Question Report 9

PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1C T 1 0 0 1 1 7 0 3 1
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2017-2018)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I WEEKLY TEST # 10 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019 Date : 11-10- 2017
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A . General :
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do
so by the invigilator.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the left hand top corner of this sheet.
3. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
5. Write your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 19 questions in each subject and corresponding
answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of each section.
B . Filling the ORS :
9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
10. Write all information and sign in the box provied on part of the ORS (Page No. 1).
C. Question Paper Formate :
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics).
11. SECTION – I
(i) Contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(ii) Contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE are correct.
12. SECTION – II : Contains 2 ‘match the following’ type questions and you will have to match entries
in Column-I with the entries in Column-II.
13. Section-IV contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive)
CDG/2001CT102117031 Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/11-10-2017
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Atomic No. H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
Atom ic m a s s e s : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 0
Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2

Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm –2–K–4
Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10 –3 m–K
Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
Permittivity of vacuum = 2
0c
0
Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10 –34 J–s
2/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
Nurture Course/Phase-I/11-10-2017/WEEKLY TEST -10
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION–I : (i) (Only One option correct Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous sinusoidal displacements in x-direction, x1 t A sin t
2
and x2 t A sin t . Adding a third sinusoidal displacement x3 t B sin t brings the
3
mass to a complete rest. The values of B and are
3 4 5
(A) 2 A, (B) A, (C) 3 A, (D) A,
4 3 6 3
2. A mass m is hung on an ideal massless spring. Another equal mass is connected to the other end of the
spring. The whole system is at rest. At t = 0, m is released and the system falls freely under gravity.
Assume that natural length of the spring is L0, its initial stretched length is L and the acceleration due to
gravity is g. What is distance between masses as function of time.
2k 2k m
(A) L0 + (L – L0) cos t (B) L0 cos t
m m k
g
2k 2k m
(C) L0 sin t (D) L0 + (L – L0) sin t
m m
Space for Rough Work
CDG/2001CT100117031 3/32
3. In the diagram shown, the object is performing SHM according to the equation y = 2A sin( t) and
PHYSICS
the plane mirror is performing SHM according to the equation Y A sin t . The diagram
3
shows the state of the object and the mirror at time t = 0 sec. The minimum time from t = 0 sec after
which the velocity of the image becomes equal to zero ?
P la ne m ir ro r
O b je c t
y
3 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 3
4. A particle of mass m is performing simple harmonic motion along line AB with amplitude 2a with centre
of oscillation as O. At t = 0 particle is at point C (OC = a) and is moving towards B with velocity
v = a 3 m/s. The equation of motion can be given by :-
x
A O C B
OA = OB = 2a
OC = a
(A) x = 2a (sin t + 3 cos t) (B) x = 2a( 3 sint + cos t)
(C) x = a (sin t + 3 cos t) (D) x = a ( 3 sin t + cos t)

4/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
SECTION–I : (ii) (One or more than one correct option Type)
PHYSICS
(D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
5. A simple pendulum is oscillating in a stationary lift with a time period T and an angular amplitude 0.
When it is passing through the mean position, the lift starts accelerating upwards. [E/Score-I/04012013]
(A) the time period of its oscillation will increase.

