RF REVIEW CENTER PERIODIC EXAM 6

Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following 17. The output of a balance modulator is
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box A. DSB-FC C. SSB-FC
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. B. DSB-RC D. DSB-SC*
PART I. ELECTRONICS SYSTEM AND TECHNOLOGY
18. One of the following is a disadvantage of the VSB system.
1. In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the ___________ signal A. it conserves bandwidth
is varied according to the shape of the _________ signal. B. it results in a power boost of low video frequencies *
A. carrier; modulated C. intelligence, carrier C. it overcome the problem of low video frequency attenuation
B. intelligence; modulating D. carrier, baseband* D. it is neither a DSB system nor an SSB system

2. The speed of sound is the same with the speed of light in ________. 19. Typical gain of Yagi Uda antenna is about:
A. free space C. gases A. 5 dB C. 15 dB
B. water D. vacuum B. 10 dB* D. 20 dB

3. In amplitude modulation, which of the following baseband signal 20. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10
parameters is constant? m away. At this distance, what is the sound power?
A. Frequency C. Amplitude A. 0.36 W C. 0.74 W
B. Shape D. all of the above* B. 0.63 W* D. 0.96 W

4. The bandwidth of a DSB-FC signal is _________ the bandwidth of 21. The biggest advantage of VSB system is _____.
a DSB-SC signal. A. that it conserves bandwidth and overcomes the problem of low
A. less than C. equal to* video frequency attenuation *
B. greater than D. can be A or B B. lesser power requirement
C. its bandwidth conservation
5. Which of the following uses less bandwidth? D. simplicity of transmitter circuitry
A. DSB-RC C. DSB-FC
B. SSB-FC* D. all of the above 22. The purpose of oscillator in the AM transmitter is to _____.
A. provide modulating signal
6. Which of the following uses most power? B. provide carrier signal *
A. H3E* C. R3E C. provide enough power to meet transmission system requirement
B. J3E D. all of the above D. provide a stabilizing signal for the AGC

7. A church has an interval volume of 90.05ft3, when it contains 2,000 23. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency
customary sabins of absorption, what is the reverberation time? range?
A. 0.19 s C. 2.19 s* A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz C. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 1.19 s D. 3.19 s B. 3 to 30 MHz * D. Above 300 MHz

8. The portion of the original carrier power retained in R3E modulation 24. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft. high. The receiving
technique is: antenna is 200 ft. high. The minimum transmission distance is
A. 5% C. 15% A. 20 mi C. 38.7 mi
B. 10%* D. 20% B. 33.2 mi D. 53.2 mi *

9. Which of the following technique has no carrier? 25. What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere?
A. Conventional AM C. H3E A. Sun spot C. Galactic disturbance
B. A3E D. J3E* B. Cosmic rays D. Ultraviolet radiation *

10. In a superheterodyne receiver 26. Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths
A. the IF stage has better selectivity than RF stage* A. Space diversity* C. Hybrid diversity
B. the RF stage has better selectivity than IF stage B. Frequency diversity D. Polarization diversity
C. the RF stage has same selectivity than IF stage
D. none of the above 27. You are at the party and talking with a group of people. They all
produce sound levels of the same magnitude at your position. The
11. What is the maximum range for a groundwave propagation combined level when all four talks is 70 dB. What is the individual
operating at 1.8 MHz? SIL?
A. 10 mi C. 100 mi A. 60 dB C. 68 dB
B. 50 mi D. 150 mi* B. 64 dB* D. none of the above

12. Which of the following is present in both TRF receiver and 28. Good grounding is important for
superheterodyne receiver? A. Horizontal antennas C. Vertical antennas *
A. Detector * C. IF amplifier B. Broadside array antennas D. Yagi-Uda antennas
B. Mixer D. Local oscillator
29. What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when
13. The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiation is it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
A. A figure – 8 C. A sphere * A. 6.0 dB C. 3.9 dB *
B. A unidirectional cardioid D. A parabola B. 8.1 dB D. 10.0 dB

14. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna? 30. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and
A. At the ends voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
B. Three–quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end A. Minimum voltage and minimum current
C. One–half of the way from the feed point toward the end B. Equal voltage and current
D. At the feed point * C. Minimum voltage and maximum current
D. Maximum voltage and minimum current *
15. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
A. the sensitivity and the selectivity * 31. What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling at a frequency of
B. the number of converters and the number of IFs 220 MHz in a coaxial line having Teflon foam as its dielectric, εr =
C. the spurious response and the tracking 2?
D. the signal and the noise A. 0.89 m C. 0.96 m*
B. 0.98 m D. 0.69 m
16. What is the gain of a horn antenna with a cross section area of 20cm by
30 cm operating at 800 MHz? 32. The F – layer is also called _______ layer.
A. 3.2 dB C. 6.12 dB A. Heaviside C. Appleton-Barnett*
B. 5.05 dB* D. 8.7 dB B. Kennedy-Heaviside D. Flickerside

