Contain bo

DNA and R

May have a
envelope

Have their
metabolism

May contai
enzymes fo
replication

Cell wall

s Viruses co
either DNA
RNA but n
Some may
an envelop
Unlike bac
they do not
cell wall or
own metab
They may
enzymes fo
replication

2. The foll
are DNA v

Herpesviru

Orthomyxo

Enteroviru

Hepadnavi

Parvovirus

s Herpesviru
Hepadnavi
are double
stranded D
viruses.
Parvovirus
single stran
DNA virus
Orthomyxo
 and enterov
are singles
stranded R
viruses.

3. The foll
are RNA v

Picornaviru

Adenoviru

Papillomav

Rhabdoviru

Rotaviruse

s Adenoviru
papillomav
are double
standed DN
viruses.
Picornaviru
and rhabdo
are single
stranded R
viruses.
Rotaviruse
double stra
RNA virus

4. Live
attenuated
vaccines a
available a
the followi
viruses

Influenza A

Hepatitis B

Rubella Vi

Yellow Fev
Virus

Varicella-Z
Virus
s Live atten
vaccines ar
available a
rubella, yel
fever, and
varicella-zo
viruses. Inf
A viral vac
are either
inactivated
subunit vac
The vaccin
current use
against hep
are recomb
subunit vac

5. The foll
antiviral a
is active ag
the followi
virus

Lamivudin
HIV

Lamivudin
HBV

Amantidin
influenza B

Ribavirin a
RSV

Acyclovir a
HSV

s Lamivudin
reverse
transcriptas
inhibitor ac
against bot
and HBV.
Amantidin
active agai
influenza A
Ribavirin i
against RS
acyclovir a
HSV
 6. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

True Commonly affect the temporal lobe

False Is usually diagnosed by culture of the CSF

True May be diagnosed by PCR of the CSF

False Should be treated with IV ganciclovir

True May be diagnosed by the finding of specific antibody in the CSF

Comments Herpes Simplex Encephalitis commonly affect the temporal lobe. Culture of the CSF is usually unsuccess
is a much better choice. A diagnosis can also be made by the detection of HSV-specific antibodies in the C
Encephalitis should be treated with IV acyclovir.

 7. The following statements are true of Varicella-Zoster Virus

False Causes a maculopapular rash

False Respond to AZT therapy

True Remains latent in sensory ganglia following primary infection

False Recurrent episodes of Shingles usually occur

False Patients with shingles are not infectious

Comments VZV causes a vesicular rash. It does not respond to AZT as it does not possess reverse transcriptase. It re
sensory ganglia following primary infection. It is rare for more than one episode of shingles to occur. Pati
infectious.

8. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

True Primary infection is usually symptomatic

True An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.

True May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals

False Is teratogenic

False Causes Kawasaki's Disease

Comments Primary CMV infection is usually asymptomatic. Occasionally, an infectious mononucleosis-like syndrom
primary infection. CMV is well known to cause severe disease in immunocompromised individuals, notab
recipients and patients with AIDS. Although it may cause severe congenital infection, it is not teratogenic
formed fetal organs. It is not associated with Kawaski's disease.
 9. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with

True Infectious Mononucleosis

True Hepatitis

True Burkitt's lymphoma

True Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

True Oral leukoplakia

Comments All the above

 10. HHV-6 is associated with

False Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum)

True Roseala Infantum

False Kaposi's Sarcoma

True Infectious Mononucleosis-like illness

False Oral leukoplakia

Comments Parvovirus is associated with Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum). HHV-6 is associated with Sixth diseas
HHV-8 is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma. Rarely, in adults, primary HHV-6 infection may result in an
mononucleosis-like illness. EBV is associated with oral leukoplakia

 11. Adenoviruses

False Are associated with genital cancers

True May cause gastroenteritis

True May cause conjunctivitis

True May cause pneumonia

False May cause warts

Comments Human papillomaviruses are associated with genital cancers. Adenoviruses type 40 and 41 are associated
Adenoviruses may also cause conjunctivitis and pneumonia. Human papillomaviruses are associated with
 12. Human Papillomaviruses

False HPV-6 and HPV-11 are associated with genital cancers

True HPV-16 and HPV-18 are associated with genital cancers

True Warts caused by papillomaviruses may respond to interferon therapy

False Papillomavirus infection is commonly diagnosed by viral culture

False Are associated with progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML)

Comments HPV-16 and HPV-18 are associated with genital cancers. Warts caused by papillomaviruses may respond
although it is rarely used. Huamn Papillomaviruses cannot be grown in cell culture. Polyomavirus JC is as

13. Coxsackie B Virus is associated with the following

True Paralytic illness

True Myocarditis

True Bornholm's disease

True Severe congenital infection

True Meningitis

Comments All the above

14. Influenza A Virus

True May undergo antigenic shift and antigenic drift

True May cause pandemics

True Respond to rimantidine

True Respond to neuraminidase inhibitors

False Vaccination confers lifelong protection

Comments Influenza A Virus may undergo antigenic shift and antigenic drift. Antigenic shifts result in pandemics. In
respond to rimantidine, which is a similar compound to amantidine. It will also respond to newly available
inhibitors. Because of constant antigenic changes, vaccination will not confer lifelong immunity; it will la

15. Paramyxoviruses may cause

True Croup

False Maculopapular rash

True Pneumonia

True Bronchiolitis

False Diarrhoea

Comments Paramyxoviruses most commonly cause croup. They may occasionally cause bronchiolitis and pneumoni

16. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

False Respond to Amantidine

True May cause bronchiolitis

True May cause croup

True May cause pneumonia

False May be prevented by vaccination

Comments RSV will not respond to amantidine. It most commonly cause bronchiolitis and pneumonia. Occasionally
There is no vaccine available.

17. Parvoviruses

False Causes Roseola Infantum

True Causes Erythema Infectiousum

False Is teratogenic

True May cause abortion

True May cause aplastic crisis in persons with haemolytic anaemias

Comments Parvovirus causes erythema infectiousum. Although it may cause abortion and stillbirths, it is not teratoge
aplastic crisis in persons with haemolytic anaemias

 18. Measles Virus Infection

False Causes a vesicular rash

True May cause encephalitis

False May respond to acyclovir

True May be prevented by HNIG

True May be prevented by vaccination

Comments Measles causes a maculopapular rash. It may cause encephalitis. It does not respond to acyclovir. Suscept
be protected by HNIG. A live attenuated vaccine is now given as part of universal vaccination in many co

19. Rubella Virus

True The rash of rubella is similar to that caused by parvo and enteroviruses

True Is teratogenic

True Congenital rubella is charaterised by eye, ear and heart defects

True Congenital rubella is diagnosed by the finding of rubella-specific antibody in the cord blood of infants

True Infants with congenital rubella poses a great infectious risk.

Comments The rash of rubella is similar to that caused by parvo and enteroviruses. It is teratogenic, the classical triad
rubella consists of eye, ear and heart defects. Congenital rubella can be diagnosed by the finding of rubell
the cord blood of infants.Infants with congenital rubella poses a great infectious risk since they may excre
1 year.

20. Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) is associated with

False Burkitt's lymphoma

True Adult T-cell lymphoma

True Tropical Spastic Paraparesis

False Multiple Sclerosis

False Hodgkin's lymphoma

Comments Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) is associated with Adult T-cell lymphoma and Tropical Spastic

21. HIV Infection may lead to

True Dementia

True Chronic Diarrhoea

True CMV retinitis

True Oesophageal candidiasis

True Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

Comments All the above

 22. The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected

individuals

False HIV envelope antibody level

True HIV-p24 antigen

True CD4 count

False HIV pro-viral DNA in leucocytes

True HIV plasma RNA

Comments HIV envelope antibody remains high at a constant level throughout the period of
infection and is thus of no use as a prognostic marker. HIV-p24 antigen had been widely
used as a prognostic marker in the past but has now been supplanted by HIV plasma RNA
(viral load). The CD4 count provides important information on the stage of the disease.

23. A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:

False Hantavirus Infection

False Hepatitis A

True Hepatitis B

True Hepatitis C

False Smallpox Infection

Comments A chronic carrier state may occur with HBV and HCV infection.

 24. The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with
chronic active hepatitis

True HbeAg

True Anti-HBc IgG

False Anti-HBc IgM

True HBV-DNA

True HbsAg

Comments In patients with chronic active hepatitis, HBV replication is present and hence HBV-DNA
and HbeAg. HbsAg is present. Anti-HbcIgM is normally absent although it may
occasionally be detected during periods of exacerbations. Anti-HBc IgG is present.
 25. The following statements are true

True Chronic HBV infection may respond to interferon therapy

True Chronic HCV infection may respond to interferon therapy

True Chronic HCV infection may respond to ribavirin therapy

True Hepatitis Delta infection may be prevented by vaccination against HBV

False Hepatitis E Infection may be prevented by vaccination

Comments Chronic HBV and HCV infection may respond to interferon therapy. Chronic HCV
infection may respond to ribavirin therapy; however ribavirin is usually given with
interferon. Hepatitis Delta infection may be prevented by vaccination against HBV. There
is no vaccine available against HEV.