(B) its angular amplitude will increase.
(C) the time period of its oscillation will decrease.
(D) its angular amplitude will decrease.
6. A particle slides back and forth between two inclined frictionless planes joined smoothly at the bottom
as shown in figure. The particle :-
(A) executes simple harmonic motion. (B) executes periodic motion.
32h sin 4 2h
(C) has-time period (D) has-time period
g sin g
CDG/2001CT100117031 5/32
7. Figure shows a smooth horizontal table in x–y plane between two identical fixed walls. Two identical
PHYSICS
springs are connected to the small ball. The length of the springs in the free state is . The ball is shifted
slightly from the equilibrium position in two different ways once along the axis OX and second along
the y-axis and it begins to perform vibrations. The time period for these motions is Tx and Ty respectively.
k O k X
(A) Motion along x axis is simple harmonic (B) Motion along y axis is simple harmonic
m m
(C) Tx 2 (D) Ty 2
2k 2k
8. Two tunnels are dug from one side of the earth’s surface to the other side, one along a diameter and the
other along a chord. Now two particle are dropped from one end of each of the tunnels. Both the
particles oscillate simple harmonically along the tunnels. Let T1 and T2 be the time period, v1 and v2 be
the maximum speed of the particle in the two tunnels. Then :-
(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 > T2 (C) v1 = v2 (D) v1 > v2
6/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
9. In the figure shown a block A of mass m is rigidly attached to a light spring of stiffness k and suspended
PHYSICS
from a fixed support. Another block B of same mass is just placed on it and blocks are in equilibrium.
Suddenly the block B is removed. Choose the CORRECT option (s) afterward :-
B
A
(A) Block A will perform S.H.M.
mg
(B) Amplitude of oscillation of the block A is
k
mg 2
(C) Maximum speed acquired by the block A is
k
m
(D) Period of oscillation is 2
2k
CDG/2001CT100117031 7/32
SECTION –II : Matrix Match Type
PHYSICS
This Section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (P, Q, R, S and T) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given
question, statement B matches with the statements given in Q and R, then for the particular question, against
statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the ORS.
1. Column I Column II
(A) A bob B hanging from a light string A of length (P) The acceleration of centre of mass
3 m is projected to left with a speed of 10 m/s. of B at some time can be equal to g.
B u
(B) The light platform with block B is pushed (Q) The force exerted by A on B can be
down by a distance 2x0 below mean zero at some point.
position & released.
[x0 is compression in mean position]
B
A
(C) A spherical solid ball B is released on a perfectly (R) the speed of the body B varies
rough spherical surface A as shown . sinusoidally with time when force

3
exerted by A on B is not zero.
\\ \\\ \\ \\\\\
\ \\ \ \\\\\\ \
B A
\\\\ \
\\\\
\\ \\
\\\\
\\
\\\
\\\
\
\\
\\\ \ \\\
\\\\ \\\\
\\\\\\\ \\ \\\\\ \\\ \\\\\\\ \\
(D) Block B is released on a smooth track A (S) The motion of B is oscillatory.

as shown.
B
\\\
\\\\
\\ \
\\\\
\
\\\
\\ \
\ \\ \ \
\\ \\
\\\
\\ \
\\ \ \\\
\\ \
\\\
\
\ \\
\\ \ \\
\\\
\\\\
(T) The motion of B is periodic.
\ \
\\\\
\\ \
A \\\
\ \\
\\\ \
\\\\
\\\\
\\ \
\ \\
\\\
\\\ \
\\\
\\\\ \\
\\\ \ \\\\\\ \\\\\

8/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
2. Column I shows spring block system with a constant force permanently acting on block match entries of
PHYSICS
column I with column II.
Column I Column II
x=0
k
m F = 2mg m
(A) (P) Time period of oscillation T = 2
k
spring is initially relaxed
when force is applied
k
m F = 2mg 2mg
(B) (Q) Amplitude of oscillation is A =
k
x=0
spring is initially relaxed
when force is applied
g
k m
(C) (R) Maximum velocity attained by block is 2g k
m
F = 2mg
Before force is applied
block is in equilibrium
position
k g
(D) (S) Maximum magnitude of acceleration of block is 2g.
m
F = 2mg
Before force is applied
block is in equilibrium
position.
(T) Velocity of block when spring is in natural length