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 RF REVIEW CENTER PERIODIC EXAM 6

33. What is the SIL of a sound transmitted by an airborne source with a 49. The shortest distance measured along the earth’s surface that a
power of 130 dB at a point 150 km from the source? skywave is returned to earth
A. 14.6 dB C. 16.7 dB A. MUF C. Skip distance*
B. 15.5 dB* D. 18.4 dB B. Quarter-Wavelength D. Skip zone

34. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere. 50. Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary
The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. At the midpoint spherical wavefront
of the path, the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between A. Snell’s law C. Rayleigh’s principle
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the B. Huygen’s principle* D.De Morgan’s theorem
optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 5.4 MHz C. 7.4 MHz 51. In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally
B. 6.4 MHz D. 8.4 MHz * polarized antennas used?
A. VHF, UHF* C. SH, EHF
35. A power density of 1.57x10–4 W/m2 is measured 50 meters from B. VLF, LF D. MF, HF
a test antenna whose directive gain is 2.15 dB. How much power
was fed into the test antenna? 52. What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have?
A. 3 W * C. 5 W A. 3 * C. 4
B. 4 W D. 6 W B. 5 D. 6

36. A transmitter with a power output of 100 W is connected to a dipole 53. Which of the following improves antenna directivity?
antenna that has a radiation resistance of 70 Ω and an ohmic A. Driven element C. Director element
resistance of 2 Ω. How much power is radiated into space? B. Reflector element D. Parasitic element*
A. 79.2 W C. 27.9 W
B. 29.7 W D. 97.2 W * 54. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4m
A. 88 MHz C. 22 MHz
37. A parabolic antenna has a beamwidth of 2° at a frequency of 4 GHz. B. 44 MHz * D. 11 MHz
Calculate the gain assuming an efficiency of 65%.
A. 93 dBi C. 63 dBi 55. If the sound pressure is 5 lb/ft2, what is the sound pressure level?
B. 39 dBi * D. 36 dBi A. 5.78 dB C. 7.58 dB*
B. 5.87 dB D. 7.85 dB
38. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line
of a specific impedance connected between a load and a source in 56. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were
order to match impedances is: 5% longer
A. a balun C. a Q section * A. End effect * C. Skin effect
B. an autotransformer D. dummy load B. Flywheel effect D. Capture effect

39. What is the input impedance of the line if its open-circuited input 57. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal
impedance is –j60Ω and its short-circuited input impedance is j75Ω? A. At 45 degrees to its axis
A. 30.8 Ω C. 54.8 Ω B. Parallel to its axis
B. 42.7 Ω D. 67.1 Ω* C. At right angles to its axis*
D. at 60 degrees to its axis
40. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
A. Series resonant circuit C. Capacitors 58. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the
B. Parallel resonant circuit * D. Inductor effective length can be increased by adding
A. Capacitance in series
41. The length of a ground plane vertical at 146 MHz is B. Inductance in series *
A. 1.6 ft C. 2.05 ft. C. Resistance in parallel
B. 1.68 ft* D. 3.37 ft. D. Resistance in series

42. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they __________ 59. The average sound absorption of a person is about:
A. Pass into a medium of different dielectric constants * A. 3.5 sabines C. 5.2 sabines
B. Are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation B. 4.7 sabines* D. 6.8 sabines
C. Encounter a perfectly conducting surface
D. Pass through a small slot in a conducting plane 60. A transmission line has Zin = 30 + j20 Ω and Zo = 75Ω, what is the
normalized input impedance?
43. Calculate the power gain of a parabolic antenna with a beam width A. 0.8 + j0.267 C. 0.4 + j0.267
of 10°. B. 1.2 + j0.762 D. 1.2 + j0.267*
A. 24 C. 266*
B. 167 D. 483 61. Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a
transmitter for proper modulation, amplifier operation and frequency
44. A changing magnetic field gives rise to accuracy?
A. Sound field C. Electric field * A. Elementary C. Isotropic
B. the signal-to-noise ratio D. Nothing in particular B. Real D. Dummy *

