
a. Down’s syndrome T
b. Hypothyroidism T
c. UTI T
d. Galactosemia T
8. The following will cause hypokalaemic alkalosis
a. Diarrhoea with vomiting T
b. Infantile pyloric stenosis F
c. DKA F
d. Aspirin poisoning F
e. Steroid therapy F
9. Haematuria
a. Hypercalcuria T
b. Sickle cell disease T
10. Which of the following drugs is not hepatotoxic
a. Rifampicin
b. Thiacetazone
c. Streptomycin
d. Isoniazid
e. Pyrazinamide
11. Which is higher in breast milk than cow milk
a. Protein F
b. Lactose T
c. Sodium F
d. Calcium F
e. Phosphate F
 12. In hemorrhagic disease of newborn
a. The PT is prolonged T
b. The PTTK is normal F
c. Fibrin degradation produce is normal T
d. Platelets are reduced F
e. Factor V is reduced F
13. Concerning ankle clonus
a. Dorsiflesx and plantarflex and observe the reaction
b. Dorsiflex and observe the reaction
c. Dorsiflex and hold in place to observe what happen
d. Use the reflex hammer to hit the achille’s tendon and observe what happen
14. Haemorrhagic disease of newborn
a. Platelet is reduced
b. Prolomged PT
c. Decreased PTTK
d. Fibrinogen is reduced
e. Factor v is reduced
15. Lower motor neuron lesion of left facial nerve
a. The mouth is drawn to the right side T
b. Loss of wrinkling of the forehead T
c. Inability to close the left upper eyelid T
d. Patient is unable to talk clearly T
16. Hemophilia A
a. It is autosomal recessive F
b. It can bleed into large joint T
c. It does not affect girls F
d. It is due to deficient of factor xi F
e. Normal platelet count T
17. Concerning NEC
a. Pcv of 25 F
b. Pcv of 70 T
c. Prematurity T
d. Hypertonic milk T
e. EBT T
18. Hepatitis A
a. Can be contracted through bood and blood product T
b. There is vaccine to it T
c. It is usually asymptomatic T
d. Common with children with hemodialysis T
19. Corncerning diagnosis of UTI
a. Nitrite is positive T
b. Presence of hyaline cast
c. Organism in centrifugated mid stream urine F
d. History of vomit T
e. 3-5 wbc per mm3 F
20. In the nephrotic syndrome complication include
a. Hypertension F
b. Primary peritonitis T
c. Increased plasma immunoglobulin F
d. Hypocomplementamia F
e. Peak age of incidence is 2-3 years T
21. Perinatal mortality
a. Denominator is total live birth
b. Total number of birth from age of viability
c. Death after 28 days of life
d. Improvement of neonatal care will reduce the rate
22. Why are sickle cell patient prone to infection
a. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
b. Autosplenectomy
c. Low serum iron
d. Inefficient opsonization
23. NEC
a. Gestatinal age of 36 weeks T
b. Anaemia F
c. Pcv of 70 T
d. Low apgar score T
e. Umbilical catherization T
24. Physiological jaundice
a. Starts on the 3rd day of life T
b. Greater in preterm than in term neonatal T
c. Increase 1-2mg/day T
d. Phototherapy is the treatment T
25. A 2 yr old 11kg , lethargic ,restless, sucken eyeball and reduced urinary output
a. Give 75ml/kg ORS T
b. 20ml/kg of ringers lactate for first 30mins F
c. Give 100ml/kg of ringer’s lactate for 3hrs F
 d. Give zn when going home to reduce frequency F
26. Ca=2

Phosphate=0.8

Na=140

K=4

PTH=

Urea

Diagnosis

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Antitrypsin deficiency
c. Rickets
27. What other investigation will you do
a. x-ray of wrist
b. LDH
c. LFT
d. Calcitonin
e. Thyroid function test

Best option

28. A child is
a. 0-5 yrs
b. 0-6yrs
c. 0-12yrs
d. 0-16yrs
e. 0-18yrs
29. Which of the anti TB drug is not hepatotoxic
a. Rifampicin
b. Parazinamide
c. Isoniazid
d. Streptomycin
30. Haemophilia A
a) it is autosomal recessive
b) cannot occur in female
c) factor IX deficiency
 d) bleeding can occur into large joints
e) platelets can be reduced
31. A normal 1 year old boy
a) Can climb staircase F
b) Can feed himself with cup and spoon F
c) Can make two word phrase T
d) Can walk F
e) Get dry during the day F
32. Burkitt’s lymphoma
a) It is a T Lymphocyte F
b) Translocation is between 8 and 2 T
c) Affects more female than male F
d) It is highly chemosensitive T
e) It is rapidly dividing T
33. Infertile spasm
a) Phenobarbitone is the drug of choice F
b) EEG trading is a spiky wave form
c) It has a good prognosis
34. Children
a) 0-5
b) 0-18
c) 0-12
d) 3-9
35. Cardinal feature of heart failure
a) Tachypnoea T
b) Non tender hepatomegaly F
c) Oedema F
36. A boy with cyanosis first noticed at a month, always squatting, woke up that
morning crying and was noticed to be blue.
What condition is this?
a) VSD
b) ASD
c) PDA
d) TOF
e) TAVPD
37. Which of the following is not indicated in the treatment
a) Oxygen
b) Morphine
c) Iv fluids
d) Propanolol
e) Antibiotics
38. Which of the following will be given when going home
a) Frusemide
b) Digoxine
c) Propranolol
d) Spironolactone
39. Lobar pneumonia
a) Tactile fremitus and vocal resonance are accentuated T
b) Organism are less virulent F
c) Percussion note is hyper-resonance F
40. ASD
a) Diastolic murmur T
b) Systolic murmur during rapid ventricular filling F
c) Flow over the less turbulent
d) Ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border T
e) Fixed wide split S2 T
41. Concerning TOF
a) Full blood count
b) Chest radiograph
c) ECG
d) Echocardiograph
e) CT scan