26. The following viruses can be transmitted by blood

True Hepatitis A

True HIV

True HTLV-1

True HBV

True HCV

Comments All the above viruses may be transmitted by blood

27. Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS)

True Meningitis may occur together with encephalitis

True Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood

False HSV encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis

True Measles encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis

True The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker

Comments Meningitis usually occurs with encephalitis. Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of
CNS infections in childhood. HSV encephalitis result from invasion of the virus rather than an
allergic postinfectious event as in the case of measles. The detection of antibody in the CSF is a
useful diagnostic marker
 28. The following viruses are associated with gastroenteritis

True Astroviruses

True Norwalk-like viruses

False Picornviruses

True Adenoviruses

True Rotaviruses

Comments Although enteroviruses may be found in faeces, they are not associated with gastroenteritis

29. The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans

True Rabies Virus

False Polioviruses

False CMV

True Hantaviruses

True Lassa Fever Virus

Comments Rabies may be transmitted to humans from a variety of mammals. Hantaviruses and Lassa Fever
Virus may be transmitted to humans by rodents.

30. The following is true of rabies virus

False The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites

True Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation

False Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine

True The animal reservoir differ from country to country

True May be diagnosed by serology

Comments The majority of human rabies cases world-wide result from dog bites. Infection may be prevented
by active and passive immunisation. Although live attenuated vaccines are available for
vaccinating animals, inactivated vaccines are used in humans for safety reasons. May be diagnosed
by serology.

.
1. Viruses may contain

True

True

True

True

False

Comments

True

False

False

True

True

Comments
False

True

True

True

True

Comments
True

False

False

True

True

Comments
True

False

True

False

True

Comments

6. A serological diagnosis of a primary viral infection may be made

False Detection of viral-specific IgA

False Detection of viral-specific IgD

False Detection of viral-specific IgE

True Detection of viral-specific IgM

True Seroconversion

Comments A diagnosis of a primary viral infection may be made by the detection of IgM and/or
seroconversion.
  7. The following are examples of viral genome detection (molecular methods)

True Southern blot

False Western blot

False RIBA (Recombinant immunoblot assay)

True Branched DNA

True Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Comments Southern blot, branched DNA, and PCR are viral genome detection methods. Western blot and
RIBA are serological assays

8. The following statements are true

False For cytomegalovirus (CMV), the cytopathic (CPE) effect usually appears within 24-48 hours

True For some viruses, the CPE is so characteristic that so further identification is required.

True Paramyxovirus causes syncytia formation in cell culture

False A given virus always produce identical CPE in different cell cultures

True Immmunofluroescence may be used to identify a virus in cell culture

Comments It takes 1-3 weeks for CMV-specific CPE to appear. For some viruses such as herpes simplex, the
CPE is so characteristic that so further identification is required.

9. Poliovirus can be typed by

False Single radial haemolysis (SRH)

False Haemagglutination inhibition test (HAI)

False DEAFF test

True Neutralization test

True Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes

Comments Polioviruses can be typed by neutralization tests and hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes.
SRH and HAI are not used. The DEAFF test is used for the isolation of CMV

 10. Immunofluorescence techniques can be used to detect the following directly from
the specimen.

True Chlamydia

True CMV
True Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

True Influenza virus

True Rabies virus

Comments All the above

 11. The following statements are true for the haemagglutination-inhibition (HAI)
test.

False Not a quantitative test

True Treatment of patient serum is necessary to remove non-specific inhibitors

True Animal blood is necessary

True Usually more specific than complement fixation tests (CFT)

True May be used for the diagnosis of rubella infection

Comments HAI is a quantitative test. It is widely used in rubella serology. It is usually more specific than
CFT. Treatment of patient serum is necessary to remove non-specific inhibitors.

12. Regarding cell culture

False Viruses can only be cultured using cell lines

False The presence of cytopathic effect is the only way to detect a virus

True The neutralization test is the mainstay of identification of a poliovirus isolate

False The haemagglutination inhibition test is the mainstay of identification of a respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV) isolate

False Whole blood is the specimen of choice for many common viruses

Comments Viruses may also be cultured in eggs and animals. The presence of virus may be detected by
CPE as well as haemadsoption, and presence of viral particles and antigen.

13. A standard Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) consists of

False Denaturation, annealing, and ligation steps

True Denaturation, annealing, and extension steps

True dNTPs
True Mg++ ions

True Taq polymerase

Comments Denaturation, annealing, and ligation steps occur in LCR. PCR consists of Denaturation,
annealing, and extension steps. It requires dNTP, Mg++, taq polymerase, and target-specific
oligonucleotide primers.

14. Modification of a standard PCR include

True Nested PCR

False branched DNA (bDNA)

True RT-PCR (Reverse transcription PCR)

True Quantitative PCR

False 3SR (Isothermal amplification)

Comments Nested PCR, RT-PCR and quantitative PCR are modifications of the PCR protocol. bDNA and
3SR are alternative amplification techniques.

15. Safety measures for preventing PCR contamination include

True The use of uracil-N-glycosylase (UNG)

True Use of filtered pipette tips

True Separate areas for master mix, template, and PCR product operation

True Dedicated pipettes for master mix, template, and PCR products

True Ultraviolet irradiation

Comments All the above may be useful in preventing contamination of PCR.

16. The following statements are usually true

True PCR is more sensitive than branched DNA assays

False Branched DNA is more sensitive than Ligase chain reaction

True Exponential amplification occurs in PCR

True Linear amplification occurs in branched DNA

True PCR is extremely liable to contamination

Comments Exponential amplification occurs in PCR, LCR and NASBA/3SR. Therefore these techniques
are extremely liable to contamination and are more sensitive than branched DNA, where linear
amplification occurs.

17. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis include

True Detection of VCA-IgM

False Detection of VCA-IgA

False Seroconversion against EBNA

True Paul-Bunell test

True VCA IgG avidity test

Comments Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is usually made by the Paul-Bunell where heterophil
antibodies are detected and by the detection of EBV-IgM. VCA-IgG avidity test may be used to
confirm equivocal cases. Detection of elevated titres of VCA-IgA correlates with an increased
risk for nasopharyngeal carcinoma and is used as a screening test. Seroconversion against
EBNA does not take place until months after the initial illness.

 18. Viruses that routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia
include

False Epstein-Barr virus

True Herpes Simplex Virus type 1

True Varicella-Zoster Virus

True Herpes Simplex Virus type 2

False Human herpesvirus 6

Comments All the above herpesviruses can cause latent infections. However, only HSV 1+2, and VZV
routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia.

19. Rapid diagnosis of CMV disease include

True CMV pp65 antigenaemia

False Conventional cell culture

True DEAFF test

True Detection of CMV-DNA in blood by PCR

False Rising antibody titres

Comments Rapid diagnosis of CMV disease include CMV pp65 antigenaemia, DEAFF test, and Detection
of CMV-DNA in blood by PCR.

20. The following viruses are associated with respiratory infections

False Rotaviruses

True Adenoviruses

True Influenza viruses

False HTLV-1

True RSV

Comments Rotaviruses cause diarrhoea. HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukaemia and tropical
spastic paraparesis.

21. The following viruses are thought to cause gastroenteritis

False Enteroviruses

True Adenoviruses

True Norwalk-like viruses

True Astroviruses

True Rotaviruses

Comments Although enteroviruses may be found in faeces, they are not associated with gastroenteritis. The
other viruses are associated with gastroenteritis.

22. The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans

True Influenza A H5N1

False HTLV-1

True Hantaviruses

False Poliomyelitis

True Rabies

Comments Influenza A H5N1 is otherwise known as the "bird flu" It afflicted Hong Kong in late 1997 and
was transmitted from poultry to humans. Hantaviruses is transmitted from rodents to humans and
rabies can be transmitted from various mammals to humans.
 23. A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:

False Hepatitis A

True Hepatitis B

True Hepatitis C

True Hepatitis Delta

False Hepatitis E

Comments A chronic carrier state can exist in hepatitis B, C and Delta Virus infections

24. The following viruses are transmitted by blood

False Rubella

True HIV

False Measles

True HBV

True HCV

Comments HIV, HBV and HCV are transmitted by blood. Rubella and measles are transmitted via respiratory
droplets

 25. The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected

individuals

False HIV envelope antibody

True HIV-p24 antigen

True CD4 count

False CD8 count

True HIV viral load

Comments HIV envelope antibody remains high throughout the course of HIV infections and thus does not
carry any prognostic value. HIV-p24 antigen had been widely used in the past as a prognostic
marker but it has been superseded by HIV viral load. CD4 count plays an important role in telling
us what stage the disease is at.
  26. The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic
active hepatitis

True HbsAg

False HbsAb

False Anti-HBc IgM

True HBV-DNA

True HbeAg

Comments In patients with chronic active hepatitis, HBV replication is present and hence HBV-DNA and
HbeAg. HbsAg is present. Anti-HbcIgM is normally absent although it may occasionally be
detected during periods of exacerbations.

27. Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS)

True Meningitis may occur together with encephalitis

True Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood

False Electron microscopy of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a useful diagnostic test

False PCR has no role in the diagnosis of CNS infections

True The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker

Comments Meningitis usually occurs together with encephalitis. Enteroviruses are one of the commonest
causes of CNS infections in childhood. Electron microscopy is too insensitive to be useful as a
diagnostic test. PCR assays for HSV are now routinely used for the diagnosis of herpes simplex
encephalitis. The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker

28. Regarding rash illnesses

True Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection may cause a vesicular rash

False The rash caused by parvovirus B19 is due to the presence of virus in the skin

False Measles is usually diagnosed by viral culture

True Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is usually diagnosed by viral culture

False VZV cannot be grown in cell culture

Comments Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection may cause a vesicular rash. The rash caused by parvovirus
B19 is probably an allergic reaction due to the deposition of immune complexes. Measles is
usually diagnosed by serology. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is usually diagnosed by viral
culture. VZV can be grown in cell culture although this is rarely used for diagnosis.

29. Rubella infection

True Can be asymptomatic

True May be indistinguishable from parvovirus B19

False Can have serious side effects when occurring in a woman in the third trimester of pregnancy

True Is usually preventable by vaccination

True May be acquired by having close contact with an infant with congenital rubella syndrome

Comments Rubella infection can be asymptomatic. It may be indistinguishable clinically from parvovirus
B19 infection. The most serious effects occur when a pregnant woman is infected in the first
trimester of pregnancy. It is usually preventable by vaccination. Infants with congenital rubella
syndrome pose a great infectious risk since they may excrete virus in great quantities up to 1 year
of age.

30. Regarding laboratory tests for rubella

True Rubella immunity may be determined by an enzyme immunoassay

False CFT is commonly used for the diagnosis of acute infection

True IgM antibody is usually detectable after the onset of rash

False Rubella virus cannot be cultured

False Pre-natal diagnosis of rubella in a foetus is simple and reliable

Comments Rubella immunity may be determined by an enzyme immunoassay. CFT is not commonly used for
the diagnosis of rubella infection; Haemagglutination-inhibition tests are. IgM antibody is usually
detectable after the onset of rash Rubella virus can be cultured although this is rarely used as a
method of diagnosis. Pre-natal diagnosis of rubella in a foetus such as amniocentesis involve some
degree of risk to the fetus.

6. A serological diagnosis of a primary viral infection may be made

False Detection of viral-specific IgA

False Detection of viral-specific IgD

False Detection of viral-specific IgE

True Detection of viral-specific IgM

True Seroconversion
Comments A diagnosis of a primary viral infection may be made by the detection of IgM and/or
seroconversion.

 7. The following are examples of viral genome detection (molecular methods)

True Southern blot

False Western blot

False RIBA (Recombinant immunoblot assay)

True Branched DNA

True Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Comments Southern blot, branched DNA, and PCR are viral genome detection methods. Western blot and
RIBA are serological assays

8. The following statements are true

False For cytomegalovirus (CMV), the cytopathic (CPE) effect usually appears within 24-48 hours

True For some viruses, the CPE is so characteristic that so further identification is required.

True Paramyxovirus causes syncytia formation in cell culture

False A given virus always produce identical CPE in different cell cultures

True Immmunofluroescence may be used to identify a virus in cell culture

Comments It takes 1-3 weeks for CMV-specific CPE to appear. For some viruses such as herpes simplex, the
CPE is so characteristic that so further identification is required.

9. Poliovirus can be typed by

False Single radial haemolysis (SRH)

False Haemagglutination inhibition test (HAI)

False DEAFF test

True Neutralization test

True Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes

Comments Polioviruses can be typed by neutralization tests and hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes.
SRH and HAI are not used. The DEAFF test is used for the isolation of CMV

 10. Immunofluorescence techniques can be used to detect the following directly from
 the specimen.

True Chlamydia

True CMV

True Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

True Influenza virus

True Rabies virus

Comments All the above

 11. The following statements are true for the haemagglutination-inhibition (HAI)
test.

False Not a quantitative test

True Treatment of patient serum is necessary to remove non-specific inhibitors

True Animal blood is necessary

True Usually more specific than complement fixation tests (CFT)

True May be used for the diagnosis of rubella infection

Comments HAI is a quantitative test. It is widely used in rubella serology. It is usually more specific than
CFT. Treatment of patient serum is necessary to remove non-specific inhibitors.

12. Regarding cell culture

False Viruses can only be cultured using cell lines

False The presence of cytopathic effect is the only way to detect a virus

True The neutralization test is the mainstay of identification of a poliovirus isolate

False The haemagglutination inhibition test is the mainstay of identification of a respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV) isolate

False Whole blood is the specimen of choice for many common viruses

Comments Viruses may also be cultured in eggs and animals. The presence of virus may be detected by CPE
as well as haemadsoption, and presence of viral particles and antigen.

13. A standard Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) consists of

False Denaturation, annealing, and ligation steps

True Denaturation, annealing, and extension steps

True dNTPs

True Mg++ ions

True Taq polymerase

Comments Denaturation, annealing, and ligation steps occur in LCR. PCR consists of Denaturation,
annealing, and extension steps. It requires dNTP, Mg++, taq polymerase, and target-specific
oligonucleotide primers.

14. Modification of a standard PCR include

True Nested PCR

False branched DNA (bDNA)

True RT-PCR (Reverse transcription PCR)

True Quantitative PCR

False 3SR (Isothermal amplification)

Comments Nested PCR, RT-PCR and quantitative PCR are modifications of the PCR protocol. bDNA and
3SR are alternative amplification techniques.

15. Safety measures for preventing PCR contamination include

True The use of uracil-N-glycosylase (UNG)

True Use of filtered pipette tips

True Separate areas for master mix, template, and PCR product operation

True Dedicated pipettes for master mix, template, and PCR products

True Ultraviolet irradiation

Comments All the above may be useful in preventing contamination of PCR.

16. The following statements are usually true

True PCR is more sensitive than branched DNA assays

False Branched DNA is more sensitive than Ligase chain reaction

True Exponential amplification occurs in PCR

True Linear amplification occurs in branched DNA

True PCR is extremely liable to contamination

Comments Exponential amplification occurs in PCR, LCR and NASBA/3SR. Therefore these techniques are
extremely liable to contamination and are more sensitive than branched DNA, where linear
amplification occurs.

17. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis include

True Detection of VCA-IgM

False Detection of VCA-IgA

False Seroconversion against EBNA

True Paul-Bunell test

True VCA IgG avidity test

Comments Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is usually made by the Paul-Bunell where heterophil
antibodies are detected and by the detection of EBV-IgM. VCA-IgG avidity test may be used to
confirm equivocal cases. Detection of elevated titres of VCA-IgA correlates with an increased risk
for nasopharyngeal carcinoma and is used as a screening test. Seroconversion against EBNA does
not take place until months after the initial illness.

 18. Viruses that routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia
include

False Epstein-Barr virus

True Herpes Simplex Virus type 1

True Varicella-Zoster Virus

True Herpes Simplex Virus type 2

False Human herpesvirus 6

Comments All the above herpesviruses can cause latent infections. However, only HSV 1+2, and VZV
routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia.

19. Rapid diagnosis of CMV disease include

True CMV pp65 antigenaemia

False Conventional cell culture

True DEAFF test

True Detection of CMV-DNA in blood by PCR

False Rising antibody titres

Comments Rapid diagnosis of CMV disease include CMV pp65 antigenaemia, DEAFF test, and Detection of
CMV-DNA in blood by PCR.

20. The following viruses are associated with respiratory infections

False Rotaviruses

True Adenoviruses

True Influenza viruses

False HTLV-1

True RSV

Comments Rotaviruses cause diarrhoea. HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukaemia and tropical
spastic paraparesis.

21. The following viruses are thought to cause gastroenteritis

False Enteroviruses

True Adenoviruses

True Norwalk-like viruses

True Astroviruses

True Rotaviruses

Comments Although enteroviruses may be found in faeces, they are not associated with gastroenteritis. The
other viruses are associated with gastroenteritis.

22. The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans

True Influenza A H5N1

False HTLV-1

True Hantaviruses

False Poliomyelitis
True Rabies

Comments Influenza A H5N1 is otherwise known as the "bird flu" It afflicted Hong Kong in late 1997 and was
transmitted from poultry to humans. Hantaviruses is transmitted from rodents to humans and rabies
can be transmitted from various mammals to humans.

23. A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:

False Hepatitis A

True Hepatitis B

True Hepatitis C

True Hepatitis Delta

False Hepatitis E

Comments A chronic carrier state can exist in hepatitis B, C and Delta Virus infections

24. The following viruses are transmitted by blood

False Rubella

True HIV

False Measles

True HBV

True HCV

Comments HIV, HBV and HCV are transmitted by blood. Rubella and measles are transmitted via respiratory
droplets

 25. The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected individuals

False HIV envelope antibody

True HIV-p24 antigen

True CD4 count

False CD8 count

True HIV viral load

Comments HIV envelope antibody remains high throughout the course of HIV infections and thus does not
carry any prognostic value. HIV-p24 antigen had been widely used in the past as a prognostic marker
but it has been superseded by HIV viral load. CD4 count plays an important role in telling us what
stage the disease is at.
  26. The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with
chronic active hepatitis

True HbsAg

False HbsAb

False Anti-HBc IgM

True HBV-DNA

True HbeAg

Comments In patients with chronic active hepatitis, HBV replication is present and hence HBV-DNA and
HbeAg. HbsAg is present. Anti-HbcIgM is normally absent although it may occasionally be
detected during periods of exacerbations.

27. Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS)

True Meningitis may occur together with encephalitis

True Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood

False Electron microscopy of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a useful diagnostic test

False PCR has no role in the diagnosis of CNS infections

True The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker

Comments Meningitis usually occurs together with encephalitis. Enteroviruses are one of the commonest
causes of CNS infections in childhood. Electron microscopy is too insensitive to be useful as a
diagnostic test. PCR assays for HSV are now routinely used for the diagnosis of herpes simplex
encephalitis. The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker

28. Regarding rash illnesses

True Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection may cause a vesicular rash

False The rash caused by parvovirus B19 is due to the presence of virus in the skin

False Measles is usually diagnosed by viral culture

True Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is usually diagnosed by viral culture

False VZV cannot be grown in cell culture

Comments Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection may cause a vesicular rash. The rash caused by
parvovirus B19 is probably an allergic reaction due to the deposition of immune complexes.
 Measles is usually diagnosed by serology. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is usually
diagnosed by viral culture. VZV can be grown in cell culture although this is rarely used for
diagnosis.

29. Rubella infection

True Can be asymptomatic

True May be indistinguishable from parvovirus B19

False Can have serious side effects when occurring in a woman in the third trimester of pregnancy

True Is usually preventable by vaccination

True May be acquired by having close contact with an infant with congenital rubella syndrome

Comments Rubella infection can be asymptomatic. It may be indistinguishable clinically from parvovirus
B19 infection. The most serious effects occur when a pregnant woman is infected in the first
trimester of pregnancy. It is usually preventable by vaccination. Infants with congenital rubella
syndrome pose a great infectious risk since they may excrete virus in great quantities up to 1
year of age.

30. Regarding laboratory tests for rubella

True Rubella immunity may be determined by an enzyme immunoassay

False CFT is commonly used for the diagnosis of acute infection

True IgM antibody is usually detectable after the onset of rash

False Rubella virus cannot be cultured

False Pre-natal diagnosis of rubella in a foetus is simple and reliable

Comments Rubella immunity may be determined by an enzyme immunoassay. CFT is not commonly used
for the diagnosis of rubella infection; Haemagglutination-inhibition tests are. IgM antibody is
usually detectable after the onset of rash Rubella virus can be cultured although this is rarely
used as a method of diagnosis. Pre-natal diagnosis of rubella in a foetus such as amniocentesis
involve some degree of risk to the fetus.

6. The following viruses are associated with human cancers

False HSV-2

True EBV
True HCV

False Adenoviruses

True HHV-8

HSV-2 was associated with genital cancers at one time but this has now been disproved. EBV is
associated with Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and large-cell lymphomas in
immunocompromised individuals. Although adenoviruses may be oncogenic in vitro, there is no
evidence that they are associated with human cancers. HHV-8 is associated with Kaposi's
sarcoma.

 7. The following viruses may cause congenital infection

True HSV-2

True Rubella

True HIV

True HBV

True CMV

All the above viruses may cause congenital infection. Rubella and CMV are usually transmitted
transplacentally in utero, whilst HIV, HBV and HSV-2 are usually transmitted perinatally
during the birth process.

8. The following viruses have reverse transcriptase

True HIV

False Parvovirus

True HBV

False CMV

True HTLV-1

HIV and HTLV-1 are retroviruses. HBV is a DNA virus whose replication depend on a reverse
transcriptase

9. The following viruses replicate in the nucleus

True Herpseviruses

False Poxviruses

False Picornaviruses
True Orthomyxoviruses

False Paramyxoviruses

All DNA viruses, with the exception of poxviruses replicate in the nucleus. All RNA viruses,
with the exception of orthomyxoviruses, replicate in the cytoplasm

 10. The following are viral zoonoses

False Rubella

True Rabies

True Hantaviruses

True Lassa Fever

True Japanese Encephalitis

Zoonoses are infections which are transmitted from a vertebrate animal to humans either
directly, or indirectly through an arthropod vector. Rabies may be transmitted to human from
various mammals. Hantaviruses and Lassa fever from rodents. The reservoir of Japanese
encephalitis is in birds and pigs and it is transmitted to humans via culex mosquitoes

 11. Reassortment of genes may occur with

False HSV-1

False HBV

False HIV

True Influenza A Virus

True Rotaviruses

Reassortment of genes occur in influenza A and rotaviruses. It is thought to be responsible for

large changes in antigenicity

12. The following statements are true of prions

False Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121oC

False Contain
True Have long incubation periods

False Highly immunogenic

False May be readily cultured

Prions required autoclaving at 134 oC in order to be effectively inactivated.They consist

probably solely of protein: no DNA had ever had demonstrated. Prion diseases are characterised
by long incubation periods. Being host-derived, prion proteins are not immunogenic. They may
not be cultured readily.

13. The following are "slow virus" diseases

False Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

True Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

True Subacute Scelerosing Panecephalitis (SSPE)

False Rabies

True Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML)

"Slow virus infections" refer to viral or prion infections of the brain characterised by a long
incubation period which is in terms of years. Human prion diseases, Subacute Scelerosing
Panecephalitis (SSPE), and Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML) are considered
as slow virus infections. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis and rabies are not.

14. HSV-1 infection may result in

True Encephalitis

True Gingivostomatitis

True Genital Herpes

True Corneal Ulcers

False Shingles

HSV-1 infection may result in encephalitis, gingivostomatitis, genital herpes, and corneal ulcers.
Shingles arise from a previous infection by VZV

15. The following viruses are associated with a vesicular rash

False Rubella Virus

False Measles Virus

False Parvovirus
True HSV-1

True VZV

Rubella, measles, and parvoviruses cause a maculopapular rash

16. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

True Primary infection is usually asymptomatic

True An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.

True May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals

True May cause congenital infection

True Reactivate from time to time

All the above

17. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with

True Infectious Mononucleosis

False Kaposi's Sarcoma

True Burkitt's lymphoma

True Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

False Adult T-cell lymphoma

HHV-8 is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma, HTLV-1 is associated with Adult T-cell lymphoma

 18. HHV-8 is associated with

False Fifth disease

False Roseala Infantum

True Kaposi's Sarcoma

False Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

False Oral leukoplakia

Parvovirus is associated with fifth disease, HHV-6 with Roseala Infantum, EBV with
Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma and oral leukoplakia
 19. The following viruses are thought to cause gastroenteritis

False Enteroviruses

True Caliciviruses

True Norwalk-like viruses

True Astroviruses

False Paramyxoviruses

Although enteroviruses may be found in the faeces, they are not associated with gastroenteritis.
Paramyxoviruses are not associated with gastroenteritis

20. The following statements are true

True Human polyoma virus JC is associated with progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML)

False Human polyoma virus JC is associated with warts

False HPV-6 and HPV-11 are associated with genital cancers

True HPV-6 and HPV-11 are associated with Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis

True Patients with Epidermodysplasia verruciformis are susceptible to widespread warts caused by
HPV

Human papillomaviruses (HPV) are associated with warts. HPV-16 and 18 are associated with
genital cancers. Patients with Epidermodysplasia verruciformis are susceptible to widespread
warts caused by a variety of HPV types. These lesions may become cancerous later on in life.

21. The following statements are true

True Influenza A may undergo antigenic shift

False Influenza B may undergo antigenic shift

True Influenza A may undergo antigenic drift

True Influenza B may undergo antigenic drift

False Influenza B may respond to amantidine

Only influenza A is known to undergo antigenic shift. Both influenza A and influenza B may
undergo antigenic drift. Only influenza A respond to amantidine

22. Respiratory Syncytial Virus

False Cause disease mainly in adults

True May cause bronchiolitis

False May be prevented by vaccination

False May be treated by amantidine

False May cause latent infections

RSV mainly causes disease in infants. It is the main cause of bronchiolitis. There is no vaccine
available. It will not respond to amantidine but will respond to ribavirin. It is not known to cause
latent infections,

23. HIV may respond to

True Nucleoside analogues

True Protease inhibitors

False Neuraminidase inhibitors

True Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

True Acyclovir

HIV may respond to reverse transcriptase inhibitors, many of which are nucleoside analogues. It
may also respond to HIV protease inhibitors which are the most potent agents to date.
Neuraminidase inhibitors are used for the treatment of influenza virus infections whilst acyclovir
is used for herpesvirus infections.

24. During the incubation period of HIV infection, there is

False Little HIV replication

False HIV is mainly integrated into the genome of long-lived cell populations

True High turnover of CD4 cells

True The viral load has a direct bearing on the prognosis

False Little antibody against the HIV envelope

During the incubation period, there is a huge amount of viral replication and consequently a high
turnover of CD4 cells. Only a very small proportion of HIV is integrated into the genome of long-
lived cell populations. The viral load has a direct bearing on the prognosis. HIV envelope
antibody remains at a high level throughout the incubation period.

25. Hepatitis A infection

False May result in chronic infection

True May be prevented by immunoglobulin

True May be prevented by vaccination

False Is highly infectious during the jaundice phase

False May result in cirrhosis

HAV infection does not result in chronic infection and therefore cirrhosis. It may be prevented by
the administration of human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG), and active vaccination by an
inactivated vaccine. By the time jaundice appears, there is little viral excretion and thus
infectivity.