is zero. (If spring acquire natural length).
SECTION –III : Integer Answer Type

No question will be asked in III
CDG/2001CT100117031 9/32
SECTION-IV : Integer Value Correct Type
PHYSICS
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit Integer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive.
1. Figure shows a small block of mass m attached to a spring of force constant k and an identical spring
3mg
hangs from ceiling. Initially lower spring is in compressed state with compression equal to from
k
natural length of spring. When block is released it strikes upper spring and sticks to it. What is the
amplitude of oscillation (in cm) after sticking given mg = 10N, k = 100 7N / m .
mg
k
equilibrium
position
10/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
2. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 are connected by an elastic spring of natural length 0 and stiffness
PHYSICS
constant k. They are placed on a smooth table at a distance 0 apart. Two equal impulses I in opposite
directions act simultaneously on them along the line of the spring so as to extend it. If the minimum time
60t
required to attain maximum extension in the spring is t sec, then find . (Given m1 = 4 kg, m2 = 5
kg, k = 80 N/m)
3. A mass m is resting at equilibrium suspended from a vertical spring of natural length L and spring
constant k inside a box as shown :
The box begins accelerating upward with acceleration a. Find the maximum speed of the mass
(in cm/s) relative to the box in subsequent motion. (Given : a = 1 m/s2, m = 3kg, k = 1200 N/m)
CDG/2001CT100117031 11/32
4. A small block of mass m = 0.5 kg is attached to two springs each of \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
PHYSICS
force constant k = 10 N/m as shown in figure. The block is executive

1 k k
SHM with amplitude A = m. When the block is at equilibrium
8
position one of the spring breaks without changing momentum of
e
block. New amplitude of oscillation is m. Find the value of e?
16
5. A point object of mass 0.1 kg is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 0.1 m. When the particle passes through
the mean position, its KE is 8 × 10–3 J. If equation of motion of the particle is y = A sin (bt), the value of
10Ab in SI units is.
12/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
6. In the figure shown, a lift goes downward with a constant retardation. An observer in the lift observes a
PHYSICS
simple pendulum with time period 2s. The length of the string which is used to suspend the ball from the
ceiling is 2.0 m. If the retardation of the lift is m/s2 then find the value of .
2
[use : 2
= 10 and g = 10 m/s2]
2.0m V
7. Consider a block symmetrically attached to two identical

massless springs by means of strings passing over light
frictionless pulleys as shown in the figure. In the
equilibrium position extension in each spring is 0.5m. The
time period of small vertical oscillation of the block is T m
5 3
second. Fill T in OMR sheet.
CDG/2001CT100117031 13/32
mg
PHYSICS
8. Two springs of spring constant each are attached to the end of a uniform rod of mass m and length
= 1.25 m which is hinged in vertical plane as shown in figure. As the rod is rotated slightly about the
hinge, it undergoes SHM with angular frequency . Find (in rad/s).
1.25m
14/32 CDG/2001CT100117031
CHEMISTRY
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
1. The first step of the Ostwald process for making nitric acid involves a reaction between ammonia and
oxygen to form nitrogen oxide and water.
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
How many litres of O2 gas at 6500C and 1.00 atm pressure are needed to react with 48 L of NH3 at
the same temperature and pressure ?
(A) 32 L (B) 38 L (C) 48 L (D) 60 L
2. You have 3 identical balloons at room temperature. You inflate each one to the same size, filling them
with different gases. You put helium in balloon 1, nitrogen in balloon 2, and xenon in balloon 3. You
realise that the pressure inside each balloon is equal to atmospheric pressure. You notice that balloon
1 floats to the ceiling, balloon 2 feels light, and balloon 3 feels heavy. Which balloon contains
maximum number of gas particles ?
(A) Balloon 1
(B) Balloon 3
(C) Balloons 1 and 3 have equal numbers and more than Balloon 2, since nitrogen atoms are bonded
to each other
(D) All 3 balloons have the same number of gas particles
3. Which of the following can be correct formula of exhausted permutit ?
(A) CaAl2Si2O8 (B) Na2Al2Si2O8 (C) Ca2Al2Si2O8 (D) Na2[Na4(PO3)6]
4. What is maximum change in oxidation number of a phosphorus in reaction :
inert
P4 + NaOH atmosphere
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 7 (D) 2