45. The index of refraction of a material medium 62. If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters,
A. is greater than 1* its resonant frequency will
B. is less than 1 A. Increase
C. is equal to 1 B. Depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can
D. May be any of the above either be increased or decreased
C. Will be unchanged
46. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the D. Decrease *
following can happen to them
A. Absorption C. Refraction 63. Actual height of antenna should be at least
B. Attenuation* D. Reflection A. One wavelength C. Quarter wavelength *
B. Half wavelength D. 3/4 wavelength
47. Groundwave communications is most effective in what frequency
range? 64. In which of the following medium is the speed of sound slowest?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz* C. 30 to 300 MHz A. freshwater C. hydrogen*
B. 3 to 30 MHz D. Above 300 MHz B. seawater D. steel

48. States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance 65. A hertzian antenna receives a power of 120 W from the transmitter,
from its source what is the power density 1 km from the antenna?
A. Principal or Reciprocity C. Huygen’s Principle A. 5.66 µW/m2 C. 14.32 µW/m2*
B. Inverse Square Law* D. Faraday’s Law B. 9.55 µW/m2 D. 15.66 µW/m2

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 RF REVIEW CENTER PERIODIC EXAM 6

66. What power density is required to produce an electric field strength 82. "Skin effect" refers to:
of 100 V/m in air. A. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
A. 26.5 W/m2 * C. 65.2 W/m2 B. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
B. 52.6 W/m2 D. 25.6 W/m2 C. the increase of wire resistance with frequency *
D. none of the above
67. At a certain time, the MUF for transmissions at an angle of incidence
of 75° is 17 MHz. What is the critical frequency? 83. Basically, sensitivity measures:
A. 3.3 MHz approx. C. 1.1 MHz approx A. the weakest signal that can be usefully received*
B. 4.4 MHz approx.* D. 2.2 MHz approx. B. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
C. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
68. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide? D. none of the above
A. Biconical C. Helical
B. Horn * D. Discone 84. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:
A. increases * C. stays the same
69. Calculate the spectrum noise density of a system operating at B. decreases D. changes periodically
room temperature (as defined by IEEE standard).
A. 4x10-12 W/Hz C. 4x10-18 W/Hz 85. 80 sones is how many phons?
-15
B. 4x10 W/Hz D. 4x10-21 W/Hz* A. 113.23 C. 90
B. 103.22* D. 100
70. A telephone line has a characteristic impedance of 60 Ω, attenuation
constant of 20 mNp/m and propagation velocity of 0.6c. Find the 86. One of the following parameters is not useful for comparing the
inductance of the line. noise performance of receivers.
A. 1.2 µH/m C. 0.3 µH/m* A. equivalent noise resistance
B. 0.8 µH/m D. 0.12 µH/ms B. noise figure
C. equivalent noise temperature
71. Due to Doppler Effect, the frequency of sound that one hears _____ D. input noise voltage *
as the source passes.
A. rise C. remains the same 87. An antenna having a higher “Q” has _____.
B. drops* D. none of the above A. a higher bandwidth C. a flat response
B. a lower bandwidth * D. none of these
72. Which antenna is not a wideband?
A. Discone C. Helical 88. The maximum gain of an antenna is also called _________.
B. Folded dipole D. Marconi * A. Sensitivity C. Directivity*
B. Efficiency D. Selectivity
73. When the receiving end of the wire is an open circuit, it is a point of
A. Maximum current and zero voltage 89. One of the following antenna structures is particularly suited for
B. Maximum voltage and zero current * producing circularly or elliptically polarized electromagnetic waves.
C. Zero current and zero voltage It is _____.
D. Maximum voltage and maximum current A. loop antenna C. yagi antenna
B. helical antenna * D. lenz antenna
74. An open-wire line has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft. The
attenuation for 275 ft is 90. The bandwidth of DSB suppressed carrier modulation system when
A. 2.4 dB C. 4.8 dB the modulating frequency varies between 100 Hz and 5 kHz is ____.
B. 3.3 dB D. 6.6 dB * A. 200 Hz C. 5 kHz
B. 10 kHz * D. 4.9 kHz
75. This transmission line is used in microwave circuit. It consists of a
narrow, flat conductor sandwiched between dielectric boards whose 91. Find the propagation velocity of radio waves in glass, which has a
outside surfaces are coated with conductor relative permittivity of 7.8
A. Stripline * C. Waveguide A. 38.46 x 10^6 m/s C. 3.846 x 10^6 m/s
B. Microstrip D. Coax B. 107 x 10^6 m/s * D. 214 x 10^6 m/s