 26. Hepatitis B infection

True May result in chronic infection

True May result in cirrhosis of the liver

True May result in hepatocellular carcinoma

True Is highly infectious when positive for HBeAg

True May respond to interferon therapy

HBV infection may result in chronic infection, cirrhosis of the liver and hepatocellular
carcinoma. The presence of HbeAg indicates viral replication and thus infectivity. Chronic
HBV infection may respond to interferon therapy.

27. The following statements are true of hepatitis B core escape mutants

True Associated with fulminant hepatitis

False HbeAg positive

True anti-HbeAg antibody positive

True HBV-DNA positive

False Anti-HbsAg antibody positive

Hepatitis B core escape mutants are associated with acute fulminant hepatitis. They are anti-
HbeAg antibody positive and HBV-DNA positive. HbsAg is present and therefore they
should be no anti-HbsAg antibody.

28. Hepatitis C virus

True May be transmitted by blood

True Is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma

True May respond to interferon therapy

False Has one stable genotype only

False May cause chronic infection

HCV is mainly transmitted by blood. It may cause chronic infection and is associated with
hepatocellular carcinoma. It may respond to interferon therapy. There are a number of HCV
genotypes.

29. The following statements are true

True Dengue virus infection result from bites by Aedes mosquitoes

True Cases of dengue haemorrhagic fever usually result from reinfection by a different serotype of
dengue virus

False Pigs act as the reservoir for dengue virus

False Yellow fever is prevalent throughout Asia

True Yellow fever may be prevented by vaccination

Dengue virus infection result from bites by Aedes mosquitoes. Cases of dengue
haemorrhagic fever usually result from reinfection by a different serotype of dengue virus: an
immunopathological mechanism is thought to be involved. No animal reservoir is involved in
the vast majority of dengue cases: transmission arise from a man-mosquito-man cycle.
Yellow fever is not found in Asia, it is prevalent in some West African and Central and South
American countries. It can be prevented by vaccination with a live attenuated vaccine.

30. Measles virus

True Infection may result in pneumonia

True Infection may result in encephalitis

False Undergo antigenic drift

False May respond to acyclovir

True May be prevented by vaccination

Measles virus infection may result in pneumonia and encephalitis. There is one stable
serotype. Measles will not respond to acyclovir but can be prevented by vaccination.

1.1 Recognition of self molecules by immune system is important for

A. Activation of natural killers involved in innate immunity
B. Binding and identification of consequences of the future cooperation x
C. Induction of TCR and BCR expression on the self molecules
D. Stimulation of binding with
E. Activation of processes leading to kill the cell presenting self molecules
1.2 NK – natural killer identifie the abnormalities on cells by detecting the amount of
A. MHC I molecules x
B. Non self molecules
C. PAMP – pathogen-associated molecular patterns
D. PRR – pattern recognition receptors
E. SGR – somatically generated cell surface receptors

1.3 PRR – pattern recognition receptors – can bind

A. B and T lymphocytes
B. Host-cell molecules
C. MHC I molecules
D. NK cells
E. PAMP x

1.4 SGR (e.g. BCR resp TCR) on B and T lymphocytes are

A. Bound only to MHC I molecules
B. Encoded to recognise PAMP
C. First to be produced after exposition to foreign molecule
D. Of the same specificity in everybody
E. Randomly generated during intrauterine development x

1.5 Immunological memory deals with

A. Activation of phagocyting cells leading to ingestion of mibrobial invaders
B. Changes of adaptive immunity after repeated exposition to the antigen of the same microbe
x
C. Stability of innate immunity reaction to reexposition to the same microbe
D. Recognition of PAMP via PRR
E. Stimulation of defective host cell with reduced amount of MHC molecules to do the apoptosis

1.6 Which of below mentionned structures on microbes are recognised by human immune
system molecules.
A. MHC I molekuly
B. MHC II molekuly
C. PAMP x
D. PRR
E. SGR

2.1 Synthetic molecule that bind the receptors on B cells, but does not stimulise their
production of specific antibodies unless it is conjugated with bigger immunogenic molecules is
A. adjuvans
B. carrier
C. hapten x
D. immunogen
E. tolerogen

2.2 Which of below mentioned molecules induce the strongest specific immune reaction in man
A. 250 000 Da self plasmatic protein
B. 150 000 Da toxin produced by bacterium x
C. 500 Da plasmatic protein from monkey
D. 400 Da molecule from foreign man
E. 200 Da molecule of carbohydrate that is the same in all biological species
2.3 During early stages of lymphocyte development the receptor-epitop binding can results in
inactivation or death of the lymphocyte, or unresponsivness. The epitop is
A. hapten
B. immunogen
C. tolerogen x
D. carrier
E. adjuvans

2.4 Natural killers induce lysis of infected cell, that has the decreased exposition of MHC
I molecules. NK cells do this by activation of receptors:
A. receptors for complement
B. Fc receptors
C. KAR – killer activation receptors x
D. KIR – killer inhibition receptros
E. TCR

2.5 Antibodies mediated accumulation of macrophages in the site of pathogen arises thanks to
A. Receptors for complement
B. Fc receptors x
C. KIR – killer activation receptors
D. PRR – pattern recognition receptors
E. TLR – toll like receptors

2.6 Allergic reaction is induced by

A. adjuvans
B. hapten
C. immunogen x
D. tolerogen
E. no of answer is correct

2.7 Binding of epitop on Fab portion of molecule before its Fc fragment anchors in target
structure is not required for
A. molecule of the carrier
B. conjugate of hapten-carrier
C. hapten
D. IgE x
E. IgG

2.8 Immunocompetent cells – lymphocytes – are stimulated by binding of antigens to the

surface receptors. This activity is influenced by:
A. A single and the only receptor per cell
B. A single type of receptor found on all cells
C. Integration of several signals generated by multiple receptors on single cells
x
D. Multiple receptors that bind soluble ligands only
E. Nonspecific receptors binding a wide spectrum of ligands

3.1 Vaginal candidosis (infection produced by funguses – microbes) after ATB

therapy is caused by:
A. The ammount of secreted lysosyme in vagina
B. The ammount of secreted mucus in vagina
C. Changes in physiological flora x
D. pH in vagina
E. changes of function of epitelial cells

3.2 Repeated pneumoniae – infectious inflamation of lung- caused by

oportunistic pathogens in patient with impaired cilliated epitelium of bronchuses
is conditioned by:
A. decreased IgA antibodies production
B. changes in total antibodies production
C. decrease of pH
D. decrease of nonspecific immune reactions x
E. impairement of specific immune mechanism

3.3 Permanent uretral catheter as one of the cause of cystitis (inflamation of

urine bladder) results in
A. production of conditions favorable for changes of molecules between epitelium and
environment
B. introduction of microorganisms in urethra x
C. secretion of mucus from epithelial cells
D. changes of pH of urine
E. all possibilities are correct

3.4 Which of mentionned possibilities is the example of physiological barrier

inhibiting colonisation by microorganisms
A. respiratory tract with pH - 9,0 – 11,0
B. skin - pH around 8,0
C. stomac - pH 1,0 – 3,0 x
D. upper part of GIT pH - 6,5 – 7,5
E. vagina pH around 7,0

3.5 Which of the mentionned possibilities is the cause of microbicidal activity

in respiratory tract
A. Lysosyme that degrades 1,4 glycosidical binding of bacteria x
B. Saliva that break IgA molecules pn mucous membrane
C. Fatty acids of commensal bacteria degrading the peptidoglycan of pathogens
D. Tears enabling ingestion of microbes by phagocytes
E. Lysosyme degrading DNA and RNA produced by pathogenic microbes.

4.1 Which of mentioned cells are present on the place of infection by worms
A. basofils
B. eosinofils x
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.2 NK cells – natural killers - belong to:

A. basofils
B. eosinofils
C. lymphocytes x
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.3 In microscopic smear of the pus from bacterial infection site there will be mostly present
A. bazofils
B. eozinofils
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils x

4.4 Which of mentionned cells are leading cells in allergic reactions

A. basofils x
B. dendritic cells
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.5 Which of mentionned cells engulf extracellular bacterial antigens and are not antigen
presentig cells
A. basofils
B. dendritic cells
C. eosinofils
D. macrophages
E. neutrofils x

4.6 Red blood cells arise from

A. granulocyte line
B. lymfocyte line
C. monocyte line
D. myeloid line x
E. trombocyte line

4.7 Which of bellow mentionned cells undergo differenciation in thymus

A. basofils
B. eosinofils
C. lymfocytes x
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.8 Predominant form of leucocytes in the blood of patient with longlasting pyogenic bacterial
infection are
A. B lymphocytes
B. Juvenil and inmature neutrofils x
C. Monocytes a macrophages
D. Natural killers
E. T lymphocytes

4.9 Cells of lymphoid line

A. Are most frequent leucocyte population
B. Is formed by T, B, and NK cells x
C. Contain cytoplasmatic granules
D. Differentiat from precursors of myeloid cells
E. Phagocyte rests of foreign cells.
5.1 PAMP – pathogen-associated molecular patterns
A. Enable lymphocytes to recognise microbes and disrupt them
B. Are cystein-rich peptides of leucocytes
C. Are recognised by PRR – receptors of innate immunity x
D. Are proteins on the surface of infected cell
E. Induce secretion of interferons