CDG/2001CT100117031 15/32
CHEMISTRY
5. Which of the followins statement(s) does not hold true according to the kinetic molecular theory of
gases which predicts rise in pressure as the temperature of a gas is increased
(A) the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules decreases
(B) gas molecules collide more frequently with the wall of container
(C) gas molecules collide less frequently with the wall of container
(D) gas molecules collide less energetically with the wall of container .
6. Boyle's law may be expressed as (K = constant)
dP P2 dP K
(A) dV K
(B) dV V2
T T
dP KV 1
(C) dV P
(D) V
T P
CDG/2001CT100117031
16/32
7. Identify the correct statement(s) related to the following graph :
CHEMISTRY
(A) between 50 K and 150 K temperature and pressure ranging from 10 atm to 20 atm matter may have
liquid state.
(B) zero is the maximum value of the slope of P-V Curve
(C) If vander wall equation of state is applicable above critical temperature then cubic equation of Vm
will have one real and two imaginary roots.
(D) At 100 K and pressure below 20 atm matter has liquid state only
CDG/2001CT100117031 17/32
8. Select the correct statement(s) with respect to sodium hydroxide.
CHEMISTRY
(A) It produces a tribasic acid on reaction with PCl3.

(B) Zinc liberates inflammable gas on heating with it.
(C) It is prepared by reaction of sodium carbonate with milk of lime.
(D) It is hygroscopic in nature.
9. Freshly prepared pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia :
(A) shows copper - bronze colour.
(B) occupy larger volume than that from the sum of the volumes of Na and NH3 ( ).
(C) reduces the SO2 to SO3.
(D) On heating produces a compound which gives ammonia on hydrolysis.
CDG/2001CT100117031
18/32
CHEMISTRY
1. Column – I Column – II
pb
(A) At low pressure (P) Z = 1 + RT
a
(B) At higher pressure (Q) Z = 1 – VmRT
(C) At low density of gas (R) gas is more compressible than ideal gas
(D) For H2 and He at 0°C (S) gas is less compressible than ideal gas
CDG/2001CT100117031 19/32
2. Column I Column II
CHEMISTRY
(Reaction) (Product(s)/reaction type)
(A) KO2 + HCl(dil) (P) Colourless product

H 2SO 4
(B) H2O2 + KMnO4 (Q) Redox reaction
(C) (NH4)2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 (R) Paramagnetic product
(D) PbS + H2O2 (S) Acid-base reaction