76. The information in an AM wave is contained in the: 92. For an AM transmitter with an unmodulated carrier power of 100 W
A. Upper sideband C. Both sidebands that is modulated that is modulated simultaneously by three
B. Lower sideband D. either A or B* modulating signals with coefficients of modulation of 0.2, 0.4 and
0.5. What is effective modulation index.
77. The average of the maximum and minimum output of an AM wave A. 0.5 C. 0.3
is equal to the amplitude of the: B. 0.4 D. 0.7 *
A. modulating signal C. rms of AM wave
B. carrier signal* D. none of the above 93. An airline has a characteristic impedance of 70Ω and phase
constant of 3 rad/m at 100 MHz. Calculate the capacitance of the
78. Is a narrow, flat conductor on a single dielectric board whose line.
opposite face is metallized, much like an ordinary printed-circuit A. 26.8 pF/m C. 68.2 pF/m*
board. It is also used in microwave circuits B. 28.6 pF/m D. 86.2 pF/m
A. Stripline C. Waveguide
B. Microstrip * D. Coax 94. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection
equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. How much power is
79. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: actually absorbed by the load?
A. the carrier frequency A. 24 W C. 64 W
B. the signal-to-noise ratio B. 36 W D. 96 W*
C. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
D. the baseband frequency range * 95. Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna using a 2.5-m radius dish
operating at 10 GHz.
80. A transmission line 130 m long is specified to have a loss of 4 A. 166,673 dB C. 52.2 dB *
dB/100 m at 800 MHz. Suppose that a transmitter puts 100 W of B. 83.7 dB D. 45.6 dB
power into this cable. How much power reaches the load?
A. 12.8 W C. 32.6 W 96. For a shorted coaxial transmission line with the following
B. 30.2 W* D. 69.8 W characteristics: Zo = 75 Ω, εr = 0.7, f = 1.5 GHz and Zin = j70 Ω,
determine the length of the transmission line.
81. Distortion is caused by: A. 23.9 cm* C. 93.2 cm
A. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies B. 32.9 cm D. none of the above
B. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
C. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies 97. Determine the characteristic impedance for a quarter-wave
D. all of the above * transformer that is used to match a section of 50 Ω transmission line
to a 60-Ω resistive load.

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 RF REVIEW CENTER PERIODIC EXAM 6

A. 50Ω C. 60Ω 12. Determine value of x which satisfy the conclusions of the Mean
B. 55Ω* D. 110Ω Value Theorem (MVT) for the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 in the
interval [–1, 2].
98. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence A. –1 C. –0.7863
of 75 degrees is 17 MHz. What is the critical frequency? B. –2.1196 D. nothing satisfies*
A. 4.4 MHz * C. 65.68 MH
B. 6.57 MHz D. 44.4 MHz 13. Find the slope of the conics section whose equation is: x2 + 4xy +
y2 + 3x – 5y – 6 = 0 at (1,2)
99. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required A. -3/13 C. -3
for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? B. -13/3* D. -13
A. 0.3 m C. 1.2 m
B. 0.6 m* D. 2.4 m 14. In statistics, variables by which values are taken from the set whole
numbers only is said to be:
100. A 300 Ω transmission line is terminated in a load impedance of 100 A. Continuous C. Discrete*
+ j200 Ω. What is the reflection coefficient or this line? B. Qualitative D. all of the above
A. 0.326 C. 0.623
B. 0.362 D. 0.632* 15. Two lines that intersect at one point only are said to be ________.
A. Perpendicular C. Consistent*
B. Dependent D. Inconsistent

PART II. MATHEMATICS 16. In statistics, the standard deviation measures

A. a standard distance C. central tendency
1. If 𝐴 and 𝐵 are two sets such that 𝑛(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 36, 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 16 B. a normal distance D. dispersion*
and 𝑛(𝐴~𝐵) = 15, then 𝑛(𝐵) is equal to
17. The function shown in the figure below is a:
A. 5 C. 21 *
B. 31 D. 52