5.2 Primary immunity to Gram – negative bacterium involves

A. Nonspecific stimulation of complement x
B. Production of specific somatically generated receptors
C. Productin and secretion of specific antibodies
D. Production of specific cytokines by lymphocytes
E. Stimulation of KIR on NK cells

5.3 Nonspecific immune mechanisms do not include

A. chemokines
B. complement
C. defenzines
D. memory cells x
E. Interferon type 1

5.4 Which of below mentionned molecules are expressed on the surfaces of human infected
cells or abnormal cells and are recognised as stress molecules by NK cells
A. Alfa or beta defensines
B. C3 convertase and properdine
C. Cytokines and chemokines
D. Interferon and/or interferon beta
E. MICA and MICB x

5.5 Alternative pathway of complement is activated by

A. Cell surface molecules, that are largely recognised as foreign for host x
B. Mannose containing rests of glycoproteins on some microbes
C. Stimulation of KAR on NK cells
D. Immunocomplexes of antigen and antibodies
E. TLR receptors binding PAMP

6.1 Epitop-specific receptors on T lymfocytes (TCR) are present

A. In cytoplasma and/or on membrane bound proteins
B. In plasma, lympha other body fluids
C. On surface of plasmatic cells
D. As transmembrane polypeptides x
E. In lipid bilayer of nucleus

6.2 Antibody (immunoglobulin)

A. Is synthesised and secreated by B and T cells
B. Binds several different epitop at once
C. Contains 4 different polypeptids of light chains
D. Recognises specific epitopes and self molecules
E. Recognises antigens that lead to destruction of the antigens x

6.3 Constant regions of heavy chains in molecules of immunoglobulin influence

A. Epitope
B. Fab fragment
C. Isotype x
D. Idiotype
E. Antigentic specificity

6.4 The cleavage of the immunoglobulin molecule by pepsin results in production of

A. Separated heavy and light chains
B. Inhibition of antigen binding
C. 2 individual antigen binding fragments
D. In cold crystalising structures
E. Dimer of antigen binding molecules x

6.5 In patient with allergy the cross binding of the allegen molecule with Fab fragment of
immunoglobulin will activate degranulation of mediators:
A. IgA
B. IgE x
C. IgG
D. Histamin
E. Mastocytes

6.6 Classical complement pathway is activated by

A. Activation of C1 x
B. Cleavage and activation of C4, C2 and C3
C. IgA binding to specific epitop
D. Production of Membrane Attack Complex
E. Production of C3 convertase

6.7. The role of classical complement pathway is to:

A. Cleave to immunoglobulin molecules on Fc fragments
B. Lyse microbe x
C. Recognise specific epitops on microbes
D. To start degranulation of histamin
E. Inhibit degranulation of histamin

6.8 MHC II molecules are expressed on

A. All cells with nucleus
B. Antigen presenting cells x
C. on erytrocytes
D. on mastocytes
E. on T cells

6.9 The structure of TCR is formed by

A. heterodimer of ab (gd) bound on membrane of T cell x
B. complex of heavy and light chains
C. molecules CD3 a CD247 on the membrane of T cell
D. complex of MHC with peptid (pMHC)
E. soluble IgM molecule

6.10 Migration of B lymfocyte to a specific place (e.g. lymphatic node) depend on production of
A. antibodies
B. CD8 molecule
C. CD3 molecule
D. complement
E. Selectins x

6.11 Which of mentioned molecules is present on every mature T helper cell

A. CD4 x
B. CD8
C. GlyCAM-1
D. IgA
E. IgG

7.1 TCR – receptor on CD8+T cells - recognises fragments of peptid bound in

A. CD3 molecule
B. CD4 molecule
C. MHC I molecule x
D. MHC II molecule
E. MHC III molecule
7.2 B lymphocytes exprime the molecule of immunoglobulin
A. That is specific for 2 to10 different antigens
B. In phagosome and cytoplasma
C. In membrane complex containing CD3
D. On their surface membrane x
E. Only before leaving bone marrow

7.3 Primary lymfoid organs are those in which

A. Specific immunity is activated
B. Filtration of cell debrits are performed
C. Circulating leucocytes communicate mutually
D. Lymphocytes undergo the basical differenciation x
E. PRRs bind antigens

7.4 Thymus is the place of primary differenciation of

A. B cells
B. T cells x
C. Erytrocytes
D. Heamtopoetic stem cells
E. Neutrofils

7.6 Which of molecules is present on CD4+ T cell

A. BCR
B. CD1d
C. CD3 x
D. CD8
E. CD19

7.7 Positive selection of T cell:

A. Is done in bone marrow
B. Means production of specific TCR
C. Is the migration of stem cells to tymus
D. Is programmed death of autoreactive T cells
E. Recognition of self MHC by double positive thymocytes x
7.8 Which are primary lymfoid organs
A. Bone marrow x
B. Lymphatic node
C. Peyer´s plaques
D. Spleen
E. Tonsils

7.9 White pulpe of spleen is rich on

A. erytrocytes
B. CD4+CD8+T cells – double positive
C. NK cells
D. Plasmatic cells x
E. Precursores of B cells .

8.1 Changes of IgM to IgE is enabled by the process:

A. Immunity maturation
B. Allel exclusion
C. Isotype switch x
D. Junction diversity
E. somatic hypermutation

8.2 Existence of BCR and TCR specific only for one antigen is enabled by:
A. rearrangemet of genes for variable part of immunoglobulin molecule x
B. maturation of immunity
C. exclusion of allels
D. Isotype swich
E. Junction diversity

8.3 Presence of only mother´s or only father´s genes for V chains is enabled by
A. Exclusion of allels x
B. Antibody diversity
C. Isotype switch
D. Junction diversity
E. Random rearrangement of VD and VDJ

8.4 Antibody specificity is produced by

A. Recombination of V, D and J genes x
B. Rearrangemet of VD and J segments for heavy chains
C. Affinity maturation for antigen caused by mutation
D. Recombination of CL with CH1, CH2, CH3 or CH4 domens
E. Transport of VL allel from mother´s on father´s chromosome

8.5 During restimulations of memory B cells the minor mutation in DNA encoding variable part
of light and heavy chains will result in
A. Isotype swich
B. Decrease of antigenic specificity
C. Exclusion of allels
D. Specificity maturation
E. .apoptosis of the cell x
9.1 Which of problems is typical for patients with aplasia of tymus
A. problems of B cells development only
B. inactivation of complement system
C. dysfunction of NK cells
D. dysfunction of cellular immunity
E. dysfunction in T lymphocyte differenciation and B cell mediated immunity x

<h5>9.2 Negative selection of T cells is produced in</h5>

A. periferal blood circulation
B. bone marrowi
C. lymphatic node
D. spleen
E. thymus x

9.5 γδT cell

A. can recognise many different antigens
B. has surface membrane markers characteristic for NK cells
C. changes to memory cells during reexposition to an antigen
D. migrates mostly to respiratory organs, skin and peritoneal cavity x
E. produces slowlier answer to antigen than NK cells do

<h5>9.6 NKT cells </h5>

A. are usually CD8 pocitive
B. bind with pMHC II
C. have TCR x
D. synthesise immunoglobulin
E. present Ig on their surface

9.8 B-1 B cells when compared with B-2 B cells

A. arise later in development
B. are more important for innate immunity mechanisms x
C. have IgD than IgM molecules
D. recognise more antigens
E. require T cell cooperation for activation

<h6>10.1 T cells recognise epitop to which they are exposed for the first time by</h6>
A. randomly generated TCRs x
B. MHC molecule
C. Ig molecule
D. One of many molecule on the surfacei
E. PRR

<h6>10.2 Which of below mentioned bind peptid to MHC II </h6>

A. CD4+ T
B. CD8+ T
C. Dendriticcells x
D. gd T cells
E. neutrofils

10.3 Fragments of intracelular pathogen are presented to T cell

A. by activation of PRR on the cell surface
B. by pinocytosis to gd T cells
C. by molecules of MHC I to CD8+ T cells x
D. by molecules of MHC II to CD8+ T cell
E. by molecules of MHC II to CD4+ T cell

<h6>10.4 Imunological synapsis is </h6>

A. binding of PAMP to PRR
B. Restriction of CD4+ T cells for MHC I molecule
C. Selective anergy of T cells
D. Recognition of free peptides by T cells
E. Contact between APC and T cell x

10.5 CD4+ T respnding to intracellular pathogen by activation and aggregation of phagocyting

cells are
A. APC
B. CTL - cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C. Th0 cells
D. NK cells th1 x
E. Th2 cells

<h6>10.6 Presence of lipopolysaccharid from bacterial cell wall in the tissue stimulates
(nonspecific stimulation)</h6>
A. APC cells to cytokines secretion
B. Release of cytokines to activate leucocytes
C. Stimulation and sectretion of IFN- g that activate leucocytes
D. Th0 cells differentiate to Th1 cells
E. All answere are correct x