(T) Precipitation

CDG/2001CT100117031
20/32
CHEMISTRY
1. A x : 1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is contained in a vessel at 20 bar pressure. Due to a hole in the
vessel, the gas mixture leaks out. If the composition of the mixture effusing out initially is 8 : 1. Then
calculate the value of x ?
2. The density of a gas is 0.650 g/litre at 1 atm and 300K. The vapour density of gas will be
3. X litre gas at 400 K and 300 atm pressure is compressed to a pressure of 600 atm and 200 K so that final
1
volume of gas becomes litre . The compressibility factor is changed from 1.2 to 1.6 respectively. Find
3
X.
4. A mixture of formic acid and oxalic acid is heated with concentrated H2SO4. The gases produced are
collected and on its treatment with KOH solution the volume of the gas decreased by one-sixth. Calculate
the molar ratio of the two acids in the original mixture. [H2SO4 is a dehydrating agent. HCOOH produces
H2O and CO; H2C2O4 produces H2O, CO2 and CO]
CDG/2001CT100117031 21/32
5. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by how many of given compound(s)/process(es) ?
CHEMISTRY
Na3PO4, NaOH, Ca(OH)2, Na2CO3, Permutit , (NaPO3)6, Boiling, cation exchanger resin, BeO
6. H2 is obtained finally in how many given process(es) ?
HCl NaOH
(i) Hydrolith (ii) SnO2
H2O
(iii) B2H6 (iv) Zn + HNO3(conc.)
NaOH electrolysis
(v) Al (vi) H 2 O
(acidified)
Na (liq NH 3 )
(vii) Bosch’s process (viii) NH4Cl
H2O
(ix) LiAlH4
7. How many will undergo disproportionation in presence of aq. NaOH ?
P4, S8, F2, B, Br2, B(OH)3, Cl2, I2, Al
8. How many of given metal(s) dissolve in NH3(aq) to form blue coloured paramagnetic solution ?
Li, Na, Be, Mg, Ca, K, Rb, Cs, Ba
CDG/2001CT100117031
22/32
MATHEMATICS
PART-III : MATHEMATICS
1. There are 6 chocolates of Nestle, 8 of Cadburry, 10 of Perks and 9 of Munch. The number of ways in
which a child can buy 7 chocolates, is -
(A) 119 (B) 120 (C) 83 (D) 116
2. There are 10 seats in the first row of a theatre of which 4 are to be occupied. The number of ways of
arranging 4 persons so that no two persons sit side by side is -
(A) 7C4 (B) 4! . 7P3 (C) 7C3 . 4 ! (D) 720
3. The total number of different ways in which 8 different things can be distributed among three persons if
each gets 2, 2 & 4 things respectively are -
8! 8! 8! 8!
(A) 3! (B) (2!)2 4! 3! (C) (2!)3 4! (D) (2!)2 4!
(2!) 4!
3
4. If the letters of the word "VARUN" are written in all possible ways and then are arranged as in a
dictionary, then the rank of the word VARUN is-
(A) 98 (B) 99 (C) 100 (D) 101
CDG/2001CT100117031 23/32
MATHEMATICS

5. The number of selections of fruits from 4 mangoes, 3 oranges, 2 papayas and 2 pineapples will be [If
fruits of same type are treated as same] -
(A) 179 (when atleast one fruit is chosen)
(B) 175 (atleast 2 fruits are chosen)
(C) 15 (at most 2 fruits are chosen with atleast one fruit)
(D) 15 (none or more fruits but not more than 2 fruits are chosen)
6. The linear permutation of the word BARAAKOBAMA can be done (using all letters) -
11!
(A) in ways if there is no constraint
5!2!
(B) in 6C2 . 5! ways if A's are together & B's are separated
(C) in 6! 2! ways if all consonants & all vowels are together
6!
(D) in 3! ways if letter of BARAAK are arranged, keeping OBAMA fixed at extrem right position
CDG/2001CT100117031
24/32
MATHEMATICS
7. If last 4 digits of n! are zero, then n can be :-
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22
8. Number of ways in which 3 Rose & 4 Lotus flowers can be arranged in a garland are -
(A) 720 (flowers of same species are different) (B) 4 (flowers of same species are same)
(C) 360 (flowers of same species are different) (D) 8 (flowers of same species are same)
9. A persons wants to invite one or more of his friend for a dinner party. In how many ways can he do so
if he has eight friends : -
(A) 28 (B) 28 – 1 (C) 82 (D) 8C1 + 8C2 + .....+ 8C8
CDG/2001CT100117031 25/32
MATHEMATICS

1. Consider all possible permutations of the letters of the word 'TENDULKAR'.
Column-I Column-II
(A) The number of permutations in which the order of vowels (P) 4! × 6!
relative to consonants does not change is
(B) The number of permutations in which vowels occupying even places is (Q) 7!
(C) The number of permutations containing the word END is (R) 24 × 7!
(D) The number of permutations in which not all the vowels (S) 66 × 7!
are together is (T) 3! × 6!
CDG/2001CT100117031
26/32
MATHEMATICS
2. There are 5 boys and 5 girls sitting in a row. For the conditions given in the column-I and total number
of ways of sitting in column-II, Match the column.
Column-I Column-II
(A) No two girls are together (P) 2. 5. 5
(B) Boys and girls are alternate (Q) 5. 5
(C) All girls are together (R) 6. 5. 5
(D) All boys are together as well as all girls are together (S) 5. 5. 5
(T) 8. 5. 5