2. What is the variance of the following samples shown?

Numbers 7 8 10 5 3
Frequency 21 32 7 12 11

A. 1.964 C. 14.878 A. Floor function* C. Power function

B. 3.857* D. 221.351 B. Ceiling function D. Step function

3. From the previous problem, if A is the mode of the data set, B is the 18. A point travels along the diameter AB of a circle. Another point C is
range and C is the mid-range, find A + B + C. located along the circumference of the circle. The point, initially at
A. 18.5 C. 20.5 A, observes that the angle that point C makes with AB is 43°. After
B. 19.5 D. 21.5* traveling 15 m, the angle becomes 61°. Find the radius of the circle.
A. 36.71 m C. 33.05 m
4. Find the equation of the circle circumscribing a triangle whose B. 29.02 m* D. 38.72 m
vertices are (0, 0), (0, 5) and (3, 3).
A. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 – 𝑥 − 5𝑦 = 0 * 19. Find the acceleration of a particle with displacement equation given
as: S = 20t+5/(t+1) at t = 4 where S is in meters and t is in seconds.
B. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥 – 5𝑦 = 0
A. 0.08 m/s2* C. 2.05 m/s2
C. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 5𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 8 = 0
B. 1.06 m/s2 D. 3.12 m/s2
D. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 – 𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 6 = 0
20. “The union of set A to its universal set U is equal to the universal set
5. Find the inclination of the curve whose parametric equation is given itself”. It is known as the:
by y = t3 + t2 + t-1 and x = t4 + 3t2 when t = 0.5 s. A. Idempotent Law C. Absorption Law
A. -87.12° C. -43.28° B. Domination Law* D. Universal Law
B. -78.26° D. -32.74°*
21. Find the area of a parallelogram with two sides identified by vectors
6. Find the positive integer n such that: from the origin to the points A(3, 4) and B(8, 0).
1 1 1 1 𝜋 A. 12 C. 16*
tan−1 + tan−1 + tan−1 + tan−1 =
3 4 5 𝑛 4 B. 14 D. 20

A. -1.0725 C. 47* 22. Find the equation of the line tangent to the curve y2 = 5x – 1 at (1, -
B. 1.0725 D. 98 2).
A. 5x – 4y = 13 C. 5x + 4y = -3*
B. 4x + 5y = 3 D. 4x – 5y = -13
7. Find the slope of the curve r = sin2θ at θ = π/3.
A. -4.3 C. -6.4
23. Find the approximate curvature of the function y = x3 – 3x + 1 at the
B. -5.2* D. -7.1
point (1, -1).
A. 0.707* C. 0.354
8. The foci of a hyperbola always lie in the:
B. 1.414 D. 2.828
A. vertical axis C. conjugate axis
B. horizontal axis D. transverse axis*
24. Which of the following is not true about the hyperbola represented
9. How many sides has a polygon if the sum of the interior angles is by 16x2 – 3y2 – 32x – 12y – 44=0?
1080°? A. the length of the transverse axis is 2sqrt(3)
A. 5 C. 7 B. the length of the conjugate axis is 8
B. 6 D. 8* C. the center is at (1, -2)
D. the eccentricity is sqrt(19)*
10. The graph of 𝑟 = 10 cos 𝜃, where 𝑟 and 𝜃 are the polar coordinates,
is: 25. A swimming pool is shaped from two intersecting circles 9 m radius
A. a circle * C. a horizontal line with their centres 9 m apart. What is the area common to the two
B. an ellipse D. a hyperbola circles?
A. 99.1 sq. m C. 99.5 sq. m*
11. If the straight lines 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 and 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐𝑦 + 𝑎 = 0 are B. 99.3 sq. m D. 99.7 sq. m
parallel, then which of the following is correct?
A. 𝑏 2 = 4𝑎𝑐 C. 𝑎 2 = 𝑏𝑐
B. 𝑏 2 + 𝑎𝑐 = 0 D. 𝑏 2 = 𝑎𝑐 *

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 RF REVIEW CENTER PERIODIC EXAM 6

26. Jeffy’s probability of winning in series of games is 0.6, what is the A. 3 m/s C. 5 m/s*
probability that we will have his 4th win on the 6th game? B. 4 m/s D. 6 m/s
A. 0.207* C. 0.426
B. 0.345 D. 0.541 42. Find the volume of the sphere with a general equation of:

27. How far from a sphere of radius R must a source of light be so that 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 + 2𝑧 2 − 20𝑥 + 16𝑦 − 24𝑧 − 88 = 0
40% of the area of the sphere is illuminated?
A. 2R C. 4R * A. 5,475.279 m3 C. 5,675.279 m3
B. 3R D. 5R B. 5,572.453 m3* D. 5,672.453 m3