10.7 Formation of pMHC I on infected cell

A. Results in BCRs cross binding and signalisation to the nucleus
B. CD4+ T cell secretion of IL-4
C. CD8+ T cell killing of infected cell x
D. Naive Th1 cell secretion of cytokines
E. Th0 cells differentioate to Th2 cell

<h6>10.8 Activation of B cell results in </h6>

A. Presentation of MHC I by dendritic cells
B. Recognition of epitop by surface IgD and IgM
C. Transmission of signal from BCR and CD4+ T cell to the nucleus x
D. Isotypte switch
E. Lysis of antigen by proteasomes

11.1 Production of of visible aggregates to identify blood groupes by binding IgM with apropriate
A or B antigens is:
A. aglutination x
B. complement aktivation
C. neutralisation
D. opsonisation
E. precipitation
11.2 C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for phagocytosis. This
process is
A. agglutination
B. complement activation
C. neutralisation
D. opsonisation x
E. precipitation

11.3 Test (diffusion in agar) that identifies production on not soluble complexes of soluble
antigen with antibody is the example of
A. agglutination
B. complement activation
C. neutralisation
D. opsonisation
E. precipitation x

11.4 Antigen antibody binding that will result in incapability of microbe to bind on target cells is:
A. agglutination
B. complement activation
C. neutralisation x
D. opsonisation
E. precipitation

11.5 Which of mentione izotypes of antbodies activate complemet cascade if bound to antigen
A. IgA and IgD
B. IgA and IgE
C. IgA and IgM
D. IgE and IgG
E. IgG and IgM x

12.1 State of unresponsivness of T lymphocytes that exists after production of immunological

synapsis is
sa nazýva
A. allergy
B. apoptosis
C. anergy x
D. autoimmunity
E. hypersensitivity

12.2 Which of mentioned cells are the source of the 2 nd signal to T cell after immunological
synapsis is produced
A. APC x
B. Anergised T cell
C. CD4+T cells
D. B cells
E. Naive T cells-thymocytes

12.3 Which of mentioned cells need cooperation of pMHC with costimulatory 2nd signals from
APC to be activated.
A. anergised T cells
B. B cells
C. Mastocytes
D. Naïve T cells x
E. Natural killers

13.4 Whicb of mechanisms are/is responsible for repeated infection with influenza virus
A. Neutralisation antibodies are short living
B. Low stimulation of CD4+ T cells to produce memory cells
C. Intracellular localisation disable stimulation of immune system
D. Hypersensitivity type 1 is present only in second exposition
E. Variability of viral antigens x

13.6 Molecule of acute phase of infection synthesised in liver during bacterial and viral infection
is
A. CRP x
B. Chemokin
C. Complement
D. Immunoglobulin
E. Interleukin

13.7 Which of mentioned isotype is consistent with mucous membrane immunity

A. IgA x
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

13.8 Which of characteristic is consistent with mucous membrane immunity

A. Rapid answer against all molecules
B. Chronical inflammation producing unfavourable conditions form microbes
C. IL-2 and IFN-g produce favourable environment for TH1
D. Secretion of IgG is more important than secretion of IgA
E. Tolerance to foreign antigens is more regular than exceptional x

13.9 Even unvaccinated child can be protected against some of vaccination preventable
diseases because of
A. Herd immunity x
B. Genetical predisposition
C. Antigenic shift
D. Imunity escape
E. Tolerance

13.10 Herd effect is not possible

A. if more than 85 % are vaccinated
B. for tetanus and rabies x
C. diphtheria, pertussis, haemophilus meningitis
D. measles, rubeolla, mumps
E. poliomyelitis, variola – small pox
13.11 Which of mentioned type of vaccine will elicit the most protective immunity
A. attenuated live virus vaccine x
B. DNA vakcine
C. Killed virus in vaccine
D. Rekombinant vaccine
E. Subunit vaccine
14.1 Patient with symptoms of sneezing, congestion in nose, respiratory problems becoming
worse when he enters his house that is wet and molds are present on the walls and with skin tests
for hypersensitivity positive has:
A. Contact dermatitis
B. DTH
C. Hypersensitivity type I x
D. Hypersensitivity type II
E. Hypersensitivity type III.

14.2 Patient with history of PNC allergy was given the dose in PNC injection. In minutes the
symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, diffuse exanthema arised. She suffered from:
A. Anaphylactic reaction x
B. Anergy
C. ADCC
D. Ashtma
E. Contact hypersensitivity

14.3 Which of mentione reaction is induced by interaction of host cell membrane with IgM or IgG
antibodies
A. Arthus reaction
B. Serum disease
C. hypersenzitivity I type
D. hypersensitivity II type x
E. hypersensitivity IV type

14.4 A patient with known allergy ate unconsciously the cake with peanuts that resulted in diffus
exanthema, respiratory distress and diffuse lung symptoms This is typical for:
A. hypersensitivity I. Type x
B. arthus reaction
C. serum disease
D. IgG binding on extraceluluar matrix in respiratory tract mucous membrane
E. IgM dependent disease from immunocomplexes

14.5 Contact dermatitis example of

A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD4+T cells
B. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD8+T cells
C. hypersensitivity II type mediated by CD8+T cells
D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by CD4+T cells
E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cells x

14.6 Glomerulonefritis can be caused by:

A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD4+T cells
B. hypersensitivity II type mediated by IgM antibodies
C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by free IgG molecules x
D. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by B cells
E. hypersenzitivitu IV typu mediated by IgG or IgM i
14.7 Patient treated by PNC with symptoms of dyspnoe, hypotnesion, tachycardia, malaise with
positivity of antibodies against PNC present on erytrocytes are typical for:
A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by IgG
B. hypersensitivity II type mediated by IgG x
C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG
D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG and IgM
E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cellsi

15.1 Imunodeficiency caused by genetic or innate impairment is

A. primary x
B. secondary
C. always lethal
D. not detectable
E. all answers are correct

15.2 Secondary immunodeficiency is not consistent with

A. Di Geoerge sy x
B. malnutrition
C. HIV infection
D. Immunosupresive therapy
E. All answers are correct

15.3 Deficiency in lymphoid line is presented by

A. Impairment in specific humoral immunity
B. Impairment in non-specific cellular immunity
C. Impairment in ADCC
D. Impairment in DTH
E. All answers are correct x

15.4 Deficiency in T cell immunity is presented by

A. Mild specific humoral immunity impairment
B. Non-specific cellular immunity impairment
C. Impairement in ADCC
D. DTH impairement
E. All answers are correct|||| x

15.5 Deficiency in B cells line is presented by

A. Problems in specific humoral immunity x
B. Problemsin non-specific cellular immunity x
C. Problems in ADCC x
D. Problems with DTH
E. Several possibilities are correct (if yes which)

15.6 Problems with ingestion and degradation of antigen is the deficit fo

A. phagocyting cells
B. NK cellsk
C. T cells
D. B cells
E. All answers are correct

15.7 Deficiency in complement system will be presented by important impairment of

A. opsonization
B. bacterial lysis
C. inflammation generation
D. non-specific immunity
E. all answers are correct x

16.1 Deficiency to inactivate and eliminate of autoreactive cells is the result of

A. autoimmunity x
B. positive selection
C. negative selection
D. tolerance
E. supression

16.2 Deficiency of immune system to recognise epitop and eliminate it is

A. autoimmunity
B. positive selection
C. negative selection
D. tolerance x
E. supression

16. 3 Inativation and destructon of lymphocytes bearing the BCR or TCR recognising self
molecules results in
A. autoimmunity
B. positive selection
C. negative selection x
D. tolerance
E. supression

16.4 Molecular mimicry is resulting from reaction against self structures produced by
A. cross reacting antibodies x
B. loss of toleranie
C. loss of negative selection
D. loss of anergy of immunologicall priviledged organs
E. loss of central tolerance

16.5 Central tolerance is produced

A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero x
B. v secondary lymphoid organs in utero
C. v primary lymphoid organs after birth x
D. v secondary lymphoid organs after birth
E. by not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after immunological synapsis is
produced

16.6 Periferal tolerance is produced

A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero
B. in primary lymphoid organs after birth
C. by regulatory inhibition of autoreactive cells
D. not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after formation of immunological
synapsis
E. C and D is correctvšetci možnosti sú správne x

16.7 Reumatoid factor is

A. IgM antibody bound on Fc fragment IgG
B. Diagnostical for reumatic feve
C. Both are correct x

16.8 Immunologically privileged organs or tissues are

A. cornea
B. placenta
C. lumen of tubules of testes
D. brain
E. all are correct x

16.9 Autoimmune disease is characterised by

A. production of antibodies against self structures
B. production of specific T cells against self structures x
C. reactions (cellular and humoral immunity) against self structures

17.1 Transplantation success depend on

A. Family relationship
B. Genetical match
C. imunosupresive therapy
D. ABC is correct
E. BC is correct x

17.2 Transplantat from the genetically identical twin is

A. autotransplantat
B. isotransplantat x
C. allotransplantat
D. heterotransplantat
E. idiotransplantat

17.3 Transplantat from parents is

A. Autotransplantat
B. Isotransplantat
C. Allotransplantat x
D. Heterotransplantat
E. idiotransplantat

17.4 Transplantat of skin from of animal given to man is

A. Autotransplantat
B. Isotransplantat
C. Allotransplantat
D. Heterotransplantat x
E. idiotransplantat

17.5 MHC I and II genes are characterised by

A. Codominancy x
B. Heterozygocy x
C. Multiple locusesi x
D. Autosimale dominant transmission
E. Several answers are correct (which)