CDG/2001CT100117031 27/32
MATHEMATICS

1. If the number of different 3 letter words (with or without meaning) that can be formed using the letters
of the word IITJEE is 7k, then the value of k is
2. The number of ways in which eight digit number can be formed using the digits from 1 to 9 without
repetition, if first four places of the numbers are in increasing order & last four places are in decreasing
order is , then is equal to

70
CDG/2001CT100117031
28/32
MATHEMATICS
3. If total number of 8 letters words which can be formed using all the letters of the word SAFALAYA
such that vowels and consonants are alternate are 2a ( 4) b (where a & b are non-negative integers), then
a + b is equal to
4. The number of three digit numbers, whose middle digit is bigger than the extreme digits is n, the value
of n/80 is .
CDG/2001CT100117031 29/32
MATHEMATICS
5. If 10Pr = 720, then r is equal to :

6. The number of positive integers satisfying the inequality n + 1 Cn – 2 – n + 1 Cn – 1 100 is
7. Let there be n 3 circles in a plane. The value of n for which the number of radical
centres, is equal to the number of radical axes is ( Assume that all radical axes and radical
centre exist and are different)
8. The number of times the digit 3 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000 is 50n,
the value of n is
CDG/2001CT100117031
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Nurture Course/Phase-I/11-10-2017/Weekly Test -10
CDG/2001CT102117031 31/32
D. M ark ing sch em e :
1 4 . For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
1 5 . For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding
to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for
incorrect answers in this section.
1 6 . For each questions in Section – II, you will be awarded 2 mark s for each row in which you have darkened
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks.
There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
1 7 . For each question in Section-IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to
only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for
incorrect answers in this section.
1 8 . Take g = 10 m/s 2 unless otherwise stated.
Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated
a The one and the only acceptable
a Part darkening
a a Darkening the rim

Answer will not be evaluated -
a Cancelling after darkening no marks, no negative marks
a Erasing after darkening
Figure-1 : Correct way of bubbling for valid answer and a few examplex of invalid answers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid
1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct W ay of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)
Name of the Candidate Form Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in
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PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1C T 1 0 0 1 1 7 0 3 1

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I WEEKLY TEST # 10 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2

Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10 –34 J–s

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous sinusoidal displacements in x-direction, x1 t A sin t

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(A) x = 2a (sin t + 3 cos t) (B) x = 2a( 3 sint + cos t)

(C) x = a (sin t + 3 cos t) (D) x = a ( 3 sin t + cos t)

(A) the time period of its oscillation will increase.

(A) executes simple harmonic motion. (B) executes periodic motion.

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(A) Block A will perform S.H.M.

rough spherical surface A as shown . sinusoidally with time when force

(D) Block B is released on a smooth track A (S) The motion of B is oscillatory.

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(T) Velocity of block when spring is in natural length

SECTION –III : Integer Answer Type

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force constant k = 10 N/m as shown in figure. The block is executive

7. Consider a block symmetrically attached to two identical

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(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 7 (D) 2

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(A) It produces a tribasic acid on reaction with PCl3.

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(Reaction) (Product(s)/reaction type)

(A) KO2 + HCl(dil) (P) Colourless product

(C) (NH4)2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 (R) Paramagnetic product

(D) PbS + H2O2 (S) Acid-base reaction

SECTION –III : Integer Answer Type

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SECTION–I : (ii) (One or more than one correct option Type)

SECTION –II : Matrix Match Type

(B) Boys and girls are alternate (Q) 5. 5

(C) All girls are together (R) 6. 5. 5

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SECTION –III : Integer Answer Type

SECTION-IV : Integer Value Correct Type

order is , then is equal to

5. If 10Pr = 720, then r is equal to :

Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated

a The one and the only acceptable

a a Darkening the rim

a Erasing after darkening

Name of the Candidate Form Number

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

32/32 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation CDG/2001CT100117031

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