28. Find the volume of the pyramid formed in the octant by the plane 6x 43. The sides of the triangle are 40 cm, 50 cm, and 60 cm. How far is
+ 10y + 5z = 60 and the coordinate axes. the point of intersection of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of
A. 15* C. 120 the triangle to any of its vertex?
B. 30 D. 125 A. 30.24 * C. 23.54
B. 15.27 D. 40.13
29. A teacher distributed two tests to a group of 40 pupils and obtained
the following results: 44. Find the frac(-22.7796).
1. A mean of 6 for the first test with a standard deviation of 1.5 and A. 0.7796 C. 0.2204*
a mean of 4 for the second test with a standard deviation of 0.5. B. –0.7796 D. –0.2204
2. A pupil obtains a score of 6 in the first test and 5 in the second.
With regard to the rest of the group: in which of the two tests did he 45. Compute the length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola 9x2 – 4y2 +
obtain a better score? 90x + 189 = 0.
A. first test C. both tests A. 9* C. 6
B. second test* D. none of the above B. 8 D. 7

30. Find the radius of curvature of the curve whose parametric equation 46. Find the area of a polygon with vertices located at (1, 1), (0, 8), (4,
is given by y = t3 + t2 + t-1 and x = t4 + 3t2 when t = 0.5 s. 5), and (-3, 4).
A.0.762 C. 1.7864 A. 15 C. 40
B. 1.205* D. 2.073 B. 25* D. 50

(𝑥+ℎ)2 −𝑥 2 47. The guests in a party arrives riding a bus, taxi or a motorcycle. The
31. Evaluate: lim probability that a certain guest arrives riding a bus, taxi and
ℎ→0 ℎ
A. x C. 3x motorcycle is 0.25, 0.55 and 0.20 respectively. Out of 20 guests,
B. 2x* D. 4x what is the probability that 9 of them arrives riding on a bus, 5 arrives
riding in a taxi and the rest arrives riding in motorcycles?
32. A polygon with infinite number of sides is a ________. A. 9.53x10-4* C. 6.57x10-4
A. Hectomyriagon C. Ariomagon B. 9.53x10-7 D. 6.57x10-7
B. Infinigon D. Apeirogon*
48. The sine of angle A is given as K, what is the tangent of angle A?
33. What is the limit of the function x2017e–x as x approaches infinity?
A. -1 C. 1
B. 0* D. indeterminate

34. In how many can 5 armies and 6 navies be arrange in a row such
that all armies are always together?
A. 39,916,800 C. 5,040
B. 604,800* D. 120
ℎ𝐾 ℎ𝑎
35. Find the value of ⌈−8.78787⌉ + ⌊3.99⌋. A. C.
𝑜 𝐾
A. –5* C. –9 𝑎𝐾 ℎ𝐾
B. –8 D. –10 B. D. *
ℎ 𝑎

36. Find the partial derivative of 2x2y + xy2 – 5y = 3 with respect to x. 49. The observer from the top of a building 100 m high found out that
A. 2x2y’ + 6xy + y2 – 5y’ = 0 C. 4xy + y2 = 0* the angle of depression to point A due East of it is 30°. From a point
B. 4xy + y2 – 5 = 0 D. none of the above B due to South of the building, the angle of elevation at point B is
60°. Find the distance AB.
37. What is the area of the largest rectangle that can be inscribed in a A. 155.238 C. 182.574*
semicircle of radius 10 cm? B. 173.886 D. 209.612
A. 80 cm2 C. 110 cm2
B. 100 cm2* D. 150 cm2 50. A fair dice is tossed two times. The probability that the second toss
results in a value that is higher than the first toss is:
38. Each of the first 9 letters of the alphabet and each of the first 9 A. 2/36 C. 1/2
positive integers is written on a separate slip of paper. These slips, B. 2/6 D. 5/12*
which are identical, are placed in a box and thoroughly mixed. What
is the probability, in a single draw, of obtaining either a vowel or an
odd integer?
A. 3/18 C. 8/18*
B. 5/18 D. 10/18

39. Euler line connects the special points on a triangle, the centroid,
orthocenter, circumcenter and center of nine point circle. A triangle
with no Euler line is called ________.
A. Euler Triangle C. Oblique triangle
B. Skew Triangle D. Equilateral triangle*

40. Water is flowing into a conical reservoir 20 ft deep and 10 ft across

the top, at a rate 15 cu. ft. per minute. Find how fast the water is
rising when it is 8 ft deep?
A. 0.16 ft/s C. 1.2 ft/s*  
B. 1.02 ft/s D. 2.1 ft/s  
41. The equation of the motion of a particle moving in a plane are x = t2,
y =3t – 1 when t is the time and x and y are rectangular coordinates.
Find the speed of motion at the instant when t = 2.

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