17.5 Acute reaction to graft is characterised by rejection

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft x
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.6 Chronical reaction to graft is characterised by rejection

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft x
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.7 Accelerated reaction to graft is characterised by rejection

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells x
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.8 Hyperaccute reaction to graft is characterised by

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies x
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.9 Host versus graft reaction is

A. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow
B. Typical for reaction in second transplantation
C. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno
D. Characterised by existence of memory cells
E. All answers are correct x

17.10 Graft versus host reaction is

F. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow x
G. Typical for reaction in second transplantation
H. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno
I. Characterised by existence of preformed antibodies
J. All answers are correct
2. Vaccination against small pox was experimentaly described by
A. Edward Jenner x
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ramzes I
D. Ali Mao Malin
E. Robert Koch

3. Antigen react with antibodies

A. Only in vivo
B. Only in vitro
C. In vivo and in vitro x

4. Antibodies of acute phase of infection are

a. IGD
b. IgM x
c. IgE
d. IgA
e. IgG

5. Significant for infection is

A. decrease in titer
B. increase in titer x
C. change from positivity to negativity and 4 fold increase of titer

6. Detection o acute phase inflamation in serum of patient is to detect

A. Specific cell immunity
B. Špecific humoral immunity
C. Non specific cell immunity
D. Non specific humoral immunity x

7. Activation of complement immediatly after the secopnd exposition to antigen is done

by
A. Alternative path
B. Classical path x
C. MBL path

18. Cells of lymphoid system

i. Produce immunoregulative cytokins
ii. Do not influence other part of immune system
iii. Do not influence specific immunity

19. Bactericidal activity of serum is test of

a. quantitative to detect specific immunity
b. qualitative to detect specific immunity
c. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity
d. qualitative to detect non specific immunity x

20. Serologica reactions are reactions of

F. antigen with antibody to detect specific immunity x
G. antigen with antibody to detect nonspecific immunity
H. antigen with complement to detect nonspecific immunity
I. antigen with complement to detect specific immunity

1. In vaccination against variola – small pox – the attenuated annimal virus was used to prevent
human virus infection (antigenic similarity and cross reacting immunity). Similar principle is used in
vaccination against
A. tuberculosis
B. tetanus
C. measles
D. poliomyelitis
E. pertussis

2. Specific passive immunity naturally acquired is

A. From transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother x
B. After disease
C. After vaccination
D. After aplication of specific immune serum

3. Inactivation of serum is done by heating the fresh serum to 37 °C for 3O´(min.)

A. correct
B. Wrong x

4. The antigen can be bound for better visualisation of aglutination on:

A. Other corpuscular antigen or body
B. erytrocyete
C. latex particules
D. all answers are correct x

5. To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need

A. one sample
B. at least 2 samples x

6. By detecting the concentration of C3, C4 components of complement in serum of patient we

detect:
a. Specific cell immunity
b. Specific humoral immunity
c. Non specific cellular immunity
d. Non specific humoral immunity x

7. Biological properties of complement are:

F. Lysis of cell (formation of MAC)
G. Opsonisation
H. Stimulation of fagocytosis chemotaxis of leucocytes
I. All answers are correct x

1. Substance that resemble toxin, that has its antigenic and immunogenic properties but not
toxic properties is called
A. antitoxin
B. toxoid x
C. toxin
D. antibody
E. hapten

2. Complete antigen:
F. hapten
G. semihapten
H. imunogen x

3. CH50 is a
A. Specific immunity function
B. Nonspecific immunity function x

4. Serotypisation is the method to detect

A. Specific immunity
B. Nonspecific immunity
C. Antibody titer
D. Antigenic structure of microbe x

5. Detection of concentration of lysosyme is samples from patient we use:

A. M. lysodeicticus
B. E. coli
C. Precipitation
D. Agglutination

6. Titer is
A. Dilution of serum x
B. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum
C. For ex. 1:124
D. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive
E. Is to detect precipitation
F. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

7. Antibodies connected with innate (maternally derived) immunity of newborne baby is

A. IgM
B. IgG x
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD

12. Vaccination can produce autoimmune disease., is not needed because the disease against that
they protect are eradicated – no more present of the world. These statements are
A. true – based on immunological and epidemiological studies
B. correct - based on immunological surveys
C. flase and presented by antivaccination activitists
D. are not well studied and that is why they can be tolerated
E. are well studied and should be propagated

13. To detect corpuscular antigen we use mostly:

A. agglutination methods x
B. precipitation methods
C. diffusion method

14. In serotypisation we detect

A. antigenic structure of bacteria with the help of antibodies
x
B. specific immunity with the help of antigens

15. Titer is indicating

A. dilution of antigen
B. dilution of antibodies
C. quanitative value of specific serological reaction
D. qualitative value of specific serological reaction x

16. Mean number of phagocyted elements by 1 PMNL is indicated by:

a. Fagocyting activity
b. Index of fagocytosis x

17. Part of nonspecific cell immunty function is detected by

a. Concentration of lysosyme
b. Bactericidal activity of serum
c. Phagocyting activity x
d. Number of lymphocytes

18. Antigen presenting cells (APC):

a. Are not in lymph nodes
b. Can phagocyte x
c. Do not present antigen to T cells

20.To myeloid line are not involved:

a. Eozinofils
b. NK cells x
c. Macrophages

14. The first vaccination was directed against

A. Rabies
B. measels
C. tetanus
D. small pox x
E. chicken pox

15. CH50 is a
F. detection of hemolytical activity of complement x
G. Specific immunity function qualitative test
H. Nonspecific immunity function qualitative test

16 .Measurement of C3, C4 complementu molecules in seurm of patient detect:

e. Špecific cell immunity
f. Špecific humoral immunity
g. Nonspecific cell immunity
h. Nonspecific humoral immunity x

17 . To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need

A. one sample
B. at least 2 samples x

18. . Bactericidal activity of serum is test:

e. quantitative to detect specific immunity
f. qualitative to detect specific immunity
g. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity
qualitative to detect non specific immunity x

i. Titer is
I. Dilution of serum
J. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum x
K. For ex. 1:124
L. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive
M. Is to detect precipitation
N. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

ii. Antibodies connected with innate intrauterine disease of

newborne baby is
h. IgM x
i. IgG
j. IgE
k. IgA
l. IgD

16. Activation of complement after the 1st exposition to antigen is done

by
A. Alternative way
B Classical way
C MBL way
D All answers are correct
E A and C is correct x

17. To detect soluble molecules – toxin for ex. Which test can be use:
A. agglutination
B. precipitation x
C. diffusion
D. B and C is correct
18. Which of mentioned way is correct to indicate the titer of antigodies:
A. 16O
B. 1: 16O x
C. 1 x16O

19. Serotypisation is to detect:

A. specific humoral immunity
B. specific cellular immunity
C. antigenic structure of microbe x

20, Number of phagocyting PMNL in % indicates:

A. phagocytic activity x
B. Index of phagocytosis

1. On the surface of cytotoxic T cells is

a) IgG
b) CD 4
c) CD 8 x
d) p 24

2. Ddetetion of lysosyme is the test of

a) specific cellular immunity
b) non-specific cellular immunity x
c) specific humoral immunity
d) non-specific humoral immunity
e) bactericidal activity of saliva

2. Discrimination of immunocompetent cells of specific immunity is possible based on

a) Morpfological signs
b) Specific surface molecules
c) Spontaneous production of cytokines
d) Presence of granules

5. Presentation of extraceluluar bacteria to T cells is enabled by molecules on APC

a) MHC I
b) MHC II x
c) IgG
d) TcR

6. Number of polypeptid chains is the biggest in

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgE x
d) IgD

7. MHC II molecule is active in

a) Recognision of antigens
b) Presentation of antigens x
c) Neutralisation of antigens
d) Stimulation of cytotoxic immunity

8. Complement fixation reaction is

a) in vivo reaction to detect activity of complement
b) reaction detectiong concentration of complemnt molecules in serum of patient
c) is serological reaction x
d) is reaction in vitro to detect 50% of hemolytical activity of complement

9. Result 1: 160 of serological reaction

a) is the titer of antibodies
b) is the highest dilution with positive reaction of Ag + Ab x
c) is the lowest dilution with positive Ag+Ab reaction
d) is negative result of serological reaction

11: Molecule of T cell receptore (TCR) is parallel to

a) Fab fragment of IgG x
b) Fc fragment of IgG
c) MHC I
d) MHC II

12. Exotoxín
a) Is immunogenic x
b) Is the synonyme to toxoid
c) Is neutralised by anatoxin
d) Is a part of vaccine against tetanus

15. Imunoglobuline other than monomeric structure is

a) IgG, IgE, IgD
b) IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE
c) IgM, IgA, x
d) IgG, IgE

16. Specific IgM antibodies in serum from the blood taken from umbilical cord is indicating
a) Intrauterine infection of the fetus
b) Transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother
c) Perinatal infection x
d) Postnatal infection